HSF week 7

  1. what are true, false and floating ribs, and which ribs are what
    • true ribs are attached directly to the sternum (1-7)
    • falsa ribs are attached via costal cartilage of rib 7 (8-10) 
    • floating ribs are attached only to the vertebrae (11 + 12)
  2. difference between typical and atypical ribs (and which ribs are what)
    • typical ribs are ribs 3-9. they are continuous with the costal cartilage (anteriorly), they are smooth and flat bones that curve around the thorax, the head articulates with 2 thoracic vertebrae, they have an articular surface on their tubercle for the transverse costal facet of the same numbered vertebrae
    • 1st rib is atypical as it only articulates with T1, has grooves and ridges on its surface and is a weird flat shape
    • Rib 2 because it is also flat like rib 1 
    • 10 only articulates with T10 
    • Ribs 11 and 12 only articulate with vertebrae, do not connect to the costal cartilage, do not curve, and have no tubercle
  3. 3 parts of the sternum
    manubrium, body and xiphoid process
  4. what are the ridges on the surface of the body of the sternum called
    the sternebrae
  5. what rib attaches to the xiphoid process
    the 7th
  6. label
    • A - articular site for clavicle
    • B - articular site for rib 1 
    • C - articular demifacets for rib 2
    • D - articular facets for ribs 3-6
    • E - articular facets for rib 7 
    • F - jugular notch 
    • G - manubrium
    • H - sternal angle (or manubriosternal joint)
    • I - body of sternum
    • J - xiphoid process
  7. label
    • A - spinous process
    • B - vertebral foramen
    • C - costal facet of transverse process (for tubercle of rib)
    • D - superior costal facet
    • E - vertebral body 
    • F - superior articular process (and facet)
    • G - transverse process
    • H - superior articular process (and facet)
    • I - transverse process
    • J - transverse costal facet 
    • K - spinous process
    • L - superior costal facet 
    • M - inferior vertebral notch
    • N - inferior costal facet
  8. what type of joint is the costovertebral joint
    between head of rib and costal facets on the body of the vertebrae. Inferior facet on the rib articulates with the superior facet of the same numbered rib. it is a synovial plane joint with 2 compartments (contained within one fibrous joint capsule)
  9. what ligament surrounds the costovertebral joints
    the radiate ligament of the head of the rib
  10. what type of joint is the costotransverse joint
    between the rib and the transverse process. a plane synovial joint.
  11. 3 ligamentous supports of the costotransverse joints
    superior costotransverse ligament, lateral costotransverse ligament, costotransverse ligament
  12. label
    • A - superior costotransverse ligament 
    • B - costovertebral joint 
    • C - costotransverse joint 
    • D - costotransverse ligament 
    • E - lateral costotransverse ligament
  13. what type of joint is the costochondral
    between the rib and the costal cartilage. hyaline cartilaginous joint (primary cartilagenous, synchondrosis)
  14. what type of joint is sternocostal
    between costal cartilage and the sternum . rib 1 is a synchondrosis (primary cartilaginous, made of hyaline cartilage). 2-7 are synovial plane joints.
  15. what ligament supports the sternocostal joints
    the radiate sternocostal ligaments
  16. what are the interchondral joints
    between the costal cartilage of the false ribs. synovial plane joints (with very limited movement)
  17. what is the sternal symphysis
    the manubriosternal joint/sternal angle. located at T4/5. symphyses (so secondary cartilaginous)
  18. what is the xiphisternal joint
    between the xiphoid process and the body of the sternum. secondary cartilaginous (symphyses)
  19. what is the superior aspect of the thoracic cage called
    the superior thoracic inlet/apeture
  20. roughy what level is the anterior aspect of the first rib
    T2/3
  21. what is the inferior part of the thorax called
    the inferior thoracic aperture/outlet
  22. where do aorta, IVC and oesophagus pass through the diaphragm
    • IVC - T8 
    • Oesophagus - T10 
    • aorta - T12
  23. what nerves pass through the diaphragm
    the vagus and phrenic nerve
  24. what dome of the diaphragm sits higher
    right - liver sits just under it
  25. how does the diaphragm attach to the lumbar vertebrae
    the left and right crus
  26. attachment points/ligaments of the diaphragm
    attaches to rib 12 be the lateral arcuate ligament and the transverse process of L1 by the medial arcuate ligament. the left and right rus to the vertebral bodies.
  27. sizes of the left and right crus
    right crus is larger. right runs from L1-L3/4, left crus runs from L1 to L2/3
  28. what aer the 3 major apertures in the diaphragm
    the caval opening for IVC< oesophageal haitus and aortic haitus
  29. what plexus does the phrenic nerve arise from
    cervical plexus
  30. what are the 3 groups of intercostal muscles, and their arrangement
    • external intercostals - fibres run anteroinferiorly (hands in front pockets). more prominant laterally, not really seen medially
    • internal intercostals - fibres run posteroinferiorly (hands in back pockets). more prominent medially 
    • innermost intercostals - run same direction as internal intercostals
  31. what supplies blood to the thoracic walls
    thoracic aorta and internal thoracic artery. thoracic aorta gives rise to posterior intercostal arteries. internal thoracic artery arises from the subclavian artery, supplies the anterior aspect of the thoracic wall and gives rise to the anterior intercostal arteries. anterior and posterior intercostal arteries often anastomose
  32. describe the veinous drainage of the thoracic walls
    pretty much follows arterial supply. anterior intercostal veins empty into the internal thoracic vein which empties into the brachiocephalic vein. posterior intercostal veins empty into the azygous veinous system (hemi and accessory hemiazygous veins drain into azygous which drains into SVC
  33. what is the nervous supply of the thorax
    intercostal muscles are supplied by intercostal nerves (arising from T1-T11). Motor nerves from T1 innervate the first intercostal space
  34. what is the arrangement of intercostal veins, arteries and nerves
    VAN - veins most superior then artery then nerve
  35. principle and accessory muscles of inspiration
    • principle - external intercostals, internal intercostals, diaphragm 
    • accessory - sternocleidomastoid and the anterior, middle and posterior scalenes
  36. muscles involved in expiration
    normal expiration is due to passive recoil of the thorax. active breathing is due to internal costals (other than the interchondral part), rectus abdominus, external and internal obliques and the transversus abdominus (they contract, reducing volume of the abdomen, which in turn places pressure on the diaphragm and the thorax)
  37. label
    • A - central tendon of diaphragm 
    • B - lateral arcuate ligament 
    • C - medial arcuate ligament
    • D - left crus
    • E - right crus
    • A - subclavian artery 
    • B - posterior intercostal artery
    • C - Aorta
    • D - internal thoracic artery 
    • E - anterior intercostal artery
    • A - right brachiocephalic vein
    • B - posterior intercostal vein
    • C - posterior intercostal vein 
    • D - azygous vein 
    • E - anterior intercostal vein
    • F - left brachiocephalic vein 
    • G - accessory hemiazygous vein 
    • H - internal thoracic vein 
    • I - hemiazygous vein
  38. what are the benefits of having a highly vascularised nasal cavity
    helps warm up air, bringing it closer to body temperature and humidifying it
  39. what are the 2 areas of the nasal cavity
    • olfactory and respiratory areas
    • olfactory area is approximately the top third and contains projections from the olfactory nerve
    • the respiratory area contains ciliated cells
  40. what are the shelves on the lateral wall of the nasal cavity called and what is their purpose
    • turbinates, called the superior, middle and inferior concha 
    • creates turbulence in the nasal cavity so that air remains in contact with the vascularised nasal walls
  41. label
    • A - superior concha
    • B - middle concha
    • C - inferior concha 
    • D - vestibule
  42. what is the space under the concha reffered to
    the meatus or meati
  43. what are the 4 groups of paranasal sinuses
    frontal, ethmoid, splenoid and maxillary
  44. which sinuses are superior to the nasal cavity
    frontal, ethimoid and sphenoid
  45. where is the opening for the maxillary sinus
    the middle meatus
  46. label
    • A - ethmoid sinus
    • B - frontal sinus 
    • C - sphenoid sinus
    • D - maxillary sinus
  47. what are the borders of the oral cavity
    lips anteriorly, hard and soft pallets superiorly, tongue inferiorly
  48. what holds our tongue in place
    the mylohyloid muscle - acts like a diaphragm
  49. what divides the 2 regions of the tongue
    the sulcus terminalis (the v shaped groove)
  50. role of the lingual tonsil and where is it located
    immune/lymphoid tissue. located posterior to the sulcus terminalis
  51. what are the different papillae found on the tongue
    • vallate papillae - anteriorly line the sulcus terminalis 
    • foliate papillae - kind of grooves on the lateral tongue 
    • fungiform papillae - larger mushroomish looking bumps. taste buds are embedded within the sides of these
    • filiform papillae - smaller hair like papillae that cover a lot of the tongue
    • A - lingual tonsil 
    • B - palatine tonsil
    • C - sulcus terminalis 
    • D - valate papillae
    • E - foliate papillae 
    • F - fungiform papillae
  52. role of extrinsic vs intrinsic muscles of the tongue
    • extrinsic - alter position 
    • intrinsic - alter shape
  53. what are the 4 general groups of teeth
    incisors (2), canines (1), premolars (2), molars (3) (the third molars are the wisdom teeth)
  54. what is the cricoid cartilage
    the cartilage that sits on top of the trachea, forms a complete ring around the larynx
  55. what is the angle of the thyroid cartilage
    where the 2 lamina of the thyroid meet in the middle
  56. label
    • A - epiglottis 
    • B - hyoid bone
    • C - thyroid cartilage
    • D - cricoid cartilage
    • E - laryngeal inlet 
    • F - oesophagus 
    • G - trachea
  57. what are the vocal ligaments attached to
    they attach to the arytenoid cartilage, which sits on the posterolateral aspect of the cricoid cartilage, posteriorly, and project anteriorly to the angle of the thyroid
  58. what muscles alter the positions of the vocal ligaments
    the intrinsic muscles of the larynx
  59. what are the 3 parts of the pharynx
    nasopharynx, oropharynx and laryngopharynx
  60. what are the constrictor muscles
    the main muscles of the pharynx. superior, middle and inferior constrictor muscles. when they constric they close the pharynx.
    • A - maxilla 
    • B - palatine bone
    • C - soft palate 
    • D - uvula 
    • E - tongue
    • F - mylohyoid muscle 
    • G - mandible
  61. where are the pharyngeal tonsils located
    also known as adenoids. located at the roof of the pharynx, where the nasal cavity joints it
  62. where is the auditory tube, what does it do and what muscles control its opening
    located in the nasopharnyx. equilibrates pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere and therefore can cause problems if blocked (such as by mucus). the salpingopharyngeays muscles can contract to pull in the opening of this tube.
  63. label
    • A - opening of auditory tube
    • B - pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids) 
    • C - uvula 
    • D - auditory tube 
    • E - salpingopharyngeus muscles
  64. what defines the border of the oropharynx
    superiorly is the soft palate and uvula, inferiorly is the posterior third of the tongue, anteiroly is the end of the dental arches (after the last tooth)
  65. label
    • A - lingual tonsils 
    • B - epiglottis 
    • C - palatine tonsils
  66. where is the laryngopharynx located
    posterior to the larynx
  67. label
    • A - epiglottis 
    • B - laryngeal inlet
    • C - oesophagus
    • D - trachea
  68. roughly how many generations of tracheal/bronchial division before alveoli ducts are found
    16
  69. what are the 2 zones of the lung and where do we define their borders
    • the conducting zone and the respiratory zone 
    • becomes the respiratory zone where we begin to see alveoli
  70. what are the 3 types of cells that make up the alveoli
    • type 1 (squamous pulmonary epithelial cells), type 2 (septal) and macrophages
    • septal cells produce surfactant, macrophages are immune surveillance
  71. what is tidal volume
    the amount of air moved with each breath (around 500mL)
  72. where is the anatomical dead space
    the conducting zone where no gas exchange occurs
  73. what is the average total capacity of the lung (air)
    3000 mL
  74. what is the pulmonary capillary blood volume
    around 70 mL
  75. average amount of breaths per minute
    12
  76. average pulmonary blood flow per minute
    around 4200 mL/min
  77. total alveolar ventilation per minute (accounting for anatomical dead space)
    around 4200 mL/min
  78. nerve innervation of inspiration
    • phrenic nerve innervates contraction of the diaphragm, reducing thoracic pressure 
    • the superior laryngeal nerve causes abduction of the air way (further decreasing pressure). the hypoglossal nerve causes the tongue to contract, moving it out of the way
  79. what are the 2 phases of expiration
    • post inspiration/early expiration
    •  - phrenic nerve activity stops so diaphragm relaxes 
    •  - adduction of upper airway muscles (increases resistance to airflow out of the lung 
    • and 
    • second phase (more passive expiration)
    • - no contracting muscles 
    • - alveolar pressure equilibrates with the atmosphere
  80. what happens to airway resitance with higher generation airways
    it falls (there is so much cross sectional area that constriction doesn't change volume or therefore resistance)
  81. what branch of the NS controls contraction of bronchial smooth muscles
    parasympathetic
  82. relationship between lung volume and airway resistance
    smaller lungs have more resistance (so babies have higher airway resistance)
  83. what can decrease compliance of the lung
    • fibrosis, increased surface tension, alveolar oedema, aging and emphysema (collection of pollutants in the lung) 
    • things that reduce the radius of the alveoli increase the pressure within them and therefore reduce airflow into the lung (as lower pressure in the lung draws more air in)
  84. why are newborns at risk of airway collapse
    they have limited surfactant production, increased airway resistance and weak muscles that struggle to overcome this
  85. what is expiratory reserve volume
    • the volume of air that can be expired after a normal breath (around 700-1200 mL)
    • due to forced expiration
  86. what is inspiratory reserve volume
    the volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal breath (around 1900-3100mL) (does not include tidal volume)
  87. what is inspiratory capacity
    the total amount that you can be inspire from the end of a normal expiration (includes tidal volume - so tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume) (between 3600mL and 2400 mL)
  88. what is vital capacity
    the total amount of air that you could inspire (from maximal expiration to maximal inspiration) (inspiratory capacity + expiratory reserve volume) (between 4800mL and 3100 mL)
  89. what is residual volume
    the amount of air that cannot be expired from the lung (due to anatomical dead space - the trachea etc cant just collapse) (between 1200 and 1100 mL)
  90. what is functional residual capacity
    from the end of a normal expiration to the very bottom of the spirogram (so residual volume + expiratory reserve volume)
  91. what is total lung capacity
    • residual volume + expiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume 
    • usually between 6000 and 4200 mL
  92. label
    • A - inspiratory reserve volume
    • B - tidal volume
    • C - expiratory reserve volume
    • D - residual volume
    • E - inspiratory capacity
    • F - functional residual capacity
    • G - vital capacity
    • H - total lung capacity
  93. what is FEV1
    the forced expiratory volume of 1 second. taken at the very end of max. inspiration
  94. what is FVC
    forced vital capacity - total volume that is expired with forced expiration
  95. what kind of FEV1/FVC ratio do we see in obstructive lung diseases
    • we see a greatly reduced FEV1 
    • slight reductions in FVC and vital capacity 
    • and an increase in residual volume 
    • - doesnt really change total lung capacity, they just cant really get all of the air out of their lungs in a single breath
  96. what changes might you see in FEV, FVC etc. with reduced elasticity of the alveoli
    • Lower inspiratory reserve volume and FVC 
    • - therefore decreased vital capacity 
    • - residual volume should stay the same
  97. what is V(dot)e and what is the equation
    • minute ventilation - total volume of air moved in and out of the lungs in one minute 
    • = respiratory frequency (fR) x tidal volume (Vt)
  98. what is alveolar minute ventilation and what is the equation
    amount of air moved in and out of the alveoli/respiratory zone in one minute 

    •  V(dot)A = alveolar volume (VA)  x respiratory rate (fR) 
    • alveolar volume (VA) = titdal volume (VT) - dead space (VD)
  99. what are the 3 major control centres for breathing in the brain
    • VRG (ventral respiratory group) - source of respiratory rhythm (we call it the respiratory pacemaker)
    • DRG (dorsal respiratory group) - integrating centre for peripheral afferents (sensory information). communicates with the VRG 
    • PRG (pontine respiratory group) - integrates the respiratory phases and integrates some peripheral afferents
  100. what stimulants can cause an increase in breathing
    low PaO2 (arterial PO2), high PaCO2 and low pH
  101. what detects changes in PaO2, PaCO2 and blood pH
    chemoreceptors (peripheral and central)
  102. where are the peripheral and central chemoreceptors located
    peripheral are located mainly where the common carotid artery bifurcates into internal and external carotid arteries (carotid body) and on the aortic arch (aortic bodies)
  103. what nerve transmits info from the carotid body to the brain
    the glossopharyngeal nerve
  104. what nerve transmits info from the aortic body to the brain
    the vagus nerve
  105. structure of the carotid body
    a blood vessel surrounded by type 1/glomus cells (which are the chemoreceptors). when stimulated the glomus cells release neurotransmitters which activate afferent terminals of the glossopharyngeal nerve.
  106. where does info from the peripheral chemoreceptors go
    travel via the glosspharyngeal or vagus nerves and synapse into the NTS (a specialised region within the DRG), which will go on to synpase with neurons of the VRG. The VRG will stimulate increased respiratory muscle motor output, increasing ventilation
  107. where are central chemoreceptors located
    the surface of the brainstem, close to the VRG group. While the BBB typically repels ionic substances (including H+ and HCO3-), CO2 is not ionic and can cross. Within the CSF it will dissolve into H+ and bicarbonate, and these H+ ions will stimulate the central chemoreceptors. this is a slower response than that by peripheral chemoreceptors (more important for establishing a baseline, rather than responding to immediate conditions). activation of central chemoreceptors will cause them to directly stimulate VRG.
  108. equation for concentration of dissolved gas
    partial pressure of the gas x the solubility of the gas
  109. what is the solubility of water
    0.003mL/(dL.mmHg)
  110. ficks law states that what factors impact the movement of a gas across a membrane
    area, diffusion constant (solubility/sqrt(molecular weight)), pressure, membrane thickness
  111. according to ficks law, how are alveoli membranes ideal for moving gas
    have a large volume (area), are thin
  112. what is VA/Q'
    ventilation-perfusion matching - the amount of blood supplied to the lungs compared to the volume of air (should be roughly the same)
  113. why is pulmonary resistance low
    shorter vessels (as located close to the heart), which have large cross sectional area
  114. how does VA/Q lead to pulmonary vasoconstriction
    • decrease in ventilation means that VA < Q and therefore VA/Q<1
    • this will result in the vasoconstriction of pre-capillary units, diverting blood from poorly ventilated regions to better ventilated alveoli
  115. what is more soluble in water - oxygen or CO2?
    CO2 is more soluble
  116. how does pH impact binding of haemoglobin to oxygen
    lower pH shifts haemoglobin binding curve to the right - more likely to donate O2 at higher PO2
  117. how does higher temp impact haemoglobin oxygen binding
    shifts the curve to the right - makes Hb more likely to release O2 at higher pO2
  118. what is polycythaemia
    • an increase in RBC production and therefore abnormally high Hb concentrations 
    • - people with this will have higher blood O2 conc.
  119. what are the 3 ways CO2 is carried in the blood
    dissolved CO2 (forming carbonic acid), carbamino compounds (CO2 reacts with the amino group of haemoglobin forming carbamino Hb (carbamino Hb also reduces its affintiy to Hb), and bicarbonate
  120. what catalyses bicarbonate conversion
    carbonic anhydrase
  121. why is Cl - lower in veinous blood than arterial blood
    as pCO2 increases, this pushed the formation of HCO3- within the RBC forward. as HCO3- increases it is pushed out of the cell. this is done using a chloride-bicarbonate exchanger (as HCO3- doesnt readily cross the pm). this is done to maintain electroneutrality of the RBC. this means that less chloride is in veinous blood as it is actually within the RBCs
  122. what is the Bohr effect
    as H+ increases, affinity of Hb to O2 will decrease
  123. what is the haldane effect
    as O2 conc. decreases, Hb affintiy for CO2 actually increases - helps with CO2 loading
  124. roughly how long is the trachea
    10-12 cm
  125. how does the trachea move during breathing
    stretches and moves inferiorly during inspiration and recoils during expiration
  126. role of cartilage surrounding trachea
    prevents it from collapsing despite pressure changes during breathing
  127. difference between left and right bronchus
    right is wider and more vertical than the left. right bifurcates sooner.
  128. describe the divisions from the trachea to the alveoli
    from the trachea to the 2 main bronchi, which will seperate into the secondary or lobar bronchi (2 for the left, 3 for the right), which will further divide into the tertiary or segmental bronchi (10 for each lung). anything more than tertiary bronchi becomes a bronchiole. C shaped rings of cartilage are gradually replaced by smooth muscle.
  129. what 2 layers of membrane are surrounding the lung
    parietal and visceral pleura
  130. where in the thorax do the pleural cavities attach
    reach above rib 1 and attach to the root of the neck. they extend to just above the inferior thoracic outlet (so just above the diaphragm) and medially they form the walls of the mediastinum
  131. what and where are the costomedial and costodiaphragmatic recesses
    they are spaces within the pleural cavity that the lungs dont fill. costomedial recess is located between the ribs and the midline. costodiaphragmatic is between the costal and diaphragmatic pleura
  132. where is the base of the lung
    on the diaphragm
  133. what separates the lobes of the right and left lungs
    • left - oblique separates superior from inferior
    • right - horizontal separates superior from middle, oblique separates middle from inferior
    • A - horizontal fissure
    • B - oblique fissure
    • C - lingula
    • D - cardiac notch 
    • E - oblique fissure
  134. what are the root and hilum of the lung
    the root is the structures that connect the lung with the mediastinum (pulmonary veins and arteries, and bronchus), the hilum is a depressed region on the mediastinal side of the lungs where these structures enter
  135. how could you tell the difference between the left and right hilums
    the right bifurcates sooner than the left, and is larger. the pulmonary artery would have bifuricated in the right while it hasn't yet in the left.
  136. describe the general arrangement of both hilums of lung
    bronchus is located posteriorly, pulmonary arteries more superiorly, pulmonary veins more inferiorly
  137. what is the projection of the left lung, inferior to the cardiac notch
    the lingual
  138. while lobe of the left lung is more posterior
    the inferior lobe
  139. which lobe forms most of the anterior surface of the right lung
    the superior lobe
  140. what is the smallest conducting region of the bronchioles
    the terminal bronchioles, which give rise to the respiratory bronchioles
  141. describe the branching of pulmonary arteries in the lung
    each lung has a pulmonary artery, which divided into secodnary lobar arteries and then teriary segmental ateries
  142. what supplies blood to the lungs
    the bronchial arteries, stemming from the descending aorta
  143. what drains blood from the lungs
    bronchial veins drain into the azygous, and accessory hemiazygous veins
Author
madisonwebster
ID
366098
Card Set
HSF week 7
Description
Updated