Antivirals, Antimalarials, and Anthelmintics

  1. These are more difficult to eradicate than most types of
    bacteria.
    Viruses
  2. It is an obligate intracellular organism that must reside within a living host cell to survive and reproduce.
    Virus
  3. Viruses enter healthy cells and use their ______ and ______ to generate more
    viruses.
    deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA)
  4. These live and reproduce when they are within living cells.
    Viruses
  5. Examples of common viral infections
    • influenza
    • herpes virus infections
    • viral hepatitis infections.
  6. It is a highly contagious viral infection that affects the nose, throat, and lungs.
    Influenza or Flu
  7. This virus is seasonal and more prevalent from fall to spring
    Influenza or Flu
  8. Three antigen types of Influenza
    A, B, and C
  9. Causes a moderate to severe infection.
    Influenza A
  10. causes mild illness in children
    Influenza B
  11. It is very rare in humans.
    Influenza C
  12. This viral infection is transmitted easily via contaminated droplets during coughing, sneezing, or talking.
    Influenza or Flu
  13. Droplets enter into the _____ of the unaffected person and begin replication 24 hours before the appearance of symptoms.
    respiratory tract
  14. Influenza has an abrupt onset with the first symptoms being
    _____, ______, ______, and ________.
    high fever, headache, fatigue, and myalgia (muscle aches)
  15. These are large viruses that cause infections.
    Herpesviruses
  16. Most familiar Herpesviruses
    • 1. herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) and type 2 (HSV-2);
    • 2. varicella-zoster viruses (HSV-3 or VZV), more commonly known as chickenpox and shingles;
    • 3. Epstein-Barr virus (HSV-4 or EBV);
    • 4. cytomegalovirus (HHV-5 or CMV)
  17. Usually associated with cold sores (vesicular lesions), which grow in neurons.
    HSV-1
  18. It is capable of latency (ability to maintain disease potential without signs and symptoms)
    HSV-1
  19. It is usually associated with vesicular lesions and small ulcerations on the genitalia (genital herpes).
    HSV-2
  20. The ______ remains dormant by traveling through the peripheral nerves to the sacral dorsal root ganglia. The virus can be transported back the nerve root
    to the skin for reactivation at any time. While dormant, the virus continues to replicate.
    HSV-2 virus
  21. Both ___ and ___ are capable of causing recurrent infections. Both viruses can replicate in the _______  and skin of the ________.
    HSV-1 and HSV-2

    mucous membranes and oropharynx or genitalia
  22. HSV-1 is spread by _____ from one individual to another.
    oral secretions (From the mouth, this virus can spread to the genital area by oral intercourse or poor hand washing.)
  23. Usually spread by intimate sexual contact, or an infected mother can transmit the virus to her infant during childbirth. When signs and symptoms are present, they usually include eruption of small pustules and vesicles; fever; headache; malaise; myalgia; as well as tingling, itching, and pain in the genital area.
    HSV-2
  24. Causes chickenpox and shingles.
    Varicella zoster virus (VZV or HSV-3)
  25. It is a highly contagious viral infection that causes generalized pruritic vesicles and fever, which has become less common since a vaccine was developed.
    Chickenpox
  26. Most commonly causes infectious mononucleosis, a condition manifested by fever, tonsillitis, and enlarged lymph nodes in the neck.
    Epstein-Barr virus (EBV or HSV-4)
  27. It is a very common infectious disease worldwide transmitted via body fluids, especially saliva or urine; by kissing, sexual contact, or sharing food; or by a pregnant patient to the fetus. In susceptible individuals, ___ infection can lead to fatal pneumonia or blindness (due to an infected retina).
    Cytomegalovirus (CMV or HHV-5)
  28. It is a serious liver infection caused by the hepatitis B virus, which is transmitted via a needlestick, intimate sexual contact, or childbirth. It is found in all body fluids, including blood, semen, and vaginal fluid.
    Hepatitis B (HBV)
  29. A _____ usually can be detected only after the
    virus has replicated itself.
    viral infection
  30. General signs and symptoms of an _______ include headache, low-grade fever (with a mildviral infection), nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, muscular pain,fatigue, and cough.
    acute viral infection
  31. These are pharmacologic preparations that have been developed to provide immunity against and prevent diseases, such as smallpox, chickenpox, mumps, rabies, and influenza.
    Vaccines
  32. The influenza virus vaccine may change annually because _____ changes its genetic structure each year.
    influenza (flu) virus
  33. ____ are used to produce the flu vaccine; therefore any allergies to ___ should be determined before flu vaccine is administered to the patient.
    Eggs
  34. has been available for many years to detect influenza A; however, it does not
    detect influenza B
    Directigen Flu A
  35. Diagnostic tests that identify both influenza A and B using throat swabs, nasal swabs, or nasal aspiration. Results are available within 10 to 20 minutes.
    QuickVue Influenza Test and ZstatFlu
  36. These are used to prevent or delay the spread of a viral infection by inhibiting viral replication by interfering with viral nucleic acid synthesis in the cell.
    Antiviral drugs
  37. _______ and ______, were used to treat type A influenza. Both these antivirals are nonclassified anti-virals.
    amantadine hydrochloride and rimantadine hydrochloride (Flumadine)
  38. Nonclassified antiviral used to treat CMV retinitis
    Cidofovir
  39. Used to treat HIV retinitis and herpes simplex infection in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) (immune disorder characterized by opportunistic diseases)
    Foscar-net (Foscavir)
  40. Used to treat herpesvirus
    Vidarabine (Vira-A)
  41. ____ and ____, two drugs that inhibit the replication and spread of the influenza virus if given within 48 hours of symptoms.
    Zanamivir (Relenza) and Oseltamivir phosphate (Tamiflu)
  42. Side effects and adverse reactions to amantadine include ______, such as insomnia, depression, anxiety, confusion, and ataxia; _______; _________, such as weakness, dizziness, and slurred speech; and __________, such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
    central nervous system (CNS) effects, orthostatic hypotension, neurologic problems, gastrointestinal (GI) disturbances
  43. Three topical antiviral drugs used to treat herpes simplex viruses.
    Idoxuridine (Herplex Liquifilm), penciclovir (Denavir), and trifluridine (Viroptic).
  44. A group of drugs that decrease the release of the virus from infected cells, thus decreasing viral spread and shortening the duration of flu symptoms.
    Neuraminidase inhibitors
  45. two neuraminidase inhibitors that should be taken within 48 hours of flu symptoms and are effective against type A and B influenza viruses.
    Zanamivir (Relenza) and oseltamivir phosphate (Tamiflu)
  46. It is rich in antibodies found in the blood and provides a passive form of immunity to a virus by blocking the penetration of the virus into the host cell.
    Gamma globulin (IgG)
  47. Administered intramuscularly (IM). A single-dose injection protects for approximately 2 to 3 weeks; it may be repeated 2 to 3 weeks following the first dose. For patients who need an immediate increase in immune globulin levels, intravenous (IV) immune globulin (Gamimune N) may be administered.
    Human immune globulin (Gamastan)
  48. The ______ is effective in interfering with the steps of viral nucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.
    synthetic purine nucleoside antiviral group
  49. These drugs are effective in combating herpes simplex viruses (HSV-1, HSV-2), herpes zoster (shingles), varicella-zoster virus (chickenpox), and CMV.
    • ribavirin (Virazole)
    • acyclovir (Zovirax)
    • famciclovir (Famvir)
    • ganciclovir sodium (Cytovene)
    • valacyclovir (Valtrex)
  50. prodrug of ganciclovir and is effective for treating CMV retinitis in patients with AIDS
    Valganciclovir (Valcyte)
  51. Used to treat respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) in children and respiratory infections caused by the influenza A and B viruses in older adults. ____ is administered by aerosol.
    Ribavirin
  52. Introduced as an antineoplastic drug and later was found to be effective against herpesvirus, especially HSV-2, but also against HSV-1, herpes zoster (shingles), and CMV (which can cause congenital defects
    Acyclovir
  53. can increase the effect of acyclovir
    Probenecid
  54. If taken with acyclovir, the incidence of nephrotoxicity is increased.
    aminoglycoside or amphotericin B
  55. _____ is converted to acyclovir, which has inhibitory activity against HSV-1, HSV-2, and varicella-zosteror herpes zoster viruses.
    Valacyclovir (Valtrex)
  56. Effective in treating the herpesviruses and CMV yet has a serious adverse reactions such as thrombocytopenia and granulocytopenia so this should be prescribed primarily for severe systemic CMV infections for immunocompromised patients.
    Ganciclovir (Cytovene, Vitrasert)
  57. The retrovirus that is the cause of AIDS
    Microbe of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
  58. Two classes of antiretroviral drugs:
    • (1) reverse transcriptase inhibitors
    • (2) protease inhibitors
  59. Antiviral drugs classified as reverse transcriptase inhibitors which aid in inhibiting viral replication
    • delavirdine (Rescriptor)
    • didanosine (Videx)
    • lamivudine (Epivir)
    • nevirapine(Viramune)
    • stavudine (Zerit)
    • zidovudine (Retrovir, AZT)
  60. The protease inhibitor group which inhibits the replication of retroviruses (HIV-1 and HIV-2) include
    • indinavir (Crixivan)
    • nelfinavir (Viracept)
    • ritonavir (Norvir)
    • saquinavir(Invirase)
  61. When a protease inhibitor is used in combination with a reverse transcriptase inhibitor, these drugs may greatly reduce the viral level to the point that
    it is undetectable. The combination of drugs helps decrease ______.
    HIV drug resistance
  62. caused by the protozoan parasites Plasmodium spp. carried by infected Anopheles mosquitoes, is still one of the most prevalent protozoan diseases.
    Malaria
  63. Malaria is caused by the protozoan parasites ______ carried by infected Anopheles mosquitoes
    Plasmodium spp.
  64. Carrier of Plasmodium spp.
    Anopheles mosquitoes
  65. Two phases in which the protozoan Plasmodium spp. undergoes
    • 1. tissue phase
    • 2. erythrocytic phase
  66. The phase which produces no clinical symptoms in the human
    tissue phase
  67. The phase which causes symptoms of chills, fever, and sweating. The incubation period is 10 to 35 days, followed by flulike symptoms.
    erythrocytic phase
  68. The only anti-malarial drug available from 1820 until the early 1940s
    Quinine
  69. Type of Plasmodium species which is the most severe
    P. falciparum
  70. commonly prescribed drug for malaria
    Chloroquine
  71. Three methods used to eradicate malaria
    • prophylaxis (prevention) of malaria
    • treatment for the acute attack
    • prevention of relapse
  72. examples of synthetic antimalarials
    chloroquine, primaquine
  73. frequently used to treat an acute malarial attack
    Chloroquine and mefloquine
  74. used to treat chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum
    Mefloquine HCl and the combination drug atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone)
  75. Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine can be ___ to children and may even
    cause death; therefore the drug dose should be closely monitored.
    toxic
  76. It is well absorbed from the GI tract. It is moderately protein-binding, and the drug has a long half-life. The first two doses have a loading dose effect. It is metabolized in the liver to active metabolites and excreted in the urine.
    Chloroquine HCl
  77. The duration of effect of Chloroquine HCl is very long—days to weeks. True or False?
    True
  78. Chloroquine HCl inhibits the malaria parasite’s growth by interfering with its ____.
    protein synthesis
  79. General side effects and adverse reactions to antimalarials
    • GI upset
    • cranial nerve VIII involvement (quinine and chloroquine)
    • renal impairment (quinine)
    • cardiovascular effects (quinine)
  80. Quinine is an _____ drug, and quinidine is an _____ drug.
    antimalarial; antidysrhythmic
  81. Lemon juice increases effects of Chloroquine HCl. True or False?
    False; decreases
  82. Check patient for visual changes. Patients who take chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine should have frequent ophthalmic examinations. True or False?
    True
  83. Assess patient’s hearing, especially if receiving quinine or chloroquine. These drugs may affect ____.
    cranial nerve VIII
  84. Advise patients traveling to malaria-infested countries to receive ____ doses of antimalarial drug before leaving, during the visit, and upon return.
    prophylactic
  85. Combination antimalarial drugs
    • atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone)
    • artemether/lumefantrine (Coartem)
  86. For malaria infections that are both drug-sensitive and drug-resistant to Plasmodium falciparum. Acts by inhibiting nucleic acid and protein synthesis.
    artemether/lumefantrine (Coartem)
  87. For oral prophylaxis and treatment of malaria. Effective for chloroquine-resistant strains.
    atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone)
  88. large organisms (parasitic worms) that feed on host tissue.
    Helminths
  89. Worm infection
    helminthiasis
  90. most common site for helminthiasis (worm infestation)
    intestine
  91. Other sites for parasitic infestation
    lymphatic system, blood vessels, and liver
  92. Groups of helminthes
    • (1) cestodes (tapeworms),
    • (2) trematodes (flukes),
    • (3) intestinal nematodes (roundworms), and
    • (4) tissue-invading nematodes (tissue roundworms and filariae)
  93. These are segmented and enter the intestine via contaminated food. They have heads and hooks or suckers that attach to the tissue.
    cestodes (tapeworms)
  94. four species of cestodes
    • Taenia solium (pork tapeworm),
    • Taenia saginata (beef tapeworm),
    • Diphyllobothrium latum (fish tapeworm), and
    • Hymenolepis nana (dwarf tapeworm)
  95. flat, nonsegmented parasites that feed on the host
    trematodes (flukes)
  96. Four types of trematodes
    • Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke),
    • Fasciolopsis buski (intestinal fluke)
    • Paragonimus westermani (lung fluke), and
    • Schistosoma species (blood fluke)
  97. Five types of nematodes may feed on intestinal tissue
    • Ascaris lumbricoides (giant roundworm),
    • Necator americanus (hookworm),
    • Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm),
    • Strongyloides stercoralis (threadworm), and
    • Trichuris trichiura (whipworm)
  98. Two types of nematodes are tissue-invading
    • Trichinella spiralis (pork roundworm) 
    • Wuchereria bancrofti (filariae)
  99. disease caused by ingestion of raw or inadequately cooked pork that contains larvae of the T. spiralis parasite which can be diagnosed by muscle biopsy
    trichinosis
  100. The common side effects of ____ (agents that destroy worms) include GI distress, which may manifest as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and occasionally diarrhea and stomach cramps.
    anthelmintics
  101. ____ should be avoided if the patient has liver disease.
    Thiabendazole
  102. Anti-parasite medication used to treat head lice, onchocerciasis, strongyloidiasis, ascariasis, trichuriasis, and enterobiasis by disrupting their membrane or by entering inside to interact with intracellular components
    ivermectin (Stromectol)
  103. Ivermectin should be taken on a full stomach with water. True or False?
    False; empty stomach
  104. A polypeptide antibiotic that targets aerobic gram-negative bacteria. It is used to treat Pseudomonas aeruginosa, CRE, and Klebsiella and Shigella species.
    Colistimethate
  105. ___ and ___ both increase nephrotoxicity and/or ototoxicity.
    Colistin and bacitracin
  106. Used to treat several parasitic worm infections such as schistosomiasis by causing severe spasms and paralysis of the worms' muscles
    Praziquantel
  107. Used to treat pinworm infections by depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent
    Pyrantel pamoate
  108. Used to treat fascioliasis
    Triclabendazole
  109. Used to treat trichomoniasis and other bacterial infections by disrupting the bacterial DNA and inhibiting cell synthesis, causing cell death.
    Metronidazole
Author
qrysh
ID
363543
Card Set
Antivirals, Antimalarials, and Anthelmintics
Description
Updated