CMA Study Guide

  1. What would be considered a capital purchase?
  2. Which of the following is MOST appropriate to include in a patient brochure?
    • fee range for consultations
    • office manager's name
    • record retention policy
    • telephone triage policy
  3. Which of the following is a statement that tells the financial position of the business on a given date?
    • age analysis
    • cash flow
    • cost analysis
    • income statement
  4. A credit balance on a patient account occurs when:
    the patient has paid in advance
  5. Which of the following is the record that includes the debit and credit transactions of all financial accounts?
    • blance sheet
    • checkbook
    • disbursement record
    • invoice
  6. The purpose of petty cash is to:
    pay for incidentals
  7. Which of the following is a two-digit code used in conjunction with the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code to indicate additional or unusual circumstances?
  8. ICD-CM coding is used for which of the following terms?
    • catherization
    • esophageal dilation
    • marsupialization
    • phlebotomy
    • *all others are procedures (CPT)
  9. ICD-CM, Internation Classification of Diseases, Clinical Modifications, coding applies to which of the following terms?
    • adrenalectomy
    • appendectomy
    • incision and drainage
    • protocscopy
    • * all others are procedures (CPT)
  10. The allowable fee may be reduced if what occurs?
    an error in coding
  11. What is the maximum percentage of allowable charges for physician medical services that Medicare will pay?
  12. Reimbursement from Medicare Part B is based on:
    80% of the allowable amount minus any deductible
  13. A patient is covered under Medicare Part B. She has paid her yearly deductible. At this time the physician performs a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for which he charges $400 and agrees to accept Medicare assignment. Medicare allows $350 and pays $280. How much does the patient have to pay?

    • *$350 allowed x .80 = $280
    • *$350 - $280 = $70 (pt pays 20%)
  14. The total of all patients' outstanding blances owed to the practice is the:
    accounts receivable
  15. Receipts for capital equipment should be kept until the:
    item is fully depreciated
  16. When managing the practice finances, the purppose of an age analysis is to determine the:
    status of each account over a given period
  17. The method for determining which patient accounts require follow-up for collection procedure is:
    aging accounts
  18. What is the primary advantage of accepting credit cards as payment for service?
    lost income from bad debts is reduced
  19. After an account has been turned over to a collection agency for payment, the physician's office should:
    make no further attempts at collection
  20. A call to a patient about a delinquent account after 9 pm is a violation of the:
    Fair Debt Collections Practices Act
  21. Payments for utility bills and building expenses are posted to the:
    general ledger
  22. A check written by the bank on its own account payable tot he party specified
    Cashiers check
  23. A check guaranteed by the bank on which it is drawn
    Certified check
  24. When a patient's check is returned for nonsufficient funds, the MA must:
    deduct the amount from the checking account balance
  25. And endorsement containing a signature and the statement "for deposit only" is known as:
  26. Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA) taxes are subject to change by:
    the U.S. Congress
  27. The purpose of the Federal Insurance Contribution Act (FICA) is to:
    finance the Social Security system
  28. Federal unemployment tax is paid by the:
    employer 100%
  29. Which of the following references is most useful for determining the amount of federal income tax that should be withheld from an employee's gross salary?
    Internal Revenue Service Circular E
  30. Federal Insurance Contribution Act (FICA) taxes withheld from empolyees must be deposited:
    in an authorized financial institution by the employer
  31. A quarterly tax report must be filed on which of the following tax forms?
  32. What document must be given to each employee by January 31 of each year?
    Wage and Tax Statement
  33. A mode of transmission of rtuberulosis is:
  34. Medical aseptic handwashing includes which of the following steps:
    Soaping and scurbbing all fingers in a circular motion
  35. The most important step in acheiving asepsis is:
    washing hands
  36. After excision of a cyst, the medical assistant is preparing the surgical instruments to be sanitized. What is the most appropriate first step?
    Rinsing off blood and body secretions
  37. Surgical asepsis is required in which of the following procedures?
    • Cast application
    • Ear irrigation
    • Electrocardiography
    • Pap smear
  38. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of sterilization of forceps?
    Steam under pressure
  39. When pouring a sterile solution into a container, the medical assistant should:
    pour from a height of approximately six inches
  40. The method that completely destroys microorganisms is:
  41. Surgical asepsis is maintained when performing which of the following procedures?
    • dipstick urinalysis
    • examination of feces for occult blood
    • pelvic examination
    • visual acuity test
  42. During a surgical procedure, the medical assistant inadvertently touches a nonsterile object while wearing a sterile glove. What is the most appropriate next step?
    Remove the gloves and apply new sterile gloves
  43. While preparing a blood specimen for laboratory analysis, the container tips over and blood spills on the laboratory table. What is the most appropriate management of the spill?
    Cover the spill with paper towels, pour 10% bleach solution ont he towels, wait 15 minutes, wipe up the spill wearing gloves, and discard the paper towels in a biohazard container
  44. According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, under which of the following circumstances is recapping of contaminated needles allowed?
    When no alternative is possible
  45. What is the recommended method for disposal of needles in a puncture-proof container?
    keeping the needle intanct
  46. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) does NOT recommend standard precautions for which of the following body fluids if the fluid does not contain visible blood?
  47. What is the most appropriate procedure for preparing blood and other potentially infectious materials for transport?
    placing the materials in a leak proof container during collection
  48. What is the primary reason for moving the application head during therapeutic ultrasound?
    to prevent hot spots
  49. What is an appropriate step in maintenance of an autoclave?
    using distilled water in the reservoir
  50. If the baseline of an electrocardiogram is off center, the medical assistant should?
    adjust the stylus position
  51. In autoclaving, the timer should be set when:
    the temperature reaches the desired level
  52. When the eyepiece of a binocular microscope have the magnifying power of 5X and the objective 10X, the total magnification is:
  53. What is the most appropriate guideline when restocking supplies?
    properly dispose of expired items
  54. The physician uses 2 oz of liquid nitrogen per day. The storage tank holds 128 oz of liquid nitrogen. The supplier takes two weeks to replenish the supply. Liquid nitrogen should be ordered every:
    50 days

    • 2 x 5 days 128 / 10 = 12.8 oz per wk
    • 12.8 oz per wk x 4 = 51.2
    • 128 oz / 51.2 = 2.5 months
    • (@ 20 days/mo.)
    • 2.5 x 20 = 50 days
  55. What is the pulse point that is palpated on either side of the trachea?
  56. The artery used when measuring blood pressure in the leg is:
  57. When measuring blood pressure, the systolic pressure is recorded during phase:
    I (one)
  58. The physician asks the MA to position a patient on the examination table so that the patient can breathe more easily. The most appropriate position is:
  59. The color of the stopper of the vacuum tube used for obtaining serum is:
  60. In adults, the site most commonly used for venipuncture is the:
    veins in the antecubital space
  61. What is the most appropriate method to obtain a blood specimen using finger puncture?
    wipe away the first drop of blood and collect the second
  62. What procedure facilitates capillary blood flow from a puncture site?
    Gently rubbing the finger along the sides
  63. What is a nonsterile procedure usually used prior to performing a urine culture and antibiotic susceptibility test?
    Collection of a midstream, clean-catch specimen
  64. Throat cultures are collected by swabbing the back of the throat and the:
  65. What is the most appropriate step for processing a serum specimen?
    allow to clot for 30 minutes
  66. When preparing a wet-mount slide for microscopic identification of Trichomonas, it is most appropriate to add a drop of which of the following substances?
    isotonic saline
  67. What is the most appropriate position for a patient with severe hypotention?
  68. What position is achieved by lying prone, with the head and legs lowered and the buttocks revealed?
  69. What positon is most appropriate for a patient undergoing breast examination?
  70. After a proctoscopic examination, the patient should be helped to the upright position slowly to prevent?
  71. Prior to an upper gastrointestinal series, the patient should be instructed to:
    fast for at least eight hours prior to the test
  72. What instrument is most appropriate for use during a proctoscopy?
  73. An instrument used to scrape cerumen from the ear is:
    a curette
  74. What is the most appropriate to use when performing a paracentesis?
  75. Subjective information that should be included in the patient's record is:
    personal data
  76. What information in the medical record is considered subjective?
    Medical history
  77. Which of the following information is objective data?
    • family history
    • past history
    • social history
    • patient history
  78. After a patient interview by the MA, the MA should record:
    • chief complaint
    • family medical history
    • medication allergies
    • past medical history
  79. A cloudy urine specimen may be the result of:
    amorphous phosphates
  80. The CDC recommends what to reduce the risk of cross-contamination in the laboratory:
    a lab coat should be worn over street clothes
  81. Which of the following products is used to preserve human tissue?
    • alcohol
    • chlorine
    • iodophors
    • saline
  82. The MA is collecting blood in Vacutainer tubes containing anticoagulant. When should the specimens be inverted and mixed?
    immediately after each tube is removed from the needle adapter
  83. What is the primary reason for adhering to strick quality-control practices in the laboratory?
    to ensure accuracy of laboratory test
  84. What laboratory procedure requires the collection of a 12-hour fasting blood specimen?
    blood chemistry profile
  85. Casts in urine specimen originate from the:
  86. A simple office procedure is available to examine throat secretions for the presence of:
    Streptococcus pyogenes
  87. When preparing to obtain an ECG, the MA depresses the standarization button. At this time, the stylus should deflect exactly how many mm/sec?
    10 mm
  88. The universal standard for recording an ECG is how many mm/sec?
    25 mm
  89. When performing ECG on a patient who has a cast from the knee to the ankle on the right leg, the electrode for the right leg should be:
    placed on the inside of the upper right leg
  90. When testing a patient's visual acuity, the patient reads the 20/20 line with the right eye and misses one letter. The visual acuity should be recorded as:
    O.D. 20/20-1
  91. The procedure that measures the amount of air moving in and out of the lungs is:
  92. When the physician requests a nebulizer to treat a patient, the route of drug administration is through:
  93. A KUB is an x-ray study of the:
    kidneys, ureters, and bladder
  94. What diagnostic study would be performed on a patient with symptoms of urinary tract obstruction?

    pyel/o - kidneys
  95. To confirm a fracture of the distal forearm, an x-ray study should include:
    radius and ulna
  96. A patient complains of acute back pain and blood in his urine. What procedure is most likely to be scheduled?
    intravenous pyelography
  97. Radiation exposure is monitored by devices called:
  98. Which of the radiographic studies requires the patient to fast for 12 hours prior to the procedure?
    upper gastrointestinal x-ray series
  99. The physician prescribes a buccal medication. The MA should instruct the patient to:
    place the medication between the lower jaw and cheek
  100. When an insoluble drug substance is contained in a liquid, the preparation is:
    a suspension
  101. An antihypertensive drug:
    Triamterene-hydrochlorothiazide (Dyazide)
  102. Patients are instructed to include potassium supplements in their diets if they are taking:
    furosemide (Lasix)
  103. Alprazolam (Xanax
  104. Alprazolam (Xanax) is prescribed for short term management of:
    anxiety disorders
  105. What agent is used primarily to produce the sensation of numbness?
  106. What term best describes the use of a drug to relieve symptoms?
  107. Name a well know anticoagulant?
    Warfarin (Coumadin)
  108. A patient has bright red blood in her urine. The finding is likely to be a side effect of which drug?
    Warfarin (Coumadin)
  109. What route of administration will result in the most rapid action of a drug?
  110. A syringe marked with U 100 will be used for what type of administration?
  111. What needle gauge is most appropriate for the intramuscular administration of Procaine Penicillin?
  112. When adminstering an intramuscular injection, the MA inadvertently aspirates blood into the syringe. What is the most appropriate next step?
    Withdraw the needle completely and dispose
  113. Which of the following is a parenteral method of drug administration?
    • buccal
    • inhalation
    • oral
    • sublingual
  114. The abbreviation for "at bedtime" is:
  115. Physicians registered to dispense controlled drugs are required by law to maintain an inventory of the drugs. the inventory must be maintained for how many years after the date of registration?
    2 years
  116. What is the most appropriate for inventory control of narcotics in a physician's office?
    store all narcotics in a locked cabinet
  117. The route of administration for an allergy skin test injection is:
  118. If the MA finds a container of medication wthout a label, the appropriate action is to?
    discard the medication
  119. A patient faints in the reception room and falls to the floor. The MA should:
    keep the patient's head and shoulders flat and raise the legs
  120. Which of the following emergency situations should be managed first:
    • bleeding
    • insulin shock
    • severe chest pain
    • fractured femur
  121. The first step in rendering first aid to a patient who appears to have stopped breathing is to:
    check for breathlessness
  122. Upon discovering an unresponsive person, the MA should first assess the person's:
  123. The initial step in giving first aid to a patient with a second degree chemical burn is to:
    flood the affected area with water
  124. Before initiating CPR of an adult, the presence of circulation is usually determined by palpatation of which pulse?
  125. The first treatment for a patient in insulin shock is administration of:
    glucose (sugar)
  126. A patient is having a grand mal seizure. Which of the following is the most appropriate step for the MA to protect the patient?
    Loosen clothing around the patient's neck
  127. Which of the following major carbohydrates is found in milk?
    • fructose
    • glucose
    • maltose
    • sucrose
  128. A patient scheduled to undergo stool collection for occult blood should be instructed to avoid intake of:
    Red meat
Card Set
CMA Study Guide
CMA (set 3)