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what are true, false and floating ribs, and which ribs are what
- true ribs are attached directly to the sternum (1-7)
- falsa ribs are attached via costal cartilage of rib 7 (8-10)
- floating ribs are attached only to the vertebrae (11 + 12)
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difference between typical and atypical ribs (and which ribs are what)
- typical ribs are ribs 3-9. they are continuous with the costal cartilage (anteriorly), they are smooth and flat bones that curve around the thorax, the head articulates with 2 thoracic vertebrae, they have an articular surface on their tubercle for the transverse costal facet of the same numbered vertebrae
- 1st rib is atypical as it only articulates with T1, has grooves and ridges on its surface and is a weird flat shape
- Rib 2 because it is also flat like rib 1
- 10 only articulates with T10
- Ribs 11 and 12 only articulate with vertebrae, do not connect to the costal cartilage, do not curve, and have no tubercle
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3 parts of the sternum
manubrium, body and xiphoid process
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what are the ridges on the surface of the body of the sternum called
the sternebrae
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what rib attaches to the xiphoid process
the 7th
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- A - articular site for clavicle
- B - articular site for rib 1
- C - articular demifacets for rib 2
- D - articular facets for ribs 3-6
- E - articular facets for rib 7
- F - jugular notch
- G - manubrium
- H - sternal angle (or manubriosternal joint)
- I - body of sternum
- J - xiphoid process
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- A - spinous process
- B - vertebral foramen
- C - costal facet of transverse process (for tubercle of rib)
- D - superior costal facet
- E - vertebral body
- F - superior articular process (and facet)
- G - transverse process
- H - superior articular process (and facet)
- I - transverse process
- J - transverse costal facet
- K - spinous process
- L - superior costal facet
- M - inferior vertebral notch
- N - inferior costal facet
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what type of joint is the costovertebral joint
between head of rib and costal facets on the body of the vertebrae. Inferior facet on the rib articulates with the superior facet of the same numbered rib. it is a synovial plane joint with 2 compartments (contained within one fibrous joint capsule)
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what ligament surrounds the costovertebral joints
the radiate ligament of the head of the rib
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what type of joint is the costotransverse joint
between the rib and the transverse process. a plane synovial joint.
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3 ligamentous supports of the costotransverse joints
superior costotransverse ligament, lateral costotransverse ligament, costotransverse ligament
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- A - superior costotransverse ligament
- B - costovertebral joint
- C - costotransverse joint
- D - costotransverse ligament
- E - lateral costotransverse ligament
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what type of joint is the costochondral
between the rib and the costal cartilage. hyaline cartilaginous joint (primary cartilagenous, synchondrosis)
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what type of joint is sternocostal
between costal cartilage and the sternum . rib 1 is a synchondrosis (primary cartilaginous, made of hyaline cartilage). 2-7 are synovial plane joints.
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what ligament supports the sternocostal joints
the radiate sternocostal ligaments
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what are the interchondral joints
between the costal cartilage of the false ribs. synovial plane joints (with very limited movement)
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what is the sternal symphysis
the manubriosternal joint/sternal angle. located at T4/5. symphyses (so secondary cartilaginous)
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what is the xiphisternal joint
between the xiphoid process and the body of the sternum. secondary cartilaginous (symphyses)
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what is the superior aspect of the thoracic cage called
the superior thoracic inlet/apeture
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roughy what level is the anterior aspect of the first rib
T2/3
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what is the inferior part of the thorax called
the inferior thoracic aperture/outlet
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where do aorta, IVC and oesophagus pass through the diaphragm
- IVC - T8
- Oesophagus - T10
- aorta - T12
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what nerves pass through the diaphragm
the vagus and phrenic nerve
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what dome of the diaphragm sits higher
right - liver sits just under it
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how does the diaphragm attach to the lumbar vertebrae
the left and right crus
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attachment points/ligaments of the diaphragm
attaches to rib 12 be the lateral arcuate ligament and the transverse process of L1 by the medial arcuate ligament. the left and right rus to the vertebral bodies.
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sizes of the left and right crus
right crus is larger. right runs from L1-L3/4, left crus runs from L1 to L2/3
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what aer the 3 major apertures in the diaphragm
the caval opening for IVC< oesophageal haitus and aortic haitus
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what plexus does the phrenic nerve arise from
cervical plexus
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what are the 3 groups of intercostal muscles, and their arrangement
- external intercostals - fibres run anteroinferiorly (hands in front pockets). more prominant laterally, not really seen medially
- internal intercostals - fibres run posteroinferiorly (hands in back pockets). more prominent medially
- innermost intercostals - run same direction as internal intercostals
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what supplies blood to the thoracic walls
thoracic aorta and internal thoracic artery. thoracic aorta gives rise to posterior intercostal arteries. internal thoracic artery arises from the subclavian artery, supplies the anterior aspect of the thoracic wall and gives rise to the anterior intercostal arteries. anterior and posterior intercostal arteries often anastomose
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describe the veinous drainage of the thoracic walls
pretty much follows arterial supply. anterior intercostal veins empty into the internal thoracic vein which empties into the brachiocephalic vein. posterior intercostal veins empty into the azygous veinous system (hemi and accessory hemiazygous veins drain into azygous which drains into SVC
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what is the nervous supply of the thorax
intercostal muscles are supplied by intercostal nerves (arising from T1-T11). Motor nerves from T1 innervate the first intercostal space
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what is the arrangement of intercostal veins, arteries and nerves
VAN - veins most superior then artery then nerve
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principle and accessory muscles of inspiration
- principle - external intercostals, internal intercostals, diaphragm
- accessory - sternocleidomastoid and the anterior, middle and posterior scalenes
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muscles involved in expiration
normal expiration is due to passive recoil of the thorax. active breathing is due to internal costals (other than the interchondral part), rectus abdominus, external and internal obliques and the transversus abdominus (they contract, reducing volume of the abdomen, which in turn places pressure on the diaphragm and the thorax)
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- A - central tendon of diaphragm
- B - lateral arcuate ligament
- C - medial arcuate ligament
- D - left crus
- E - right crus
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- A - subclavian artery
- B - posterior intercostal artery
- C - Aorta
- D - internal thoracic artery
- E - anterior intercostal artery
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- A - right brachiocephalic vein
- B - posterior intercostal vein
- C - posterior intercostal vein
- D - azygous vein
- E - anterior intercostal vein
- F - left brachiocephalic vein
- G - accessory hemiazygous vein
- H - internal thoracic vein
- I - hemiazygous vein
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what are the benefits of having a highly vascularised nasal cavity
helps warm up air, bringing it closer to body temperature and humidifying it
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what are the 2 areas of the nasal cavity
- olfactory and respiratory areas
- olfactory area is approximately the top third and contains projections from the olfactory nerve
- the respiratory area contains ciliated cells
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what are the shelves on the lateral wall of the nasal cavity called and what is their purpose
- turbinates, called the superior, middle and inferior concha
- creates turbulence in the nasal cavity so that air remains in contact with the vascularised nasal walls
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- A - superior concha
- B - middle concha
- C - inferior concha
- D - vestibule
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what is the space under the concha reffered to
the meatus or meati
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what are the 4 groups of paranasal sinuses
frontal, ethmoid, splenoid and maxillary
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which sinuses are superior to the nasal cavity
frontal, ethimoid and sphenoid
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where is the opening for the maxillary sinus
the middle meatus
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- A - ethmoid sinus
- B - frontal sinus
- C - sphenoid sinus
- D - maxillary sinus
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what are the borders of the oral cavity
lips anteriorly, hard and soft pallets superiorly, tongue inferiorly
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what holds our tongue in place
the mylohyloid muscle - acts like a diaphragm
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what divides the 2 regions of the tongue
the sulcus terminalis (the v shaped groove)
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role of the lingual tonsil and where is it located
immune/lymphoid tissue. located posterior to the sulcus terminalis
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what are the different papillae found on the tongue
- vallate papillae - anteriorly line the sulcus terminalis
- foliate papillae - kind of grooves on the lateral tongue
- fungiform papillae - larger mushroomish looking bumps. taste buds are embedded within the sides of these
- filiform papillae - smaller hair like papillae that cover a lot of the tongue
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- A - lingual tonsil
- B - palatine tonsil
- C - sulcus terminalis
- D - valate papillae
- E - foliate papillae
- F - fungiform papillae
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role of extrinsic vs intrinsic muscles of the tongue
- extrinsic - alter position
- intrinsic - alter shape
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what are the 4 general groups of teeth
incisors (2), canines (1), premolars (2), molars (3) (the third molars are the wisdom teeth)
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what is the cricoid cartilage
the cartilage that sits on top of the trachea, forms a complete ring around the larynx
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what is the angle of the thyroid cartilage
where the 2 lamina of the thyroid meet in the middle
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- A - epiglottis
- B - hyoid bone
- C - thyroid cartilage
- D - cricoid cartilage
- E - laryngeal inlet
- F - oesophagus
- G - trachea
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what are the vocal ligaments attached to
they attach to the arytenoid cartilage, which sits on the posterolateral aspect of the cricoid cartilage, posteriorly, and project anteriorly to the angle of the thyroid
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what muscles alter the positions of the vocal ligaments
the intrinsic muscles of the larynx
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what are the 3 parts of the pharynx
nasopharynx, oropharynx and laryngopharynx
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what are the constrictor muscles
the main muscles of the pharynx. superior, middle and inferior constrictor muscles. when they constric they close the pharynx.
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- A - maxilla
- B - palatine bone
- C - soft palate
- D - uvula
- E - tongue
- F - mylohyoid muscle
- G - mandible
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where are the pharyngeal tonsils located
also known as adenoids. located at the roof of the pharynx, where the nasal cavity joints it
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where is the auditory tube, what does it do and what muscles control its opening
located in the nasopharnyx. equilibrates pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere and therefore can cause problems if blocked (such as by mucus). the salpingopharyngeays muscles can contract to pull in the opening of this tube.
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- A - opening of auditory tube
- B - pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids)
- C - uvula
- D - auditory tube
- E - salpingopharyngeus muscles
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what defines the border of the oropharynx
superiorly is the soft palate and uvula, inferiorly is the posterior third of the tongue, anteiroly is the end of the dental arches (after the last tooth)
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- A - lingual tonsils
- B - epiglottis
- C - palatine tonsils
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where is the laryngopharynx located
posterior to the larynx
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- A - epiglottis
- B - laryngeal inlet
- C - oesophagus
- D - trachea
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roughly how many generations of tracheal/bronchial division before alveoli ducts are found
16
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what are the 2 zones of the lung and where do we define their borders
- the conducting zone and the respiratory zone
- becomes the respiratory zone where we begin to see alveoli
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what are the 3 types of cells that make up the alveoli
- type 1 (squamous pulmonary epithelial cells), type 2 (septal) and macrophages
- septal cells produce surfactant, macrophages are immune surveillance
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what is tidal volume
the amount of air moved with each breath (around 500mL)
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where is the anatomical dead space
the conducting zone where no gas exchange occurs
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what is the average total capacity of the lung (air)
3000 mL
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what is the pulmonary capillary blood volume
around 70 mL
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average amount of breaths per minute
12
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average pulmonary blood flow per minute
around 4200 mL/min
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total alveolar ventilation per minute (accounting for anatomical dead space)
around 4200 mL/min
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nerve innervation of inspiration
- phrenic nerve innervates contraction of the diaphragm, reducing thoracic pressure
- the superior laryngeal nerve causes abduction of the air way (further decreasing pressure). the hypoglossal nerve causes the tongue to contract, moving it out of the way
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what are the 2 phases of expiration
- post inspiration/early expiration
- - phrenic nerve activity stops so diaphragm relaxes
- - adduction of upper airway muscles (increases resistance to airflow out of the lung
- and
- second phase (more passive expiration)
- - no contracting muscles
- - alveolar pressure equilibrates with the atmosphere
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what happens to airway resitance with higher generation airways
it falls (there is so much cross sectional area that constriction doesn't change volume or therefore resistance)
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what branch of the NS controls contraction of bronchial smooth muscles
parasympathetic
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relationship between lung volume and airway resistance
smaller lungs have more resistance (so babies have higher airway resistance)
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what can decrease compliance of the lung
- fibrosis, increased surface tension, alveolar oedema, aging and emphysema (collection of pollutants in the lung)
- things that reduce the radius of the alveoli increase the pressure within them and therefore reduce airflow into the lung (as lower pressure in the lung draws more air in)
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why are newborns at risk of airway collapse
they have limited surfactant production, increased airway resistance and weak muscles that struggle to overcome this
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what is expiratory reserve volume
- the volume of air that can be expired after a normal breath (around 700-1200 mL)
- due to forced expiration
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what is inspiratory reserve volume
the volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal breath (around 1900-3100mL) (does not include tidal volume)
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what is inspiratory capacity
the total amount that you can be inspire from the end of a normal expiration (includes tidal volume - so tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume) (between 3600mL and 2400 mL)
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what is vital capacity
the total amount of air that you could inspire (from maximal expiration to maximal inspiration) (inspiratory capacity + expiratory reserve volume) (between 4800mL and 3100 mL)
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what is residual volume
the amount of air that cannot be expired from the lung (due to anatomical dead space - the trachea etc cant just collapse) (between 1200 and 1100 mL)
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what is functional residual capacity
from the end of a normal expiration to the very bottom of the spirogram (so residual volume + expiratory reserve volume)
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what is total lung capacity
- residual volume + expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume
- usually between 6000 and 4200 mL
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- A - inspiratory reserve volume
- B - tidal volume
- C - expiratory reserve volume
- D - residual volume
- E - inspiratory capacity
- F - functional residual capacity
- G - vital capacity
- H - total lung capacity
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what is FEV1
the forced expiratory volume of 1 second. taken at the very end of max. inspiration
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what is FVC
forced vital capacity - total volume that is expired with forced expiration
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what kind of FEV1/FVC ratio do we see in obstructive lung diseases
- we see a greatly reduced FEV1
- slight reductions in FVC and vital capacity
- and an increase in residual volume
- - doesnt really change total lung capacity, they just cant really get all of the air out of their lungs in a single breath
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what changes might you see in FEV, FVC etc. with reduced elasticity of the alveoli
- Lower inspiratory reserve volume and FVC
- - therefore decreased vital capacity
- - residual volume should stay the same
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what is V(dot)e and what is the equation
- minute ventilation - total volume of air moved in and out of the lungs in one minute
- = respiratory frequency (fR) x tidal volume (Vt)
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what is alveolar minute ventilation and what is the equation
amount of air moved in and out of the alveoli/respiratory zone in one minute
- V(dot)A = alveolar volume (VA) x respiratory rate (fR)
- alveolar volume (VA) = titdal volume (VT) - dead space (VD)
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what are the 3 major control centres for breathing in the brain
- VRG (ventral respiratory group) - source of respiratory rhythm (we call it the respiratory pacemaker)
- DRG (dorsal respiratory group) - integrating centre for peripheral afferents (sensory information). communicates with the VRG
- PRG (pontine respiratory group) - integrates the respiratory phases and integrates some peripheral afferents
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what stimulants can cause an increase in breathing
low PaO2 (arterial PO2), high PaCO2 and low pH
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what detects changes in PaO2, PaCO2 and blood pH
chemoreceptors (peripheral and central)
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where are the peripheral and central chemoreceptors located
peripheral are located mainly where the common carotid artery bifurcates into internal and external carotid arteries (carotid body) and on the aortic arch (aortic bodies)
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what nerve transmits info from the carotid body to the brain
the glossopharyngeal nerve
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what nerve transmits info from the aortic body to the brain
the vagus nerve
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structure of the carotid body
a blood vessel surrounded by type 1/glomus cells (which are the chemoreceptors). when stimulated the glomus cells release neurotransmitters which activate afferent terminals of the glossopharyngeal nerve.
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where does info from the peripheral chemoreceptors go
travel via the glosspharyngeal or vagus nerves and synapse into the NTS (a specialised region within the DRG), which will go on to synpase with neurons of the VRG. The VRG will stimulate increased respiratory muscle motor output, increasing ventilation
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where are central chemoreceptors located
the surface of the brainstem, close to the VRG group. While the BBB typically repels ionic substances (including H+ and HCO3-), CO2 is not ionic and can cross. Within the CSF it will dissolve into H+ and bicarbonate, and these H+ ions will stimulate the central chemoreceptors. this is a slower response than that by peripheral chemoreceptors (more important for establishing a baseline, rather than responding to immediate conditions). activation of central chemoreceptors will cause them to directly stimulate VRG.
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equation for concentration of dissolved gas
partial pressure of the gas x the solubility of the gas
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what is the solubility of water
0.003mL/(dL.mmHg)
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ficks law states that what factors impact the movement of a gas across a membrane
area, diffusion constant (solubility/sqrt(molecular weight)), pressure, membrane thickness
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according to ficks law, how are alveoli membranes ideal for moving gas
have a large volume (area), are thin
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what is VA/Q'
ventilation-perfusion matching - the amount of blood supplied to the lungs compared to the volume of air (should be roughly the same)
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why is pulmonary resistance low
shorter vessels (as located close to the heart), which have large cross sectional area
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how does VA/Q lead to pulmonary vasoconstriction
- decrease in ventilation means that VA < Q and therefore VA/Q<1
- this will result in the vasoconstriction of pre-capillary units, diverting blood from poorly ventilated regions to better ventilated alveoli
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what is more soluble in water - oxygen or CO2?
CO2 is more soluble
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how does pH impact binding of haemoglobin to oxygen
lower pH shifts haemoglobin binding curve to the right - more likely to donate O2 at higher PO2
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how does higher temp impact haemoglobin oxygen binding
shifts the curve to the right - makes Hb more likely to release O2 at higher pO2
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what is polycythaemia
- an increase in RBC production and therefore abnormally high Hb concentrations
- - people with this will have higher blood O2 conc.
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what are the 3 ways CO2 is carried in the blood
dissolved CO2 (forming carbonic acid), carbamino compounds (CO2 reacts with the amino group of haemoglobin forming carbamino Hb (carbamino Hb also reduces its affintiy to Hb), and bicarbonate
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what catalyses bicarbonate conversion
carbonic anhydrase
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why is Cl - lower in veinous blood than arterial blood
as pCO2 increases, this pushed the formation of HCO3- within the RBC forward. as HCO3- increases it is pushed out of the cell. this is done using a chloride-bicarbonate exchanger (as HCO3- doesnt readily cross the pm). this is done to maintain electroneutrality of the RBC. this means that less chloride is in veinous blood as it is actually within the RBCs
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what is the Bohr effect
as H+ increases, affinity of Hb to O2 will decrease
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what is the haldane effect
as O2 conc. decreases, Hb affintiy for CO2 actually increases - helps with CO2 loading
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roughly how long is the trachea
10-12 cm
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how does the trachea move during breathing
stretches and moves inferiorly during inspiration and recoils during expiration
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role of cartilage surrounding trachea
prevents it from collapsing despite pressure changes during breathing
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difference between left and right bronchus
right is wider and more vertical than the left. right bifurcates sooner.
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describe the divisions from the trachea to the alveoli
from the trachea to the 2 main bronchi, which will seperate into the secondary or lobar bronchi (2 for the left, 3 for the right), which will further divide into the tertiary or segmental bronchi (10 for each lung). anything more than tertiary bronchi becomes a bronchiole. C shaped rings of cartilage are gradually replaced by smooth muscle.
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what 2 layers of membrane are surrounding the lung
parietal and visceral pleura
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where in the thorax do the pleural cavities attach
reach above rib 1 and attach to the root of the neck. they extend to just above the inferior thoracic outlet (so just above the diaphragm) and medially they form the walls of the mediastinum
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what and where are the costomedial and costodiaphragmatic recesses
they are spaces within the pleural cavity that the lungs dont fill. costomedial recess is located between the ribs and the midline. costodiaphragmatic is between the costal and diaphragmatic pleura
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where is the base of the lung
on the diaphragm
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what separates the lobes of the right and left lungs
- left - oblique separates superior from inferior
- right - horizontal separates superior from middle, oblique separates middle from inferior
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- A - horizontal fissure
- B - oblique fissure
- C - lingula
- D - cardiac notch
- E - oblique fissure
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what are the root and hilum of the lung
the root is the structures that connect the lung with the mediastinum (pulmonary veins and arteries, and bronchus), the hilum is a depressed region on the mediastinal side of the lungs where these structures enter
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how could you tell the difference between the left and right hilums
the right bifurcates sooner than the left, and is larger. the pulmonary artery would have bifuricated in the right while it hasn't yet in the left.
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describe the general arrangement of both hilums of lung
bronchus is located posteriorly, pulmonary arteries more superiorly, pulmonary veins more inferiorly
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what is the projection of the left lung, inferior to the cardiac notch
the lingual
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while lobe of the left lung is more posterior
the inferior lobe
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which lobe forms most of the anterior surface of the right lung
the superior lobe
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what is the smallest conducting region of the bronchioles
the terminal bronchioles, which give rise to the respiratory bronchioles
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describe the branching of pulmonary arteries in the lung
each lung has a pulmonary artery, which divided into secodnary lobar arteries and then teriary segmental ateries
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what supplies blood to the lungs
the bronchial arteries, stemming from the descending aorta
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what drains blood from the lungs
bronchial veins drain into the azygous, and accessory hemiazygous veins
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