Which murmur is accentuated by the Valsalva maneuver?
C.
bronchophony
more clarity in what the patient is saying
pectoriloquy
understandable wordings while auscultating
egophony
eeee sound becomes aahh
tactile fremitus
increased vibratory sensation detected by the ulnar palm surface in the setting of consolidation
decreased tactile fremitus heard with pleural effusion
which of the following would be heard with pleural effusion?
A.
which of the following is NOT associated with a consolidated pneumonia?
C.
Which rotator cuff muscles are responsible for external rotation?
E.
Which of the following aids in the diagnosis of subscapularis injury?
D.
Which of the following aids in the diagnosis of infraspinatus injury?
E.
Which of the following is true?
C.
Which pairing is incorrect?
C.
(C6 and wrist extensors)
All of the following are associated with upper motor neuron diseases except:
E.
Which of the following tests is NOT used to assess cerebellar function?
B.
(sensory ataxia)
Which range of motion is tested by having the patient raise their arm forward in front of them?
C.
What does the "cross-body adduction test" check for?
B.
Which condition is tested by the Eichhoff's test?
D.
A patient with foot drop/weakness in dorsiflexion may have which condition?
A.
What does the "anterior drawer test" evaluate for in the ankle?
C.
Which cervical nerve root is matched with the correct motor strength test?
D.
What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with knee pain, especially with twisting or rotating, which is accompanied by locking or catching with walking, as well as swelling, stiffness, and difficulty extending the knee?
B.
Where can the examiner palpate the supraspinatus tendon during a physical exam?
D.
What does the passive compression test (done by pushing the humeral head toward the scapula) assess for?
A.
What might exquisite tenderness on palpation of the anterior tibia indicate?
A.
What structure is/are involved in plantar flexion of the ankle?
C.
For what disease does the Schober test of limited flexion in the spine evaluate?
D.
Pain and tenderness over the lateral hip are most commonly seen in which condition?
E.
What is a physical exam finding seen with lower motor neuron disease?
D.
What process can exacerbate radicular pain when doing a physical exam?
B.
What type of vertebral fracture is commonly seen in patients with osteoporosis after trauma?
E.
Decreased sensation to monofilament testing in the feet of a patient with diabetes may indicate an increased risk of which complication?
E.
Where is the dermatome that corresponds to the C6 nerve root?
E.
What is true regarding Hoffman's maneuver?
E.
What is a positive Lhermitte's sign?
D.
How do you test for an afferent pupillary defect on a physical examination?
D.
How do you perform a test for stereognosis to evaluate for parietal lobe dysfunction?
D.
During shift report, the nurse is told that their new client has had a Glasgow Coma Scale of nine throughout their hospital stay. How may the nurse expect the client to present during the morning assessment?
A.
Which prostate exam finding is most concerning for prostate cancer?
A.
Which condition is represented by white plaques on the vulva?
B.
What condition is the examiner looking for by evaluating the anterior vaginal wall and inspecting the posterior vagina while asking the patient to bear down?
B.
In which condition is scrotal pain alleviated by lifting the testicles up (Prehn's sign)?
C.
In which condition is the cremaster reflex usually absent?
E.
what is true regarding collecting cells for a Pap smear?
A.
What is a speculum used for?
A.
What steps are included in the ethical decision-making process to determine an appropriate action?
D.
A nurse prepares to administer medication to a client. The nurse identifies the client, assesses for allergies, and applies the five rights of medication administration. What ethical principle is the nurse demonstrating?
B.
Which of the following is an element that needs to be disclosed during the informed consent process?
B.
What is one of the four aspects of the patient's role in the informed consent process?
C.
What is implied consent?
C.
Why is transparency important in the shared decision-making process
A.
Who is typically the initial decision maker for a patient unable to make a medical decision?
C.
What is one of the two standards for surrogate decision making?
A.
What is not a condition necessary for autonomous action?
E.
Is persuasion permissible during the informed consent process?
A.
What is one component of the CURVES mnemonic?
A.
What is the best evidence of patient reasoning?
A.
What are three core sets of values to consider in patient decision-making?
B.
What are three factors to consider for the sliding scale of decision-making capacity
D.
What is the threshold level of the decision-making capacity assessment?
D.
What has a chronic influence of capacity?
E.
What is not a red flag that should prompt a formal assessment of decision-making capacity?
C.
What are the two ways a surrogate decision maker can make decision on behalf of an incapacitated patient?
C.
What is not an ethical principle used to achieve an equitable outcome in the allocation of organs for transportation?
B.
Which of the following factors is considered in the construction of the transplant waiting list?
D.
What is a factor to consider when judging whether an adolescent can make their own decision about treatment?
E.
What is not a requirement of a "mature minor"?
C.
A client has been prescribed an anticoagulant medication by the healthcare provider. The nurse has ensured that the client understands the use, rationale, side effects, benefits, and risks of taking and not taking the medication. By documenting the client's refusal of the medication and returning the medication to the pharmacy, which ethical principle is the nurse demonstrating?
B.
What is the primary indication for performing an ankle-brachial index test?
C.
Which of the following is not a radiographic finding of hyperinflation?
D.
Which of the following is not a cause of chest X-ray consolidations?
C.
Which statement regarding bulla or bleb is false?
B.
Which of the following is the most accurate description of the murmur of aortic stenosis?
C.
Which features of the most accurate description of the murmur of mitral regurgitation?
D.
How does the handgrip maneuver affect a heart murmur due to mitral regurgitation?
C.
Which valvular heart disease is associated with the rhythmic head bobbing, pulsation in the uvula, and the Quincke's pulse?
A.
Which valvular heart disease is associated with increased pulse pressure?
D.
What physical exam findings are more indicative of peripheral arterial disease than normal arterial circulation?
C.
The standard voltage calibration is such that 10 mm is equal to how many mV?
E.
What is resonance?
A.
Which of the following is not a feature of chest X-ray consolidation?
A.
All of the following are downsides of CT scans except...?
C.
A Q wave that develops in an ECG during an MI represents which of the following?
B.
Which of the following is not true about loculated pleural effusion?
A.
Which statement regarding the spine sign on a lateral chest radiograph is true?
B.
Which type of emphysema destroys the alveolar ducts and sacs?
E.
Which statement regarding pleural effusion is correct?
A.
Which features are the most accurate descriptions of a tricuspid regurgitation murmur?
C.
What are the cardinal features of a murmur related to aortic insufficiency?
C.
What are the cardinal features of a murmur related to mitral stenosis?
E.
An elevated central venous pressure reflects ...
C.
On an ECG, how many seconds does each small box represent?