1. An EMT at a basic level of operating as a designated agent of the:
    medial director
  2. The first concern of an EMT must be:
    Personal safety
  3. What is NOT a role or responsibility for an EMT?
    providing medical direction
  4. An order from an EMS systems on-duty physician given by radio or phone is an example of:
    on-line medical control
  5. A good personal trait for an EMT is
  6. List of steps, such as assessment and interventions to be taken in different situations by EMS personnel are known as:
  7. Organisms that cuase infection, such as viruses and bacteria are:
  8. Equipment and procedures that protect you from the blood and body fluids of the patient are referred to as
    standard precautions
  9. A single incident that produces multiple patients is an:
  10. The positive form of stress that helps people work under pressure and respond effectively is:
  11. The goal of the CISD, which may be held before the formal debriefing is called a(n):
    defusing session
  12. The stage of grieving in which a patient seeks to postpone death, even for a short time, is:
  13. It is important that the EMT follow the same path in and out of a crime scene in order to:
    prevent disturbing the crime scene
  14. The goal of the CISD is to:
    assist emergency care workers in dealing with stress
  15. Which of the following materials is NOT recommended for gloves to be used when there is the potential for contact with blood and other body fluids?
  16. Personal protective equipment doesn't include:
    cotton scrub pants
  17. An ambulance crew's participation in a constructive mutual critique after each call is part of the process known as:
    quality control
  18. Simply stated, liability means:
    legal responsibility
  19. The extent and limits of the job that the EMT does are referred to as:
    scope of practice
  20. Once police have been made the scene safe, the priority of the EMT at a crime scene is to:
    provide patient care
  21. If you discover that a critically injured patient is an organ donor, as an EMT you should:
    notify the nurse of physcian at the hospital
  22. A DNR order is one example of a(n):
    advance directive
  23. A loss that requires reimbursement is called
  24. If a jury finds that an EMT had a duty to a patient, that he failed to carry out that duty properly, and that his action caused harm to the patient, the EMT would be guilty of:
  25. Legislative measures intended to provide legal protection for citizens and some health care personnel who administer emergency care are known as
    good samaritan laws
  26. A person whom the signer of a document names to make all heath care decisions in case the signer is unable to make such decisions for himself or herself is called a(n):
  27. An EMT's obligation in certain situations to proved care to a patient is referred to as a(n):
    duty to act
  28. Refusal to go to the hospital may ba a form of ________, of unwillingnesss to accept the idea of illness.
  29. EMS personnel can treat unconscious patients because the law holds that rational patients would consent to treatment if they were conscious; this principle is known as:
    implied consent
  30. Minors who are married or of certain age and who are legally able to give consent for medical care are known as:
  31. When a patient refuses care, he or she must sign a(n):
    release form
  32. The principle that information about a patient's history, condition, or treatment must not be shared with unauthorized parties is called
  33. The study of functions of hte body is called:
  34. The anatomical position is best described as a person:
    standing, facing forward, palms facing forward
  35. Another word for anterior is:
  36. The scapula and acromion are parts of the:
  37. The body contains how many different types of muscle:
  38. The pressure created in the arteries when blood is forced out of the heart is referred to as:
  39. The endocrine system produces chemicals called:
  40. Body functions such as digestion and heart rate are controlled by the:
    autonomic nervous system
  41. The adequate supply of oxygen and nutrients to the organs and tissues of hte body is called:
  42. The component of the blood that has a primary function of carrying oxygen to tissue is:
  43. The pulse is checked during infant CPR is the:
  44. The chamber that pumps oxygen-rich blood out of the heart for distribution to the rest of the body is the:
    left ventricle
  45. After inhaled air goes through the larynx, the next part of the respiratory system the air passes as it moves to the lungs is the:
  46. The largest artery in the body is the:
  47. Then you are moving a heavy object, most of hte work should be done by the muslcles in your:
  48. The preferred device for carrying a conscious medical patient down a flight of steps is the:
    stair chair
  49. Unresponsive paitnets without suspected spinal injuries should be placed in the:
    recovery position
  50. The method commonly used to transfer a patient from a bed at home to the gurney is:
    draw-sheet method
  51. The method that should be used when moving a patient onto a long spine board is the:
    log roll
  52. The first step of emergency care in the patient with inadequate breathing is:
    opening and maintaining the patient's airway
  53. The reduction of breathing to the point where oxygen intake is not sufficient to support life is called:
    respiratory failure
  54. The most difficult part of delivering BVM artificial ventilations is:
    obtaining an adequate mask seal
  55. Insufficiency in the supply of oxygen to the body's tissues is called:
  56. Patient conditions that may require supplemental oxygen include:
    shock, head injury, and broken bones
  57. Oropharyngeal airways can be used on unconscious patients except those who:
    have a gag reflex
  58. If you do not have the proper size oropharyngeal airway to fit your patient:
    do not use one
  59. A nasal cannula should be used to deliver oxygen to a patient who
    will not tolerate a nonrebreather mask
  60. Which of the following may be useful in determining nature of illness/injury?
    the patient, family, and bystanders
  61. The portion of the assessment that is designed to identify and treat immediately life-threatening conditions is called the:
    initial assessment
  62. Using the AVPU scale, a patient who will respond only to a brisk rubbing of the sternum would receive a rating of:
  63. The assessment sign that is generally more reliable in children than adults is:
    capillary refill
  64. Which of the following is not a vital sign?
    mental status
  65. For unstable patients, and EMT should take vital signs every:
    5 minutes
  66. The skin color that indicates poor circulation is:
  67. All of the following are signs of labored breathing except:
  68. The decision to do a rapid trauma assessment is based on:
    mechanism of injury
  69. Among the most common injuries that an EMT can expect to see are
  70. On most runs by EMT crews, most of the history of the present illness for a child is usually gathered from the:
  71. The part of the patient's history that the EMT must report in the patients own words is:
    chief complaint
  72. The federal agency that assigns and licenses radio frequencies used by EMS units is the:
  73. Documentation of a call usually begins:
    early in the call
  74. In writing narratives, EMT's usually place quotation marks around:
    chief complaints
  75. During a multiple-casualty incident, patient information is usually passed along by:
    triage tags
  76. The medication that an EMT may administer when a poisoning has been swallowed:
    activated charcoal
  77. A severe allergic reaction to a bee sting would be treated by administering:
  78. Crushing chest pain in a patient with a known history of heart problems would be treated by administering
  79. A harsh, high-pitched sound during breathing is called:
  80. A whistling sound from a narrowed bronchial airway is called:
  81. In an infant or child, bradycardia is a sign of:
    respiratory failure
  82. All of the following are examples of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease EXCEPT:
    black lung
  83. The best known symptom of a heart problem is:
    crushing chest pain
  84. The medical term for difficulty breathing is:
  85. The malfunction of the heart;s electrical system will generally result in a(n):
  86. Which of the following is a contraindication for the administration of nitroglycerin?
    Patient has taken Viagra
  87. Fluid buildup in the lungs caused by inadequate pumping of the heart is known as:
    pulmanary edema
  88. What term is used to indicate voluntary or involuntary protecting of the abdomen to prevent further pain upon palpitation?
  89. The route by which glucose is administered is:
  90. Signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following except:
    increaed appetite
  91. The medical name for shock, a condition associated with extreme allergic reaction is
  92. All of the following are signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal except:
    abdominal cramps and diarrhea
  93. Reduced pulse rate, constricted pupils, profuse sweating. and reduced depth of breathing indicate the possible use of:
  94. Carbon monoxide is an example of:
    inhaled poison
Card Set