These are more difficult to eradicate than most types of
bacteria.
Viruses
It is an obligate intracellular organism that must reside within a living host cell to survive and reproduce.
Virus
Viruses enter healthy cells and use their ______ and ______ to generate more
viruses.
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA)
These live and reproduce when they are within living cells.
Viruses
Examples of common viral infections
influenza
herpes virus infections
viral hepatitis infections.
It is a highly contagious viral infection that affects the nose, throat, and lungs.
Influenza or Flu
This virus is seasonal and more prevalent from fall to spring
Influenza or Flu
Three antigen types of Influenza
A, B, and C
Causes a moderate to severe infection.
Influenza A
causes mild illness in children
Influenza B
It is very rare in humans.
Influenza C
This viral infection is transmitted easily via contaminated droplets during coughing, sneezing, or talking.
Influenza or Flu
Droplets enter into the _____ of the unaffected person and begin replication 24 hours before the appearance of symptoms.
respiratory tract
Influenza has an abrupt onset with the first symptoms being
_____, ______, ______, and ________.
high fever, headache, fatigue, and myalgia (muscle aches)
These are large viruses that cause infections.
Herpesviruses
Most familiar Herpesviruses
1. herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) and type 2 (HSV-2);
2. varicella-zoster viruses (HSV-3 or VZV), more commonly known as chickenpox and shingles;
3. Epstein-Barr virus (HSV-4 or EBV);
4. cytomegalovirus (HHV-5 or CMV)
Usually associated with cold sores (vesicular lesions), which grow in neurons.
HSV-1
It is capable of latency (ability to maintain disease potential without signs and symptoms)
HSV-1
It is usually associated with vesicular lesions and small ulcerations on the genitalia (genital herpes).
HSV-2
The ______ remains dormant by traveling through the peripheral nerves to the sacral dorsal root ganglia. The virus can be transported back the nerve root
to the skin for reactivation at any time. While dormant, the virus continues to replicate.
HSV-2 virus
Both ___ and ___ are capable of causing recurrent infections. Both viruses can replicate in the _______ and skin of the ________.
HSV-1 and HSV-2
mucous membranes and oropharynx or genitalia
HSV-1 is spread by _____ from one individual to another.
oral secretions (From the mouth, this virus can spread to the genital area by oral intercourse or poor hand washing.)
Usually spread by intimate sexual contact, or an infected mother can transmit the virus to her infant during childbirth. When signs and symptoms are present, they usually include eruption of small pustules and vesicles; fever; headache; malaise; myalgia; as well as tingling, itching, and pain in the genital area.
HSV-2
Causes chickenpox and shingles.
Varicella zoster virus (VZV or HSV-3)
It is a highly contagious viral infection that causes generalized pruritic vesicles and fever, which has become less common since a vaccine was developed.
Chickenpox
Most commonly causes infectious mononucleosis, a condition manifested by fever, tonsillitis, and enlarged lymph nodes in the neck.
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV or HSV-4)
It is a very common infectious disease worldwide transmitted via body fluids, especially saliva or urine; by kissing, sexual contact, or sharing food; or by a pregnant patient to the fetus. In susceptible individuals, ___ infection can lead to fatal pneumonia or blindness (due to an infected retina).
Cytomegalovirus (CMV or HHV-5)
It is a serious liver infection caused by the hepatitis B virus, which is transmitted via a needlestick, intimate sexual contact, or childbirth. It is found in all body fluids, including blood, semen, and vaginal fluid.
Hepatitis B (HBV)
A _____ usually can be detected only after the
virus has replicated itself.
viral infection
General signs and symptoms of an _______ include headache, low-grade fever (with a mildviral infection), nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, muscular pain,fatigue, and cough.
acute viral infection
These are pharmacologic preparations that have been developed to provide immunity against and prevent diseases, such as smallpox, chickenpox, mumps, rabies, and influenza.
Vaccines
The influenza virus vaccine may change annually because _____ changes its genetic structure each year.
influenza (flu) virus
____ are used to produce the flu vaccine; therefore any allergies to ___ should be determined before flu vaccine is administered to the patient.
Eggs
has been available for many years to detect influenza A; however, it does not
detect influenza B
Directigen Flu A
Diagnostic tests that identify both influenza A and B using throat swabs, nasal swabs, or nasal aspiration. Results are available within 10 to 20 minutes.
QuickVue Influenza Test and ZstatFlu
These are used to prevent or delay the spread of a viral infection by inhibiting viral replication by interfering with viral nucleic acid synthesis in the cell.
Antiviral drugs
_______ and ______, were used to treat type A influenza. Both these antivirals are nonclassified anti-virals.
amantadine hydrochloride and rimantadine hydrochloride (Flumadine)
Nonclassified antiviral used to treat CMV retinitis
Cidofovir
Used to treat HIV retinitis and herpes simplex infection in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) (immune disorder characterized by opportunistic diseases)
Foscar-net (Foscavir)
Used to treat herpesvirus
Vidarabine (Vira-A)
____ and ____, two drugs that inhibit the replication and spread of the influenza virus if given within 48 hours of symptoms.
Zanamivir (Relenza) and Oseltamivir phosphate (Tamiflu)
Side effects and adverse reactions to amantadine include ______, such as insomnia, depression, anxiety, confusion, and ataxia; _______; _________, such as weakness, dizziness, and slurred speech; and __________, such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
central nervous system (CNS) effects, orthostatic hypotension, neurologic problems, gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances
Three topical antiviral drugs used to treat herpes simplex viruses.
Idoxuridine (Herplex Liquifilm), penciclovir (Denavir), and trifluridine (Viroptic).
A group of drugs that decrease the release of the virus from infected cells, thus decreasing viral spread and shortening the duration of flu symptoms.
Neuraminidase inhibitors
two neuraminidase inhibitors that should be taken within 48 hours of flu symptoms and are effective against type A and B influenza viruses.
Zanamivir (Relenza) and oseltamivir phosphate (Tamiflu)
It is rich in antibodies found in the blood and provides a passive form of immunity to a virus by blocking the penetration of the virus into the host cell.
Gamma globulin (IgG)
Administered intramuscularly (IM). A single-dose injection protects for approximately 2 to 3 weeks; it may be repeated 2 to 3 weeks following the first dose. For patients who need an immediate increase in immune globulin levels, intravenous (IV) immune globulin (Gamimune N) may be administered.
Human immune globulin (Gamastan)
The ______ is effective in interfering with the steps of viral nucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.
synthetic purine nucleoside antiviral group
These drugs are effective in combating herpes simplex viruses (HSV-1, HSV-2), herpes zoster (shingles), varicella-zoster virus (chickenpox), and CMV.
ribavirin (Virazole)
acyclovir (Zovirax)
famciclovir (Famvir)
ganciclovir sodium (Cytovene)
valacyclovir (Valtrex)
prodrug of ganciclovir and is effective for treating CMV retinitis in patients with AIDS
Valganciclovir (Valcyte)
Used to treat respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) in children and respiratory infections caused by the influenza A and B viruses in older adults. ____ is administered by aerosol.
Ribavirin
Introduced as an antineoplastic drug and later was found to be effective against herpesvirus, especially HSV-2, but also against HSV-1, herpes zoster (shingles), and CMV (which can cause congenital defects
Acyclovir
can increase the effect of acyclovir
Probenecid
If taken with acyclovir, the incidence of nephrotoxicity is increased.
aminoglycoside or amphotericin B
_____ is converted to acyclovir, which has inhibitory activity against HSV-1, HSV-2, and varicella-zosteror herpes zoster viruses.
Valacyclovir (Valtrex)
Effective in treating the herpesviruses and CMV yet has a serious adverse reactions such as thrombocytopenia and granulocytopenia so this should be prescribed primarily for severe systemic CMV infections for immunocompromised patients.
Ganciclovir (Cytovene, Vitrasert)
The retrovirus that is the cause of AIDS
Microbe of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Two classes of antiretroviral drugs:
(1) reverse transcriptase inhibitors
(2) protease inhibitors
Antiviral drugs classified as reverse transcriptase inhibitors which aid in inhibiting viral replication
delavirdine (Rescriptor)
didanosine (Videx)
lamivudine (Epivir)
nevirapine(Viramune)
stavudine (Zerit)
zidovudine (Retrovir, AZT)
The protease inhibitor group which inhibits the replication of retroviruses (HIV-1 and HIV-2) include
indinavir (Crixivan)
nelfinavir (Viracept)
ritonavir (Norvir)
saquinavir(Invirase)
When a protease inhibitor is used in combination with a reverse transcriptase inhibitor, these drugs may greatly reduce the viral level to the point that
it is undetectable. The combination of drugs helps decrease ______.
HIV drug resistance
caused by the protozoan parasites Plasmodium spp. carried by infected Anopheles mosquitoes, is still one of the most prevalent protozoan diseases.
Malaria
Malaria is caused by the protozoan parasites ______ carried by infected Anopheles mosquitoes
Plasmodium spp.
Carrier of Plasmodium spp.
Anopheles mosquitoes
Two phases in which the protozoan Plasmodium spp. undergoes
1. tissue phase
2. erythrocytic phase
The phase which produces no clinical symptoms in the human
tissue phase
The phase which causes symptoms of chills, fever, and sweating. The incubation period is 10 to 35 days, followed by flulike symptoms.
erythrocytic phase
The only anti-malarial drug available from 1820 until the early 1940s
Quinine
Type of Plasmodium species which is the most severe
P. falciparum
commonly prescribed drug for malaria
Chloroquine
Three methods used to eradicate malaria
prophylaxis (prevention) of malaria
treatment for the acute attack
prevention of relapse
examples of synthetic antimalarials
chloroquine, primaquine
frequently used to treat an acute malarial attack
Chloroquine and mefloquine
used to treat chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum
Mefloquine HCl and the combination drug atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone)
Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine can be ___ to children and may even
cause death; therefore the drug dose should be closely monitored.
toxic
It is well absorbed from the GI tract. It is moderately protein-binding, and the drug has a long half-life. The first two doses have a loading dose effect. It is metabolized in the liver to active metabolites and excreted in the urine.
Chloroquine HCl
The duration of effect of Chloroquine HCl is very long—days to weeks. True or False?
True
Chloroquine HCl inhibits the malaria parasite’s growth by interfering with its ____.
protein synthesis
General side effects and adverse reactions to antimalarials
GI upset
cranial nerve VIII involvement (quinine and chloroquine)
renal impairment (quinine)
cardiovascular effects (quinine)
Quinine is an _____ drug, and quinidine is an _____ drug.
antimalarial; antidysrhythmic
Lemon juice increases effects of Chloroquine HCl. True or False?
False; decreases
Check patient for visual changes. Patients who take chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine should have frequent ophthalmic examinations. True or False?
True
Assess patient’s hearing, especially if receiving quinine or chloroquine. These drugs may affect ____.
cranial nerve VIII
Advise patients traveling to malaria-infested countries to receive ____ doses of antimalarial drug before leaving, during the visit, and upon return.
prophylactic
Combination antimalarial drugs
atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone)
artemether/lumefantrine (Coartem)
For malaria infections that are both drug-sensitive and drug-resistant to Plasmodium falciparum. Acts by inhibiting nucleic acid and protein synthesis.
artemether/lumefantrine (Coartem)
For oral prophylaxis and treatment of malaria. Effective for chloroquine-resistant strains.
atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone)
large organisms (parasitic worms) that feed on host tissue.
Helminths
Worm infection
helminthiasis
most common site for helminthiasis (worm infestation)
intestine
Other sites for parasitic infestation
lymphatic system, blood vessels, and liver
Groups of helminthes
(1) cestodes (tapeworms),
(2) trematodes (flukes),
(3) intestinal nematodes (roundworms), and
(4) tissue-invading nematodes (tissue roundworms and filariae)
These are segmented and enter the intestine via contaminated food. They have heads and hooks or suckers that attach to the tissue.
cestodes (tapeworms)
four species of cestodes
Taenia solium (pork tapeworm),
Taenia saginata (beef tapeworm),
Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm), and
Hymenolepis nana (dwarf tapeworm)
flat, nonsegmented parasites that feed on the host
trematodes (flukes)
Four types of trematodes
Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke),
Fasciolopsis buski (intestinal fluke)
Paragonimus westermani (lung fluke), and
Schistosoma species (blood fluke)
Five types of nematodes may feed on intestinal tissue
Ascaris lumbricoides (giant roundworm),
Necator americanus (hookworm),
Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm),
Strongyloides stercoralis (threadworm), and
Trichuris trichiura (whipworm)
Two types of nematodes are tissue-invading
Trichinella spiralis (pork roundworm)
Wuchereria bancrofti (filariae)
disease caused by ingestion of raw or inadequately cooked pork that contains larvae of the T. spiralis parasite which can be diagnosed by muscle biopsy
trichinosis
The common side effects of ____ (agents that destroy worms) include GI distress, which may manifest as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and occasionally diarrhea and stomach cramps.
anthelmintics
____ should be avoided if the patient has liver disease.
Thiabendazole
Anti-parasite medication used to treat head lice, onchocerciasis, strongyloidiasis, ascariasis, trichuriasis, and enterobiasis by disrupting their membrane or by entering inside to interact with intracellular components
ivermectin (Stromectol)
Ivermectin should be taken on a full stomach with water. True or False?
False; empty stomach
A polypeptide antibiotic that targets aerobic gram-negative bacteria. It is used to treat Pseudomonas aeruginosa, CRE, and Klebsiella and Shigella species.
Colistimethate
___ and ___ both increase nephrotoxicity and/or ototoxicity.
Colistin and bacitracin
Used to treat several parasitic worm infections such as schistosomiasis by causing severe spasms and paralysis of the worms' muscles
Praziquantel
Used to treat pinworm infections by depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent
Pyrantel pamoate
Used to treat fascioliasis
Triclabendazole
Used to treat trichomoniasis and other bacterial infections by disrupting the bacterial DNA and inhibiting cell synthesis, causing cell death.