AP 1 Final

  1. The adult skeleton consists of how many bones?
  2. Which is part of the appendicular skeleton?
    A Coxal bones
    B Parietal bones
    C Radius
    D Clavicle
    Parietal bones
  3. The term sinus, as it relates to bone markings may be
    defined as a:
    Cavity within a bone
  4. Mastoiditis is the inflammation of a sinus within which
  5. A fontanel can be best described as an
    Unossified area in the infant’s skull
  6. The skeletal framework in the neck consists of:
    Cervical vertebrae
  7. The number of thoracic vertebrae:
  8. Metacarpal bones form the framework of the:
  9. A hunchback appearance of the thoracic region is probably caused by:
  10. First 7 pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum
    True ribs
  11. 11th and 12th ribs, which have no
    attachment to the sternum:
    Floating ribs
  12. Middle part of the sternum
  13. Most superior part of the sternum:
  14. The blunt, cartilaginous lower tip of sternum:
    Xiphoid process
  15. The 5 pairs of ribs that do not attach directly to the
    False ribs
  16. The material that attaches the rib directly or indirectly to the sternum
    Costal cartilage
  17. What type of cartilage do Syndesmotic joints have at
    articular surfaces?
    Fibrous cartilage (not hyaline)
  18. What type of joint between the ribs/sternum allow for
    expansion of chest cavity during breathing?
    Synchondrotic joints
  19. What joint are biaxial joints in which one bone fits into
    the depression on another bone?
    Condyloid (ellipsoidal) joints
  20. As a group, gliding joints are the least movable of the
    synovial joints:
  21. What is the most movable joint in the body?
    Synovial joints
  22. Menisci are:
    Fibrocartilage pads
  23. Moving the body part away from the medial plane of the body is called:
  24. Type of movement that increases the angle between body parts is:
  25. Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and front leg is called:
  26. Deterioration of the nucleus pulposus results in:
    A “slipped disk”
  27. Thin layer of cartilage covering the articulating surfaces
    of the bones:
    Articular cartilage
  28. Closed pillow-like structures formed from synovial membrane:
  29. Small space between two articulating bones:
    Joint cavity
  30. Secretes a lubricating fluid into the joint capsule:
    Synovial membrane
  31. Pads of fibrocartilage between articulating bones:
  32. Strong cords of dense white connective tissue that help
    stabilize a joint:
  33. Sleeve-like extension of the periosteum of each of the
    articulating bones in a joint:
    Joint capsule
  34. The covering of the fascicles is called the:
  35. Muscles that contract against the prime mover are called:
  36. Muscles may be named according to: (3)
    • Function
    • Direction of fibers
    • Points of attachment
  37. When an athlete injures the Achilles Tendon, the injury ison the:
    Posterior lower leg
  38. A fixator muscle can be seen as another type of antagonist muscle (T/F):
  39. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of a muscle named by the number of heads (T/F):
    False (origin)
  40. Skeletal muscle constitutes aprox. ??? of our body weight?
  41. An aponeurosis could be described as a:
    Flat sheet of connective tissue connecting muscle to other structures.
  42. A muscle that assists with eye lid closure is the:
    Orbicularis occuli
  43. The respiratory, digestive, circulatory, excretory, and
    endocrine systems all contribute to the ability of muscles to maintain posture (T/F):
  44. Adductor magnus (location)
  45. Pronator teres (location)
  46. Muscle that draws the eyebrows together, producing vertical wrinkles (frowning):
    Corrugator supercilii
  47. Muscle that causes sideways movement during mastication:
  48. Muscle that creates smile expression:
  49. Muscle that raises the eyebrows (surprise):
  50. Muscle that flexes the head (prayer muscle)
  51. Muscle that closes the eyes
    Orbicularis occuli
  52. A triad consists of a T-tubule sandwiched between sacs of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (T/F):
  53. The chief function of the T-tubules is to:
    Allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell
  54. When the sarcomere contracts, the I-bands become smaller (T/F):
  55. Actin, troponin, and tropomyosin are present on the thick myofilament (T/F):
  56. The difference between red and white fibers is the amount of glycogen (T/F):
  57. Bundles of fine fibers that extend lengthwise along muscle fibers are called:
  58. Thick myofilaments extend the length of the:
  59. The neurotransmitter secreted at the motor end plates of skeletal muscles are:
  60. The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is:
    The sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into sacs
  61. What is not a true characteristic of an isometric
    Movement is produced
  62. Protein that has active sites for cross-bridge heads:
  63. By energizing these structures, chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy:
  64. The stimulus to contract the muscle is carried inside the
    muscle by this structure:
    T tubules
  65. Protein that directly prevents the formation of
    cross-bridges in the sarcomere:
  66. Chemical released by the motor neuron that initiates the stimulus for a muscle contraction
  67. Muscle contraction compound that supplies the energy:
  68. Ion that is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum:
  69. Protein that has cross-bridge heads that pull on thin fiber:
  70. Protein that has receptor sites for an ion that causes it to change shape and pull another protein away from the receptor sites on the actin:
  71. The afferent nervous system consists of all outgoing motor pathways (T/F):
    False (efferent NS)
  72. Ependymal cells engulf and destroy microbes and cellular debris in inflamed or degenerating brain tissue (T/F):
    False (Microglia)
  73. The part of the nervous system that transmits impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscle is the:
    Somatic nervous system
  74. The myelin sheath is formed by the:
    Schwann cells
  75. Grey matter in the brain and spinal cord consists primarily of:
    Cell bodies
  76. During a relative refractory period the action potential
    can/can’t be initated by a stron stimulus:
  77. A synaptic knob would be located on an:
  78. When an impulse reaches a synapse, ??? are released
    Chemical transmitters
  79. PNS subdivision that transmits incoming information from the sensory organs to CNS:
    Afferent division
  80. Consists of the brain and spinal cord:
  81. Consists of nerves that lie in the periphery of the nervous system:
  82. Produces the “fight or flight” response:
    Sympathetic division
  83. Subdivision that carries information from the CNS to
    skeletal muscle:
    Somatic nervous system
  84. Subdivision of the efferent division that transmits
    information to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands:
    Autonomic nervous system
  85. Consists of all outgoing motor pathways:
    Efferent division
  86. Sometimes called the “rest-and-repair” division:
    Parasympathetic nervous system
  87. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates in the subarachnoid space of the meninges (T/F):
  88. Peripheral motor neuron cell bodies are located in the
    dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves (T/F):
  89. The four large, fluid-filled spaces within the brain are
    called ventricles (T/F):
  90. The layer of meninges that serves as the inner periosteum of the cranial bone is the:
    Dura mater
  91. The innermost layer of the meninges is the:
    Pia mater
  92. Cerebrospinal fluid is found in all of the following except the:
    Subdural space
  93. If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose:
    Willed movement related to that pathway
  94. The brainstem does not include the:
  95. The cerebellum does not:
    Control cardiac function
  96. Responsible for one’s ability to experience emotions:
    Limbic system
  97. Cerebellum performs which funtions:
    • Coordinates control of muscle action
    • Helps control posture
    • Controls skeletal muscles to maintain balance
  98. Cranial nerve #1 responsible for:
    Olfactory (smells)
  99. Cranial nerve #2 responsible for:
  100. Cranial nerve #3,4,6 responsible for:
    Eye movement
  101. Cranial nerve #5 responsible for:
    Trigeminal (sense face, sinuses, teeth), & masticator nerve
  102. Cranial nerve #7 responsible for:
    Facial muscles, & glossopalatine (soft palate, sub-ling)
  103. Cranial nerve #8 responsible for:
  104. Cranial nerve #9 responsible for:
    Glossopharyngeal (gag reflex)
  105. Cranial nerve #10 responsible for:
  106. Cranial nerve #11 responsible for:
    Accessory (sternomastoid, trapezius)
  107. Cranial nerve #12 responsible for:
    Hypoglossal (tongue muscles)
Card Set
AP 1 Final
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