pulmonary school

  1. esophagus is a flexible fibromuscular tube that extends from the ***
    pharynx to T10 to the stomach
  2. The esophagus lies posterior to the **** and anterior to the ***
    • pericardium and the left atrium (base of heart)
    • vertebral bodies of T5 – T10
  3. What is the venous and arterial supply to the esophagus?
    proximal 2/3: esophageal arteries which are branches of thoracic artery. Azygous vein/hemizygous veins 

    distal 1/3: left gastric artery (branch of celiac trunk)--drained by left gastric vein
  4. main structures present in the posterior mediastinum?
    esophagus, vagus nerves, thoracic duct also found in the superior mediastinum

    • thoracic aorta, azygos vein, and
    • hemiazygos vein are ONLY found in the posterior mediastinum
  5. Naturally occurring constrictions of the esophagus?
    These are important clinically because although normally occurs due to structures that lay around nearby the esophagus-- easy to lodge food, constrictions slow down flow of corrosives, passage of surgical instruments is more difficult
  6. the esophagus is compressed by:
    • the aortic arch 
    • the esophageal hiatus 
    • left main stem bronchus
  7. Extent of the Lungs v the Parietal Pleura
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  8. Oblique fissure and horizontal fissure of the right lung
    • o Oblique (aka major)
    • o Separates superior lobe from inferior lobe
    • o Separates middle lobe from inferior lobe

    • o Horizontal (aka minor)
    • o Separates superior lobe from middle lobe
  9. Right vs left lung:
    Left: cardiac notch and has an oblique fissure separating the inferior and superior lobes

    right: oblique (major) and horizontal fissure--inferior superior and middle lobes
  10. Visceral layer of the lung
    directly located on the lung and is not innervated by nerves so insensate
  11. Suprapleural Membrane (Sibson Fascia)

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    • o Strong fascial tissue layer overlying the apices
    • of the lungs

    o Provides rigidity to the thoracic inlet

    o Provides apical support for the pleural cavity
  12. Innervation of the Parietal Pleura
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  13. Diaphragm:
    skeletal muscle innervated by phrenic nerve-- constricts during inspiration--descends to increase thoracic space

    all the muscle fibers come together as a central tendon 
  14. pneumothorax
    • closed-air enters the pleural cavity from damage of lung
    • parenchyma and visceral pleura.

    • open- hole in the chest wall which allows air to enter
    • the pleural cavity.
  15. fluid from a pleural effusion usually collects in the ***
    costodiaphragmatic recess
  16. pleural recesses
    spaces where the pleural cavity is not occupied by lung tissue

    costodiaphragmatic recess is formed by the costal and diaphragmatic pleura--larger of the two recesses.

    costomediastinal recess is formed by the costal and mediastinal pleura --left is larger than the right due to the projection of the heart.
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    posterior pleura extends to the 12th thoracic vertebrae/rib 

    right below are the kidneys--so any retroperitoneal procedure can affect the pleura
  18. What is located within the posterior mediastinum:
    3 goose and 1 duct 

    • vagus nerve
    • esophagus
    • azygous vein/hemizygous vein 


    thoracic duct and posterior mediastinal lymph nodes
  19. How do you treat CF?
    clean up the mucus--give saline and dornase Alfa (DNAase) 

    and diagnosed by a pilocarpine induced sweat test there should be a lot of Cl- in the sweat
  20. What are additional complications of cystic fibrosis:
    these people are born without vas deferens 

    pancreatic insufficiency because the mucus clogs the ducts-- ADEK absorption is poor, more fat in stools so they will float-- because the enzymes are not being released they will accumulate in the pancreas which can cause further damage to cells and cause diabetes 

    Bile duct can be clogged.
  21. What mutation causes cystic fibrosis
    deletion of F508 which causes a deletion of phenylalanine-- this gene normally codes for ATP gated CL channel which secretes Cl into mucus and resorbs from sweat.. NA will follow CL and H2O will follow Na
  22. RDS:
    you can do an amnio to see how much surfactant there is--

    if preterm delivery is suspected- treat mom w/ steroids to a(t) lung development 

    postnatally--artificial surfactant
  23. kartagner syndrome:
    primary ciliary dyskinesia and all the organs being reversed to mirror image--if the organs are not reversed then its only primary ciliary dyskinesia
  24. Primary ciliary dyskinesia
    mutations in dynein and kinesin that render it nonmotile--it can lead to bronchiectasis because increased risk of infection
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    herniation because of an improperly fused diaphragm--usually left pleuroperiteal membrane does not fuse properly leading to a left sided herniation
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    fistula--there is a lot of air in the abdomen because of the connection between the stomach and the trachea
  27. What causes Pulmonary agenesis/hypoplasia:
    too little space: 

    Potter's: kidneys in the fetus never develop so they are not able to excrete the amniotic fluid they consume--amniotic fluid decreases--and the baby's face, limbs and chest get compressed 

    diaphragm: does not fuse properly--so there is a hole that allows herniation of GI content into thoracic space "flat/scaphoid belly"
  28. Pulmonary agenesis/hypoplasia:
    • type 1: agenesis: one lung is completely absent
    • type 2 aplasia: bronchi is there but the lung is not 
    • type 3: hypoplasia the lung and bronchi are bigger on one side vs the other
  29. Tracheoesophageal fistula
    there are many different kinds: most common is one where the esophagus does not connect to the stomach (so anything they eat will immediately bounce back) but the stomach connects to the trachea 

    Chest XR-- will indicate greater air in the stomach 

    polyhydramnios-- because the baby is constantly drinking the water and then eventually excreting it--it causes decrease in volume but over here it wont be able to
  30. As lung development advances:
    • capillaries increase 
    • gas exchange sites increase 
    • tissue density decreases
  31. After the formation of the larynx and the trachea, the respiratory diverticulum branches
    embryonic period: primary bud creates the main bronchi that give rise to the left and right lung, secondary buds give rise to the different lobular bronchi, third buds give rise to the segmented bronchi--they are all covered in cartilage 

    pseudoglandular: bronchioles up to terminal bronchioles (no cartilage) 

    • canalicular: respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts 
    • saccular: terminal sacs that are septated-- surfactant production ***VIABLE BIRTH STARTS HERE WITH GAS EXCHANGE AT 26 WEEKS 

    alveolar: increased separation
  32. Preventing trachea attachment to the esophagus?
    proliferation of the spanchnic mesoderm creates a septum between the trachea and the esophagus--tracheoesophageal septum--prevents fistula formation 
  33. Laryngeal Diverticulum initiation:
    there is a laryngotracheal groove which is medially established bw the 4th and 6th pharyngeal pouch and the larynx and the trachea will be the first structures to develop 

    at 4 weeks: arytenoid swellings push upwards and change the shape of the groove from a slit to a t shape slit (now its called a laryngeal inlet)--epiglottis is located above this
  34. Respiratory system is derived largely from the
    foregut (endoderm)--which will make the respiratory epithelium 

    splanchic mesoderm: surrounding smooth muscle, connective tissue and the visceral pleura 

    somatic: parietal pleura 

    neural crest cells: cartilage 
  35. what infections are common with cystic fibrosis in childhood and adulthood
    • childhood: staph aurus 
    • adulthood: psuedomonas
  36. Persistent vs Acute asthma:
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    • for acute exacerbations: give SABA that act immediately 
    • persistent: give LABAS as well they take longer to act but effect is longer acting
  37. Inhaler usage:
    Have the patient breathe out, and then as they slowly inhale have the patient squirt the medication...have the patient then hold their breath for a good amount of time
  38. What is the purpose of methycholine challenge:
    there are individuals who are symptomatic but don't have spirometery changes bc they don't have significant airway obstruction-- in these situations you can do a methycholine challenge where there will be constriction and reduction of FEV
  39. PFTs in asthma:
    Decreased FEV/FVC if there is airway obstruction, but there are cases of asthma where there isn't an airway obstruction so in this case you wouldn't 

    if you have severe obstruction-can lead to air trapping--decreased exhalation causes CO2 buildup which leads to decrease O2 concentration for efficient gas exchange
  40. Diagnosis of asthma by:
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    • over time: in COPD if you do multiple spirometry studies over the course of time they shouldn't be improving (maybe getting worse)
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    everyone's lung functions eventually go down but more in asthmatics and even more in smokers who are asthmatic-- smoking has a lot of pollutants and allergic inducing factors that cause asthma and if its not properly managed it can lead to COPD
  42. What is the special triad of asthma:
    unknown why--based on observation: nasal polyps, asthma, aspirin sensitivity
  43. What controls the bronchial tone?
    Cholinergic: Muscarinic receptor 3, causes Ca to be released-- this causes constriction 

    Adernergic: stimulates beta receptors which generate CAMP and cause dilation
  44. Specific detailed pathophysiology of Asthma:
    Antigen presents to dendritic cell and triggers either TH1 (neutrophils) or TH2 (allergic: Il4 (IgE) , Il5 (eosinophils), IL10)-- this inflammation causes smooth muscle and mucus cell hyperplasia (increased amount of cells) and bronchial hyperresponsiveness  (some of the inflammatory agents cause an increased bronchoconstriction response than normal) 

    if this is not treated, you get airway remodeling where cells thicken and their protein content changes and so function begins to change. structural and functional changes noted
  45. In asthma-- your initial response is:
    broncho constriction in response to foreign body and then after a couple days you get mucus plugging 

    most people who die from asthma die because of mucus plugging and under treatment
  46. How to classify the different types of asthma:
    reversible: when you give a bronchodilator to the pt and FEV increases notably 

    irreversible: above does not occur (COPD) 

    • Asthma-COPD combination: when FEV doesn't rise as much as it does in reversible s/p bronchodilation tx (still noted as irreversible) or give methycholine which normal people don't react to but people with this condition will (FEV will reduce) 
  47. Asthma:
    more recurrent in nature

    in acute stages it's reversible, but can become irreversible which begins to mimic chronic obstruction disease... there can also be cases that are without obstruction and PFTs are normal
  48. N2O transfer is
    • Perfusion Limited
    • • The amount of N2O exiting the lung is limited by the
    • rate of pulmonary blood flow 
    • • Increased cardiac output increases the total amount of N2O exiting the lung
  49. Conditions that increase diffusing capacity test results (this is for. CO and does not necessarily effect O2)
    • Exercise
    • • Increased cardiac output causes capillary vasodilation and
    • increased blood flow
    • • Increased respiration rate increases alveolar ventilation
    • • Expansion of the lung increases alveolar volume and thins
    • the alveolar-capillary barrier
    • • These hemodynamic changes reduce the thickness of the
    • gas diffusion barrier and increase the effective surface
    • area resulting in an increase in diffusing capacity
  50. How do you calculate DLCO?
    you have the person breath in CO (a small quantity) and then have them keep breathing for a couple of cycles

    Diffusion capacity= Amount of gas transferred/Palveolar 

    Amount of gas transferred= Palveolar (how much gas you were given)- how much gas was in the expired 

    should equal 1..anything less indicates diffusion deficit
  51. How to calculate the amount of oxygen consumed:
    Cardiac out x (Difference in arterial and venous oxygen content)
  52. Normal A-a gradient
    age/4
  53. Respiratory quotient=
    amount of CO2 produced/the amount of oxygen consumed
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    dust cells (alveolar macrophages)--located within the white space
  55. What determines reperfusion treatment
    SPESI determines prognosis which can be used to determine reperfusion intervention of thrombolysis

    (in hemodynamically unstable, thrombolytics for sure, you can do catheter based removal but possibility of nicking an artery, surgical embolectomy( if prior two options fail) 

    Vena Cava Filters (recurrent despite AC)--Block the path of travel of emboli and prevent them from entering pulmonary circulation.
  56. what is the Diagnostic approach to diagnosing a PE
    low to moderate well score and hemodynamically stable (blood pressure is normal): further imaging is determined based on ddimer result 

    if high score (BP is normal) --CT angiogram. if contradicted, VQ scan or LE US--start AC right away even before imaging results have come back 

    in hemodynamically unstable patients, you can't do any invasive thing--so echocardiogram--diagnosis isn't definitive but justifies additional tx--anticoagulants also started right away- doesnt require imaging results 

    • Anticoagulant of choice: 
    • Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
    • • Quick to achieve therapeutic target
    • • Less incidence of inducing major bleeding
    • • Less incidence of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
  57. Echocardiography in PE
    • • Not a diagnostic test but supportive!
    • • Visualize clot in the proximal pulmonary arteries (PE)
    • • Presence of clot in the right heart or new right heart strain in a hemodynamically unstable patients with suspected PE wherein echocardiogram may be useful to justify the emergency use of thrombolytic therapy.
  58. Ventilation Perfusion (VQ) Scan indicated
    Contrast anaphylaxis, pregnancy, renal failure, or CTEPH
  59. EKG findings for PE
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  60. D-dimer:
    • if positive, doesn't mean that you have a DVT/pE
    • but if negative, you can for sure rule out the two
  61. What are prognostication tests for PE
    BNP and troponin--they determine how hard the right heart is working --and if elevated they indicate a poor prognosis 

    • -BNP because fluid backup in the RV 
    • -Troponin bc right heart is working harder and may not have the oxygen to compensate
  62. what is the cause of death in PE
    • RV failure due to acute RV pressure overload.
    • • Death is due to hemodynamic collapse, not hypoxia.
  63. Most common sites for PE
    • lower lobes >upper, and bilateral lung involvement
    • originating from DVTS that begin more Proximally--Popliteal, femoral, and iliacs.
  64. why are DVTs more concerning than SVT
    because DVT have more blood and are surrounded by more muscle mass and so more likely to break off and travel than superficial ones are
  65. What causes circulatory stasis?
    • low blood pressure, decreased heart rate
    • venous obstruction 

    **varicose veins* are indicative of superficial stasis and can be suggestive of deeper vein thrombosis as well
  66. What are the genetic causes
    • protein C deficiency
    • protein S deficiency
    • hyper-homocysteinemia
    • ACLA
    • lupus anti-coagulants.
  67. Mycoplasma bacterium:
    commonly seen in dorm and people living in close proximity with several others 

    • causes hemolytic anemia IgM mediated 
    • erythema multiforme
  68. coxiella brunetti:
    seen in farmers and vets-- because zoo animals are most likely to be infected

    ticks carry these spores (that are resistant to high temperatures) and it is the only rickettsia organisms because it will cause pneumonia and no skin rash..high Q fevers
  69. Cytomegalovirus:
    atypical virus that is likely to cause interstitial pneumonia and is commonly seen in post transplant immunosuppression or chemotherapy
  70. Pulmonary plexus:
    there is the vagus nerve--cranial nerve 10 which innervates the trachea and the branches of the bronchial tree-- 

    • causes bronchoconstriction 
    • vasodilation 
    • bronchial gland secretion 

    Sympathetic is T1-T4 and causes the opposite above
  71. The relationship of the phrenic and the vagus nerves to the roots of the lung is as follows:
    • o The phrenic nerves lie anterior to the roots
    • o The vagus nerves lie posterior to the roots
  72. carina
    • located inside the trachea. It lies between the right and left
    • mainstem bronchi at the level of the sternal angle.
  73. Pulmonary Arteries and Veins
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  74. Hemidiaphragm
    • o Paralysis of half the diaphragm
    • o Unilateral injury to the phrenic nerve

    • Paralyzed dome:
    • o Ascends during inspiration
    • o Descends during expiration
  75. Biomechanics of Breathing: Expiration
    • Forced Expiration
    • o Internal intercostal muscles
    • o Move ribs inferiorly

    • o Abdominal muscles
    • o Rectus abdominis
    • o Internal and external obliques
    • o Transverse abdominis
  76. Biomechanics of Breathing: Forced Inspiration
    • o Sternocleidomastoid muscles (SCM)
    • o Scalenes
    • o Pectoralis major and minor
    • o Serratus anterior
  77. Trachea Extends from
    C6 – T4/5 (sternal angle)

    T4/T5 is where the bronchial tree spilts into right and left
  78. IN what way is the right bronchial tree different than the left
    • -wider
    • -shorter
    • -more vertical

    left is Anterior to esophagus and thoracic aorta
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  82. What is the function of the pulmonary ligament?
    double layered dead space so the pulmonary veins can expand if there is increased blood flow from that area
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    left lung--blue is the cardiac notch
  84. Bronchial Arteries
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  85. Cellular layout of the respiratory cells:
    Trachea and interpulmonary bronchi: pseudostratified columnar cells with cartilage (the orientation of the cartilage changes) 

    **Progressive loss of glands, cilia, and cartilage beyond this point**


    • Bronchioles: no cartilage, simple columnar  
    • Terminal Bronchioles: simple cuboidal, CLUB CeLLS (have a lot of inclusion type things) 
    • respiratory bronchioles: simple cuboidal and squamous
  86. Alveolar sac:
    multiple alveoli will dump into it 

    • alveolar duct: completely interrupted by alveoli... 
    • respiratory bronchioles: slightly interrupted by alveoli 
    • terminal bronchioles: are darkly bordered
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    yellow circle: pulmonary vein: travels in the septi not with any of the bronchi (vein will have less of the darkly rounder stained cells surrounding it like the alveoli do) 

    red: the top part is the terminal bronchiole (anywhere where there is dark purple and the vessel looking thing next to it-- blue--pulmonary artery
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    • A: artery 
    • V: venule 
    • L; lymphoid tissue (anytime you have small round dots in a region that appears relatively uniform
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    intrapulmonary bronchi-- the cartilage here is different than in trachea because it is grouped in round vesicles as opposed to a c ring that is connected by the trachealis
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    semidumes are lined my myoepithelial cells


    • Submucosal glands: 
    • serous glands: stain darker and release fluidy substance thats rich in proteins 
    • mucous glands: stain paler and release more viscous substance that is rich in glycoproteins
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    • BV is blood vessel 
    • P: perichondrium
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    What is B
    B are basal cells--the cells that are closest to the basement membrane-- they have regenerative property
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  104. Treatment for community acquired pneumonia:
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  105. Pneumonia Clinical Prediction Rules: PSI and CURB-65
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    • depending on score, you determine whether or not patient will be treated inpatient outpatient or in the ICU
  106. So when do we do Blood and Sputum Cultures?
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  107. in certain immunocompromised patients these infections are common:
    • neutropenia: aspergillus 
    • TNF A: fungal and TB
    • advanced HIV: pneumocystis
  108. What are the boundaries of the posterior mediastinum?
    • o Superior: transverse thoracic plane
    • o Inferior: diaphragm
    • o Lateral: mediastinal part of the parietal pleura
    • o Anterior: pericardial sac and diaphragm
    • o Posterior: vertebral bodies of T5 – T12
Author
pooja.march
ID
365711
Card Set
pulmonary school
Description
Updated