-
Banks which assume higher risk will always earn higher returns.
F
-
Banks operate under the same regulatory structure as any other financial services firms.
F
-
Banks usually pay low explicit interest rates on demand deposit accounts.
F
-
Savings deposits are a larger percent of funding for small banks, compared to large banks.
T
-
Most banks issue negotiable certificates of deposits.
F
-
Fed Funds purchased is an important short-term asset for large banks.
F
-
Eurodollars are dollar denominated deposits owned by foreigners.
F
-
Banks hold a substantial volume of low-risk corporate bonds because of their high yields.
F
-
The prime rate is the lowest loan rate offered by banks.
F
-
With interest rates expected to decrease in the future, banks would prefer to make floating-rate loans rather than fixed rate loans.
F
-
Demand deposits represent the largest deposit source of funds for commercial banks.
F
-
A bank's investment account provides liquidity and income.
T
-
Matched-funding loan pricing is a practical application of term structure.
F
-
Loan pricing must attempt a competitive rate of return on bank shareholder's equity.
T
-
Unlike loan sales, the originating bank continues to earn interest on its securitized loans.
F
-
Fed Funds sold represent an important source of borrowed funds for commercial banks.
F
-
Capital notes are a nondeposit liability of banks.
T
-
A sale of Fed Funds by a bank most likely represents a decrease in its excess reserves.
T
-
"Off-balance-sheet" activities are exempt from regulation.
F
-
A bank holding company might apply for a "financial" holding company status from the Fed if it were planning to purchase a life insurance company.
T
-
Banks need more liquidity than other businesses because of their large proportion of short-term assets.
F
-
Banks have lower capital ratios than industrial firms because bank assets are less risky.
T
-
Liability liquidity management suggests that banks hold Treasuries for liquidity.
F
-
Concentration ratios are utilized in managing the credit risk of an institution.
T
-
Liability management theory assumes certain types of highly rate-sensitive funding sources are always available if the bank pays the market rate or better.
T
-
Monitoring customer credit ratings is a commonly used loan workout technique.
F
-
A key performance ratio used to evaluate a bank's management is the ratio of net income to total average assets, often called ROAA.
T
-
Bank returns on average assets are normally lower than returns to average equity.
T
-
A bank that has increased its ROAA by increasing its risk-taking may find its stock price declining.
T
-
Banks with high capital ratios tend to have more stable returns to average equity (ROAE) than banks with low capital ratios.
T
-
Banks need liquidity for both deposit withdrawals and loan demand.
T
-
Banks face a liquidity/profitability trade-off in financial decisions.
T
-
A bank with a GAP will see its stock price fall if the Fed tightens monetary policy.
F
-
A zero duration gap immunizes a bank against interest rate risk.
T
-
Adequate liability liquidity has replaced the need for asset liquidity.
F
-
A high positive maturity GAP position is less risky than a high negative GAP position.
F
-
A bank with a negative maturity GAP will see a decline in earnings if interest rates fall.
T
-
Interest rate risk can reduce the earnings of the bank, but not its cash flow.
F
-
A bank with a high positive duration GAP will see a decline in value if interest rates rise.
T
-
A bank with a negative duration GAP can "macrohedge" by selling futures.
F
-
IBFs may be established by a U. S chartered depository institution, a U. S. branch or agency of a foreign bank or the U. S. office of an Edge Act Corporation.
T
-
The Edge Act of 1919 permitted U.S. banks to create international banking facilities.
F
-
U.S. bank regulators allow U.S. banks overseas to engage in all banking activities allowed by the host country.
F
-
Representative offices can accept deposits and make loans in the host country.
F
-
Foreign branches of U. S. banks are subject to both the host nation's regulations and the regulations in the U. S.
F
-
International banking facilities (IBFs) operate as subsidiaries of bank holding companies.
F
-
Edge Act corporations can engage in some types of equity investments.
T
-
An international loan syndicate is a risk reduction technique.
T
-
Expropriation and nationalization are two methods of guaranteeing payment of U.S. bank loans to developing countries.
F
-
Until the passage of the International Bank Act of 1978, foreign banks enjoyed substantial operating advantages over domestic banks.
T
-
Pooling risk entails lending by several banks to a foreign borrower.
T
-
Foreign branches of U.S. banks evolved in the 1960s as a reaction to capital flow regulations in the U.S.
T
-
Shell branches pay no local taxes and generally operate in relatively stable political environment.
T
-
U.S. banks have been permitted to engage in a wider range of business activities in foreign countries than at home in order to be competitive with foreign banks.
T
-
Representative offices are usually established to coordinate business between domestic and foreign banks.
F
-
Shell branches are developed for international money market transactions without contact with the public of the host country.
T
-
IBFs collect small domestic deposits and make foreign loans.
F
-
Sovereign loans to LDCs are usually rescheduled rather than foreclosed.
T
-
Pooling and third-party guarantees are two methods of reducing international currency risk.
F
-
Bank failures are now treated as a remote contingency at best.
F
-
Regional and industry recessions were and still are a major cause of bank failures.
T
-
The Comptroller of the Currency is the oldest bank regulatory agency.
T
-
Traditional level-premium deposit insurance encouraged excessive risk-taking.
T
-
Federal deposit insurance has prevented widespread bank panics.
T
-
The FDIC charters many state banks.
F
-
All state banking authorities have the power to charter banks.
T
-
The FDIC generally prefers to just pay off depositors of a failed bank.
F
-
A "too big to fail" policy encourages small banks to take higher risks.
F
-
Private deposit insurance has not proven effective in preventing depositor panic.
T
-
In a clean bank purchase and assumption, the FDIC retains a "put" option to return bad loans to the acquiring bank.
F
-
The American public has determined that the market is an adequate regulator of banks.
F
-
Banks are regulated in part to protect the nation's money supply, much of which is a liability of the banking industry.
T
-
A role of the central bank is to provide liquidity and prevent panic.
T
-
Bailout of large banks by federal regulators is an example of market discipline.
F
-
The Federal Reserve System controls the money supply and is not a bank regulator.
F
-
Regulators have eliminated moral hazard in large bank and thrift firms.
F
-
The Glass Steagall restrictions separating investment and commercial banking were finally repealed in 1999.
T
-
In a purchase and assumption, the acquiring bank assumes all deposits in the failed bank.
T
-
Safety and soundness regulations promote price competition among banks.
F
-
"Mutual" institutions are owned by their depositors.
T
-
S&Ls were originally established to take advantage of a tax loophole.
F
-
Federal Home Loan Banks are among the regulators of savings institutions.
F
-
"Negative maturity GAP" S&Ls may actually profit in a recession.
T
-
Federal Home Loan Banks were disbanded years ago.
F
-
Thrifts assume interest rate risk because maturities of their liabilities and assets are typically unmatched.
T
-
The Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation insures deposits of S&Ls.
F
-
The Office of Thrift Supervision is the principal federal regulator of S&Ls.
T
-
Congress gave thrifts the right to make consumer loans so they could diversify their assets and shorten their asset durations.
T
-
Adjustable rate mortgages insulate thrifts against risk.
F
-
Mortgages remain the most important asset of savings institutions.
T
-
Securitization has not "caught on" in the thrift industry.
F
-
Noninterest income has become an important source of revenue for thrifts.
T
-
Noninterest expenses of thrifts have declined significantly.
F
-
Thrifts assume less interest rate risk and manage it better than they did 25 years ago.
T
-
Credit unions were originally organized with the idea that members could pool their funds together and make low-cost loans to themselves as a group.
T
-
Credit risk may be reduced by selling credit life insurance to credit union members.
F
-
Liquidity risk is reduced by deposit insurance and the presence of credit union "centrals".
T
-
Credit unions have shortened the duration of their loan portfolios by making mortgage loans.
F
-
Credit unions have higher loan losses than commercial banks.
F
-
Credit unions are exempt from federal income tax on income from financial assets.
T
-
A finance company in a recession would worry more about credit risk than interest rate risk.
T
-
Consumer lending is subject to more regulations than business lending.
T
-
Consumer protection legislation has had an impact on the strategy of finance companies.
T
-
The fixed cost of loan origination and servicing explains why finance companies prefer small shorter-term loans over large longer-term loans.
F
-
Finance companies borrow in large amounts, lend in small amounts.
T
-
Most business credit extended by finance companies is unsecured.
F
-
The major expenses of a finance company are salaries and loan losses.
F
-
Deregulation has made all lending institutions more alike than different.
F
-
The thrift crisis of the 1980s was caused by a combination of unsound lending practices and inadequate interest rate risk management.
T
-
The U.S. Central Credit Union is a principal regulator of credit unions.
F
-
Industrial banks may arguably be likened to finance companies that issue savings deposits.
T
-
Life insurance companies provide protection against death.
F
-
Life insurance companies are the oldest financial intermediary in the United States.
T
-
The assets of life insurance companies are not as marketable as those of casualty/property insurance companies because life companies have greater certainty of claims.
T
-
An annuity provides both insurance against premature death and savings features.
F
-
Property/liability insurance companies pay little federal income tax, thus explaining their large portfolio of state and municipal, tax-exempt securities.
F
-
Social Security is a fully funded pension program.
F
-
Health insurance includes protection against the risk of large, unexpected medical expenses and/or the loss of income from illness or disability.
T
-
Objective risk is the deviation of actual from expected.
T
-
Universal life became popular in the inflationary, high interest periods of the 1980s because interest rates on universal life policies vary with market rates.
T
-
Pension funds, which count on current contributions to make payments to retirees, are under funded.
T
-
The nature of the assets of life insurance companies influence the type of liabilities they may issue.
F
-
The sale of term life insurance was an important factor explaining the growth and large size of life insurance companies.
F
-
Pure risk and objective risk are both assumed by life insurance companies.
T
-
Insurance premiums are directly related to expected dollar losses.
T
-
The liability of Lloyds of London members on assumed risks are unlimited.
T
-
Though stock companies dominated the number of life insurance companies, mutuals are dominant in terms of assets and insurance in force.
T
-
A deductible is a form of loss-sharing.
T
-
Term life policies provide maximum life insurance dollar protection for consumers for a given amount of premium.
T
-
Life insurance and pension reserves are liquid asset balances held by life insurance companies to pay losses and pension benefits.
F
-
Investment income tends to offset premium income, thus reducing premiums for the insured.
F
-
Business interruption is an example of an indirect loss.
T
-
Any risk is insurable for a high enough premium.
F
-
Property/casualty insurers have a tax incentive to hold preferred stock.
T
-
Municipal bonds are a logical investment for qualified pension plans.
F
-
Liability risk is much easier to gauge than property risk.
F
-
The law of large numbers practically guarantees that an insurer will be profitable if it has enough policy holders.
F
-
"Fully contributory plans" are funded with employee contributions only.
T
-
All insurers must deal with the problem of adverse selection.
T
-
"Superannuation" is an unwelcome development to the underwriter of a life annuty.
T
-
Insurance is almost entirely regulated by state, not federal law.
T
-
Investment banking operations occur in the direct financial market.
T
-
The Glass-Steagall Act of 1933 has eliminated banks from any underwriting activities.
F
-
Commercial banks may underwrite low-risk securities in the direct financial markets.
T
-
A security underwriting takes place in the primary market, subsequent trading in the security takes place in the secondary market.
T
-
A dealer earns a commission for bringing buyers and sellers together.
F
-
An underwriter's selling group assumes underwriter risk.
F
-
Discount brokers offer investment advice at prices below full-service security brokerage houses.
F
-
Venture capital financing usually entails some managerial involvement and equity ownership.
T
-
The Banking Act of 1933, known as the Glass-Steagall Act, has effectively kept commercial banks out of the commercial lending area.
F
-
Investment banking firms provide both financing and investment services for borrowers and lenders, respectively.
T
-
The 40% margin rule requires the buyer/seller of a security to provide at least 60% of the funds necessary to cover the transaction, borrowing 40%.
F
-
Venture capital firms compete with commercial banks for new business loans.
F
-
Discount brokers offer investment advice at prices below full service security brokerage houses.
F
-
Security brokers and dealers obtain most of their funds from customers and banks.
T
-
Venture capital recipients are often called angels.
F
-
Seed financing is the first stage of venture capital financing.
T
-
Under the Glass-Steagall Act commercial banks were permitted to underwrite and trade Federal government securities and general obligation bonds of states and municipalities.
T
-
Before the Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999, the Supreme Court (1988) of the U.S. provided commercial banks permission to underwrite commercial paper and municipal revenue bonds, but not equities.
T
-
SEC Rule 144A permitted borrowers in private placements the opportunity to trade their obligations.
F
-
A best efforts sale of securities is likely to generate more revenue for the investment banker than an equivalent underwriting of securities.
F
-
Mezzanine or bridge financing is the interim financing before public offerings of securities.
T
-
In an underwritten offer, the risk of selling the issue at a price higher than that promised to the issuer is borne by the investment bank.
T
-
In an underwritten offering, the investment bank is compensated based on the number of securities sold.
F
-
Universal banks are financial institutions that are allowed to do only commercial banking activities.
F
-
The Banking Act of 1933, known as the Glass-Steagall Act, has effectively kept commercial banks out of the commercial lending area.
F
-
Balanced funds generate higher proportion of income than growth and income funds and are less volatile.
T
-
Market arbitrage by hedge funds is the simultaneous buying and selling of a security or derivative of the security to exploit market pricing differentials.
T
-
When purchasing load mutual fund, the NAV includes the load charge for purchasing the mutual funds.
F
-
Money market mutual funds invest in commercial paper, large bank CDs, and short-term government securities.
T
-
Unit investment trusts have a high security turnover rate, increasing their costs over equivalent mutual funds.
F
-
Income funds are made up of a portfolio of mortgage-backed securities only.
F
-
Mutual funds offer diversification and professional investment management for the fees charged.
T
-
Closed-end investment companies stand ready to redeem their shares at their present asset value.
F
-
Money market mutual funds invest in commercial paper, large bank CDs, and short-term government securities.
T
-
Money market mutual funds are not subject to reserve requirements.
T
-
When purchasing load mutual fund, the NAV includes the load charge for purchasing the mutual funds.
F
-
Closed-end investment companies provide shareholders with maturity intermediation.
F
-
An underwriting of General Motor's common stock is an IPO.
F
-
Security brokers and dealers obtain most of their funds from customers and banks.
T
-
No-load mutual funds are commonly sold by security brokers and dealers.
F
-
Load mutual fund shares may be sold back to the fund.
T
-
Closed-end investment companies= securities often sell at a discount of their NAV.
T
-
If interest rates are expected to fall very soon, the bond mutual fund manager is likely to have a high cash position.
T
-
Unit investment trusts have a high security turnover rate, increasing their costs over equivalent mutual funds.
F
-
The major investment of mutual funds is common stock.
T
-
Hedge funds are typically organized as limited partnerships with the fund manager as the general partner.
T
-
Hedge funds have been popular diversification investments for high wealth investors.
T
-
Arbitrage activities of hedge funds tend to increase capital market efficiency.
T
-
Short-selling activities of hedge fund look for high growth companies.
F
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