MRI FINAL

  1. What does a moving magnetic field induce in a conductor?

    Increase magnetic field strength

    Electrical current

    Stronger magnetic field

    Angular momentum
    Electrical current
  2. What parameters would you use to minimize T1 effects on a T2WI in a GRE?

    short TR

    long TR

    short TE

    long TE

    short FA

    long FA
    long TR

    long TE
  3. Fe2O3 is a _____________ particle.

    Diamagnetic

    Paramagnetic

    Superparamagnetic

    Ferromagnetic
    Superparamagnetic
  4. Once the net magnetization vector (NMV) has started to move away from equilibrium, the following will occur:

    The longitudinal component start to increase.

    The transverse component start to decrease.

    The longitudinal component will stay the same.

    The transverse component start to increase.
    The transverse component start to increase
  5. Which of the following is the primary MR signal resulting from a 90-degree excitation RF pulse?

    Gradient echo rephasing

    Spin echo generation

    Free Induction Decay

    Net Magnetization Vector
    Free Induction Decay
  6. What better describes vector M right after a 90 degree flip angle

    Rotating magnetic field in the B1 plane

    Located at a right angle from the longitudinal axis

    Protons precessing in phase

    All answers are correct
    All answers are correct
  7. What parameter combination would you select to produce a T2WI? select more than one answer

    short TE

    long TE

    short TR

    long TR
    long TE

    long TR
  8. Materials with which of the following components have the highest degree of magnetic susceptibility

    Diamagnetic

    Paramagnetic

    Superparamagnetic

    Ferromagnetic
    Ferromagnetic
  9. Which of the following conditions are necessary for resonance to occur?

    Correct temperature and humidity

    Matching chemical bonds

    Equal number of protons and electrons

    Energy applied at the precise frequency
    Energy applied at the precise frequency
  10. Which of the following characteristics determines if an atom is suitable for use in MRI?

    High atomic number

    Full electron shell

    Even mass number

    Odd mass number
    Odd mass number
  11. The direction perpendicular to the main magnetic field is designated as which direction?

    X

    Y

    Z

    XY
    XY
  12. In MRI, substances respond to a specific radio frequency which is known as:

    Magnetic frequency.

    Radio frequency.

    Gyro-magnetic frequency.

    Resonance frequency.
    Resonance frequency.
  13. What would be the effect of combining a very short TR (50 ms) with a long FA (90)? select more than one answer

    Increase T1 effects

    Increase T2 effects

    Maximize saturation effects

    Minimize T1 effects
    Increase T1 effects

    Maximize saturation effects
  14. What is the approximate precessional frequency of hydrogen in a 3.0 T magnet?

    21 MHz/T

    43 MHz/T

    64 MHz/T

    128 MHz/T
    128 MHz/T
  15. Which of the following conditions is necessary for energy to be the most efficiently transferred from one system to another?

    Resonance

    Precession

    Alignment

    Relaxation
    Resonance
  16. In a gradient echo pulse sequence, what parameter combination would you use to produce a T1WI?

    short TR

    long TE

    short TE

    long FA

    long TR

    short FA
    short TR

    short TE

    long FA
  17. The magnetic field created by the nuclear alignment of hydrogen is known as which of the following?

    Magnetic moment

    Static magnetic field

    Gradient magnetic field

    Net Magnetization
    Net Magnetization Vector
  18. The inversion time of a tissue ____________ as the magnetic field increases.

    Increases

    Decreases

    It is not affected
    Increases
  19. Which of the following image parameters affects scan time?

    Number of slices, matrix, number of excitations

    Number of slices, matrix, time of repetition

    Field of view, number of slices, matrix

    Time of repetition, number of excitations, matrix
    Time of repetition, number of excitations, matrix
  20. SAR is a major concern with ___________ pulse sequences

    SE

    FSE

    GRE

    EPI
    FSE
  21. Which of the following provides the greatest Signal to Noise Ratio?

    Reverse gradient slopes

    High speed gradient slopes

    Steep gradients slopes

    Shallow gradients slopes
    Shallow gradients slopes
  22. In a 3D volumetric acquisition: What would be the scan time utilizing the following parameters?
    TR 50 ms, PES 192, Slice 20, TE 25 ms, FES 256, ETL 1, FA 10, NEX 1, RBW 21 mHz

    2.1 min

    4.2 min

    3.2 min

    6.4 min
    3.2 min
  23. What TOF technique is more affected by the presence of slow flow in the blood vessels?

    2D-TOF-MRA

    3D-TOF-MRA

    CE-MRA

    PC-MRA
    3D-TOF-MRA
  24. What parameters would you use to calculate the scan time in an FSE?

    FES

    TE

    NEX

    PES

    TR

    ETL
    NEX

    PES

    TR

    ETL
  25. In a 2D acquisition: What would be the scan time using the following parameters?
    TR 4000 ms, PES 192, Slice 20, TE 25 ms, FES 256, ETL 6, FA 90, NEX 2, RBW 21 mHz

    2.1 min

    4.2 min

    6.6 min

    8.4 min
    4.2 min
  26. Image construction in MRI is accomplished through which of the following mathematical processes?

    Fast Fourier Transformation

    Gradient reversal

    Reverse Radio-Frequency Encoding

    Pulse Sequence Manipulation
    Fast Fourier Transformation
  27. What imaging parameter affect the entry slice phenomenon?

    TE

    TR

    TI

    All answers are correct
    TR
  28. What can be the artifact resulting from using a narrow receive bandwidth?

    Aliasing

    Truncation

    Susceptibility

    Chemical shift
    Chemical shift
  29. To prevent in-plane flow saturation on a TOF-MRA, the slices should be positioned __________ to the blood vessels.

    Parallel

    At 45 degrees

    Perpendicular

    The position of the slices does not prevent in-plane flow effects.
    Perpendicular
  30. The steady state is the phenomenon that result from ____ shorter that the ___ relaxation times of the tissues?

    TR / T1 & T2

    TE / T1 & T2*

    TI / TE & TR

    TR / TE & T1
    TR / T1 & T2
  31. What technique is more effective to reduce intra-voxel dephasing?

    Long TE

    Short TR

    Gradient moment nulling

    No-phase wrap
    Gradient moment nulling
  32. What pulse sequence would be the most susceptible to in-homogeneities of the magnetic field?

    SE

    FSE

    IR-FSE

    GRE
    GRE
  33. What combination will reduce the most the effects of magnetic susceptibility?

    FSE 24 ETL/Matrix 512/RBW 64 Hz

    FSE 24 ETL/Matrix 512/RBW 32 Hz

    FSE 12 ETL/Matrix 512/RBW 64 Hz

    FSE 24 ETL/Matrix 256/RBW 64 Hz
    38
    FSE 24 ETL/Matrix 512/RBW 64 Hz
  34. To maintain the entry slice in a TOF-MRA, how should the slice be acquired?

    with a very short TR

    with a very short TE

    co-current

    counter -current
    counter -current
  35. If FOV is increased from 20 to 40, SNR will increases by a factor of

    1

    2

    3

    4
    4
  36. Using narrow receive bandwidth can result in an:

    Increase SNR

    Increase chemical shift artifacts

    Increase of the minimum TE

    All of the above
    All of the above
  37. When increasing the FOV: (Select best two)

    Increase scan time

    Increase the chances of chemical shift

    Increase spatial resolution

    Increas SNR
    Increase the chances of chemical shift

    Increase SNR
  38. Increasing the NEX will have a direct impact on the following:

    Image contrast

    SNR

    Scan Time

    Spatial Resolution
    SNR

    Scan Time
  39. What is the TOF-MRA technique more effective in areas of rapid flow?

    2D

    3D

    4D

    The velocity of the flow does not affect TOF =-MRA
    3D
  40. Doubling the PES: (Select two)

    SNR drops to 50%

    Spatial resolution drops to 50%

    Scan time doubles

    Chances of chemical shift increases
    SNR drops to 50%

    Scan time doubles
  41. As phase encoding steps increase, the spatial resolution will increase due to which of the following?

    Signal-to-noise ratio decreases

    Field-of-view increase

    Voxel increase in size

    Voxel decrease in size
    Voxel decrease in size
  42. Please match the parameter with its possible effect.

    TR :

    Receive bandwidth

    Slice Thickness :

    TE :
    • Receive bandwidth :
    • Chemical shift artifact


    • Slice Thickness :
    • Resolution


    • TE :
    • Intra-voxel dephasing
  43. Flowing blood will appear dark on spin-echo pulse sequences due to the following:

    Time of Flight Phenomenon

    There are no hydrogen protons in blood

    Intra-voxel dephasing

    All of the above
    Time of Flight Phenomenon
  44. Which of the following parameters has a direct effect on scanning times?

    Echo Time

    Slice thickness

    Time to echo (TE)

    Repetition Time (TR)
    Repetition Time (TR)
  45. As slice thickness increases, spatial resolution decreases due to corresponding increases in which of the following?

    Gibbs artifacts

    Chemical shift artifacts

    Signal-to- noise ratio

    Partial volume effects
    Partial volume effects
  46. a TOF-MRA technique, flowing blood becomes saturated when a slice runs parallel to a blood vessel. What name is used to describe this phenomenon?

    Time of Flight

    Entry slice

    Intra-voxel dephasing

    In-plane flow
    In-plane flow
  47. What TOF technique is more affected by the slow flow?

    3D-TOF-MRA

    CE-MRA

    PC-MRA

    All of the above
    3D-TOF-MRA
  48. To increase spatial resolution without affecting scan time, an MRI technologist can do which of the following?

    Decrease frequency encoding steps

    Increase phase encoding steps

    Increase number of signal averages

    Decrease the field-of- view
    Decrease the field-of-view
  49. When increasing the image matrix to improve the spatial resolution, it increases which of the following:

    SNR

    T1 Weihgted

    T2 Weighted

    Scan Time
    Scan Time
  50. Per FDA use of gadolinium-based contrast agents should be avoided for patients with a glomerular filtration rate of

    <30 ml/min/1.73 m2

    <40 ml/min/1.73 m2

    >30 ml/min/1.73 m2

    <15 ml/min/1.73 m2
    <30 ml/min/1.73 m2
  51. In an emergency, an MRI technologist should take one of the following actions?

    Open magnet doors and patient areas to responders

    Lock the main magnet room door and shut down the magnet

    Quench the magnet

    Implement department policies and procedures
    Implement department policies and procedures
  52. At a minimum, during the exam, patient monitoring includes which of the following?

    Continual verbal contact with the patient to ensure he/she is not having difficult

    EKG monitoring of all patients over the age of 70 years

    Making periodic physical checks on the patient in the magnet room

    Use a pulse
    Continual verbal contact with the patient to ensure he/she is not having difficult
  53. Which of the following terms refers to the type of measurement the FDA uses to monitor the amount of RF energy deposited into a patient's body for each pulse sequence?

    Sensitivity Average Rate

    Specific Annual Range

    Sensitivity Area Range

    Specific Absorption Rate
    Specific Absorption Rate
  54. In the MRI environment, which of the following provides the greatest risk of spreading infectious disease?

    Human hands

    Insect bites

    Food

    Objects
    Human hands
  55. Which of the following contrast agents is most commonly used in MRI?

    Non-specific extracellular agents

    Oral contrast agents

    Blood pool agents

    Hepatocyte-specific agents
    Blood pool agents
  56. A patient indicates having a metallic implant. What are the necessary steps prior to entering the magnet room?

    Consult with the radiologist to schedule a different test

    Proceed with the scan if the implant is medically necessary

    Confirm MRI safety using the facility's establishing safety processes

    Cancel the study and contact referring physician
    Confirm MRI safety using the facility's establishing safety processes
  57. Compared to iodined contrast agents used in radiography and CT, the incidence of adverse reactions from MRI-used gadolinium-based contrast agents is:

    Significantly lower

    Generally the same

    Significantly higher

    Indeterminable given vast differences in molecular composition of different agents
    Significantly lower
  58. In MRI, Specific Absorption Rate (SAR) is calculated using one of the following units of measurement?

    Watts per gram

    Watts per Kilogram

    Megawatts per Kilogram

    Kilowatts per Kilogram
    Watts per Kilogram
  59. Anaphylaxis refers to which of the following conditions?

    Dizziness

    Allergic reaction

    Shortness of breath

    Dysphagia
    Allergic reaction
  60. When is it safe to administer a gadolinium injection to a pregnant patient?

    Gadolinium injections are not safe during pregnancy

    During the first trimester

    During the third trimester

    During the second trimester
    Gadolinium injections are not safe during pregnancy
  61. Which of the following protocols would be included in an emergency plan for an outpatient MRI facility?

    Leaving the scanning area while waiting for the first responders

    Quenching the magnet, locking all the doors, and waiting for emergency crews to arrive

    Contacting supervisor to ask how to proceed

    Advanced agreement with outside emergency personnel
    Advanced agreement with outside emergency personnel
  62. Hazards to cryogens in the MRI environment do NOT include which of the following?

    Radio frequency burns

    Explosion

    Frost bite

    Asphyxiation
    Radio frequency burns
  63. Why administering a gadolinium-based contrast agent to a pregnant patient is considered to be a risk?

    Kidney filtration of the contrast agent is decreased in pegnant patients

    The contrast agents crosses the placenta to the fetus

    Vasodilation is common in developing fetuses

    Pregnant patients have increases risk of adverse reactions
    The contrast agents crosses the placenta to the fetus
  64. What blood test results are necessary prior to administer contrast?

    Chemistry panel and complete blood count

    Creatinine

    Hemoglobin A1 c

    Glucose
    Creatinine
  65. At a minimum, during the exam, patient monitoring includes which of the following?

    Use a pulse oximeter

    Making periodic physical checks on the patient in the magnet room

    Continual verbal contact with the patient to ensure he/she is not having difficult

    EKG monitoring of all patients over the age of 70 years
    Continual verbal contact with the patient to ensure he/she is not having difficult
  66. Which type of patient may be left unattended during the MRI procedure?

    Pediatric

    Stable adult

    Geriatric

    None
    None
  67. When is it safe to administer a gadolinium injection to a pregnant patient?

    During the first trimester

    During the second trimester

    Gadolinium injections are not safe during pregnancy

    During the third trimester
    Gadolinium injections are not safe during pregnancy
  68. Patient screening forms are to be completed and reviewed by the operating MRI technologist before a patient enters one of the following zones?

    Zone 4

    Zone 1

    Zone 2

    Zone 3
    Zone 3
  69. To form a chelate, a gadolinium ion is chemically bonded with which of the following?

    Ligand

    Unpaired electron

    Water molecule

    Hydrogen ion
    Ligand
  70. Per the FDA, peripheral nerve stimulation is categorized as what type of concern?

    Patient comfort

    Safety

    Specific absorption Rate

    Acoustic noise
    Patient comfort
  71. Which type of patient may be left unattended during the MRI procedure?

    Geriatric

    None

    Stable adult

    Pediatric
    None
  72. IV contrast agents use which of the following types of ions as the primary contrast mechanism in MRI?

    Hydrogen

    Iron

    Gadolinium

    Tin
    Gadolinium
  73. A patient develops hives after gadolinium contrast administration. Which of the following medications should the radiologist use to treat this reaction?

    Iodine

    Calcium blockers

    Antihistaminics

    Antibiotics
    Antihistaminics
  74. What blood test results are necessary prior to administer contrast?

    Chemistry panel and complete blood count

    Creatinine

    Hemoglobin A1 c

    Glucose
    Creatinine
  75. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the superconductive magnets?

    No resistance to the flowing electrical current

    Large fringe field

    High magnetic field strength

    Low power consumption
    Large fringe field
  76. How is the homogeneity of the main magnetic field measured?

    MilliTesla per meter (mT/m)

    Gaus (G)

    Tesla per meter per second (T/m/s)

    Parts per million (ppm)
    Parts per million (ppm)
  77. Conductive copper windings that alter the main magnetic field along a strict coordinate are known as which of the following?

    Gradients coils

    Interference coils

    Surface coils

    Shim coils
    Gradients coils
  78. Why does a 3.0 tesla magnet have inherently higher SNR than a 1.5 tesla magnet?

    More hydrogens protons contributing to the net magnetization vector

    3.0 tesla magnets have higher performing gradients

    3.0 surface coils are more efficient

    Larger physical magnet bore
    More hydrogens protons contributing to the net magnetization vector
  79. Superconducting magnets coils exhibit what type of resistance when operating at or below critical temperature?

    High resistance

    Low resistance

    Zero resistance

    Variable resistance
    Zero resistance
  80. Which of the following best describes gradient slew rate?

    Speed and amplitude of a gradient measured in mT/m/s

    Peak amplitude of a gradient measured in mT/m or G/cm

    Percentage of time a gradient can work

    Time for a gradient to reach maximum amplitude measure in ms
    Speed and amplitude of a gradient measured in mT/m/s
  81. When using a receiver-only surface coil, or multichannel coil, which of the following transmits the RF pulse to the patient's body?

    Body coil

    Gradient coil

    Volume coil

    Head coil
    Body coil
  82. What is the cryogen in a superconductive magnet?

    Gaseous helium

    Liquid helium

    Liquid nitrogen

    Liquid oxygen
    Liquid helium
  83. In a permanent magnet design, which of the following best describes the direction of the main magnetic field?

    Rotates about the long axis of a body in the magnet

    Along a diagonal to the long axis of the body in the magnet

    Parallel to the long axis of a body in the magnet

    Perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of a body in the magnet
    Perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of a body in the magnet
  84. What is the cryogen in a superconductive magnet?

    Liquid helium

    Liquid oxygen

    Gaseous helium

    Liquid nitrogen
    Liquid helium
  85. Superconducting magnets coils exhibit what type of resistance when operating at or below critical temperature?

    High resistance

    Low resistance

    Zero resistance

    Variable resistance
    Zero resistance
  86. In a permanent magnet design, which of the following best describes the direction of the main magnetic field?

    Rotates about the long axis of a body in the magnet

    Along a diagonal to the long axis of the body in the magnet

    Perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of a body in the magnet

    Parallel to the long axis of a body in the magnet
    Perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of a body in the magnet
  87. Which type of RF coil uses several small surface coils linked together to provide improved SNR and a large area of coverage?

    Linear surface coil

    Volume coil

    Phase-array coil

    Saddle coil
    Phase-array coil
  88. A phased-array surface coil is a receiver system that utilizes several individual coils, which are connected directly to a dedicate

    Transmit channel

    Surface coil

    Receiver

    Quadrature coil
    Receiver
  89. Gradient coils are best described as which of the following?

    Independent electromagnets that switch on and off

    Devices placed on or near the region of interest to be imaged before scanning

    Shim coils that correct for homogeneity

    Useful for field service engineers when ramping up a magnetic field
    Independent electromagnets that switch on and off
  90. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of permanent magnets?

    No power supply requeriments

    low operating cost

    Small fringe fileds

    Quick turn off capability
    Quick turn off capability
  91. The primary objective of the MRI receiver system is to convert analog signals into which of the following?

    B1 maps

    Digital signals

    Radiofrequency transmit signals

    Bo maps
    Digital signals
  92. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of permanent magnets?

    Quick turn off capability

    No power supply requeriments

    Small fringe fileds

    low operating cost
    Quick turn off capability
  93. What would be the best slice position and order (direction) when performing a TOF-MRA of the intracranial circulation?

    Coronal

    Foot to head

    Sagittal

    Anterior to posterior

    Head to foot

    Axial
    Head to foot

    Axial
  94. What image will result from the following description?
    1. The coverage must include the entire eyeball from inferior to superior.
    2. The FOV should include the optic chiasm posteriorly and the eyeball anterior.
    3. Slices should be aligned parallel to both optic nerves.


    Axial orbits

    Sagittal pituitary

    Coronal orbits

    Coronal IAC
    Axial orbits
  95. What pulse sequence is the best to detect an acute ischemic event in the brain?

    SWI

    DWI

    STIR

    FLAIR
    DWI
  96. What pulse sequence is the best to detect hemorrhagic blood?

    DWI

    PWI

    FLAIR

    SWI
    SWI
  97. Which of the following are indications for an MRI of the orbits?>

    Proptosis

    Microadenoma

    CPA mass

    Diplopia
    Proptosis

    Diplopia
  98. What protocol would you use on a patient that has an MRI of the brain order looking for a vestibular schwannoma?

    Brain Temporal lobe

    Brain Sella

    Brain IAC

    Brain Orbits
    Brain IAC
  99. What would be the correct protocol to run in a patient that comes for an MRI of the brain and the indication is acromegaly?

    Brain IAC

    Brain Sella

    Brain Orbits

    Brain Temporal lobe
    Brain Sella
  100. Which of the following are primary brain tumors?

    Astrocytoma

    Hepatocellular carcinoma

    Schwannomas

    Renal Cell carcinoma
    Astrocytoma

    Schwannomas
Author
Yanuris
ID
364182
Card Set
MRI FINAL
Description
Updated