61. During an MCE gaining handover, the Ku command link is established when:
C. the "Ku Command Link Lost" warning message disappears.
62. (MCE Operations) How long should LOS uplink signal strengths be greater than 0% before disabling the Command Link (on the ground)?
B. 5 sec
63. (MCE Operations) Before airborne handover, the airspeed, altitude and heading hold should be set to ensure valid parameters are established in the autopilot, in the event an inadvertent uplink is established.
a. true
b. false
a. true
64. It is possible for the actual nose camera lens inside the fuselage to fog during descent. Fogging of the actual nose camera lens can be prevented with the use of nose lens heat.
a. true
b. false
b. false
65. The UPS and batteries will power the PPO racks for approximately _____ minutes without line power.
C. 18
66. If power is cut off to a GCS on fire, the UPS batteries will still provide power if they were not turned off prior to evacuation.
a. true
b. false
a. true
67. With a left PSO rack failure or rack lock-up, the pilot has the option of sending the aircraft lost link while configuring the right PSO rack.
a. true
b. false
a. true
68. If no emergency mission is loaded on PSO 2 before pressing the rack switch button, the emergency mission start point will immediately change to _____ regardless of what the PSO-1 tracker display shows.
A. Waypoint 1
69. A Loss of Control situation may be indicated by
D. All of the above
70. A stall condition may be indicated by
D. All of the above
71. If primary and secondary airspeeds exceed a ____ KIAS differential, ensure that the Airspeed or Pilot/Static Failure checklist is executed prior to switching airspeed source.
C. 5
72. When SAS is engaged in flight, stick commands will not match actual aircraft pitch and roll angles for 0.5 seconds. During this time, GCS stick commands will be interpreted as control surface commands and may contribute to loss of aircraft control.
a. true
b. false
a. true
73. If an aileron or tail servo exceeds _____ degrees C, land as soon as possible.
D. 165
74. Flight control servos have a high probability of failure after ____ minutes at ____ degrees C.
D. 10, 200
75. When battery voltage drops below _____ volts, all electrical power may be lost.
A. 22
76. If the engine is windmilling above _____ RPM, the Engine Start command will have no effect.
B. 1000
77. A loss of coolant could be indicated by a large difference (greater than 50 degrees) between ______ and water temperature.
A. CHT
78. Turning on the engine cooling fan may help decrease high EGT or MCT.
a. true
b. false
b. false
79. Impending propeller servo failure is indicated by erratic Prop P Amps and increasing Prop Servo Temp above _____.
B. 165° C
80. Turbocharger failure is indicated by excessive or inadequate ______ or warning messages on the HDD.
B. MAP
81. When operating in VPP mode, any change in _____ will have an immediate effect on MAP and RPM. The pilot must monitor RPM and MAP closely to prevent an engine overspeed or overboost.
D. All of the above
82. Changing to VPP Mode at high airspeeds can result in over speed if the propeller control lever is not set below the current propeller command.
a. true
b. false
a. true
83. If the alternator is functional, wind-milling RPM above _____ will provide electrical power to the system.
D. 1600
84. For an engine-out straight-in approach, a good reference is a no wind glide of _____ feet per nm (propeller stopped), or _____ feet per nm (propeller wind milling) to the reference point of 1/3 down the landing surface
A. 600 / 800
85. During a forced landing and operating on battery power, once the landing gear is lowered, battery life may preclude another full landing cycle prior to a successful touchdown.
a. true
b. false
a. true
86. For a straight-in forced landing pattern maintain a clean aircraft configuration glide at maximum range airspeed until reaching a point ____ nautical miles and ____feet AGL (propeller stopped) then lower the landing gear.
C. 1, 600
87. What are the correct altitudes for A, B and C (assuming stopped propeller)?
B. A= 1800-2000' AGL B= 1000-1200' AGL C= 600-800' AGL
88. Battery capacity decreases at temperatures above _____ and can be seriously degraded at temperatures of _____ and above.
B. 35˚ C, 50˚ C
89. The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart shows typical amperage for each listed device. However, momentary in-rush current can be up to _____ times as much when a unit is first turned on.
C. 2-3
90. (Block 10) Decreasing oil level may be an indication of an oil leak, oil consumption, or oil foaming. Below what oil level must an RTB be initiated?
B. 50%
91. When AGM-114 missiles are fired from MQ-1B aircraft, auto tracking is automatically suspended for __ seconds.
C. 4
92. The LTM is eye safe beyond ___ km.
B. 1.0 km
93. The LRD PRF code can be set to values ranging from _____ to _____.
A. 1111, 1888
94. The effective slant range of the ROVER system is about ____ nautical miles using an aircraft omni antenna and over ____ nautical miles using the aircraft directional antenna.
A. 20, 70
95. (914i) Maximum allowable RPM is ____, while a Rev Limiter prevents speeds above _____.
C. 5900, 5800
96. The maximum EGT difference between cylinders in flight (for all power settings ) is:
B. 350˚ F
97. What is the maximum allowable Cylinder Head Temperature (CHT)?
B. 260˚ F
98. (914i) What is the maximum allowable difference between MAP sensors?
A. 2.5 in Hg
99. A failing VPP assembly or servo may be indicated if VPP Servo Amps frequently peak above 1.5 for more than an hour.
a. true
b. false
a. true
100. Unless otherwise stated, performance outside normal operations limits, but within the maximum and minimum (“yellow” caution), indicates a malfunction requiring continuous monitoring; however, no permanent damage to the system is likely.
a. true
b. false
a. true
101. Maneuvering speed decreases ________ per 100-pound decrease from maximum weight.
B. 3 KIAS
102. Aircraft ultimate failure occurs with acceleration loads equal to or greater than
A. -2 to +6
103. When using Ku-band datalink, aircraft maneuvering should be limited to ____ pitch and _____ roll.
C. ±10, ±20
104. Flying between 78 and 85 KIAS with flaps commanded down will constantly run the flap servos.
a. true
b. false
a. true
105. In-flight, ______ mode(s) should be turned off in emergency situations only.
C. SAS
106. The Stall Protect feature provides protection for both positive and negative AOA.
a. true
b. false
b. false
107. When operating in turbulent conditions, maneuvering shall be limited to:
D. +1.5g
108. The use of pitot heat will guarantee the absence of ice from the pitot-static system.
a. true
b. false
b. false
109. Weapons pylons increase parasitic drag by _____ and each AGM-114 missile increases drag by an extra _____.
A. 17, 2
110. The AGM-114 requires an acceleration of ___Gs for _____ seconds to arm.
C. 10, 1.3
111. When the AGM-114 Electronic Assembly power is turned ON:
C. A&B above
112. Which launch mode results in the most direct of all trajectories during missile flight?
B. LOAL-D
113. Which launch mode is ideal for use against a cave entrance requiring a horizontal attack?
C. LOAL-L
114. Which launch mode results in a more vertical attack, an option which yields an optimal soft target dispersal pattern?
A. LOAL-H
115. Shortly after powering down the missile, when can you safely reapply power without damaging the seeker gimbals?
A. 30 seconds
116. A _____ is an event when the rocket or missile motor ignites and produces thrust but hangs up on the launcher and does not separate from the aircraft.
C. Hangfire
117. For optimum lethality, the correct combination of _____ must be referenced to get desired results.
D. All of the above
118. The AGM-114M warhead:
C. employs a blast frag warhead that contains a fuze delay for target penetration
119. Do not power on missile unnecessarily. Leaving the missile powered on for extended durations may decrease reliability.
a. true
b. false
a. true
120. Do not select LOBL for either K- or P- missiles. LOBL is not designated for use with MQ-1 and has not been tested.
a. true
b. false
a. true
121. After a misfire, the UAV should loiter in the air if outside temperature on the ground is above ____.
A. 95º F
122. Decreasing shot range and azimuth angle will increase AGM-114P impact angle.
