1. The main functions of the digestive system are?
    • Ingestion & digestion,
    • propulsion & secretion,
    • absorption & elimination
  2. The movement of digestion products, electrolytes, vitamins & water across the GI tract epithelium & into the underlying blood & lymphatic vessels is called?
  3. All of the following are organs of the digestive system?
    • liver
    • tongue
    • esophagus
  4. Which selection includes only accessory digestive organs?
    • gallbladder,
    • liver,
    • pancreas,
    • salivary glands
  5. Movements in the small intestine that churn the materials being digested & mix them with intestinal secretions are called?
  6. Which term describes the wave of muscular contraction that moves the material through the GI tract toward the anus?
  7. Digestive functions of the tongue include?
    • manipulating & mixing ingested materials during chewing,
    • helping compress partially digested food to form a bolus,
    • assisting in the swallow process
  8. The three pairs of multicellular salivary glands that secrete into the oral cavity are the ______ glands?
    parotid, submandibular, & sublingual
  9. What is the mineralized matrix, similar to bone but harder, that forms the primary mass of each tooth?
  10. Which selection correctly pair a type of tooth with its depression?
    • canines, one root & conical with a pointed tip
    • premolars, one or two roots & flat crowns with cusps
    • molars, three or more roots & large, broad, flat crowns
  11. Which does NOT correctly pair a type of tooth with its description?
    incisors, one or two roots & spoon-shaped
  12. Which mesentery covers most of the abdominal organs, extending inferiorly like an apron from the greater curvature of the stomach?
    greater omentum
  13. From deep to superifical, what are the tunics of the intraperitoneal portions of the GI tract?
    mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, & serosa
  14. In which of the following selections are the GI tract organs or regions correctly marked with the type of epithelium that lines them?
    cecum, colon, & rectum; simple columnar
  15. Within the mucous membrane of the GI tract, the layer of the areolar connective tissue is called the?
    lamina propria
  16. The esophagus enters the abdominal cavity through an opening in the diaphragm, the ________, before it connects to the stomach.
    esophageal hiatus
  17. Histological features of the esophageal wall include?
    an outer fibrous layer, the adventitia, with no serosa
  18. Which tunic of the GI tract typically contains an inner circular layer & an outer longitudinal layer, with the myenteric nerve plexus in between?
  19. What are the three phases of the swallowing process?
    voluntary, pharyngeal, & esophageal
  20. Which digestive organ mechanically & chemically transforms a food bolus into chyme?
  21. Which list proceeds from the superior to the inferior end of the stomach?
    Cardia, fundus, body, pylorus
  22. The prominent folds of the mucosa that nearly disappear when the stomach expands are the?
  23. From the superior end downward, the three segments of the small intestine are the?
    duodenum, jejunum, & ileum
  24. What is the function of the cilli in the small intestine?
    to increase the surface area for absorption & secretion
  25. Which sequence lists the regions of the large intestine in order, from the end of the ileum to the anus?
    cecum, colon, rectum, anal canal
  26. Arrange the segments of the colon in the sequence through which digested material passes prior to defecation: (1)sigmoid (2)transverse (3)descending (4)ascending
    ascending, transverse, descending, sigmoid
  27. The mucosa of the large intestine is characterized by?
    • lack of intestinal villi
    • numerous goblet cells & intestinal glands
    • many lymphatic nodules & cells in the lamina propria
  28. Production of bile is one of several important functions of the?
  29. Bile is stored & concentrated in the?
  30. Which hormones stimulate the production of pancreatic juice & bicarbonate?
    cholecystokinin & secretin
  31. Age-related changes in the digestice system include which of the following?
    • reduced secretion of mucin, enzymes & acid
    • decreased replacement of epithelial cells
    • diminished muscular tone & GI tract motility
  32. On each maxilla & each side of the mandible, both the deciduous & permanent dentitions typically include two for slicing or cutting into food?
  33. Unique to the permanent dentition, the two pairs of _______ on each jaw are used for crushing & grinding food
  34. Which statement does NOT accurately describe an aspect of swallowing?
    actions are primarily involuntary until the bolus reaches the oropharynx
  35. Which statement accurately describes an aspect of swallowing?
    • first phase occurs in oral cavity & involves the tongue & hard palate
    • soft palate, uvula, & pharyngeal constrictors participate in second phase
    • third phase involves involuntary control of both skeletal & smooth muscle
  36. Which salivary glands empty into the oral cavity through single ducts on each side of the lingual frenulum, posterior to the incisors?
  37. Which salivary glands are located subcutaneously, offering a good environment for a once-common childhood virus that is now largely controlled by vaccination?
  38. Submucosal nerve plexus is to submucosa as ______ nerve plexus is to muscularis
  39. Histologically, the stomach mucosa comprises
    a simple columnar epithelial linng, with numerous gastric pits
  40. The _____ is actually composed of _____ peritoneum & is therefor found only on organs within the peritoneal cavity
    serosa; vsceral
  41. Portions of the GI tract outside the peritoneal cavity are surrounded by a layer of areolar connective tissue called the?
  42. Which selection correctly pairs a type of gastric epithelial cell with its secretion?
    enteroendocrine cell, somatostain
  43. The production of acid & enzymes by the gastric mucosa can be controlled by?
    • sympathetic innervation,
    • parasympathetic innervation,
    • hormonnes from the mucosa itself
  44. Which hormone, produced by enteroendocrine cells in the stomach lining, stilmulates other gland cells as well as smooth muscle fibers in the stomach wall?
  45. The digestive fluids that mix with Chyme in the _____ are secreted by _____?
    duodenum; hepatocytes & cells of the pancreatic lobules & ducts
  46. In the small intestine, the pilcae circulaes & villi provide?
    increased surface area for the absorption of nutrient molecules
  47. Dietary lipids & lipid-soluble vitamins too large to enter the bloodstream directly can first enter the _____ by way of _____?
    lymphatic system; lacteals
  48. The mucosa of the ____ is equipped with abundant, pea-sized or larger _____ that help to protect it from encroaching bacteria?
    ileum; peyer patches
  49. The hormones produced by the enteroendocrine cells of the intestinal glands include?
    sercretin & cholecystokinin
  50. The _____ reflex stimulate powerful, peristaltic-like contractions of the teniae coli that produce_______?
    gastrocolic; mass movements
  51. Which ligament of the liver is the remnant of the fetal umbilical vein?
    ligamentum teres
  52. Exocrine secretion by the pancreas is?
    • stimulated by the hormones cholecytokinin & secretin
    • stimulated by parasympathetic activity via the vagus nerve
    • inhibited by activty of the sympathetic divison of the ANS
  53. Where does most nutrient absorption occur?
  54. In the adult, the only remnants of the embroyonic ventral mesentry are the?
    lesser omentum & falciform ligament
  55. What is the most likely cause of pernicious anemia (a chronic, progressive anemia of old adults) given that it can be successfully treated by administration of vitamin B12?
    defective parietal cells in the gastric glands
  56. What do all of the popular medications for reflux esophagitit ("heartburn") & gastroesophageal reflux disease have in common?
    all work by reducing stomach acidity rather than preventing reflux
  57. Which organ is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen?
  58. The _____ cells of the stomach secrets hydrochloric acid (HCI)?
  59. Material leaving the ascending colon next enters the?
    transverse colon
  60. Which organ is retroperitoneal?
    descending colon
  61. Sympathetic innercation of the GI tract is responsible for?
    closing the pyloric sphincter
  62. The ____ is derived from teh cranial part of the primary intestinal loop?
  63. the main pancreatic duct merges with the _____, & their contents empty into the duodenum through the major duodenal papilla?
    common bile duct
  64. Which statement is false about pancreatic juice?
    it is responsible for emulsifying )break down) fats
  65. Which statement is true about pancreatic juice?
    • it is secreted through main pancreatic duct into the duodenum
    • it is produced by the acinar cells of the pancrea
    • the juice has an alkaline pH
  66. The "living" part of a toothe is the?
  67. Most of the chemical digestion of our food occurs within the?
    small intestine
  68. Which of the following is a function of the urinary system?
    • removal of waste products from the bloodstream
    • storage & excretion of urine
    • regulation of blood volume &, indirectly, blood pressure
  69. Which of the following is NOT a function of the urinary system?
    regulation of leukocyte & platelet production
  70. All of the following structures are components of the urinary system EXCEPT?
  71. All of the following structures are components of the urinary system?
    • kidneys
    • ureters
    • urethra
  72. Which sequence correctly traces the path of urine after it leaves the kindeys?
    ureters, urinary bladder, urethra
  73. What structure rests on the superior pole of each kidney?
    adrenal gland
  74. The four tissue layers surrounding & supporting the kidneys are the?
    fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia & paranephric fat
  75. The outer layer of the kidney, just internal to the fibrous capsule, is the renal?
  76. In a typical adult kidney, the renal _____ is subdivided into 8 to 15 distinct conical or triangular structures known as renal _____?
    medulla; pyramids
  77. Which term describes the tip of a renal pyramid that projects toward the renal sinus?
    renal papilla
  78. Blood vessels, nerves, & the ureter connect to the kidney at a prominent medial indentation known as the?
  79. What is the functional filtration unit in the kidney?
  80. Components of a nephron include?
    • a renal corpuscle
    • proximal & distal convoluted tubules
    • a nephron loop
  81. Components of a renal corpuscle include?
    a glomerulus & glomerular capsule
  82. From the renal artery, blood flows through which sequences of arteries?
    segmental, interlobar, arcuate, interlobular
  83. In various nephron, ____ form a network around the convoluted tubles; surrounding the nephron loop are capillaries called the ______?
    peritublar capillaries; vasa recta
  84. Nephrons with nephron loops that barely penetrate the renal medulla are called?
    cortical nephrons
  85. Which of the following is NOT a charateristics of a juxtamedullary nephron?
    the entire nephron is located in the superficial cortex of the kidney
  86. Glomerular capillaries are characterized by all of the following?
    • blood under relatively high pressure, from afferent arteriole
    • a fenestrated endothelium that allows materials to be filtered
    • an epithelial covering of podocytes with pedicels & filtration slits
  87. Arrange the following to trace the path of filtrate through a renal tubule: (1)proximal conviluted tubule (2)distal convoluted tubule (3)ascending limb of nephron loop (4)descending limb of nephron loop
    proximal convoluted tubule, descending limb of nephron loop, ascending limb of nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule
  88. The three interrelated processes of urine formations are?
    filtration, reaborption & secretion
  89. From which part of the renal tubule are 60-65% of the water & virtually all nutrients, electrolytes & plasma proteins reabsorbed into the blood?
    proximal convoluted tubule
  90. Which part of the renal tubule is lined throughout its length by a simple cuboidal epithelium with sparse, short microvilli?
    distal convoluted tubule
  91. Hydrogen & potassium ions are secreted into the tubular fluid in the?
    distal convoluted tubule
  92. Which sequence correctly traces the flow of tubular fluid after it leaves the nephrons?
    collecting tubules, collecting ducts, papillary ducts
  93. Innervation of the kidneys functions to?
    • regulate glomerular blood flow & filtrate formation
    • stilmulate the release of rein by juxtaglomerular cells
    • refer pain to the T10-T12 dermatomes via the sympathetic pathway
  94. Which type of epithelium lines the ureters & urinary bladder?
  95. Each ureter originates at the renal _____ as it exits the hilum of its respective kidney?
  96. The hollow, muscular organ that temporarily stores urine is the?
  97. Most of the mucosa of the urinary bladder is thron into folds callled _____that allow for extreme distension?
  98. Which sequence correctly traces the flow of urine after it leaves the urinary bladder in a male?
    prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, spongy urethra
  99. Which one of the following does not characterize the micturition reflex?
    internal urethral sphincter relaxes under conscious, voluntary control
  100. Which selection includes all components of a nephron?
    a renal corpuscle & a renal tubule
  101. A blockage in a glomerulus would directly obstruct blood flow into which vessel?
    efferent arteriole
  102. Compared with most capillaries, those of a glomerulus are ususual in which of the following ways?
    • their endothelia have thicker basement membranes
    • the blood pressure within them is much higher
    • blood is still highly oxygenated when it leaves them
  103. What three physical barriers must filtrate cross within the renal corpuscle?
    glomerular endothelium, basement membrane, & podocytes
  104. In which of the following selections are the structure & its contents correctly matched?
    tubular fluid, proximal convoluted tubule
  105. Which of the following have no campanion vessels?
    segmental arteries
  106. Nephron loops of juxtamedullary nephrons are to ____ as convoluted tubules of cortical nephrons are to _____?
    vasa recta; peritubular capillaries
  107. During which steps of urine formation are substances actually removed from the blood? (1)filtration (2)reabsorption (3)secretion
    filtration & secretion
  108. Which of the following structures assist in producting more concentrated urine?
    renal tubules & collecting ducts
  109. Physically part of a nephron, each ______ is also part of a tiny structure that helps regulate blood pressure & volume?
    macula densa
  110. Renin is relases by the _____ in response to _____ renal blood volume or solute concentration in the tubular fluid?
    juxtaglomerular cells; reduced
  111. Damage to the renal medulla would most directly impair the function of?
    collecting ducts
  112. Which hormone, produced by the adrenal cortex in response to rising levels of angiiotensin II, increases water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubules?
  113. The direct consequence of inadequate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion would most likely be?
  114. Which statement does NOT correctly describe the path of urine flow?
    the renal pelvis conveys urine directly to the urethra
  115. Which statement does correctly describe the path of urine flow?
    • ducts in each renal papilla drain into a minor calyx
    • the minor calyces merge to form a major calyx
    • the major calyces combine to form the renal pelvis
  116. The renal plexus that innervates each kidney includes all of the following?
    • sympathetic postganglionic axons from the T10-T12 spinal segments
    • parasympathetic innervation from CN X(vagus nerve)
    • visceral sensory axons that follow the sympathetic pathway
  117. The ______ innervation to the _____ has no know effect?
    parasympathetic; kidney
  118. Which tunic found in the walls of most digestive organs, & the urinary bladder, is missing fromteh walls of the ureters?
  119. Which description of the urinary bladder & urethra is true?
    • the trigone of the urinary bladder serves to funnel urine into the urethra
    • a sphincter encircles the urethral opening at the neck of the urinary bladder
    • the entrance into the urethra is at the most inferior point in the bladder
  120. Which description of the urinary bladder & urethra is false?
    the internal urethral sphincter is skeletal muscle under voluntary control
  121. Which of the following are attributable in whole or in part to the reduced sensitivity to aldosterone & ADH that results from aging?
    • less reabsorption of water & sodium ions
    • more frequent urination & increased daily fluid requirement
    • greater fluctations in blood volume & pressure
  122. Often diagnosed by an intravenous pyelogram, ______ can commonly be treated nonsurgically with lithotripsy?
    renal calculi
  123. Through a series of developmental changes, a single extension of the embryonic hindout that leads from the cloaca to the umbilicus forms all of the following?
    • allantois
    • urachus
    • median umbilical ligament
  124. Kidneys that remain at their embryonic point of orgin usually have normal function, although their blood supply comes from _____ instead of typcal renal arteries?
    branches of the common iliac arteries
  125. Which of the following kidney a anomalies has the most serious health consequences?
    bilateral renal agencies
  126. Which organ is responsible for filtering the blood?
  127. Which statment is true about the urinary bladder?
    the bladder is lined with transitional epithelium
  128. Tubular fluid from the proximal convoluted tubule next travels to the?
    nephron loop
  129. The apex of a renal pyramid is called the renal?
  130. The arteries located at the corticomedullary junction of the kidney are the?
    arcuate arteries
  131. Which statement is true about the kidneys?
    • the right kidney is positioned more inferiorly than the left kidney
    • the renal artery, renal vein, & ureter connect to the kidney at its hilum
  132. What statment is false about the kidney?
    a. the right kidney is positioned more inferiorly than the left kidney
    b. the cortex is subdivided into renal pyramids
    c. the renal artery, renal vein, & ureter connect to the kidney at its hilum
    d. the kidney is covered with a renal capsule
    the cortex is subdivided into renal pyramids
  133. Urine in a major calyx of the kidney next travels to the?
    minor calyx
  134. Which structure is not controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
    detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder
  135. Reabsorption is the movement of fluid & solutes from the?
    tubular fluid into the pertubular capillaries
  136. The micturition reflex controls?
    voiding of the filled bladder
  137. General functions of the lymphatic system include?
    • fluid & nutrient transport
    • lymphocyte development
    • the immune response
  138. How much excess interstitial fluid must the lymphatic system return to the bloodstream each day?
    about 3 liters
  139. A systematic defense against antigens, initiated by lymphatic cells, is called?
    an immune response
  140. Which one of the following statements is false?
    a. blood pressure forces fluid out of capillaries into the interstitial spaces
    b. "leaked" fluids can be returned to the blood only by lymphatic vessels
    c. lymphatic vessels return intersitial fluid to the venous circulation
    d. blood volume would drop precipitously without the lympathic drainage
    "leaked" fluids can be returned to the blood only by lymphatic vessesls
  141. Which of the following statements is true?

    • A. blood pressure forces fluid out of capillaries into the interstitial spaces
    • c. lymphatic vessels return intersitial fluid to the venous circulation
    • d. blood volume would drop precipitously without the lympathic drainage
  142. Which of the following is true in comparing lymphatic vessels with small veins?
    • both have valves within the lumen
    • both contain the same three tunics
    • contraction of nearby skeletal muscles helps propel fluids through both
  143. Which is false in comparing lymphatic vessels with small veins?
    a. both have valves within the lumen
    b. both contain the same three tunics
    c. pressures in lymphatic vessels exceed those in veins
    d. contraction of nearby skeletal muscles helps propel fluids through both
    pressures in lymphatic vessels exceed those in veins
  144. The two largest lymph-collecting vessels are the?
    thoracic duct & right lymphatic duct
  145. Which sequence correctly traces the flows of lymph from lymphatic capillaries in the right thigh to the left subclavian vein?
    lymphatic vessels, lymphatic trunks, cisterna chyli, thoracic duct
  146. Lymphatic cells include all of the following?
    • macrophages
    • dendritic cells
    • lymphocyctes
  147. Lymphatic cells include all of the following except?
  148. T-lymphocytes mature in the _____, while B-lymphocytes mature in the ______?
    thymus; bone marrow
  149. All of the following are types of T-lymphocytes?
    • helper
    • suppressor
    • memory
  150. All of the following are types of T-lymphocytes except?
    a. suppressor
    b. memory
    c. plasma
    d. helper
  151. About 70-85% of the body's lymphocytes are?
  152. Which lymphocyes initiate & oversee the immune response?
    helper T-lyphocytes
  153. Helper T-lymphocytes secrete chemical signals called _______ that bind to receptors on other lymphatic calles & activate them?
  154. Each type of T-lymphocyte has a particular ______ in its plasma membrane that recognizes a specific antigen?
  155. Plasma cells produce & secrete?
  156. Which one of the following would respond to mutiple antigens?
    NK cell
  157. Lymphopoiesis, the process of lymphocyte development & maturation, occurs in?
    • red bone marrow
    • the thymus
  158. A fully mature lmphocyte that is ready to participate in the immune response is said to be?
  159. Oval clusters of lymphatic cels with some extracellular matrix but NO connective tissue capsule are called?
    lymphatic nodules
  160. The large clusters of lymphatic nodules found in the throat are called?
  161. Large groups of lymphatic nodules in the mucosa of the gastrointestinal, respiratory, genital & urinary tracts are collectively called?
  162. Which set includes only lymphatic organs?
    thymus, lymph nodes, spleen
  163. Clusters of lymph nodes are found in which of the following body regions?
    • axillary
    • cervical
    • inguinal
  164. The thymus is a lymphatic organ that?
    reaches a maxiumus weight of 30-50 grams at puberty
  165. Serval thymic hormones are secreted by ______ in the cortex of the thymus?
    nurse cells
  166. What occurs in the thymus?
    T-lymphocyte maturation & differentiation
  167. The spleen performs which of the following functions?
    • initiates an immune response when antigens are detected in the blood
    • stores erythrocytes & platelets & hemolyzes old, defective ones
    • phagocytizes bacteria & foreign debris from the blood
  168. Accuratley describes the spleen?
    • surrounded by a capsule composed of dense irregular connective tissue
    • white pulp contains clusters of lymphatic cells encircling central arteries
    • red pulp contains splenic cords & sinusoids with numerous macrophages
  169. With advancing age the lymphatic system loses effectiveness in?
    providing immunity & fighting disease
  170. The visceral pleura covers the?
    outer surface of the lung
  171. An area common to both the respiratory and digestive systems through which food, drink & air pass is the?
  172. Which structure is the last, smallest portion of the conducting portion of the respiratory system?
    terminal bronchiole
  173. Which is not a function of the paranasal sinuses?
    gas exchange
  174. Which is a function of paranasal sinuses?
    • warm inhaled air
    • responsible for sound resonace
    • humidify inhaled air
  175. The ______ cartilage of the larynx forms the laryngeal prominence?
  176. The C-shaped cartilages in the trachea do what?
    Prevent the trachea from collapsing
  177. Which of the following is a muscle of inspiration?
    • diaphragm
    • external intercostals
    • scalene
  178. What is NOT a muscle of inspiration?
    rectus abdominis
  179. The epithelium lining the alveolus is composed of?
    a simple squamous epithelium
  180. The apneustic center is involved in?
    stimulation of DRG
  181. Which of the following best describes the lymphatic system?
    a one-way route from the interstitial fluid to the blood
  182. Compared with blood capillaries, lymphatic capillaries?
    • are large in diameter & have overlapping endothelial cells
    • lack well-organized layers separating them from surrounding tissues
    • are closed-ended tubes found in most but not all the same locations
  183. Regarding the distribution & lifespan of lymphocytes, which statement is true?
    a. they are not evenly distributed in the blood & bone marrow
    b. B-lymphocytes are seldom found in the thymus
    c. they have a relatively uniform life span of about 120 days
    d. T-lymphocytes may outnumber B-lymphocytes by more than 5 to 1
    • they are not evenly distributed in the blood & bone marrow
    • B-lymphocytes are seldom found in the thymus
    • T-lymphocytes may out-number B-lymphocytes by more than 5 to 1
  184. Regaring the distribution & lifespan of lymphocytes, which statement is falst?
    a. they are not evenly distributed in the blood & bone marrow
    b. B-lymphocytes are seldom found in the thymus
    c. they have a relatively uniform life span of about 120 days
    d. T-lympphocytes may outnumber
    they have a relatively uniform life span of about 120 days
  185. How does the production of T-lymphocytes change after puberty?
    in adults, they are produced only by divison of existing T-lymphocytes
  186. Lymphcytes may respond to which of the following?
    • invading organisms, such as viruses
    • abnormal body cells, such as cancer cells
    • foreign proteins, such as toxins released by bacteria
  187. Lymphocytes located in the _____ do not participate in the immune response?
  188. Which pair correctly matches a lymphocyte's function with its typical coreceptor?
    kills a wide variety of infected or cancerous cells; CD16
  189. Which two of the following are typically necessary to stimulate a B-lymphocyte to divide & differentiate?
    a help T-lymphocyte & an antigen
  190. When dissolved in body fluids, the antibodies produced by plasma cells are called?
  191. Ironically, key components of the body's defense against infection, the ______ are themselves infected by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
    helper T-lymphocytes
  192. Current evidence indicates that HIV is least likely to be transmitted via which of the following body fluids from an infected person?
  193. Which of the following accurately describes activities or structures of lymph nodes?
    • lymph percolates slowly through cortical & then medullary sinuses
    • one or two efferent lymphatic vessels drain the lymph node through the hilum
    • lymph from one lymph node often flows into another for further filtering
  194. Which of the following does not accurately describe activites or structures of lymph nodes?
    lymphocytes line the sinuses & phagocytize foreign debris from the lymph
  195. Which pair correctly matches a type of lymphatic cell with its function?
    dendritic cell; internalizes antigens from lymph for presentation to other cells
  196. Specialized epithelial cells that perform both an endocrine and a lymphatic function are called?
    nurse cells
  197. Medullary cords are strands of ________ supported by connective tissue fibers, located in the ______?
    B-lymphocytes & macrophages; lymph nodes
  198. The blood-thymus barrier does what?
    protects lymphocytes iin the cortex of the thymus from exposure to antigens
  199. Which pair correctly matches a component of the spleen with its function?
    • white pulp; initiates immune response to antigens in the blood
    • red pulp; serves as a resevoir for erythrocytes & platelets
    • splenic sinusoids; transport blood 7 house macrophages
  200. In contrast to vaccination, injection of immunoglobulins...?
    provides antibodies directly without training the body how to produce them
  201. What does a booster shot typically accomplish?
    stimulates the production of new populations of memory B-lymphocytes
  202. Which of the following poses the greatest risk to an adult as a consequence of having a splenectomy?
  203. An extreme form of lymphedema caused by a chronic filarial worm infection is called?
  204. Recent research suggests that atherosclerosis results from inappropriate activity by T-Lymphocytes, which would place it in the same category of diseases as?
    • rheumatoid arthritis
    • systemic lupus erythematosus
    • insulin-dependent (type 1) diabetes mellitus
  205. Which of the following does NOT contribute to elderly individual's increased susceptibility to illness?
    lifelong accumulation of antibodies increases the likelihood of allergic reactions
  206. Of the following, which forms first in the embryo?
    cisterna chyli
  207. When does the spleen start to aquire its lymphatic functionality?
    during the second trimester
  208. Lymph from which of the following body regions drains into teh thoracic duct?
    right lower limb
  209. Which type of lymphatic cell is responsible for producing antibodies?
    plasma cell
  210. What statement is false about lymphatic nodules?
    lymphatic nodules are completely surrounded by a connective tissue capsule
  211. What is the function of the blood-thymus barrier?
    it protects maturing T-lymphocytes from antigens in the blood
  212. Which type of lymph vessels consists solely of an endothelium & has one-way valves that allow interstitial fluid to enter?
    lymphatic capillary
  213. Which statement is true about lymph nodes?
    lymph enters the lymph node through afferent lymphatic vessels
  214. In early Streptococcus infection of the throat, all of the following structures may swell?
    • pharyngeal tonsil
    • cervical lymph node
    • palatine tonsil
  215. Which of the following is a function of the white pulp of the spleen?
    elicits an immune response if antigens are detected in the blood
  216. The embryonic lymph sacs go on to form the?
    lymph nodes
  217. Which of the following is a function of the respiratory system?
    • provide an area for gas exchange between air & circulating blood
    • conidition gases before they reach the exchange surfaces of the lungs
    • defend respiratory system & other tissues against inhaled bacteria
  218. Which selection includes only Upper respiratory tract components?
    nose, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, 7 pharynx
  219. The lower respiratory tract extends from the _____ to the ______, inclusive
    larynx; alveoli
  220. The functional division of the respiratory system that transports air (as opposed to exchanging gases with the blood) is called the?
    conducting portion
  221. Air filtration & conditioning, olfaction & sound resonance are all functions of the?
    conduction portion
  222. Which term describes the part of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the external nose?
  223. What composes the nasal septum?
    • the vomer
    • perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone
    • septal cartilage
  224. The passages that conduct air from the vesitbule to the internal nares are the?
    superior, middle, & inferior meatuses
  225. Regions of the pharynx include which of the following except?
  226. Regions of the pharynx include which of the following?
    • nasopharynx
    • oropharynx
    • larynopharynx
  227. The respiratory system assists the cardiovascular & lymphatic systems in?
    • regulating blood volume
    • regulating blood pressure
    • controlling body fluid pH
  228. Which pair does not correctly match a respiratory passageway with its primary opening(s) for receiving inhaled air?
    vestibule; external nares
    nasopharynx; choanae
    orophaynx; fauces
    trachea; rima glottidis
    orophaynx; fauces
  229. Which pair correctly match a respiratory passageway with its primary opening(s) for receiving inhaled air?
    vestibule; external nares
    nasopharynx; choanae
    orophaynx; faucestrachea
    rima glottidis
    • vestibule; external nares
    • nasopharynx; choanae
    • trachea; rima glottidis
  230. Of the following, which structure is a component of both the lower respiratory tract & the conducting portion of the respiratory system?
  231. Which one of the following accurately characterize the epithelial lining of the respiratory tract?
    • it is mostly pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with numerous goblet cells
    • cilia in the larger passageways sweep trapped debris toward the pharynx, where it is swallowd
    • it changes from simple columnar to simple cuboidal epithelium which progressively smaller bronchioles
  232. Which one of the following does NOT accurately characterize the epithelial lining of the respiratory tract?
    goblet vells & mucous glands in the lamina propria secrete a watery, lubricating fluid
  233. In which pair is each structure or region lined with two different kinds of epithelia (the same two)?
    pharynx & larynx
  234. Which structure consists of a narrow opening with ligamentous lateral walls that both guard the passage into lower respiratory tract & vibrate to produce sound?
  235. The lining of the trachea consists of a pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithlium & an underlying lamina propria; together, these constitue the?
  236. Which paranasal sinuses are located deepest within the skull, or farthest posterior to the face?
  237. Which statement about the respiratory tract is true?
    • stratified epithelia occur only in parts of the tract shared by another system
    • the trachea is part of the lower respiratory tract but not of the bronchial tree
    • the inferior end of the bronchial tree is also the end of the conducting portion
  238. Even if all the defenses in the conducting portion of the respiratory tract fail, ______ may still destroy pathogens before they can enter the body fluids?
    alveolar macrophages
  239. An important function of the fluid in the pleural cavity is to?
    reduce friction between the visceral & parietal pleurae
  240. Branches or tributaries of which vessels carry oxygenated blood through the tissues of the lungs?
    pulmonary veins & bronchial arteries
  241. Autonomic stimulation via the vagus nerves causes what response within the lungs?
  242. In prematurely born infants, hyaline membrane disease is associated with inadequate production of _______ by _____ cells?
    surfactant; alveolar type II
  243. Babies that sleep on their stomach are now known to be at great risk of?
    SIDs (crib death)
  244. Ultimately, the harmful effects of cystic fibrosis are attributable to _____, caused by a defective gene?
    osmotic imbalance in gland cells
  245. Which of the following result from the presence of free air in the pleural cavity?
    pneumothorax & allergies
  246. Smoking is a very dangerous habit because?
    • it causes emphysema & significantly increases the risk & severity of atherosclerosis
    • second-hand smoke may trigger bronchitis, ear infections & asthma in children
  247. Which type of lung cancer has histological ties to the nervous & endocrine systems & tends to metastasize very early?
    small-cell carcinoma
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