SGU Veterinary Anatomy

  1. What is the palpable most cranial part of the shoulder region of the thoracic limb?
    Greater tubercle or point of the shoulder
  2. What is the canal in the medial epicondyle of the cat humerus that carries the median nerve and brachial vessels?
    Supracondylar canal (foramen).
  3. What is the landmark located in the fifth intercostal space in the standing animal?
    Olecranon or point of the elbow.
  4. What is the proximal end of the notch of the ulna?
    Anconeal process.
  5. What is the distal end of the notch (trochlear) of the ulna?
    Medial coronoid process.
  6. What small sesamoid may be located on the medial side of the carpus?
    Sesamoid bone of the oblique carpal extensor (abductor pollicus longus) tendon.
  7. What is a landmark on the medial side of the manus and pes if present?
  8. What bony process holds the horny claw?
    Ungual crest.
  9. What is the palpable part of the hip bone caudal to the flank?
    Tuber coxae, point of the hip.
  10. What is the palpable caudal end of the hip bone?
    Ischial tuber, ischiatic tuberosity, pinbone.
  11. What is the palpable lateral structure of the proximal femur?
    Greater trochanter.
  12. What is the palpable proximal end of tibia?
    Tibial tuberosity.
  13. What is the distal end of the fibula?
    Lateral malleolus.
  14. What is the small sesamoid bone that may be found on the lateral side of the stifle?
    Sesamoid in the tendon of origin of the popliteal muscle.
  15. Structural classification groups joints according to their ____ ____.
    Uniting medium
  16. What are the three types of uniting medium of joints in the structural classification?
    Fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
  17. A suture is what type of structural joint? Functional (movement)?
    Fibrous, immovable.
  18. Is a gomphosis (implantation of teeth in jaw) a true joint?
    No, because teeth aren't part of the skeleton.
  19. Where are symphyseal joints found?
    Generally on midline of body.
  20. What type of joint occurs between the bodies of most vertebrae?
    Symphyseal - intervertebral disc.
  21. Define the following joints, actions/movements allowed (give an example)
    a. Ginglymus or hinge:
    b. Plane joint
    c. Ball-and-socket/spheroidal
    d. Pivot joint
    e. Condylar joint
    • a. Flexion and extension (ex. elbow and most joints of the limbs)
    • b. Gliding or sliding (ex. carpal bones)
    • c. Universal movement (shoulder and hip)
    • d. Rotation around a longitudinal axis (ex. atlantoaxial joint)
    • e. Flexion and extension / rotation (stifle)
  22. Most of the joints of the thoracic and pelvic limb have what type of ligaments? Which joints don't?
    Collateral ligaments; shoulder and hip.
  23. What five things characterize a synovial joint?
    Mobility, articular cartilage, joint capsule (synovial membrane and fibrous capsule), synovial fluid, joint cavity.
  24. What covers the articular ends of the bones?
    Articular cartilage, usually hyaline cartilage.
  25. What is the nerve and vascular supply in articular cartilage?
    Doesn't have any.
  26. How does articular cartilage receive nutrition and remove waste?
    Synovial fluid, as it has no blood supply.
  27. Where are bursae located?
    Between skin & bones, tendon & bones, muscles & bones, ligaments & bones.
  28. What is the function of a bursa?
    Reduce friction between structures.
  29. What structure, similar to a bursa, is completely wrapped around a tendon?
    Tendon sheath, synovial sheath.
  30. Where are synovial sheaths commonly found?
    Carpus, tarsus, digits
  31. What is the function of a synovial sheath?
    Reduces friction on a tendon as it crosses a number of joints.
  32. What is the configuration of the shoulder joint?
    Ball-and-socket joint (spheroidal)
  33. List the joints of the manus and the bones they are between.
    • Carpus:
    • -Antebrachiocarpal (radius & ulna & carpal bones)
    • -Middle carpal (proximal and distal carpal rows)
    • -Carpometacarpal joint (distal carpal and metacarpal bones)
    • Metacarpophalangeal (MP) joint (metacarpal bone & a proximal phalanx)
    • Proximal interdigital (PIP) (proximal and middle phalanges)
    • Distal interdigital (DIP) joint (middle & distal phalanges)
  34. With what do the proximal ends of the ribs articulate? Distal ends?
    Thoracic vertebrae; sternum.
  35. Name the fibrocartilages between the bodies of adjacent vertebrae.
    Intervertebral discs.
  36. What elastic connective tissue structure attaches the 1st thoracic spine to the spine of the axis (C2) in the dog? In the cat?
    Nuchal ligament; none
  37. What elastic tissue fills the dorsal space (interarcuate space) between the arches of adjacent vertebrae?
    Ligamentum flavum, interarcuate or yellow ligament.
  38. What connects the heads of a pair of opposite ribs, crossing the dorsal part of the intervertebral discs?
    Intercapital ligament.
  39. What is the relatively immovable joint between the sacrum and the ilium?
    Sacroiliac joint.
  40. Name the ball-and-socket joint of the pelvic limb.
    Hip joint, coxofemoral or coxal joint.
  41. What are the fibrocartilaginous discs between the condyles of the femur and tibia?
    Medial and lateral menisci (sin.=meniscus)
  42. How are the cruciate ligaments that attach the femur and tibia named?
    For their attachment to the tibia.
  43. List the four main joints of the hock/tarsus.
    • Tibiotarsal, tarsocrural or talocrural joint.
    • Proximal intertarsal (PIT) joint.
    • Distal intertarsal (DIT) joint.
    • Tarsometatarsal (TMt) joint.
  44. List the different types of muscles and whether they are voluntary or not.
    • Striated - Skeletal (voluntary) & Cardiac (involuntary)
    • Unstriated - Smooth (involuntary)
  45. What are the two attachments of skeletal muscles?
    • Origin - proximal or usually least movable
    • Insertion - distal or usually more movable
  46. What are the flat attachments of flat muscles (ex. abdominal muscles)?
    Aponeuroses (sin.=aponeurosis)
  47. What is the difference between tendons and ligaments?
    • Tendons - attach a bone to a muscle
    • Ligaments - attach 2 bones together
  48. What do muscles actions depend upon?
    How they cross a joint, number of joints crossed & shape of joint(s).
  49. Define extrinsic and intrinsic muscles and give an example.
    • Extrinsic - attach structure to body
    • Intrinsic - both attachments in structure (ex. thoracic limb, eye, larynx)
  50. What nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles?
    Suprascapular nerve.
  51. What nerve innervates almost all the extensors of the thoracic limb?
    Radial nerve.
  52. What are the two groups of the forearm muscles (their location)?
    • Extensor of digits and carpus (craniolateral)
    • Flexors of the digits and carpus (caudal)
  53. What is the insertion of the deep digital flexor (DDF) and superficial digital flexor (SDF) muscles?
    • DDF - distal phalanges
    • SDF - proximal to the DDF insertion
  54. What is the rectus sheath?
    Aponeuroses of the abdominal muscles around the rectus abdominis muscle.
  55. What muscles cover the trachea ventrally?
    Two paired "strap muscles" (sternohyoideus & sternothyroideus muscles)
  56. What muscles are above and below the transverse processes of the vertebrae?
    • Epaxial muscles (above)
    • Hypaxial muscles (below)
  57. What are extensors of the stifle and what innervates them?
    Cranial thigh (quadriceps) muscles, femoral nerve
  58. What is the action and innervation of of the medial thigh muscles?
    Adduction, obturator nerve
  59. What are the actions of the crural muscles?
    • Craniolateral - extensors of digits & flexors of the tarsus (called extensors)
    • Caudal - flexors of digits & extensors of the tarsus (called flexors)
  60. What is the innervation of the extensor muscles of the crus?
    Craniolateral extensors - common fibular nerve
  61. What nerve innervates the thin muscles of facial expression?
    Facial nerve (CrN 7)
  62. What is the muscle of facial expression that encircles the eyes?
    Orbicularis oculi muscle, facial nerve (auriculopalpebral branch)
  63. What nerve is sensory to the three areas of the face and motor to the muscles of mastication?
    Trigeminal nerve
  64. What is the motor innervation to the muscles of the tongue?
    Hypoglossal nerve (CrN 12)
  65. What is the function of the cutaneous muscle?
    Twitch skin, shoo flies away.
  66. How is the nervous system divided:
    a. Functionally?
    b. Structurally?
    • a. Somatic (body) & autonomic (ANS) nervous systems.
    • b. Central (CNS) & peripheral (PNS) nervous systems.
  67. Which functional division of the NS keeps the body in balance with its external and internal environments respectively?
    • External - Somatic
    • Internal - Autonomic
  68. What are the two parts of the central nervous system?
    Brain & spinal cord.
  69. What are the parts of the peripheral nervous system?
    Cranial & spinal nerves and ganglia.
  70. What are the two impulses of the nervous system, both somatic and autonomic?
    Sensory (afferent) & motor (efferent).
  71. What nervous structures pass from the spinal cord to the periphery?
    Spinal nerves (LMN)
  72. Where do the spinal nerves leave the vertebral column?
    Intervertebral foramen.
  73. What arises from the spinal cord to form a spinal nerve?
    Dorsal (sensory) & ventral (motor) roots.
  74. What are the two main branches of spinal nerves? What do they carry?
    Dorsal & ventral branches (mixed: motor and sensory fibers)
  75. What areas do the ventral and dorsal motor branches of the spinal nerves supply motor innervation?
    • Ventral - muscles ventral to transverse process
    • Dorsal - muscles dorsal to transverse process, sensory not exactly the same
  76. What spinal nerve branches supply sensation from the skin of the abdominal wall and back?
    • Dorsal - back (above transverse processes) & upper flank (including area below transverse process)
    • Ventral - the rest
  77. List the components of a reflex arc.
    • Stimulus
    • Receptor
    • Sensory (afferent) neuron
    • Interneuron or associated neuron
    • Motor (efferent) neuron or LMN
    • Effector organ (the muscle of gland innervated by a motor neuron)
  78. What are aggregations of nerve cell bodies in the CNS? PNS?
    • CNS - nucleus
    • PNS - ganglion
  79. What is gray matter?
    Part of nervous tissue containing neuronal cell bodies.
  80. What is white matter?
    Part of nervous tissue consisting mainly of myelinated nerve fibers/axons.
  81. What is a nerve?
    A bundle of nerve processes outside the CNS.
  82. What are nerve tracts or fasciculi?
    Nerve fiber bundles of common origin in the brain & spinal cord.
  83. What forms nerve plexuses that are clinically significant?
    Interlacing ventral branches of spinal nerves.
  84. What important nerve arises from the cervical and brachial plexuses and supplies the diaphragm?
    Phrenic nerve.
  85. What plexus supplies some of the extrinsic and all of the intrinsic muscles of the thoracic limb?
  86. What plexus supplies the abdominal wall, pelvic limb, external genitalia, rump and perineum?
    Lumbosacral plexus.
  87. What is a dermatome?
    An area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve.
  88. What two muscles does the suprascapular nerve innervate?
    Supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
  89. Where does the radial nerve first reach the skin?
    Lateral arm, under the border of the lateral triceps (susceptible to injury)
  90. What innervates the cutaneous trunci muscle?
    Lateral thoracic nerve.
  91. What nerve innervates the flexor of the elbow & thus necessary for weight bearing?
    Radial nerve.
  92. What nerve supplies the extensors of the elbow, carpus & digits?
    Radial nerve (extensor nerve).
  93. What is the cutaneous innervation of the paw of the ulnar nerve?
    Abaxial 5th (lateral) digit.
  94. What is the large nerve crossing the heart to the diaphragm?
    Phrenic nerve.
  95. What is a branch of the vagus that returns to the neck?
    Recurrent laryngeal nerve.
  96. What does the recurrent laryngeal nerve innervate? What muscle is clinically important in horses/dogs with roarers?
    Most laryngeal skeletal muscles; Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle.
  97. What nerves supply the intercostal muscles and a lot of the thoracic wall?
    Intercostal nn. (ventral branches of the thoracic nn.)
  98. What do the ventral and dorsal branches of spinal nn. T13, L1, L2 and L3 supply?
    • Ventral branches - motor to abdominal muscles & skin of ventral abdomen.
    • Dorsal branches - Motor and sensory to area above transverse process of the vertebrae, also sensory to the skin on the top dorsal flank (paralumbar fossa)
  99. What nerve supplies motor innervation to the adductors of the thigh?
    Obturator nerve.
  100. What nerve innervates the extensors of the pelvic limb? Cutaneous innervation of this nerve?
    Common fibular (peroneal) nerve.
  101. What is the cutaneous branch of the femoral nerve?
    Saphenous nerve to the medial limb.
  102. What nerve is required to bear weight on the pelvic limb?
    Femoral nerve (L4-6), extends the stifle.
  103. What nerve supplies the anus and the external anal sphincter?
    Caudal rectal nerve.
  104. What is a spinal cord segment?
    Portion demarcated by the pair of spinal nn. that arise from it.
  105. Name the five divisions of the spinal cord.
    Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, caudal.
  106. Name the five functional divisions of the spinal cord.
    • Area 1 (Cervical) : C1-5
    • Area 2 (Brachial) : C6-T2
    • Area 3 (Thoracolumbar) : T3-L3
    • Area 4 (Pelvic limb) : L4-S1
    • Area 5 (Sacral & caudal) : S2-Can.
  107. What is the central "H"-shaped mass of a spinal cord cross section?
    Gray matter (cell bodies give color)
  108. Of what does white matter of the spinal cord consist?
    Myelinated axons running up and down cord.
  109. What are ascending and descending tracks of the spinal cord and what do they carry?
    • Ascending - myelinated afferent axons, sensory information
    • Descending - myelinated efferent axons of UMN, motor fibers
  110. Where does the spinal cord end in the dog? Cat?
    • Dog - above body of vertebrae L6 (6-7)
    • Cat - above sacrum
  111. What are the meninges (sin.=menix)?
    Three connective tissue coverings that encircle the spinal cord & brain.
  112. List the spaces associated with the meninges.
    • Epidural space - between the vertebrae & the dura mater
    • Subarachnoid space - between the pia & the arachnoid, it contains CSF.
  113. List and describe the meninges.
    • Dura mater - the outer tough meninx
    • Arachnoid - the middle meninx pushed against the inside of the dura mater
    • Pia mater - the innermost meninx, closely investing the spinal cord & brain
  114. Describe the two expansions of the subarachnoid space used clinically.
    • Cisterna magna - located between the caudal surface of the cerebellum & the dorsal surface of the medulla, just inside the foramen magnum
    • Lumbar cistern - surrounding the lumbar enlargement of the spinal cord
  115. Where are upper motor neurons (UMN) located?
    In CNS (brain & spinal cord), descending to synapse on LMN.
  116. Where are lower motor neurons (LMN) located?
    Extending away from spinal cord & brain to muscles or glands (form nn.)
  117. Are spinal nerves lower or upper motor neurons?
  118. What does the efferent neuron (LMN) of a reflex arc connect?
    Spinal cord with muscles or glands.
  119. The lower motor neuron can be ___ active.
  120. What is the function of most UMN?
    Inhibit spontaneous activity of LMN until an action desired.
  121. What is the function of proprioceptive fibers?
    Sense position of body parts to each other & to the environment.
  122. Over what structures do proprioceptive fibers travel?
    Thus, where is the lesion if proprioception is lost?
    • Peripheral nn., spinal cord, brain stem to cerebellum, & cerebrum.
    • Any of the above structures, thus, it doesn't localize the lesion but is a sensative indication that there is a neuro problem.
  123. What structures carry superficial and deep pain sensory fibers?
    Peripheral nerve, spinal cord, brain stem & cerebrum.
  124. What is a dermatome? Autonomous zone?
    Area of skin innervated by a nerve, only 1 spinal nerve respectively.
  125. How can knowing the spinal segments innervating myotomes and dermatomes be used clinically?
    Used to localize lesions.
  126. How is the brain divided functionally?
    Cerebrum/diencephalon (forebrain), brain stem, vestibular system & cerebellum.
  127. What makes up the forebrain and what is its function?
    Cerebrum & diencephalon (higher functions & controls ANS & endocrine)
  128. What is responsible for consciousness and arousal? Where is it located?
    Reticular activation system (RAS), brainstem
  129. List three clinically significant parts of the brainstem.
    Cranial nn. 3-12, vital centers & reticular activation system.
  130. Name the three vital reflex centers in the brainstem?
    Cardiac, vasomotor & respiratory
  131. What is the function of the cerebellum?
    Coordinate movements, maintain equilibrium & maintain posture.
  132. What is the function of the vestibular system?
    Controls posture and balance.
  133. For lesion localization how can the vestibular system be divided?
    • Peripheral vestibular part - inner ear
    • Central vestibular portion - brain stem
    • Centers in the cerebellum
  134. What does contralateral and ipsilateral mean?
    • Contralateral - opposite side
    • Ipsilateral - same side
  135. Name the cranial nerves.
    • 1 - Olfactory
    • 2 - Optic
    • 3 - Oculomotor
    • 4 - Trochlear
    • 5 - Trigeminal
    • 6 - Abducens
    • 7 - Facial
    • 8 - Vestibulocochlear
    • 9 - Glossopharyngeal
    • 10 - Vagus
    • 11 - Accessory (spinal accessory)
    • 12 - Hypoglossal
  136. What cranial nerve is entirely sensory (special sensory). dealing with vision?
    Optic nerve (CrN 2)
  137. What cranial nerves move the eye?
    • Oculomotor (CrN 3)
    • Trochlear (CrN 4)
    • Abducens (CrN 6)
  138. What is the function of the parasympathetic fibers of the oculomotor nerve?
    Motor involuntary/smooth mm. of the eye (near focus leans & constrict pupil)
  139. What does the trigeminal nerve (CrN 5) innervate?
    Sensory to most of head by 3 branches & muscles of mastication.
  140. What does the facial nerve (CrN 7) innervate?
    • Muscles of facial expression (including orbicularis oculi & eyelids)
    • Lacrimal gland (ANS)
    • Taste
  141. What does the auriculopalpebral nerve (br. of CrN 7) innervate?
    Eyelids (& ear muscles)
  142. What are the most important functions of the facial nerve clinically?
    • Motor to orbicularis oculi m.
    • Lacrimal gland (dry eye)
  143. Where are the buccal branches of the facial nerve?
    Cross masseter muscle laterally and superficially
  144. What is the trigeminal / facial reflex arc?
    • Trigeminal nerve - sensory component
    • Facial nerve - motor component
  145. What is the eighth cranial nerve? With what does it deal?
    • Vestibulocochlear nerve
    • Hearing & balance, motion
  146. What cranial nerve carries autonomic nerve fibers between the brain and the viscera of the thorax and abdomen?
    Vagus (CrN 10)
  147. What motor nerves supply the pharynx to aid in swallowing?
    • Vagus (CrN 10) n.
    • Glossopharyngeal (CrN 9) n.
  148. What is the recurrent laryngeal nerve? What does it innervate?
    • Branch of vagus n.
    • Arises in thorax and extends back to larynx to innervate skeletal mm. of larynx, including cricoarytenoideus dorsalis m.
  149. What clinically important nerves pass through the middle ear?
    • Facial nerve (CrN 7)
    • Sympathetic fibers
  150. What type of nerve is the hypoglossal (CrN 12)?
    What does it innervate?
    • Motor nerve (somatic)
    • Tongue mm.
  151. Parasympathetic fibers are carried over what four cranial nerves?
    • Oculomotor (CrN 3)
    • Facial (CrN 7)
    • Glossopharyngeal (CrN 9)
    • Vagus (CrN 10)
  152. How does the autonomic nervous system (ANS) work?
    Without conscious effort to maintain the homeostasis of the organism.
  153. What structures does the ANS (autonomic nervous system) regulate?
    • Smooth & cardiac muscles
    • Glands
  154. What is the function of each division of the ANS?
    • Parasympathetic - energy conserving ("couch potato")
    • Sympathetic - energy expending ("fight or flight")
  155. Where do the two divisions of the ANS arive?
    • Sympathetic - thoracolumbar outflow
    • Parasympathetic - craniosacral ("para places") outflow
  156. How does the ANS differ structurally from the somatic nervous system?
    It has 2 LMN (efferent) instead of one.
  157. What are the two LMN of the autonomic nervous system?
    • Preganglionic
    • Postganglionic
  158. Where does the preganglionic fiber synapse with the postganglionic efferent fiber in relationship to the CNS?
    In ganglia distal to/outside of the CNS.
  159. What is the parasympathetic innervation to the thorax and most of the abdomen?
    Vagus nerve (CrN 10)
  160. What separates the respiratory and digestive passages in the head?
    Hard & soft palates.
  161. Name the four types of permanent teeth and give their abbreviations.
    • Incisors (I)
    • Canine (C)
    • Premolars (PM)
    • Molars (M)
  162. What are the three divisions of the pharynx/throat (common passageway for the digestive and respiratory systems)?
    Oro-, naso-, & laryngopharynx
  163. What structure separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?
    Soft palate
  164. Name the lymphoid tissue in the lateral wall of the oropharynx.
    Palatine tonsil.
  165. What is the largest meatus located between the ventral nasal concha and the hard palate?
    Ventral nasal meatus.
  166. What is the unpaired hyoid bone that crosses the midline?
    Basihyoid bone
  167. What does the pull of cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle on the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage do?
    Swings vocal process & vocal cords laterally, thus, opening glottic cleft
  168. What is the only laryngeal muscle which opens the glottic cleft?
    Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle.
  169. What is the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity?
    Glottic cleft.
  170. To which side of the trachea does the esophagus incline in the middle of the neck?
  171. How does the cavity of the bony thorax relate to the thoracic cavity?
    Larger, dome of the diaphragm extends into bony thorax to 6th intercostal space (encases abdomen).
  172. ***The descending duodenum is on what side of the abdomen?***
  173. Where is the cecum located?
    Right side between small & rest of large intestine.
  174. List three different types of peritoneum.
    • Parietal (wall)
    • Visceral
    • Connecting
  175. How are mesentaries (connecting peritoneum) named?
    Meso + organ connected
  176. Where are the ovaries located in the carnivores?
    Caudal to kidneys in the sublumbar region
  177. What is the suspensory ligament in carnivores?
    Part of broad ligament connecting the ovary to last 1 or 2 ribs.
  178. What is the fornix of the vagina?
    Ventral recess formed by the cervix projecting into the vagina.
  179. Describe the cat scrotum's location and appearance.
    • Perineal (close to anus)
    • Densely covered by hair
  180. What is the relationship of the ducuts deferens to the ureters?
    Loops dorsally over the ureters ("water under bridge")
  181. What is the inguinal canal?
    Passageway through caudal abdominal wall.
  182. Name the three main parts of the vaginal tunic.
    Visceral, parietal, & connecting vaginal tunic
  183. The vaginal cavity is continuous with the ____ at the vaginal ring.
    Peritoneal cavity
  184. On what side of the spermatic cord is the ductus deferens?
  185. What is the definition of an artery? A vein?
    • Artery - vessels that travel away from the heart.
    • Vein - vessels that travel towards the heart.
  186. What specific large vein returns blood from roughly the cranial and caudal part of the body directly to the heart?
    • Cranial vena cava
    • Caudal vena cava
  187. What are the chambers of the heart in the order they receive blood?
    • Right atrium
    • Right ventricle
    • Left atrium
    • Left ventricle
  188. What side of the heart is part of the pulmonic circulation?
    Right side
  189. What side of the heart is part of the systemic circulation?
    Left side
  190. What is the outflow of the heart (left side) to the body?
  191. What arteries travel up the neck to supply the head and face?
    Common carotid arteries.
  192. What vein returns blood from the head and neck?
    External jugular veins.
  193. Name the three unpaired branches to the abdominal viscera of the abdominal aorta?
    Celiac, cranial & caudal mesenteric arteries.
  194. Name the main branches of the terminal aorta.
    • 2 External iliac - to the pelvic limb
    • 2 Internal iliac - to pelvis
    • 1 Median sacral - to tail
  195. What is the main artery to the uterus?
    Uterine artery.
  196. What vessels supply the ventral abdominal wall?
    Where do they run?
    • Cranial and caudal epigastric vessels
    • On the ventral abdomen, on either side of the midline
  197. What is the direct continuation of the external iliac artery out of the abdominal cavity to the pelvic limb for which it is the main supply?
    Femoral artery.
  198. What is the vascular supply to the ovary?
    Ovarian artery and vein in mesovarium
  199. What is the large vein draining the intestines to the sinusoids of the liver?
    Portal vein
  200. Where do the ovarian or testicular veins drain?
    • Right - into caudal vena cava
    • Left - left renal vein (to avoid crossing aorta)
  201. What vessels crosses the ventral surface of the adrenal gland and thus, are a surgical landmark for finding these structures?
    Phrenioabdominal vv.
  202. Where is the cephalic vein located?
    On the cranial surface of the forearm.
  203. What is the vein on the ventral surface of the tail that is the direct continuation of the medial sacral vein?
    Median caudal v.
  204. What are the two superficial veins of the pelvic limb?
    Medial & lateral saphenous veins
  205. What vein is on either side of the ventral surface of the tongue?
    Lingual vein (the sublingual vein is on the floor of the mouth)
  206. Describe the thoracic duct.
    The major lymphatic vessel returning most of the lymph collected in the body back into the general circulation at the venous angle.
  207. List the superficial lymph nodes of the body and their locations.
    • Parotid
    • Mandibular, superficial cervical lymph nodes
    • Popliteal - superficial inguinal lymph nodes
  208. What lymph node is located near the end of the aorta above the descending colon?
    Medial iliac lymph nodes
  209. The skin consists of what two layers?
    Epidermis and dermis
  210. The two layers of the skin (epidermis and dermis) lie on the ____.
    • Subcutaneous layer, superficial fascia, subcutis
    • Hypodermis, SQ or SC
  211. Where is the skin thin?
    Where is it thick?
    • Belly
    • Neck
  212. What is another name for eyelids?
  213. What is the function of the pupil?
    Control amount of light coming into the eye.
  214. What is the flap of skin inside the medial part of the eyelids?
    Third eyelid (nictitating membrane)
  215. How can you get the third eyelid to cross the eye for examination?
    Open the palpebral fissure & press the eyeball through the lateral upper lid.
  216. How can the mouth be opened to look in the oral cavity?
    Grasp the upper jaw with one hand & push down on the incisors with a finger of the other.
  217. List the type of teeth and their abbreviations.
    • Incisor (I)
    • Canine (C)
    • Premolar (PM)
    • Molar (M)
  218. What are the large, shearing teeth of dogs and cats?
    Carnassial or sectorial teeth (upper premolar 4 & lower molar 1)
  219. Describe the external ear canal.
    Two parts, vertical part passes down takes a sharp turn & continues as the horizontal part to the ear drum (tympanic membrane).
  220. What is the pocket of skin in the caudal edge of the ear?
    Cutaneous pouch.
  221. What do the costal cartilages of the ribs caudal to the sternum form?
    Costal arch.
  222. What remains of the entrance of the umbilical cord?
    Umbilicus or belly button (faint scar)
  223. How many mammae does the dog usually have?
    8 to 10/ 4 to 5 pairs
  224. What is the lateral area between the back legs on the stomach?
    Inguinal region.
  225. What is the most dorsal portion of the flank?
    Paralumbar fossa.
  226. What are the boundaries of the perineum?
    • Base of the tail
    • Tuber ischii
    • Past the vulva (female), to base of the scrotum (male dog), past the scrotum (male cats)
  227. Where are the openings of the anal sacs (clock faced analogy)?
    4 & 8 o'clock position.
  228. What is the depression on either side of the anus?
    Ischiorectal fossa.
  229. Where would you find the tibia and fibula?
    Crus or true leg (gaskin).
  230. Where is the clitoris found?
    In the ventral commissure of labia.
Card Set
SGU Veterinary Anatomy
SGU Veterinary Anatomy 1 (section 1)