Volume_2 fixed.txt

  1. You can remove a difficult screw with a square-shank screwdriver by applying a?
    Wrench to the shank
  2. Which of the following is a true statement concerning a properly ground tip on a standard screwdriver?
    It is square and flat
  3. When striking an object with a hammer, the hammer face should be?
    Paralled to the work
  4. What kind of pliers are mainly for holding or bending flat or round stock?
    Combination slip-joint
  5. What kind of pliers are good for pulling cotter pins?
    Diagonal cutting
  6. What type of pliers would you use to bend thin metal or form loops in wire?
    Round-nose
  7. Which wrench is usually the stongest, fastest, and safest in a tool kit?
    Socket
  8. What sequence of files would you use to file soft steel?
    Start with a second-cut, finish with a smooth file
  9. When filing aluminum or lead, you should use a?
    Rasp
  10. What type of guage would you use to measure an actuating switch clearance?
    Thickness
  11. A precaution concerning torque wrenches is to?
    Never use a torque that has been dropped unless it has been verified
  12. Before storing a torque wrench you have used, you should?
    Set it at its lowest usable setting
  13. Tubing used in aircraft oxygen, fuel, lubrication, fire extinguishing, instruments, hydraulic, and vent lines is?
    Aluminum alloy and stainless steel
  14. When torquing a bolt assembly, what is the force applied to overcome friction?
    Torsion
  15. When installing a cotter pin, ensure the prong that bends over the bolt shank does not exceed the bolt?
    Diameter
  16. What is the maximum number of bolts you can safely wire together in series when using the double-twist method?
    Three
  17. Which technical order (TO) tells you the appropriate temperature setting for a wire-marking machine?
    1-1A-14
  18. Wires and wire bundles should be supported by clamps or grommets at intervals of no more than?
    24 inches
  19. All wire groups or bundles must be tied when supports are more than?
    12 inches apart
  20. How many nicked or broken wire strands are allowed on 16-guage aluminum wire?
    None
  21. Solderless terminals are preferred over soldered types mainly because?
    They are faster, cleaner, and more uniform
  22. What ensures a connector plug and receptacle are not mismated?
    Key-and-key way arrangement
  23. How much will termofit material, used in compact wire bundles, shrink when heat is applied to it?
    Half its original diameter
  24. The EMP-hardened cable provides a barrier to?
    Electrostatic interference
  25. A fixed union between two metallic objects that permits good electrical conductivity between them is?
    Bonding
  26. Never use cushioned clamps in any bonding or grounding connection, because the cushion acts as?
    An insulator
  27. After a bonding or grounding jumper is installed it should read no more than?
    0.1 ohms
  28. Which type of solder is preferred for printed circut boards?
    63/37
  29. Oxide film is removed from the surface of metals during the soldering process by?
    The soldering flux
  30. How should you shape a soldering iron's copper tip?
    Use a fine file while the tip is cold
  31. How should you clean a plated soldering tip?
    With an abrasive cloth while the tip is cold
  32. Why do we use termal shunts in soldering?
    They protect heat-sensitive components
  33. You can best determine a soldered connection's quality by?
    Giving it a thorough visual inspection
  34. Prior to soldering electronic equipment, ensure the equipment is?
    Disconnected from the power source
  35. How should you test the heat of a soldering iron?
    Touch the tip to solder, away from your body
  36. How should you remove excess solder from the soldering iron tip?
    Wipe the iron on a damp sponge or rag
  37. An acceptable tinned wire has?
    An insulation clearance equal to the diameter of the wire and wire strands covered with solder, but still visible
  38. You should clean the metal you are soldering to?
    let the solder adhere properly
  39. During soldering, apply the proper amount of solder directly to the?
    connection
  40. How should you remove a component from a printed circuit board?
    Vacuum desoldering
  41. What describes a good solder connection?
    No pits or holes and has a good concave fillet
  42. When making wire connections to turret terminals, wrap the wire around the terminal at least?
    180 degrees
  43. To connect component or wire leads to flat perforated terminals, the wrap must be?
    180 degrees
  44. What is the heaviest duty soldering iron you normally use in soldering a printed circuit board?
    27 watts
  45. You should clean the circuit board connection within how long after it has cooled?
    90 min.
  46. How should a clinched-lead terminal lay in respect to the printed circuit pad?
    Flat on the pad and in the direction of the printed circuit wiring pattern
  47. How should you hold a printed circuit board to desolder a component?
    Vertically
  48. What must you do before soldering gold-plated integrated circuit leads?
    Remove their gold plating
  49. To clean tinned, lead plated circuit boards use?
    a medium bristle brush and alcohol
  50. When soldering a module-type package to a printed circuit board, ensure the connection is soldered within?
    5 sec.
  51. You must repair a circuit board conductor if it has a nick that extends what part of its width?
    25 %
  52. What angle is used to trim out damaged terminal on a circuit board, the replacement foil should overlap the connecting circuit conductor by at least?
    • 0.125 inch
    • What angle is used to trim out damaged foil areas of printed circuit boards?
    • 45 degrees
  53. What is an acceptable substitute for silver solder flux?
    Borax and water
  54. When soldering a brass fitting to copper tubing, how far should the inner cone of the torch flame be kept from the work?
    At least one-half of an inch
  55. To convert Farenheight to Centigrade?
    F=9/5C+32
  56. To convert Centigrade to Farenheight?
    C=5/9(F-32)
  57. How many Btu's does it take to raise the temp. of 5 pounds of water at 5degree F?
  58. 5=9/5 = 25
  59. If an aircraft temp. indicator shows 40 phase C, what is the equivalent Farenheight temp.?
    9/5(40)+32 =72+32 = 104degree F
  60. What happens when gas is trapped in a cylinder and pressure is applied to the piston?
    Volume will decrease
  61. When a gas is heated, its pressure will?
    Increase
  62. What is a true statement concerning a permanent magnet?
    It keeps its magnetism
  63. Which if the following is a good insulator?
    Glass
  64. The intensity of electrical current flow is measured in?
    Amperes
  65. What is the total current in a series circuit that has an applied voltage of 24 volts and a total resistance of 8 ohms?
    E=I(R) 24=I(8) = 3 amperes
  66. The basic function of electricity is to?
    Transfer energy
  67. In a series circuit, when 24 volts is applied and total resistance is 6 ohms, what is the amperage?
    Et=24 It=__ Rt=6 24/6= 4
  68. The total resistance in a parallel circuit is always?
    Less than the smallest resistance in the circuit
  69. The rule that indicates the direction a current-carrying conductor will move in a magnetic field is the?
    Right-hand rule for motors
  70. What is the effective electromotive force (EMF) in a motor?
    The applied voltage minus the CEMF
  71. In a circuit with both coils and capacitors, voltage and current will be?
    Out of phase
  72. AC generators operate on the principle of?
    Induction
  73. One disadvantage of the electrolytic capacitor is that?
    It has a high-power loss
  74. Transformers in low-frequency circuits require a?
    core of low-reluctance magnetic material
  75. The extent to which the primary's magnetic lines cut across the secondary is expressed as?
    Coefficient of coupling
  76. AC power is connected directly to what part of an induction motor?
    Stator
  77. The current in a two-phase induction motor is?
    90 degrees out of phase
  78. The difference between the speed of the stator's rotating magnetic field and the rotor is called?
    A slip
  79. Which of the following is a true statement concerning normal operation of a transistor?
    The collector-base junction is reverse biased
  80. How does the movement of majority carriers in a PNP transistor compare with that in an NPN?
    They move from emitter to collector in both types
  81. What is the difference between the PNP and NPN transistor symbols?
    The direction of the arrow on the emitter lead
  82. Which transistor amplifier configurations have their signal voltages in phase?
    Common base and common collector
  83. What half-wave rectifier component limits the peak current?
    Resistor
  84. The full-wave rectifier is used in?
    Low-voltage and high-voltage circuits
  85. In an elctronic voltage regulator, the series transistor acts like a?
    Variable resistor
  86. What do most logic circuits use to define the input or output condition?
    Voltage polarity
  87. To obtain a high output, the inputs to an AND gate must be?
    High
  88. Which logic gate has a high output when all inputs are low?
    NOR
  89. What unit is used as a circuit-controlling device?
    Switch
  90. If you're troubleshooting a parallel circuit with one leg open, and ammeter connected in series with the whole circuit gives what kind of amperage reading?
    Low
  91. What would the ohmmeter read for a shorted component in a series-parallel circuit?
    Lower than normal or zero
  92. The voltmeter indicates voltage, but it actually measures?
    Current
  93. In measuring an unknown voltage with a voltmeter, what range ahould you use first?
    Highest meter range
  94. If your ohmeter won't adjust to zero when your ready to use it, you should?
    Change the battery
  95. An ohmeter indicates an open circuit when it reads?
    infinity
  96. How do you connect and ammeter in a circuit?
    Series
  97. The AN/USM-33 multimeter uses crystal diodes to change?
    AC Voltage to DC Current
  98. Before taking the first current measurement, you should set the range select switch on the?
    0-600 range
  99. The AN/PSM-37 multimeter indicator has how many range scales?
    Three
  100. What should you do to change the AN/PSM-37 meter's range or function switch without removing the test leads from the circuit?
    Push in the push-to-open-and-reset control
  101. To measure circuit current, you connect an AN/PSM-37 multimeter in?
    series in the circuit
  102. Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to?
    move the decimal point
  103. On the Fluke multimeter, what does it mean when the H symbol is shown on the meter display?
    Touch-hold mode is in use
  104. When measuring resistance with the Fluke multimeter, what does the OL on the display indicate?
    Overload
  105. The thermoswitch tester can check switches with a Farenheight range of?
    200 to 1000 phase
  106. When do you turn the anti skid tester POWER switch on?
    Just after you turn on the aircraft power
  107. What is the maximum current output of the inginter circuit tester?
    5.5 milliamperes
  108. You should perform a preoperational check of the igniter circuit tester at least?
    Prior to each day's use
  109. What does each unit in the test stand incorporate for safety during maintenance?
    Power disconnect switch
  110. What must be done to apply a reactive load to a generator under test?
    Load a power factor
  111. If a circuit has two equal resistors connected in series, a voltmeter connected across an open resistor will read?
    Applied voltage
  112. You would troubleshoot a 28-VDC circuit for a blown fuse (short) with a/an?
    ohmmeter
  113. In checking for a shorted relay in a parallel circuit, you must?
    Isolate the component
  114. Which of the following statements is true concerning nickel-cadmium batteries and lead-acid batteries?
    They must be stored and charged in seperate areas
  115. The greatest hazard in working around a lead-acid battery is?
    Sulfuric acid
  116. The neutralizing agent for sulfuric acid is?
    Bicarbonate of soda
  117. Lead-acid batteries and Ni-Cad batteries are stored and charged in seperate areas because accidentally mixing the electrolytes could?
    neutralize the elctrolytes, causing excessive heat, and the battery may explode
  118. How many cells does a 24-volt, lead-acid battery have?
    12
  119. The number of cells in a normal Ni-Cad battery for a 24-volt aircraft system?
    19
  120. A Ni-Cad battery's seperators are made of nylon and cellophane or _____?
    permion
  121. A fully charged battery should have a specific gravity reading of?
    1.275 to 1.300
  122. What do you use to adjust a lead-acid battery's electrolyte level?
    Self-leveling syringe
  123. Constant-current charging keeps the current at a value that is predetermined by the?
    Manufacturer
  124. In an equalized Ni-Cad battery, each cell's voltage is?
    0 Volt
  125. Pitting corrosion of aluminum or magnesium alloy first appears as?
    White powdery deposit on the metal surface
  126. All metal components of your systems should get a comprehensive inspection for corrosion?
    During all inspections
Author
gorham0585
ID
40284
Card Set
Volume_2 fixed.txt
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Updated