-
1.
The junction of the city's water distribution system and the property's supply line might be in a meter room. T or F
True
-
2.
Aull supply valves, drain valves, and test valves in fire protection systems should be of the indicating type. T or F
True
-
3.
Which term refers to an unwanted flow of used or non-potable water or other substance into a potable water distribution system?
Backflow
-
4.
The type of backflow prevention assembly installed at a property depends on.....
a. Local plumbing and fire codes
b. Age and design of the building
c. Type of substance that mightcontaminate the water supply
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
-
5.
Match the backflow prevention device with its most likely installation.
a. Air gap-----Makeup systems for suction and gravity tanks
b. Check valve-----Discharge side of pumps and FDCs
c. Double check valve-----Fire protection systems containing only water
d. Reduced-pressure backflow preventer----- Fire protection system
containing antifreeze and water
-
6.
The city-supplied water pressure is never adequate enough to feed a sprinkler system directly.
T or F
False
-
7.
Which of the following can be used to boost the water pressure for fire protection system?
Fire department connections
-
8.
When a combination tank supplies both domestic and fire protection water, the domestic wateris drawn from the Top of the tank and the fire protection water is drawn from the Bottom of the tank.
Top , Bottom
-
9.
Firefighters use fire department connections to pump water into the buildings sprinkler system.
T or F
True
-
10.
Dry barrel fire hydrants must be manually drained after use.
T or F
False
-
11.
The most common type of pump used for fire protection system is the Centrifugal pump
Centrifugal pump
-
12.
Which statements best describe the function of a jockey pump?
(choose two.)
a. To prevent the fire pump from cycling
b.
c.
D. to make up minor water losses in a fire protection system
choose two....
1. To prevent the fire pump from cycling
2. To make up water losses in a fire protection system
-
13.
An electric motor used to drive a fire pump must be rated for continuous duty.
T or F
True
-
14.
Which statements best describe the function of a fire pump controller?
choose three.
- a. To start and stop the pump
- b. to moniter the condition of the fire pump
c. To moniter the pressure on the fire
-
15.
Which statement best describes the function of a casing relief valve?
To prevent electrically-driven fire pumps from overheating
-
16.
Water distribution systems are categorized according to; (choose two)
- a. Whether the water supply will be automatically available or not
- b.
- c.
- d. Whether the piping is filled with water
-
17.
Match the type of standpipe system with the features that best describe it.
Class 1 system----- Provides 2.5-inch hose valve connections for full-fire
fighting
Class 2 system----- Provides 2.5-inch hose valve connections and
hoses for first-aid fire fighting
Class 3 system----- Provides valve connections for full-scale and first-aid
fire fighting
Combined system ----- Provides hose valve connections for full-scalefire
fighting and supplies sprinkler systems
-
18.
Some sprinkler systems feature hose valve connections.
T or F
True
-
19.
Pressure-regulating valves are needed at outlets that have high pressure due to the weight of system water above the outlet.
T or F
True
-
20.
Match the type of fire hose connection with the statement that best describes it.
a. Fire department hose connection---------- 2.5-inch hose vave
b. First-aid fire hose connection ------------- 2.5-inch hose valve with 1.5 inch
adapter
-
21.
Which of the following valves is not typically supervised to ensure it remains open? ( choose one. )
Valve connection for fire hoses
-
22.
Water is supplied to most automatic sprinkler systems through a
Standpipe system
-
23.
Which of the following valves associated with the sprinkler system should be supervised in its normally open position?
Isolation valve
-
24.
Valve supervision can be accomplished using which of the following? ( choose two)
- a. Tamper switch
- b. Chain and lock
-
25.
There is usually one inspector's test station on every floor of a dry-pipe sprinkler system.
T or F
False
-
26.
The sprinkler heads installed at a given facility are selected when the sprinkler system is designed based on which of the following considerations? choose three
- 1. Ambient temperature
- 2. Space use
- 3. Spacing layout
-
27.
Several types and styles of sprinkler heads will typically be installed at a single property
T or F
True
-
28.
Concealed sprinkler heads with covers that have been painted must be replaced. Exposed sprinkler heads do not need to be replaced when painted.
T or F
False
-
29.
Which types of sprinkler systems are most likely to feature a water motor gong? choose two
- 1. Dry-pipe sprinkler systems
- 2. Deluge sprinkler systems
-
30.
Each floor of a sprinkled building usually has at least one wteflow alarm-initiating device.
T or F
False
-
31.
Match the type of sprinkler system with the statement that
best describes it.
- Wet-pipe sysems==Installed in areas that can be maintained above freezing
- Dry-pipe systems==Installed in areas unable to be maintained above freezing
- Preaction systems==Installed in spaces where accidental discharge of water could create substantial damge
- Deluge systems==Installed to protect high-risk areas like wooden cooling towers
- Early suppression fast responce systems==Installed to protect warehouses with high ceilings
- Water mist systems==Installed to protect commercial cooking areas
-
32.
Which sprinkler system might feature a pilot sprinkler system?
Deluge systems
-
33.
Which type of sprinkler systm uses greater water volumes to extinguish the fire before a severe fire develops? choose on
Early suppression fast response systems
-
34.
Building engineers are typically responsible for maintaining alternative-agent extinguishing systems.
T or F
False
-
35.
Recycled halon can still be purchased.
T or F
True
-
36.
Halogenated agents are considered nontoxic.
T or F
False
-
37.
Which of the following is a halon-replacement agent? choose one
a. FM-200
b. Inergen
c. Ecaro-25
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
-
38.
Carbon dioxide is lighter than air so it will rise and settle near the ceiling and in the return air plenum.
T or F
False
-
39.
Match each alternative agent with the statement that best distinguishes it from the other extinguishing agents.
a.Halogenated agents
b.Halon-replacement agents
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Dry chemical
e. Wet chemical
a.Halogenated agents---- No longer made in the US because it harms the ozone
b.Halon-replacement agents----Referred to as clean agents
c. Caron dioxide----Extinguished fire by reducing the oxygen content
d. Dry chemical----Powder mixture that must be kept away from moisture
e. Wet chemical----Used exlusively to protect cooking equipment
-
40.
Which extinguishing agent is most likely to be mixed with an odorizer?.--choose one.
Carbon dioxide
-
41.
Dry chemical agents can be used in fire extinguishers, local application systems, and total flooding systems.
T or F
True
-
42.
__Saponification_ is the chemical conversion of the fatty acid contained in cooking oil to soap or foam that coats and smothers the fire.
Saponification
-
43.
When wet chemical is used as an extinguishing agent, the electrical receptacles in the vicinity of the protected area need to have power shut down upon agent discharge.
T or F
True
-
44.
Some portable fire extinguishers use halogenated agents.
T or F
True
-
45.
Local application extinguishing systems are most commonly used to protect
Commercial kitchens
Commercial kitchens
-
46.
Local application systems typically require two detection devices to activate before the extinguishing agent is discharged.
T or F
False
-
47.
All total flooding extinguishing systems are functionally identical; the extinguishing agent is the only differing component.
T or F
True
-
48.
Most local application systems feature a time delay to allow for evacuation prior to agent dischare.
T or F
False
-
49.
A property's signage requirements are usually determined by: choose two
a. Americans with Disabilities Act
b. Local fire codes
-
50.
Stairways should usually be identified by a sign on both the occupancy side and stairwell side of the door.
T or F
True
-
51.
Mechanical rooms in the central plant do not usually need to be identified by a sign.
T or F
True
-
52.
Your AHJ might have standards regarding the finish applied to the signs in your building.
T or F
True
-
53.
Which of the following is best described as "the central processing unit for the fire alarm system"?
System control unit
-
54.
Newer fire alarm systems typically feature device circuits that are __________.
Addressable
-
55.
For each event listed, indicate whether it would generate an alarm, trouble, or supervisory signal at the system control unit.
A-for Alarm
T-for Trouble
S-for Supervisory
S ----Fire pump is disabled
S ----Emergency generator is disabled
A ----A manual pull station is activated
A ----A smoke detector is activated
- T ----Break in the wiring that connects alarm-initiating devices to the
- system control unit
- T ----Short circuit in the wiring that connects notification devices to the
- systems control unit
-
56.
Auxiliary fire protection system ( preaction sprinkler systems) do not need to be connected to the fire alarm system's control unit unless they do not have their own control panel.
T or F
False
-
57.
Manual pull stations must be replaced after activation.
T or F
False
-
58.
Match the alarm-initiating device with the statement that best describes it.
a.Heat detectors
b.Smoke detectors
c.Flame detectors
- Heat detectors-----Lowest false alarm rate but slowest repsonse time among
- fire detectors
Smoke detectors-----Detect fire conditions photoelectrically or by ionization
- Flame dectectors-----Fastest response time and highest false alarm rate
- among fire detectors
-
59.
You typically have to look at the back of a smoke detector to find out what type it is.
T or F
True
-
60.
When twocross-zoned alarm-initiating devices go into alarm mode, most system control units initiate a general alarm that activates all of the notification appliances in the building.
False
-
61.
Newer notification devices typically contain both audible and visible alarm components.
T or F
True
-
62.
Which of the following might the fire alarm system's control unit initiate upon receiving an alarm signal? choose 5
- 1.Notification to central station
- 2.Public safety announcement
- 3.Shutdown of outside air-handling units
- 4.Elevator recall
- 5.Closing of smoke barrier doors
-
63.
Where would you look to find out which of your property's walls and doors are rated for fire or smoke protection?
Architectural Drawings
-
64.
Which statement describes how best to maintain the integrity of the fire rating when replacing a fire-rated door?
You should use a replacement door that has the same fire rating as the door being replaced.
-
65.
Which dampers are equipped with electric or pneumaic operators that allow the damper to be positioned remotely?
Smoke dampers
-
66.
The electric operator on a combination damper allows it to be positioned remotely after the fusible link fails.
T or F
False
-
67.
What are the hourly rating for fire dampers? choose two
a.one hour
b.one and one-half hours
c.two hours
d.Three hours
b. One and one-half hours
d. Three hours
-
68.
A stairwell pressurization system is designed to keep the stairwell completely smoke-free.
T or F
False
-
69.
Bypass dampers can be used to increase the flow of supply air into the stairwell.
T or F
False
-
70.
In most commercial office buildings, zoned smoke control consists of ------------
pressure control, but not ---------------- pressure control.
Floor-to-floor, space-to-space
-
71.
Zoned smoke control systems are not designed to improve conditions in the fire zone.
T or F
True
-
72.
Zoned smoke control cannot be activated by which of the following?
choose one
a.Manual pull stations
b.smoke detectors
c.Hardwired system control units
d.Firefighter's smoke control station
a.Manual pull stations
-
73.
Which of the following statements apply to tempered glass? choose two
a.It is not strong as regular glass
b.It fractures into small fragments when broken
c.It is usually marked by a white dot or other identifier.
d.It is used in window openings in fire-rated walls.
b.It fractures into small gragments when broken.
c.It is usuallly marked by a white dot or other idenifier.
-
74.
Emergency lighting is connected to the building's fire alarm system and activated when the system control unit receives an alarm signal.
T or F
False
-
75.
Emergency lighting is illuminated at all times.
T or F
False
-
76.
Emergency lighting is not required to be backed up by batteries if it is connedted to the property's emergency generator.
T or F
True
-
77.
Magnetic door-locking devices can be used to hold doors either open or closed.
T or F
True
-
78.
The events that trigger elevator recall operations can vary from building to building.
T or F
True
-
79.
Phase I elevator operations allow firefighters to detect dangerous conditions on the floor and colse everator doors quickly.
T or F
False
-
80.
The use of jurisdiction-wide uniform Phase 1 and Phase 2 elevator keys is preferrd over the use of lock boxes because the uniform keys ensure that firefights will be able to locate the keys.
T or F
False
-
81.
Most generators used in commercial office buildings are driven by:
a. An electric motor
b. A diesel engine
c. A gasoline engine
d. None of the above
B. A diesel engine
-
82.
Indicate whether the equipment or system would be supplied by emergency or standby power. Use E for emergency S for standby.
-----Fire alarm system
-----Elevators
-----HVAC system
-----Egress lighting
-----Data centers
-----Sump pumps
E Fire alarm system
E Elevators
S HVAC system
E Egress lighting
S Data ceners
E Sump pumps
-
83.
What does ATS stand for? choose one.
a.Anti-transfer switch
b.Automatic transfer supply
c.Automatic toggle switch
d.Automatic transfer switch
d. Automatic transfer switch
-
84.
A building will typically have two ATSs---one for loads connected to the emergency generator and one for loads connected to the standby generator.
T or F
False
-
85.
Which of the following conditions will shut down the engine that drives an emergency generator? choose one
a.Low oil pressure
b.High water temperature
c.Engine overspeed
d.None of the above
c.Engine overspeed
-
86.
A generator's alternator typically produces voltage to recharge the batteries used to start the engine.
T or F
False
-
87.
Which statement best describes an ammeter? choose one
a. A device connected to the emergency generator to monitor the generator's output
b. A device connected to the battery charger to show current flow to and from the battery
c. A device used to transfer loads between normal and emergency power supplies
d. A device used to monitor the engine's oil pressure and water temperature
B. A device connected to the battery charger to show current flow to and from the battery.
-
88.
Immediatelly after the engineis started, the ammeter should register a high charging rate.
T or F
True
-
89.
An impairment of a property's emergency system is more significant than impairment of other building systems
T or F
True
-
90.
Planned impairments to a property's emergency systems do not impose risk unless the notification requirements are not followed.
T or F
False
-
91.
A property's response to an impairment of an emergency system depends on; choose three.
a. Building and occupancy type
b. Whether the impairment is planned or umplanned
c. Duration of the impairment
d. Hazards and assets at risk
a. Building and occupancy type
c. Duration of the impairment
d. Hazards and assets at risk
-
92.
The NFPA requires that the property's insurance company be notified whenever the sprinkler system is impaired.
T or F
False
-
93.
A fire watch is only necessary when an emergency system will be impaired overnight.
T or F
False
-
94.
Seismic valves are operated automatically by a solenoid controlled by the building's fire alarm system.
T or F
False
-
95.
Determine whether the stement applies to the lightning protection system or aircraft warning lighting. Mark statements pertaining to the
Lightning Protection system with------LP
Aircraft Warning-----AW
1-----Required by the FAA
2-----Consists of conductors and grounds
3-----Doors accessing the area where the equipment is located must be
marked with a warning
4-----Typically located at each rooftop corner
1 AW -----Required by the FAA
2 LP -----Consists of conductors and grounds
- 3 LP -----Doors accessing the area where the equipment is located must be
- marked with a warning
4 AW -----Typically located at each rooftop corner
-
96.
It is good practice for the property''s natural gas supply to be arranged so that it can be controlled both manually and automatically.
T or F
True
-
97.
An uncontrolled discharge of natural gas during a fire or other emergency will create explosive conditions.
T or F
True
-
98.
Every building has some type of moisture detection system.
T or F
False
-
99.
When a moisture detection system sends a signal to its control panel, the signal indicates: choose one
a.The amount of moisture in the area
b.The portion of the cable subject to moisture
c.Whether the moisture comes from a leak or a blocked drain
d.All of the above
b. The portion of the cable subject to moisture
-
100.
The moisture detection system might be monitored by the central station that monitors your property's fire alarm system.
T or F
True
-
101.
All structures over _________ in height must have aircraft warning lighting.
a.200 ft
b.2,oooft
c.20 stories
d.25 stories
a. 200 FEET
-
102.
Aircraft warning lights are not powered by batteries.
T or F
True
-
103.
Fire response plans must be approved by the local authority having jurisdiction.
T or F
True
-
104.
Which of the following are most likely to be the responsibility of the fire safety director? choose two
a. Notifying the fire department
b. Making public safety announcements
c. Verifying that elevators are in Phase 1 operating mode
d. Providing the fire department with master keys to the building
b. Making public safety announcements
d. Providing the fire department with master keys to the building
-
105.
Match the member of the fire responce team with the statement that most closely describes their role during a fire alarm.
a.Assistant fire safety director
b.Building evacuation supervisor
c.Security supervisor
d.Building emergency response personnel
e.Fire warden
- a.Assistant fire safety director=====Replaces the fire safety director in
- in his/her absence
- b.Building evacuation supervisor=====Coordinates communicationbetween
- the fire safety director and building
- emergency response personnel
- c.Security Supervisor=====Escorts the fire department to the fire command
- center
- d.Building emergency response personnel=====Locates and assesses the
- fire
- e.Fire warden=====Verifies that building occupants are near stairwells and
- ready to evacuate
-
106.
When the elevator technician is delayed, building engineers should try to remove the entrapped occupants from the elevator.
T or F
False
-
107.
The steps taken to restore power to the building depend on
____________ . choose one
a.The length of time the power will be out
b.The time of day the outage occurred
c.The extent of the power
d.All of the above
c. The extent of the power outage
-
108.
Tenant representatives typically act as a fire brigade.
T or F
False
-
109.
Fire wardens are typically responsible for; choose two
a.Fighting the fire
b.Placing the elevators in Phase 1 operating mode
c.Directing tenants to the proper path of egress
d.Conducting a roll call to ensure everyone has evacuated the building
- c.Directing tenants to the proper path of egressd
- d.Conducting a roll call to ensure everyone has evacuated the building
-
110.
Building engineers are responsible for making sure that all occupants particiapate in the fire drill.
T or F
False
-
111.
Match the local official ( or visitor to the property) with the statement that most closely describes a building engineer's interaction with them.
a.Firefighters
b.Inspectors
c.EMTs
d.Media representatives
a. Firefighters=====Meet them on the street to provide information
b. Inspectors=====Answer their questions to the best of your abilities
c. EMTs=====Have an elevator waiting for them
d. Media representatives=====Refer them to the property manager.
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