EMT: quiz1

  1. Most states require refresher training for EMT-B's every:
    1-2 years
  2. An EMT at a basic level is operating as a designated agent of the:
    Medical Director
  3. What is NOT a role or responsibility for an EMT
    Providing medical direction
  4. The first concern of an EMT must be:
    Personal Safety
  5. A policy set by an EMS Medical Director that allows EMT's to administer glucose to patients in
    certain circumstances without speaking to the physician is an example of a:
    standing order
  6. An order from an EMS system's on-duty physician given by radio or phone is an example of:
    on-line medical direction
  7. The level of EMS training in which the emphasis is on activating the EMS system and controlling immediate life-threatening emergencies is:
    First responder
  8. A good personal trait for an EMT is
  9. Lists of steps, such as assessment and interventions, to be taken in
    different situations by EMS personnel are known as:
  10. What is a way for an EMT to have a role in the quality
    improvement (QI) process?
    Continue their education.
  11. Organisms that cause infection, such as viruses and bacteria are:
  12. Equipment and procedures that protect you from the blood and body fluids of the patient
    are referred to as:
    Standard Precautions
  13. Gloves, masks, and gowns are examples of:
  14. The positive form of stress that helps people work under pressure and respond effectively is:
  15. A single incident that produces multiple patients is an:
  16. The goal of CISD is to:
    assist emergency care workers in dealing with stress
  17. An initial component of the CISD, which may be held before the formal debriefing is called
    defusing session
  18. The stage of grieving in which a patient seeks to postpone death, even for a short time is:
  19. It is important that the EMT follow the same path in and out of a crime scene in order to:
    prevent disturbing the crime scene
  20. The agency that has issued strict guidelines detailing precautions against exposure to
    blood borne pathogens is the:
    Occupational Safetyand Health Administration
  21. Mentally competent adults of legal age who accept care from an EMS
    crew are said to give:
    expressed consent
  22. EMS personnel can treat unconscious patients because the law holds that rational
    patients would consent to treatment if they were conscious; this principle is
    known as:
    implied consent
  23. Minors who are married or of a certain age and who are legally able to give consent for medical care are known
  24. If an EMT forces a competent patient to go to the hospital against his/her will, the EMT may be
    charged with:
  25. A legal document, usually signed by the patient and his physician, stating that the
    patient has a terminal illness and does not wish to prolong life through resuscitative efforts is called a(n):
    DNR order
  26. Legislative measures intended to provide legal protection for citizens and some health care personnel
    Good Samaritan Laws
  27. An EMTs obligation in certain situations to provide care to a patient is referred to as
    duty to act
  28. Leaving a patient after care has been initiated and before the patient has been transferred to
    someone with equal or greater medical training is known as:
  29. The extents and limits of the job that the EMT does are referred to as:
    scope of practice
  30. An ambulance crew's participation in a constructive mutual critique after each call is part of the
    process known as:
    quality improvement
  31. Refusal to go to a hospital may be in a form of _______, or unwillingness to accept the ideal of illness.
  32. A person whom the
    signer of a document names to make health care decisions in case the signer is
    unable to make such decisions for himself or herself is called a(n):
  33. If a jury finds that an EMT had a duty to a patient, that he failed to carry out that duty
    properly, and that his actions caused harm to the patient, the EMT would be
    guilty of:
  34. A loss that requires reimbursement is called:
  35. Once police have made the scene safe, the priority of the EMT at a crime scene is to:
    provide patient care
  36. Simply stated, liability means:
    legal responsibility
  37. If you discover that a critically injured patient is an organ donor, as and EMT you
    notify the nurse or physician at thehospital
  38. A DNR is one example of a(n):
    advanced directive
  39. The principle that information about a patient's history, condition, or treatment must not be
    shared with unauthorized parties is called:
  40. Vehicles holding hazardous materials should be identified with:
  41. Which of the following materials is NOT recommended for gloves to be used when there is
    a potential for contact with blood and other body fluids?
  42. Personal protective equipment includes all of the following except:
    cotton scrub pants
  43. Under the Ryan White Care Act, the officials in every emergency response organization who
    gather facts about possible emergency responder exposure to infectious diseases
    are the :
    designated officers
  44. Hepatitis B, TB, and AIDS are communicable diseases of greatest concern because they are:
    potentially life threatening
  45. The test that can detect exposure to tuberculosis is the:
    PPD test
  46. An infection that causes an inflammation of the liver is:
  47. A situation that would usually call for the use of a gown as protection would be one involving:
  48. The three "R's" of reacting to danger are:
    retreat, radio, reevaluate
  49. In cases where TB is suspected, use a:
    HEPA respirator
  50. Making false allegations for the purpose of harming one's reputation is called:
Card Set
EMT: quiz1
QUIZ: Chapters 1-3