1. Which of the following activites is NOT part of the role of respiratory therapists in patient assessment?

    D. Document patient diagnosis in patient's chart
  2. In which of the following stages of patient-clinician interaction is the review of physician orders carried out?
    A. Treatment stage
    B. Introductory stage
    C Pre-interaction stage
    D. Initial assessment stage
    C. Pre-interaction stage
  3. In which stage of patient-clinician interaction is the patient identification bracelet checked?

    D. Introductory stage
  4. What should be done just before the patient's ID bracelet is checked?

    A. Ask the patient permission
  5. What is the goal of the introductory phase?

    C. Establish a rapport with the patient
  6. Which of the following behaviors is NOT consistent with resistive behavior of a patient?

    D. Asking the purpose of the treatment
  7. What is the main purpose of the initial assessment stage?

    C. To verify that the prescribed treatment is still needed and appropriate
  8. What should the RT do if the patient suffers serious side effects during treatment?

    C. Stop the treatment and notify the supervisor or physician
  9. What is the appropriate distance for the social space from the patient?

    C. 4 to 12 feet
  10. What is the appropriate distance for the personal space?

    D. 18 inches to 4 feet
  11. Which of the following activities is best performed in the personal space?

    B. The interview
  12. What type of behavior is LEAST appropriate in the patient's intimate space?

    A. Eye contact
  13. You are riding in an elevator at the hospital where you are employed as an RT. The elevator is full, but standing next to you is Joe, the RT who is scheduled to relieve you. He turns to you and asks "How is Mr. Cooper doing?" Earlier int eh day, Mr. Coooper had a cardiac arrest and is not being mechanically ventilated. How should you respond to Joe?

    B. "Let's talk later in the report room"
  14. In 1996, Congress passed the HIPAA. What does the letter "P"stand for?

    C. Portability
  15. Which of the following techniques for expressing genuine concern is the most difficult to use appropriately?

    A. Touch
  16. Which of the following techniques is not associated with the demonstration of active listening?

    A. Taking notes while patient is talking
  17. What does the phrase "Universal Precautions" refer to?
    A. Protecting the patient from hospital germ and microbes
    B. Protecting care givers from contagious diseases the patient may have
    C. Global policies intended to prevent the transmission of disease across countries
    D. Use of potent antibiotics to prevent disease transmission
    B,. Protecting care givers from contagious diseases the patient may have
  18. Your patient has tuberculosis, but has skin test is read as normal. This probably was caused by his weakened immune system, which is the result of AIDS. What terms are used to describe the skin test results?

    A. False negative
  19. If a diagnostic test is positive most of the time when a ptient is ill with the disease of concern, what can be said about the test?

    D. It has a high sensitivity
  20. What term refers to the likelihood of a negative test result in a patient who does not have the disease?

    C. Specificity
  21. Communication between two people can occur only if:

    D. All of the above
  22. Communication between individuals is affected by all of the following factors EXCEPT:

    D. Time of day
  23. When one is conductin an interview with a patient, which of teh following points is MOST important in facilitating an effective interaction with the patient?

    D. Your ability to project a sense of undivided interest in the patient
  24. Which of the following types of questions are prefered for all interactions with the patient?

    A. Neutral questions
  25. If a patient is unable to provide an accurate history, the RT should:

    D. Ask a family member or friend to supply the information
  26. Which of the following should the RT keep in mind when obtaining a pulmonary history?

    A. Evaluation of the patient's entire health status is essential
  27. Obtaining background information during an interview is very important because it allows the interviewer to:

    D. Achieve all of the above
  28. Screening information is:

    C. Designed to uncover problem areas that the patient forgot to mention or omitted
  29. The review of systems is very important because it provides to the interviewer:

    D. Information relevant to the patient's problem that may have been overlooked
  30. A pertinent negative is defined as:

    A. Any negative response by the patient to an important question about possible symptoms
  31. A pertinent positive is defined as:

    C. An affirmative response to an important interview question about the patient's symptoms
  32. The main purpose of the chief complaint is to:

    C. Give a brief explanation about why the patient sought health care
  33. Which of the following cariopulmonary conditions would NOT be found in the chief complaint list?

    C. Asthma-it is a diagnosis
  34. When a patient is interviewd so the chief complaint can be determined, the BEST questions that can be asked to elicit this information are?

    D. A combination of the above
  35. Which of the following would NOT be found in the past medical history?

    B. Associated symptoms and aggravating factors
  36. Which of the following formulas should be used to calculate the pack-year history of cigarette consumption?

    A. Packs per day x years smoked
  37. One disadvantage of using the pack-year method for calucalting cigarette consumption is that:

    B. The method does not reveal how many packs per day were smoked over how many years
  38. Which of the following is NOT a purpose for obtaining the family history?

    D. To determine whether the patient is adopted
  39. Which of the following diseases would NOT be recorded in the family history as a hereditary disorder?

    C. Pneumonia
  40. Modern-day office workers may be exposed to which of the following occupational and environmental diseases?

    A. Sick building syndrome
  41. Which of the following symptoms is oftern seen in patients with tight building syndrome?

    D. All of the above
  42. What pulmonary disorder is associated with visiting or living in Ohio, Maryland, and the central Mississippi Valley?

    C. Histoplasmosis
  43. Who writes the inital admission note?

    A. The physician
  44. Who writes the progress notes each day?

    D. Any of the above
  45. Which of the following sequences of events best describes the cough mechanism?

    C. Inspiration, closure of glottis, forceful opening of glottis
  46. Which of the following mechanisms does not explain why patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) have a poor cough?

    D. Increased elastic recoil
  47. Chronic productive cough is caused most commonly by which of the following clinical conditions?

    B. Postnasal drip
  48. Which of the following is NOT a complication of forceful coughing?

    A. Pleural effusion
  49. Which of the following condition is not associated with a characteristic "hacking" cough?

    B. Lung cancer
  50. Which of the following is the best definition of sputum?

    D. Secretions from the nose, mouth and tracheobranchial tree
  51. What term is used to describe secretions strictly from the lungs and lower airways?

    A. Phlegm
  52. Excessive sputum production is associated with all of the following conditions EXCEPT:

    A. Pleural infection
  53. Which of the following terms best describes foul-smelling sputum?

    C. Fetid
  54. A patient presents in the ER with blood-tinged sputum. The term associated with such sputum is:

    B. Hemoptysis
  55. Which of the following conditions is believed to be the most common cause of hemoptysis?

    D. Erosive bronchitis
  56. Which of the following definitions is consistent with massive hemoptysis?

    D. 400 mL in 3 hours
  57. Hemoptysis in the patient with sudden onset of chest pain who is at risk for venostasis is suggestive of what condition?

    C. Pulmonary embolism
  58. In the presense of a nausea and vomiting, a history of cirrhosis of the liver suggest which of the following organs as the source of hematemesis?

    B. Esophagus
  59. Dyspnea is defined as:

    C. Breathlessness as perceived by the patient
  60. Which of the following grading systems is useful in qualifiying the degree of dyspnea?

    D. Modified Borg scale
  61. Dyspnea tends to occur when which of the following is present?

    B. Increase in ventilatory drive to breathe
  62. Breathing at a rate and depth in excess of the body's metabolic needs is known as:

    A. Hyperventilating
  63. All of the following conditions are associated with acute dyspnea in children EXCEPT:

    C. Cystic fibrosis
  64. Which of the following diseases is one of the most common causes of dyspnea in adults?

    A. Congestive heart failure
  65. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is associated commonly with which of the following conditions?

    A. Congestive heart failure
  66. An inablility to breathe while lying down is known as:

    A. Orthopnea
  67. Chest pain is the cardinal symptom of which of the following diseases?

    C. Heart disease
  68. What is the difference between pleuritic and nonpleuritic chest pain?

    A. Pleuritic pain is sharp and stabbing; nmonpleuritic pain is dull and crushing
  69. All of the following pulmonary conditions are associated with syncope EXCEPT:

    B. Hyperoxia
  70. Cough syncope is associated most often with which of the following types of patients?

    B. Middle-aged men with underlying COPD
  71. The presence of anasarca is associated commonly with which of the following conditions?

    D. Edema
  72. Which of the following conditions is often associated with right heart failure?

    C. Heptatomegaly
  73. What is the most common manifestation of infection in a patient with pulmonary disease?

    D. Fever
  74. The presence of early morning headache may be caused by which of the following conditions?

    D. Hypercapnia
  75. The peak incidence of snoring adult males occurs at ages ____ years

    B. 50 to 59
  76. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is defined as reflux that occurs more than:

    C. Twice a week
Card Set
Grantz-Chapters 1-4