Compatibility Testing (Crossmatch) 8.8

  1. Compatibility testing consists of a variety of tests performed before transfusion to ensure safety of who?
  2. ________ lacks fibrin clots which can cause false agglutination
  3. _________ may inactivate complement, some antibodies may not be detected.
  4. samples for crossmatch should not be more than ____ hours old.
    72 hrs
  5. ________ specimens can mast true hemolysis of antigen-anitbody complexes, reject and redraw.
  6. for Crossmatch, patient and donor RBCs should be saline washed how many times?
  7. for what patients should you use serum/plasma of mother and infant for initial testing?
    <4 months old
  8. Why do you use serum from mother for patients <4 months old?
    blood must be compatible with maternal antibodies that may have crossed placenta
  9. What is the form number for the Blood request form?
    SF 518
  10. What is the secion of the SF 518 that contains the blood component requested, physician's name, and diagnosis or operative procedure and date and time of drawing?
    section 1
  11. in what block of the SF 518 does the person drawing blood sign?
    section 1
  12. what three persons can sign the SF 518?
    • MO
    • RN
    • MLT
  13. Information on specimen and SF 518 must __________.
    agree exactly
  14. what should be done if information on specimen and SF 518 does not agree?
    redraw patient
  15. these may be undetectable now due to decreasing titer or dosage?
    previous identified antibody
  16. this should be checked to confirm previous serological history.
    transfusion record review
  17. This test uses group O human RBC to detect unexpected (alloantibodies) NON-ABO antibodes in patient serum.
    Antibody screen (IAT)
  18. if antibody is identified what should be done to verify corresponding antigen?
    phenotype patient
  19. _________ negative donor units should only be used.
  20. Crossmatch uses recipient ________ and donor ______.
    • recipient serum
    • donor RBC
  21. Do not used donor units if partially ________, color is _______ or ________ or if plasma shows _________.
    • clotted
    • purplish
    • brownish
    • hemolysis
  22. inadequate sealing or closure of tubings or inadequate cleaning of venipuncture site can cause what?
  23. what is the common unsuspected bacteria seen in donor units?
    yersinia enterocolitica
  24. units appearing contaminated must be __________ and __________.
    • quarantined
    • investigated
  25. true or false
    matching of donor and recipient with respect to other blood group antigens is NOT necessary unless the recipient has additional serum antibodes.
  26. Donor units MUST lack _______ corresponding to recipient Ab.
  27. Fresh Frozen Plasma should be compatible with patient's _____.
  28. for what type of patients are there NO acceptable FFP alternatives?
  29. who is the universal donor for fressh frozen plasma?
  30. who is the universal recipient for FFP?
  31. for what blood products are all ABO groups acceptable?
    • Platelet concentrate
    • Single donor cryoprecipitate
  32. _________ donor units are to be used when patients own blood type not available.
  33. for what blood product is there no alternative?
    whole blood
  34. the major factor in determining alternate ABO group is what?
    recipient's ABO antibodies
  35. What are four indications for transfusion of Non-Group-Specific blood products?
    • Massive bleeding
    • trauma
    • DIC
    • blood group shortage
  36. What are alternate Rh choices for Rh positive patient?
    • Rh pos
    • Rh neg
  37. When can Rh negative patients receive Rh positive units not producing anti-D?
  38. What are the two patients who can be converted to Rh positive?
    • male patients
    • women beyond child bearing age
  39. Switching ABO groups is a ___________ problem.
  40. true or false
    it is better to give Rh negative patients an Rh negative alternate compatible blood group becuase switching ABO groups is a temporary problem.
  41. Production of Anti-D due to giving Rh positive is a _________ problem.
  42. what percent of D-negative persons who receive a D-positive transfusion are expected to develop anti-D.
    more than 80%
  43. This test detects the presence of clinically significant unexpected Abs.
    Antibody Screen in Compatibility Testing
  44. what phase of crossmatch may be omitted if there is a negative Ab screen and no prior record of Abs.
  45. true or false
    Crossmatch can detect all clinically significant Abs.
  46. what is the last blood bank test done prior to patient receiving transfusion?
  47. This detects recipient antibodies that will react with donor RBC antigens.
  48. Crossmatch will detect _____ ABO grouping errors.
  49. Crossmatch will detect Rh D typing errors if what?
    patient's serum contains Anti-D
  50. What are two situations where crossmatch will not detect all atypical antibodies in recipient's serum?
    • antibody titer too low
    • donor cells may not contain corresponding antigen
  51. True or false
    crossmatch will not prevent recipient from forming antibodies?
  52. Crossmatch must be capable of detecting what three types of antibodies?
    • hemolyzing
    • agglutinating
    • coating
  53. Computer crossmatch standards are set by who?
  54. for computer corssmatch patient must have hhow many concordant ABO/Rh types?
  55. true or false
    to perform a computer crossmatch, current antibody screen must be nonreactive and no history of antibodies.
  56. what are the two poteniating media used for crossmatch.
    • albumin
    • LISS
  57. What is the ratio for recipient serum and Donor RBC suspension for crossmatch.
  58. What phase of crossmatch will detect IgG antibodies and some Rh system antibodies?
    37oC/ albumin or LISS phase
  59. how many drops of potentiator should be added to recipient serum and donor RBC suspension for crossmatch?
  60. check cells must have what result?
  61. Patients with _________ antibodies may show positive reactions in all phases and temps.
  62. if there is a positve result in crossmatch what should be done?
    identify antibodies and crossmatch units lacking the antigen
  63. What are the three cold autoantibodies?
    • Anti-I (most common)
    • Anti-H
    • Anti-IH
  64. what is the most common cold autoantibody?
  65. Cold autoantibody problem Must be solved, why?
    may be masking presence of other alloantibodies
  66. this technique is used to eliminate the activity of anti-I.
  67. if patient has not been recently transfused, this technique will remove the Anti-I from the serum.
    cold autoadsorption
  68. Adsorbed serum should be used for what three tests?
    • ABO reverse grouping
    • Crossmatching
    • antibody studies
  69. This protein problem is commonly seen in multiple myeloma patients.
  70. Rouleaux is not seen in what phase due to serum being washed away.
  71. how is rouleaux formation resolved?
    saline replacement
  72. Albumin/LISS is stabilized with what?
    Sodium Caprylate Serum
  73. This will agglutinate all RBCs suspended in albumin/LISS that has caprylate?
  74. how is albumin agglutinating phenomenon resolved in crossmatch?
    repeat crossmatch with non caprylate albumin
  75. if a patient has warm autoantibodies present what other test will be positive?
    DAT (direct coombs)
  76. Warm autoantibodies are most often directed against what antigens?
    Rh system antigens
  77. If there are not units lacking antigen to patient's antibody _________ crossmatch may be needed to determine the least incompatible unit.
  78. in titration crossmatch what are the units of preference?
    units compatible at lower dilutions
  79. Bacterial contamination may causes a false positve because red cells carry this antigen which reacts with human sera?
    T antigen
  80. Sialic acid removal by enzymes exposes this antigen in vivo or in vitro.
    T antigen
  81. What are the four bacterial contaminants associated with Z-neuraminidase, which can cause T-polyagglutination?
    • Clostridia
    • E. coli
    • V. cholerae
    • Influenza viruses
  82. what are two false negative results which are actually misinterpreted positive results?
    • hemolysis
    • weak agglutination
  83. no agglutination/hemolysis in any phase indicates what result in crossmatch?
  84. what three things can cause negative reaction on check cells?
    • poor washing
    • neutralization
    • AHG not added
  85. This indicates serological incompatibility between recipient and donor unit.
    agglutination/hemolysis in any phase
  86. is alternate crossmatching procedure is to be used only in emergency.
    random crossmatch
  87. What three things should be rechecked for donors and recipients if there is an incompatible crossmatch workup?
    • ID of specimens
    • ABO
    • Rh
  88. uncrossmatched blood should be used only in what situations?
  89. what blood type should be used for uncrossmatched blood?
    O neg
  90. who assumes responsibility for uncrossmatched blood?
  91. uncrossmatched blood units must be labeled _________.
  92. true or false
    uncrossmatched blood should be crossmatched after the fact
  93. What section of the SF 518 must be filled out completely with compatibility testing results?
    section II
  94. What is the expiration time for crossmatch?
    72 hours
  95. Recipient specimen and dnor sample for crossmatch should be saved for ___ days post transfusion at 1-6oC.
Card Set
Compatibility Testing (Crossmatch) 8.8
Compatibility Testing (Crossmatch) Blood Bank Unit 8.8