-
The adult skeleton consists of how many bones?
206
-
Which is part of the appendicular skeleton?
A Coxal bones
B Parietal bones
C Radius
D Clavicle
Parietal bones
-
The term sinus, as it relates to bone markings may be
defined as a:
Cavity within a bone
-
Mastoiditis is the inflammation of a sinus within which
bones?
Temporal
-
A fontanel can be best described as an
Unossified area in the infant’s skull
-
The skeletal framework in the neck consists of:
Cervical vertebrae
-
The number of thoracic vertebrae:
12
-
Metacarpal bones form the framework of the:
Hand
-
A hunchback appearance of the thoracic region is probably caused by:
Kyphosis
-
First 7 pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum
True ribs
-
11th and 12th ribs, which have no
attachment to the sternum:
Floating ribs
-
Middle part of the sternum
Body
-
Most superior part of the sternum:
Manubrium
-
The blunt, cartilaginous lower tip of sternum:
Xiphoid process
-
The 5 pairs of ribs that do not attach directly to the
sternum:
False ribs
-
The material that attaches the rib directly or indirectly to the sternum
Costal cartilage
-
What type of cartilage do Syndesmotic joints have at
articular surfaces?
Fibrous cartilage (not hyaline)
-
What type of joint between the ribs/sternum allow for
expansion of chest cavity during breathing?
Synchondrotic joints
-
What joint are biaxial joints in which one bone fits into
the depression on another bone?
Condyloid (ellipsoidal) joints
-
As a group, gliding joints are the least movable of the
synovial joints:
True
-
What is the most movable joint in the body?
Synovial joints
-
Menisci are:
Fibrocartilage pads
-
Moving the body part away from the medial plane of the body is called:
Abduction
-
Type of movement that increases the angle between body parts is:
Extension
-
Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and front leg is called:
Dorsiflexion
-
Deterioration of the nucleus pulposus results in:
A “slipped disk”
-
Thin layer of cartilage covering the articulating surfaces
of the bones:
Articular cartilage
-
Closed pillow-like structures formed from synovial membrane:
Bursae
-
Small space between two articulating bones:
Joint cavity
-
Secretes a lubricating fluid into the joint capsule:
Synovial membrane
-
Pads of fibrocartilage between articulating bones:
Menisci
-
Strong cords of dense white connective tissue that help
stabilize a joint:
Ligaments
-
Sleeve-like extension of the periosteum of each of the
articulating bones in a joint:
Joint capsule
-
The covering of the fascicles is called the:
Perimysium
-
Muscles that contract against the prime mover are called:
Antagonists
-
Muscles may be named according to: (3)
- Function
- Direction of fibers
- Points of attachment
-
When an athlete injures the Achilles Tendon, the injury ison the:
Posterior lower leg
-
A fixator muscle can be seen as another type of antagonist muscle (T/F):
False
-
The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of a muscle named by the number of heads (T/F):
False (origin)
-
Skeletal muscle constitutes aprox. ??? of our body weight?
50%
-
An aponeurosis could be described as a:
Flat sheet of connective tissue connecting muscle to other structures.
-
A muscle that assists with eye lid closure is the:
Orbicularis occuli
-
The respiratory, digestive, circulatory, excretory, and
endocrine systems all contribute to the ability of muscles to maintain posture (T/F):
True
-
Adductor magnus (location)
Thigh
-
Pronator teres (location)
Forearm
-
Muscle that draws the eyebrows together, producing vertical wrinkles (frowning):
Corrugator supercilii
-
Muscle that causes sideways movement during mastication:
Pterygoid
-
Muscle that creates smile expression:
Buccinator
-
Muscle that raises the eyebrows (surprise):
Epicranius
-
Muscle that flexes the head (prayer muscle)
Sternocleidomastoid
-
Muscle that closes the eyes
Orbicularis occuli
-
A triad consists of a T-tubule sandwiched between sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (T/F):
True
-
The chief function of the T-tubules is to:
Allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell
-
When the sarcomere contracts, the I-bands become smaller (T/F):
True
-
Actin, troponin, and tropomyosin are present on the thick myofilament (T/F):
False
-
The difference between red and white fibers is the amount of glycogen (T/F):
False
-
Bundles of fine fibers that extend lengthwise along muscle fibers are called:
Myofibrils
-
Thick myofilaments extend the length of the:
A-Bands
-
The neurotransmitter secreted at the motor end plates of skeletal muscles are:
Acetylcholine
-
The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is:
The sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into sacs
-
What is not a true characteristic of an isometric
contraction?
Movement is produced
-
Protein that has active sites for cross-bridge heads:
Actin
-
By energizing these structures, chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy:
Cross-bridges
-
The stimulus to contract the muscle is carried inside the
muscle by this structure:
T tubules
-
Protein that directly prevents the formation of
cross-bridges in the sarcomere:
Tropomyosin
-
Chemical released by the motor neuron that initiates the stimulus for a muscle contraction
Acetylcholine
-
Muscle contraction compound that supplies the energy:
ATP
-
Ion that is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum:
Calcium
-
Protein that has cross-bridge heads that pull on thin fiber:
Myosin
-
Protein that has receptor sites for an ion that causes it to change shape and pull another protein away from the receptor sites on the actin:
Troponin
-
The afferent nervous system consists of all outgoing motor pathways (T/F):
False (efferent NS)
-
Ependymal cells engulf and destroy microbes and cellular debris in inflamed or degenerating brain tissue (T/F):
False (Microglia)
-
The part of the nervous system that transmits impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscle is the:
Somatic nervous system
-
The myelin sheath is formed by the:
Schwann cells
-
Grey matter in the brain and spinal cord consists primarily of:
Cell bodies
-
During a relative refractory period the action potential
can/can’t be initated by a stron stimulus:
Can’t
-
A synaptic knob would be located on an:
Axon
-
When an impulse reaches a synapse, ??? are released
Chemical transmitters
-
PNS subdivision that transmits incoming information from the sensory organs to CNS:
Afferent division
-
Consists of the brain and spinal cord:
CNS
-
Consists of nerves that lie in the periphery of the nervous system:
PNS
-
Produces the “fight or flight” response:
Sympathetic division
-
Subdivision that carries information from the CNS to
skeletal muscle:
Somatic nervous system
-
Subdivision of the efferent division that transmits
information to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands:
Autonomic nervous system
-
Consists of all outgoing motor pathways:
Efferent division
-
Sometimes called the “rest-and-repair” division:
Parasympathetic nervous system
-
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates in the subarachnoid space of the meninges (T/F):
True
-
Peripheral motor neuron cell bodies are located in the
dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves (T/F):
False
-
The four large, fluid-filled spaces within the brain are
called ventricles (T/F):
True
-
The layer of meninges that serves as the inner periosteum of the cranial bone is the:
Dura mater
-
The innermost layer of the meninges is the:
Pia mater
-
Cerebrospinal fluid is found in all of the following except the:
Subdural space
-
If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose:
Willed movement related to that pathway
-
The brainstem does not include the:
Cerebellum
-
The cerebellum does not:
Control cardiac function
-
Responsible for one’s ability to experience emotions:
Limbic system
-
Cerebellum performs which funtions:
- Coordinates control of muscle action
- Helps control posture
- Controls skeletal muscles to maintain balance
-
Cranial nerve #1 responsible for:
Olfactory (smells)
-
Cranial nerve #2 responsible for:
Optic
-
Cranial nerve #3,4,6 responsible for:
Eye movement
-
Cranial nerve #5 responsible for:
Trigeminal (sense face, sinuses, teeth), & masticator nerve
-
Cranial nerve #7 responsible for:
Facial muscles, & glossopalatine (soft palate, sub-ling)
-
Cranial nerve #8 responsible for:
Hearing
-
Cranial nerve #9 responsible for:
Glossopharyngeal (gag reflex)
-
Cranial nerve #10 responsible for:
Vagus
-
Cranial nerve #11 responsible for:
Accessory (sternomastoid, trapezius)
-
Cranial nerve #12 responsible for:
Hypoglossal (tongue muscles)
|
|