VOL II

  1. Q: When is a full ADIRU alignment required? How about a fast alignment?
    • Before the first flight of the day;
    • When there is a crew change;
    • When GPS is not available and NAVAID coverage is poor on the expected route;
    • When GPS is not available and expected flight time exceeds 3 hours;
    • All international and Alaska flights;
    • Flight in Class 2 airspace.

    • A fast IRS alignment must be performed if a complete IRS alignment is not necessary and
    • the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position is at or above 5NM (see MCDU
    • POSITION MONITOR page).
  2. Q: When any brake temperature exceeds _____, avoid applying the parking brake unless operationally
    necessary.
    500c
  3. Q: Should the parking brake be set ON or OFF for the exterior inspection, i.e., the walkaround?
    The parking brake must be set to ON during the exterior walkaround, in order to enable the flight crew to check brake wear indications.
  4. Q: Why do we place the NO SMOKING/SIGNS selector in the AUTO position?
    AUTO position allows the emergency exit lights to charge when the gear is retracted.
  5. Q: During refueling, what might happen if the FUEL MODE SEL pb-sw is left in the MAN position on the
    ground and the CTR TK L XFR pb-sw and CTR TK R XFR pb-sw are not in the off position?
    There is a possibility of fuel spillage
  6. Q: What do we do if we notice a pb is illuminated on the Maintenance Panel?
    • Contact MCC through
    • the responsible Dispatcher and verify that no work is being done before selecting the
    • pushbutton switches to off.
  7. Q: After initial electrical power-up, how long should we wait before pressing any pushbuttons?
    approximately 3 minutes
  8. Q: The characteristic speeds displayed on the MCDU (green dot, F, S, VLS) are computed based on what
    information?
    ZFW/ZFWCG
  9. Q: When should brake fans be turned on?
    When brake temperatures are greater than 300°C and the aircraft is on the ground.
  10. Q: During preflight cockpit preparation, you notice an incorrect landing field elevation for the
    destination airport on the ECAM PRESS page. What would you do?
    • NOTE: The landing field elevation of the destination airport may not be correctly displayed on
    • the ECAM CAB PRESS page. It is automatically corrected after first engine start.
  11. Q: Just prior to pushback, if the NW STRG DISC is not displayed on the ECAM, but the ground crew
    confirms that the steering selector bybass pin is in the towing position, what must the flight crew do?
    • logbook entry must be made and the
    • flight crew will contact MCC through the responsible Dispatcher.
  12. Q: Is the APU required for single engine taxi? If the APU is not used, what may be lost in the case of
    generator failure?
    The APU is not required for single engine taxi. If not used, nose wheel steering is lost in case of generator failure without the APU electrical source.
  13. Q: What should the flight crew do if electrical power supply is interrupted during the engine start sequence?
    • abort the start by setting to OFF the ENG MASTER lever.
    • perform a 30-second dry crank.
  14. Q: What may happen if the second engine is started within 40 seconds following the operation of a cargo door?
    • If the second engine is started within 40 seconds following operation of a cargo door, a
    • PTU FAULT is triggered.
  15. Q: What needs to be reset in the event of a reject from TOGA or FLEX thrust and why?
    the flight directors must be reset in order to re-arm the autothrust system.
  16. Q: Why do we enter 0.3 and deselect navaids for a RNAV RNP approach?
    • Manually entering RNP 0.30 on the PROG page ensures that the FMS stays in .3 for the missed
    • approach rather than defaulting back to RNP 1.0.
  17. Q: In order to avoid overshooting the altitude due to speedbrake retraction in ALT* mode, retract the
    speedbrakes at least ______ ft before the selected altitude.
    2000ft
  18. Q: After landing, autobrakes should be disengaged by what speed? How should we disengage the
    autobrakes?
    Before 20 kts.
  19. Q: After taxi-in and during parking, you attempt to shut down an engine (you move the ENG MASTER 1
    or 2 to OFF). However, the engine does not shut down. What would you do?
    • If the engine fails to shut down, switch the affected master lever ON then OFF. If the
    • engine still fails to shut down, press the affected ENG FIRE pushbutton.
  20. Q: Switching off the Cabin Signs and Emergency Exit Lights permits the emergency batteries to be
    charged (provided external power is supplying the aircraft network). TRUE or FALSE?
    True
  21. Q: Does the APU have fire extinguishing protection if the batteries are off while the APU is running?
    No. If the batteries are off while the APU is running, there is no APU fire extinguishing.
  22. Q: If an ECAM procedure requests the flight crew to apply a eQRH procedure, should we finish the
    ECAM first, then apply the eQRH?
    No. If an ECAM procedure requests the flight crew to apply a eQRH procedure, the flight crew should:

    • Keep the procedure displayed on the ECAM
    • Apply the requested eQRH procedure.
  23. Q: ECAM inhibits the warnings that are not essential on takeoff from _____ to ______?
    80kts to 1500 ft (or 2 minutes after lift-off)
  24. Q: ECAM inhibits the warnings that are not essential on landing from when to when?
    800ft to 80kts
  25. Q: If a takeoff is rejected prior to ____kts, the autobrakes will not activate. Why?
    72kts

    Autobrake activation is based on ground spoiler deployment.
  26. Q: On the ground, do not re-engage what tripped circuit breakers?
    Fuel pump C/Bs of any fuel tank
  27. Q: In the case of gear retraction failure, what is the max airspeed with landing gear down? Without failure?
    235kts

    280kts
  28. Q: When must you select YES for Enroute Icing conditions when performing the AOC Landing Performance Assessment?
    Select YES when icing conditions are encountered during the flight and OAT at the landing airfield is 10° C or below and there is evidence of significant ice accretion.
  29. Q: What is the required equipment to fly in RVSM?
    • FWC
    • FCU
    • Auto Pilot
    • Transponder
    • PFD’s (2)
    • ADR’s (2) (ADR 1 is always required)
    • DMC’s (2)
  30. Q: Must the flight crew always comply with a Resolution Advisory (RA)?
    Yes
  31. Q: What is the minimum runway width and maximum ground speed to make a 180° turn on a runway?
    100ft and 10kts
  32. Q: If the engines and/or landing gear need to be deiced, what actions must be taken?
    contact Maintenance Control Center (MCC) through the responsible Dispatcher.
  33. Takeoff in _________ and ________ freezing rain is prohibited?
    moderate and heavy
  34. Q: If the top of cell is at or above _______ feet, overflying should be avoided due to the possibility of
    encountering turbulence stronger than expected?
    25,000
Author
dpbal67
ID
366021
Card Set
VOL II
Description
Updated