Which of the following activites is NOT part of the role of respiratory therapists in patient assessment?
D. Document patient diagnosis in patient's chart
In which of the following stages of patient-clinician interaction is the review of physician orders carried out?
A. Treatment stage
B. Introductory stage
C Pre-interaction stage
D. Initial assessment stage
C. Pre-interaction stage
In which stage of patient-clinician interaction is the patient identification bracelet checked?
D. Introductory stage
What should be done just before the patient's ID bracelet is checked?
A. Ask the patient permission
What is the goal of the introductory phase?
C. Establish a rapport with the patient
Which of the following behaviors is NOT consistent with resistive behavior of a patient?
D. Asking the purpose of the treatment
What is the main purpose of the initial assessment stage?
C. To verify that the prescribed treatment is still needed and appropriate
What should the RT do if the patient suffers serious side effects during treatment?
C. Stop the treatment and notify the supervisor or physician
What is the appropriate distance for the social space from the patient?
C. 4 to 12 feet
What is the appropriate distance for the personal space?
D. 18 inches to 4 feet
Which of the following activities is best performed in the personal space?
B. The interview
What type of behavior is LEAST appropriate in the patient's intimate space?
A. Eye contact
You are riding in an elevator at the hospital where you are employed as an RT. The elevator is full, but standing next to you is Joe, the RT who is scheduled to relieve you. He turns to you and asks "How is Mr. Cooper doing?" Earlier int eh day, Mr. Coooper had a cardiac arrest and is not being mechanically ventilated. How should you respond to Joe?
B. "Let's talk later in the report room"
In 1996, Congress passed the HIPAA. What does the letter "P"stand for?
C. Portability
Which of the following techniques for expressing genuine concern is the most difficult to use appropriately?
A. Touch
Which of the following techniques is not associated with the demonstration of active listening?
A. Taking notes while patient is talking
What does the phrase "Universal Precautions" refer to?
A. Protecting the patient from hospital germ and microbes
B. Protecting care givers from contagious diseases the patient may have
C. Global policies intended to prevent the transmission of disease across countries
D. Use of potent antibiotics to prevent disease transmission
B,. Protecting care givers from contagious diseases the patient may have
Your patient has tuberculosis, but has skin test is read as normal. This probably was caused by his weakened immune system, which is the result of AIDS. What terms are used to describe the skin test results?
A. False negative
If a diagnostic test is positive most of the time when a ptient is ill with the disease of concern, what can be said about the test?
D. It has a high sensitivity
What term refers to the likelihood of a negative test result in a patient who does not have the disease?
C. Specificity
Communication between two people can occur only if:
D. All of the above
Communication between individuals is affected by all of the following factors EXCEPT:
D. Time of day
When one is conductin an interview with a patient, which of teh following points is MOST important in facilitating an effective interaction with the patient?
D. Your ability to project a sense of undivided interest in the patient
Which of the following types of questions are prefered for all interactions with the patient?
A. Neutral questions
If a patient is unable to provide an accurate history, the RT should:
D. Ask a family member or friend to supply the information
Which of the following should the RT keep in mind when obtaining a pulmonary history?
A. Evaluation of the patient's entire health status is essential
Obtaining background information during an interview is very important because it allows the interviewer to:
D. Achieve all of the above
Screening information is:
C. Designed to uncover problem areas that the patient forgot to mention or omitted
The review of systems is very important because it provides to the interviewer:
D. Information relevant to the patient's problem that may have been overlooked
A pertinent negative is defined as:
A. Any negative response by the patient to an important question about possible symptoms
A pertinent positive is defined as:
C. An affirmative response to an important interview question about the patient's symptoms
The main purpose of the chief complaint is to:
C. Give a brief explanation about why the patient sought health care
Which of the following cariopulmonary conditions would NOT be found in the chief complaint list?
C. Asthma-it is a diagnosis
When a patient is interviewd so the chief complaint can be determined, the BEST questions that can be asked to elicit this information are?
D. A combination of the above
Which of the following would NOT be found in the past medical history?
B. Associated symptoms and aggravating factors
Which of the following formulas should be used to calculate the pack-year history of cigarette consumption?
A. Packs per day x years smoked
One disadvantage of using the pack-year method for calucalting cigarette consumption is that:
B. The method does not reveal how many packs per day were smoked over how many years
Which of the following is NOT a purpose for obtaining the family history?
D. To determine whether the patient is adopted
Which of the following diseases would NOT be recorded in the family history as a hereditary disorder?
C. Pneumonia
Modern-day office workers may be exposed to which of the following occupational and environmental diseases?
A. Sick building syndrome
Which of the following symptoms is oftern seen in patients with tight building syndrome?
D. All of the above
What pulmonary disorder is associated with visiting or living in Ohio, Maryland, and the central Mississippi Valley?
C. Histoplasmosis
Who writes the inital admission note?
A. The physician
Who writes the progress notes each day?
D. Any of the above
Which of the following sequences of events best describes the cough mechanism?
C. Inspiration, closure of glottis, forceful opening of glottis
Which of the following mechanisms does not explain why patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) have a poor cough?
D. Increased elastic recoil
Chronic productive cough is caused most commonly by which of the following clinical conditions?
B. Postnasal drip
Which of the following is NOT a complication of forceful coughing?
A. Pleural effusion
Which of the following condition is not associated with a characteristic "hacking" cough?
B. Lung cancer
Which of the following is the best definition of sputum?
D. Secretions from the nose, mouth and tracheobranchial tree
What term is used to describe secretions strictly from the lungs and lower airways?
A. Phlegm
Excessive sputum production is associated with all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A. Pleural infection
Which of the following terms best describes foul-smelling sputum?
C. Fetid
A patient presents in the ER with blood-tinged sputum. The term associated with such sputum is:
B. Hemoptysis
Which of the following conditions is believed to be the most common cause of hemoptysis?
D. Erosive bronchitis
Which of the following definitions is consistent with massive hemoptysis?
D. 400 mL in 3 hours
Hemoptysis in the patient with sudden onset of chest pain who is at risk for venostasis is suggestive of what condition?
C. Pulmonary embolism
In the presense of a nausea and vomiting, a history of cirrhosis of the liver suggest which of the following organs as the source of hematemesis?
B. Esophagus
Dyspnea is defined as:
C. Breathlessness as perceived by the patient
Which of the following grading systems is useful in qualifiying the degree of dyspnea?
D. Modified Borg scale
Dyspnea tends to occur when which of the following is present?
B. Increase in ventilatory drive to breathe
Breathing at a rate and depth in excess of the body's metabolic needs is known as:
A. Hyperventilating
All of the following conditions are associated with acute dyspnea in children EXCEPT:
C. Cystic fibrosis
Which of the following diseases is one of the most common causes of dyspnea in adults?
A. Congestive heart failure
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is associated commonly with which of the following conditions?
A. Congestive heart failure
An inablility to breathe while lying down is known as:
A. Orthopnea
Chest pain is the cardinal symptom of which of the following diseases?
C. Heart disease
What is the difference between pleuritic and nonpleuritic chest pain?
A. Pleuritic pain is sharp and stabbing; nmonpleuritic pain is dull and crushing
All of the following pulmonary conditions are associated with syncope EXCEPT:
B. Hyperoxia
Cough syncope is associated most often with which of the following types of patients?
B. Middle-aged men with underlying COPD
The presence of anasarca is associated commonly with which of the following conditions?
D. Edema
Which of the following conditions is often associated with right heart failure?
C. Heptatomegaly
What is the most common manifestation of infection in a patient with pulmonary disease?
D. Fever
The presence of early morning headache may be caused by which of the following conditions?
D. Hypercapnia
The peak incidence of snoring adult males occurs at ages ____ years
B. 50 to 59
Gastroesophageal reflux disease is defined as reflux that occurs more than:
