First Shifting Quizzes Patho

  1. This defined as an aggregate of coagulated blood containing platelets, fibrin, and entrapped cellular elements, that is adherent to a vascular lumen.




    A) Thrombus
  2. This type of shock results from low cardiac output due to low blood volume, such as can occur with massive hemorrhage or fluid loss from severe burns.

    Identify this type of shock.



    C) Hypovolemic
  3. This is an active process observed at sites of inflammation or in skeletal muscle during exercise in which arteriolar dilation leads to increased blood flow.






    B) Hyperemia
  4. An 75-year-old man falls in the bathtub and strikes the back of his head. Head CT scan shows accumulation of blood beneath the dura.

    Which of the following terms best describes this collection of blood?






    C) Hematoma
  5. A 66-year-old man with long-standing history of diabetes mellitus type 2 and systemic hypertension has orthopnea. Physical examination reveals BP 160/90, PR 120 beats per minute, marked jugular distension, hepatomegaly and ascites. A chest X-ray reveals cardiomegaly.

    The patient subsequently dies of cardiorespiratory failure. The lower extremities are shown below.  

    Examination of the lungs at autopsy would most likely disclose which of the following pathologic changes?







    B) Vascular congestion and hemosiderin-laden macrophages
  6. One mutation of the CFTR gene causes a single substitution of histidine for arginine at position 117 of the protein product. Consequently, this change results in defective CFTR channels, and manifests as cystic fibrosis. This type of mutation is an example of:




    D) Nonconservative missense mutation
  7. All of the following are general characteristics of autosomal dominant diseases EXCEPT:




    B) Almost all are due to mutations in genes coding for enzymes
  8. The most common autosomal recessive form of Ehlers-Danlos is characterized by mutations in the gene that encodes for lysyl hydroxylase, the enzyme responsible for hydroxylating lysine residues during collagen synthesis. What EDS type is this?




    D) Kyphoscoliosis type EDS
  9. A healthy couple had two children with the disease called osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) (brittle bone disease). Pedigree analysis showed that neither parent had any history of this disease in their respective families for up to four generations previously. Genetic testing showed that even though both parents had no mutations that can cause OI, both of their affected children do. What type of nonclassic inheritance is most likely demonstrated by this example?




    B) Gonadal mosaicism
  10. Your friend Ansbach tells you that he had a daughter that was considered special by everyone, who unfortunately passed away at only age 30 due to infection. He showed you a picture of his daughter in her childhood:

    You note the flat facial profile, epicanthal folds and oblique palpebral fissures, and based on his story and the daughter’s appearance you can already surmise a genetic syndrome. Which of the following is the genetic abnormality responsible for this condition?




    C) Trisomy 21
  11. A 5 year old boy develops acute kidney failure after an episode of a sore throat. As a medical student, you know that this kidney disease is a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction. Type 3 Hypersensitivity is when:



    C) Antigen-antibody complexes form and are deposited in tissues
  12. These are used by the cells of innate immunity to detect and recognize microbial components shared among related microbes:



    C) Pathogen-associated molecular patterns
  13. A 25 year old woman presented to you with complaints of increasing “tiredness,” facial rash that is exacerbated by sun exposure, and muscle and joint pains. On physical exam, there is a friction rub heard on chest auscultation. Laboratoty results show anemia, proteinuria, and increased serum creatinine. Serologic tests are positive for syphilis. What other antibody will most likey be detected in this patient?




    B) Anti-dsDNA
  14. In a patient with HIV, which of the following lymphocyte associated proteins mediates the entry of HIV into the lymphocyte?




    D) CD4
  15. Which of the following is true for Sjogren Syndrome?



    B) It is the immunologically mediated destruction of lacrimal and salivary glands
  16. What is the physiologic ADAPTATION exhibited by the notochord as part of normal fetal development?




    A) Atrophy
  17. The presence of this cleaved, active enzyme is a marker for cells undergoing apoptosis




    D) Caspase
  18. A 35-year-old woman, is diagnosed with polyarteritis nodosa, an autoimmune vasculitis involving small- to medium-sized muscular arteries. A small artery in her right kidney shows necrosis.

    What type of necrosis is most likely associated with this patient's condition?




    A) Fibrinoid
  19. A 45-year-old man presents with a significantly enlarged prostate gland on digital rectal examination. Histological analysis reveals increased numbers of epithelial and stromal cells. This change is an example of:




    D) Pathological hyperplasia

    Benign prostatic hyperplasia is an example of pathological hyperplasia due to abnormal hormonal stimulation, leading to increased numbers of cells.
  20. A 50-year-old woman presents with progressive dysphagia. Biopsy of the esophageal epithelium shows replacement of the normal squamous epithelium with columnar epithelium containing goblet cells. This finding is indicative of:




    A) Metaplasia

    Barrett esophagus involves the replacement of squamous epithelium with columnar epithelium due to chronic acid exposure, a classic example of metaplasia.
  21. A 21-year-old female complains of cough, body malaise, and joint pains. Her body temperature was 38.2°C. Which of the following mediators is responsible for her fever?




    D) Interleukin-1
  22. This is a broad-spectrum antiinflammatory agent that reduce the transcription of genes encoding many proteins involved in inflammation, including COX-2, phospholipase A2, proinflammatory cytokines, and iNOS.





    B) Corticosteroid
  23. This arachidonic acid metabolite is a potent platelet aggregating agent and vasoconstrictor




    A) TXA2
  24. Wound strength reaches approximately what percent of normal by 3 months?




    B) 70%-80%
  25. A 6-year-old child falls and cuts his hand. The wound becomes infected. Bacteria extend into the extracellular matrix around capillaries. In the inflammatory response to this infection, this leucocyte (photo shown below) eliminates microbes, dead tissue, pigments, and other foreign body by phagocytosis.

    Identify this cell.




    C) Macrophage
  26. A 49-year-old nulliparous woman has abnormal uterine bleeding. An ultrasound examination reveals a polypoid mass in the uterine fundus. The patient subsequently, undergoes a hysterectomy, which reveals a well-differentiated endometrial adenocarcinoma.

    The development of this neoplasm was preceded by which of the following histopathologic changes in the glandular epithelium?




    B) Hyperplasia
  27. A 60-year-old man with a history of heavy cigarette smoking, gallbladder stones, and chronic alcoholism has noted severe jaundice with sudden massive weight loss. Laboratory studies include an elevated serum CA-19-9.

    Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?




    B) Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma
  28. Helicobacter pylori is the first bacterium classified as a carcinogen. This microbe is implicated in malignancy involving which of the following organs?





    D) Stomach
  29. Microscopic examination of an osteosarcoma shows cellular and nuclear variation in size and shape, loss of polarity and scattered abnormal mitotic figures.

    Which of the following terms best describes this neoplasm?





    E) Anaplastic
  30. What is the common term for a malignant mesenchymal tumor?

    sarcoma
  31. Amplification of which of the following in breast cancer indicates that therapy with antibodies against the ERBB2 receptor may be effective?




    B) HER2
  32. Which of the following fundamental changes in carcinogenesis allows cancer cells to continuously stimulate their own growth?




    D) Sustaining proliferative signaling
  33. A 45-year-old male presents with progressive headaches, seizures, and cognitive decline. MRI reveals a mass in the frontal lobe, and a biopsy confirms the diagnosis of a low-grade astrocytoma. Molecular analysis shows overexpression of PDGF beta (platelet-derived growth factor beta).

    Which of the following best explains the role of PDGF beta in the pathogenesis of this patient's astrocytoma?




    A) PDGF beta promotes sustained proliferative signaling, driving uncontrolled astrocyte cell division.
  34. A 60-year-old man presents with a rapidly growing mass in his lung. A biopsy reveals poorly differentiated lung carcinoma. Genetic analysis shows a loss-of-function mutation in the TP53 gene. The oncologist explains that this mutation is a critical factor in the development of his cancer.

    Which of the following best explains the role of the TP53 gene in preventing carcinogenesis?




    A) TP53 repairs damaged DNA and prevents the accumulation of mutations in dividing cells.
  35. A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with colorectal cancer, and imaging studies reveal a large tumor with extensive blood vessel formation surrounding the mass. The oncologist explains that the tumor is able to grow rapidly due to the development of its own blood supply through a process known as angiogenesis.

    Which of the following best describes how sustained angiogenesis contributes to carcinogenesis in this patient?




    D) Angiogenesis supplies the tumor with oxygen and nutrients, supporting its growth and survival.
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eayilat_alghabat
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365747
Card Set
First Shifting Quizzes Patho
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