Captain Upgrade

1.) 1. The wing span of the B737-800W is ____ and the wing span of the B737-700W is ___ .

Reference: FRM 1.1.1

A. 117’-5”, 115’ -7”
B. 115’ -5’, 114’ -5”
C. 126’ -5’, 117’ -5’
D. 117’ -5”, 117’ -5”

2.) 2. Turning Radius:
The ____ swings the largest arc while turning and determines the minimum obstruction clearance path.

Reference: FRM 1.1.2

A. Nose and wingtip
B. Tail
C. Wingtip
D. Nose

3.) 3. With the Flight Deck Door Lock light switch in AUTO, an illumination of the LOCK FAIL light indicates the lock is (has) ___ or the Flight Deck Access System switch is ____.

Reference: FRM 1.3.4.1.3

A. Disengaged, Off
B. Engaged, Off
C. Failed, Off
D. Engaged, On

4.) 4. If the Flight Deck Door emergency access code is entered correctly, a flight deck chime sounds and the AUTO UNLK flashes. The crew can prevent entry by selecting on the Door Lock selector.

Reference: FRM 1.4.6.1

A. UNLK
B. DENY
C. OFF
D. LOCK

5.) 5. The Captain’s and the First Officer’s number two windows can be opened from outside the aircraft.

Reference: FRM 1.4.6.2
True False

6.) 6. What is the minimum oxygen pressure for dispatch under the following conditions: Temperature 15°C, 3 crew (Captain, FO and Observer): _____.
Reference: AOM 16.1.2

A. 645
B. 655
C. 470
D. 840

7.) 7. Preflight of the smoke goggles is not required when _____ .
Reference: AOM 16.1.5

A. On through flights when no crew change occurs
B. If the full-face mask is installed
C. It is always required
D. Both a and b

8.) 8. If a pilot is required to do the Interior (Cabin) Inspection, how many emergency flashlights are required and how are they checked?
Reference: AOM 16.1.3

A. 1 at each FA jumpseat, green indicator lights flash every 8 to 10 seconds
B. 2 at each FA jumpseat, green indicator light is on
C. 2 at each FA jumpseat, red indicator light flashes every 8 to 10 seconds
D. 2 at each FA jumpseat, green indicator light flashes every 8 to 10 seconds

9.) 9. You are notified that the potable water has failed EPA testing. You ____.
Reference: AOM 16.1.6

A. Do nothing, ground operations is responsible for this procedure
B. Complete the supplemental procedure for EPA-Mandated Potable Water Testing
C. Use the supplemental procedure which mandates informing crewmembers about the failed testing, but do not brief the passengers, there is no requirement to do so.
D. Both b and c

10.) 1. During a Bleeds OFF Takeoff, if the isolation valve switch is inadvertently set to AUTO instead of CLOSE, the APU will provide air to _____ pack (s).
References: AOM 16.2.1, FRM 2.1.1

A. Neither
B. Both
C. The Left
D. The Right

11.) 2. The Cabin Altitude Warning Horn sounds when cabin altitude exceeds _____ feet.
Reference: FRM 15.2.4.1

A. 14,000
B. 9,900
C. 10,000
D. 13,700

12.) 3. Illumination of only the AUTO FAIL light on the Digital Pressurization Control Panel indicates ____ pressure controller(s) failed.
Reference: FRM 2.1.5

A. The #1
B. The #2
C. The Manual
D. Both #1 and #2

13.) 4. With the recirculation fan switch in AUTO and any of the air conditioning packs in HIGH, will the recirculation fan be ON or OFF?
Reference: FRM 2.3.3.4

A) ON
B) OFF

14.) 5. The following alert indicates an over temperature condition in the E&E bay on the ground: _____ .
Reference: FRM 2.3.3.5.1

A. Wheel Well Fire Warning
B. ACARS Message
C. Cargo Fire Warning
D. Crew Call Horn

15.) 6. Following a bleeds off takeoff, the crew should start to reconfigure .
Reference: AOM 16.2.3

A. At not less than minimum cleanup altitude
B. When flaps are up, at climb thrust
C. At greater than 1,500 ft AFE
D. Both a and b

16.) 7. Choose the correct altitude and scenario for accomplishing an engine bleeds off landing procedure.
Reference: AOM 6.4.1.1 (NG)

A. When below 10,000 ft when landing is limited by brake energy
B. When below 10,000 ft if additional thrust for improved aircraft performance is needed or desired and the APU is operative
C. Not approved
D. When below 5,000 AFE if additional thrust for improved aircraft performance is needed or desired

17.) 1. Positioning an Engine Anti-Ice switch to ON allows engine bleed air to flow through the cowl anti-ice valve for cowl lip anti-icing and _____ .
Reference: FRM 3.2.5.1
A. Resets the Probe Heaters to High Temp
B. Programs the FMC for Vref – Ice
C. Sets the stall warning logic for icing conditions
D. None of the above

18.) 2. In reference to the B737 MAX, both valves of the wing anti-ice system will close if either ____ is above the takeoff warning setting or either ____ senses a duct over temperature.
Reference: MAX FRM 3.2.6.1
A. Throttle, pressure sensor
B. Engine thrust, pressure sensor
C. Engine thrust, temperature sensor
D. Throttle, engine cowl

19.) 3. The wing anti-ice system provides protection for the ___ by using bleed air. The wing anti-ice system does not include the ___ or the ___.
Reference: FRM 3.2.6

A. Leading and trailing edge flaps, tail surfaces, radome
B. Leading edge flaps and slats, vertical stab, horizontal stab
C. Three inboard leading edge slats, leading edge flaps, outboard leading edge slats
D. None of the above

20.) 4. Window Heat ON lights illuminate (green) when window heat is being applied to the selected window(s). Lights are extinguished when window heat switch is OFF, or ___ is detected, or a system failure has occurred, or the ____.
Reference: FRM 3.1.1

A. An overheat, system is at the correct temperature
B. An under heat/overheat, number 3 window voltage is low
C. A crack, system voltage is too high or low
D. An overheat, temperature sensor fails

21.) 5. In reference to the MAX, ENG ANTI ICE amber light refers to ____ .
A. Core Anti Ice
B. Cowl Anti Ice
C. Wing Anti Ice
D. Both a and b

22.) 6. Pressing the window heat test switch to OVHT with the window heat switches ON will cause:
Reference: AOM 16.3.1
A. All OVERHEAT lights should illuminate, and the ON lights should extinguish after a short delay.
B. All OVERHEAT lights should illuminate, and the ON lights should remain ON
C. The MASTER CAUTION and ANTI-ICE annunciator lights should illuminate.
D. Both a and c

23.) 7. After completing the window heat OVHT test, the system is reset ____ .
Reference: AOM 16.3.1

A. By positioning the window heat switches OFF, then ON.
B. By pressing the OVHT test switch again
C. Automatically after a 5 second delay
D. Automatically

24.) 8. As part of the Captain’s prefight procedure, the window heat should be turned on at least ____ prior to takeoff.
Reference: AOM 6.4.1

A. 15 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 1 minute in high ambient temperatures

25.) 9. During high ambient temperature, when placing the window heat switches ON, the window heat ON lights ____ .
Reference: AOM 6.4.1

A. Will always illuminate. In high ambient temperatures, the OVHT lights will also illuminate.
B. Will always illuminate.
C. May not illuminate.
D. None of the above

26.) 10. In reference to the MAX, Icing idle is not available above ____ and is fully functional below _____ .
Reference: MAX FRM 7.2.3.6

A. 30,400’, 22,000’
B. FL180, 10,000’
C. FL300, 18,000’
D. FL370, 10,000’

27.) 1. Selecting VNAV on the MCP will command the Autopilot to maintain airspeed which is supplied by the _____.
Reference: FRM 4.1.3

A. Flight Plan
B. MCP Speed Window
C. FCC
D. FMC

28.) 2. Selecting LVL CHG on the MCP during a descent will command the autothrottle to hold ___ thrust setting, and the AFDS to hold ____ airspeed.
Reference: FRM 4.1.3

A. Idle, FMC Target
B. Idle, selected
C. Idle, Vref + 5
D. Idle, Vref

29.) 3. During a VNAV PATH descent, the FMC reverts to VNAV SPD, the A/T will hold ___ thrust and the AFDS holds ____ speed.
Reference: FRM 4.1.3

A. Idle, Vref
B. Idle, selected
C. Idle, Vref + 5
D. Idle, FMC Target

30.) 4. If a Radio Altimeter (RA) is inoperative, when will the autopilot disconnect automatically during an ILS approach?
Reference: FRM 4.2.2.4

A. LOC and G/S Capture + 2 Seconds
B. G/S Capture
C. LOC Capture
D. Applicable Minimums minus 50 ft

31.) 5. The flight director pitch command target speed after liftoff is ____ .
Reference: FRM 4.2.2.7.2

A. 15o Nose up until sufficient climb rate, then MCP speed + 20 kt
B. 15o Nose Up
C. 10o Nose up until V2+20
D. V2 + 10

32.) 6. After pressing TO/GA during a go-around, the MCP speed window will blank. What does the airspeed cursor display on the airspeed indicator?
Reference: FRM 4.2.4.3.7

A. Current Flap Target Speed
B. Vref + 5
C. Vref + 15
D. Flaps 15 Approach Speed

33.) 7. During a single engine F/D Go-around with TO/GA selected, the F/D pitch commands ____ degrees nose up. As climb rate increases, F/D pitch commands maintain a target speed.
Reference: FRM 4.2.4.3.8

A. 5
B. 13
C. 15
D. 10

34.) 1. If the remote electronics unit or ACP malfunctions, it cannot control the remote electronics unit. Audio system operation can be switched to a degraded mode by placing the ____ .
Reference: FRM 5.2.7

A. ALT-NORM switch to ALT
B. ALT-NORM switch to OFF
C. Transmitter selector to V
D. VHF button to OFF

35.) 2. In the degraded audio mode of the Audio Control Panel (ACP) ____ .
Reference: FRM 5.2.7

A. ACP transmitter is not functional
B. Receiver switches are not functional
C. Volume is at a preset level
D. All of the above

36.) 3. In the degraded audio mode of the Audio Control Panel (ACP) _____ .
Reference: FRM 5.2.7

A. Speaker and speaker switch are not functional
B. Flight interphone and service interphone are not functional
C. Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are heard on an audio system
D. Both a and b

37.) 4. In the degraded audio mode of the Audio Control Panel (ACP) _____ .
Reference: FRM 5.2.7

A. Hand microphone is not functional
B. PA is not operational through ACP
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

38.) 5. The primary purpose of the flight interphone system is to provide private communication between Crew Members without intrusion from the service interphone system. The ____ may also use the flight interphone through a jack at the ____ receptacle.
Reference: FRM 5.2.8

A. Flight Deck, Ground Crew, external power
B. Flight Deck and Cabin, Ground Crew, Service Interphone
C. Flight Deck, Cabin Crew, headset
D. Flight Deck and Cabin, Ground Crew, external power

39.) 6. Pilots establish contact with STAT MD through ARINC on the _____ communications radio.
Reference: FRM 5.2.12

A. Number 3 VHF communications radio
B. Number 2 VHF communications radio
C. Number 1 VHF communications radio
D. None of the above

40.) 7. When communication is established with STAT MD, ensure the observer’s audio panel is _____ for Flight Attendant communication through the plugged-in radio headset.
Reference: FRM 5.2.12

A. Selected to number 2 VHF MIC and volume selected to full
B. Selected to number 2 VHF MIC and volume selected to lowest setting
C. Selected to INT MIC and volume selected to full
D. Selected to CABIN (if installed) and volume selected to full

41.) 8. If the HF radio system fails to tune, the tone lasts more than ____ seconds, to a maximum of _____ seconds.
Reference: FRM 5.2.14

A. 15, 20
B. 5, 15,
C. 7, 15
D. 10, 15

42.) 9. A SATCOM call can only be initiated from the flight deck via the ______ .
Reference: FRM 5.2.15

A. MCDU SAT page
B. Call Control Button – SAT 2
C. SATCOM Handset
D. Call Control Button – SAT 1

43.) 10. In the B737-800W and some B737-700W aircraft, if power is interrupted either by normal shutdown or for any other reason, the CVR stops recording.
Reference: FRM 5.2.18.1

A. False, power is still applied for 1 minute
B. False, power is still applied for 10 minutes
C. True, nothing is recorded
D. True during normal shutdown, False in an emergency

44.) 1. The two basic principles of operation for the B737 electrical system are _______ .
Reference: FRM 6.2.1.1

A. There is paralleling of the AC sources of power and the source of power being connected to a transfer bus cannot automatically disconnect an existing source.
B. There is no paralleling of the AC sources of power and the source of power being connected to a transfer bus automatically disconnects an existing source.
C. There is paralleling of the AC sources of power and the source of power being connected to a transfer bus automatically disconnects an existing source.
D. There is no paralleling of the AC sources of power and the source of power being connected to a transfer bus cannot automatically disconnect an existing source.

45.) 2. While on the ground and both generator control switches off, selecting either APU GEN switch on will _____
.
Reference: FRM 6.2.3

A. Connect APU power to the respective transfer bus
B. Connect APU power to both transfer busses if GRD PWR is not connected
C. Connect nothing as both APU GEN switches must be placed ON within 5 seconds
D. Connect APU power to both transfer busses

46.) 3. If the APU is running and supplying power to the busses, starting the first engine and placing its generator switch ON will ______ .
Reference: FRM 6.2.3

A. Powers both transfer busses
B. Automatically trips off GRD PWR
C. Powers its respective transfer bus
D. Allow the APU to power both transfer busses until both Engine Generators are ON

47.) 4. If the BUS TRANSFER switch is in the AUTO position and the source powering the transfer bus is disconnected or fails, the source powering the opposite transfer bus automatically picks up the unpowered transfer bus through the BTBs.
Reference: FRM 6.2.3.1
True False

48.) 5. The amber DRIVE light is illuminated when low oil pressure is sensed in the IDG and is caused by which of the following: ________ .
Reference: FRM 6.2.4.1

A. IDG Failure, Automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature
B. Engine shutdown, IDG disconnected through generator drive disconnect switch
C. Engine high RPM, High accessory case RPM
D. Both a and b

49.) 6. During flight, a DC power system fault occurs. The ELEC light _______ .
Reference: FRM 6.2.5

A. Illuminates – follow QRH procedure
B. Illuminates – make a logbook write up
C. Illuminates - Check the TR1, 2 and 3 voltage and make a logbook write-up
D. Is inhibited in flight

50.) 7. The cross bus tie relay automatically opens, isolating DC bus 1 from DC bus 2, under the following conditions: ______ .
Reference: FRM 6.2.5.1

A. At glideslope capture during a flight director or autopilot ILS approach. This isolates the DC busses during approach to prevent a single failure from affecting both navigation receivers and flight control computers
B. At glideslope capture during a flight director or autopilot ILS approach. This isolates the AC busses during approach to prevent a single failure from affecting both navigation receivers and flight control computers
C. Bus transfer switch positioned to OFF
D. Both a and c

51.) 8. What DC busses are powered from the battery (Dual battery configuration) following a loss of both generators?
Reference: FRM 6.2.5.2

A. Battery bus, DC standby bus, Hot battery bus, DC transfer bus
B. Battery bus, DC standby bus, Hot battery bus, Switched hot battery bus
C. Battery bus, Hot battery bus
D. DC standby bus, Hot battery bus, Switched hot battery bus

52.) 9. The static inverter ______ during loss of normal electrical power.
Reference: FRM 6.2.6.3

A. Converts 24V DC to 115V AC power to supply the AC standby bus
B. Converts 24V DC to 115V AC power to supply the AC transfer busses
C. Converts 115V AC to 24V DC power to supply the battery and battery transfer bus
D. Converts 115V AC to 24V DC power to supply power the battery bus

53.) 10. When in flight, operating on standby power only, which Captain’s instruments are available?
Reference: FRM 6.2.6.5

A. PFD, ISFD or standby instruments, Full engine display
B. Clock, PFD, ND, ISFD or standby instruments, Compact engine display
C. PFD, ND, ISFD or standby instruments, Compact engine display
D. Clock, PFD, ND, ISFD or standby Instruments, Full engine Display

54.) 1. The ENGINE CONTROL lights operate on the ground only, with engines operating and aircraft speed below ____ knots. The lights are inhibited for approximately ____ seconds after touchdown.
Reference: FRM 7.2.3

A. 90, 60
B. 60, 30
C. 80, 30
D. 90, 30

55.) 2. ENGINE CONTROL Lights that illuminate after touchdown are dispatchable for the next flight.
Reference: FRM 7.2.3
True False

56.) 3. On the (NG) aircraft, the alternate mode of the EEC has two separate operating modes known as soft alternate and hard alternate. How is the hard alternate mode entered?
Reference: FRM 7.3.3.2

A. 30 seconds after touchdown
B. Retard thrust lever to Idle
C. Manually select ALTN
D. Both b and c

57.) 4. The EEC provides redline overspeed protection in what mode(s)?
Reference: FRM 7.3.3.3

A. N1 only in the normal and alternate modes
B. N2 only in the normal and alternate modes
C. N1 and N2 in the normal mode only
D. N1 & N2 in both the normal and alternate modes

58.) 5. The engine fuel shutoff valves are controlled by the ____ ?
Reference: FRM 12.2.2.4

A. Igniters
B. Start levers
C. Throttles
D. Manually

59.) 6. With only battery power available, the Right igniters must be used for engine starts.
Reference: FRM 6.2.6.4.6
True False

60.) 7. On the NG, electrical power for starting the APU is provided by ______ .
Reference: FRM 7.4.2.3

A. DC Standby Bus or Battery Bus
B. AC Standby Bus or Battery Bus
C. No. 1 AC Transfer Bus or the Battery
D. No. 1 DC Transfer Bus or the Battery

61.) 8. When a flight is terminating at a non-Maintenance base and the oil quantity is less than _____ % (NG), the Captain must arrange for oil servicing.

Reference: AOM 3.8.4
A. 70
B. 65
C. 60
D. 67

62.) 9. After moving the APU switch to OFF, shutdown on the NG aircraft occurs automatically after _____ seconds.
Reference: FRM 7.4.2.5

A. 90 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 60 seconds

63.) 10. Prior to conducting a ground air start procedure, the Captain and Pushback driver should discuss _____ .
Reference: AOM 16.7.1

A. Type of airstart unit (e.g., continuous flow)
B. Which engine is to be started at the gate (normally #1)
C. Review the disconnection communication
D. All of the above

64.) 1. If one Engine Overheat/Fire Detector loop fails with the OVHT DET switch in NORMAL, that loop _____ and the remaining loop functions as a single loop detector.
Reference: FRM 8.2.2.1

A. Must be manually deselected
B. Is automatically deselected
C. Is considered functional
D. Must be manually selected

65.) 2. An inflight APU fire is indicated by the following.
Reference: FRM 8.1.1

A. Master Fire Warning lights illuminate, fire warning bell sounds
B. Main wheel well APU fire warning horn sounds
C. APU fire warning light illuminates
D. Both a and c

66.) 3. An illuminated FAULT light on the Overheat/Fire Protection panel indicates ______ .
Reference: FRM 8.1.3

A. Detector switch in NORMAL – indicates a single or dual loop failure has occurred
B. Detector switch in NORMAL – indicates both detector loops for an engine have failed
C. Detector switch in NORMAL – indicates a single loop failure has occurred
D. None of the above

67.) 4. When the Engine Fire Extinguisher discharges, the L or R BOTTLE DISCHARGE light illuminates _____ .
Reference: FRM 8.2.2.2

A. Immediately after the engine fire switch is rotated
B. Immediately after the arm switch is pushed
C. Immediately after both the engine fire switch is rotated and the bottle has discharged
D. A few seconds after the engine fire switch is rotated

68.) 5. During a Cargo Fire TEST, the DETECTOR Fault light will illuminate if _______ .
Reference: FRM 8.2.8.1

A. One or more detectors in the loop(s) has failed
B. Will not illuminate as it is inhibited on the ground
C. All the detectors in the loop(s) have failed
D. None of the above

69.) 6. During a cargo fire test, the fire warning bell sounds, both master fire warning lights illuminate and _____ .
Reference: FRM 8.2.8.1

A. Extinguisher lights illuminate, FWD and AFT cargo fire warning lights illuminate immediately, cargo fire bottle DISCH light illuminates
B. Extinguisher lights illuminate, FWD and AFT cargo fire warning lights illuminate when all detectors respond to the fire test, cargo fire bottle DISCH light illuminates
C. FWD and AFT cargo fire warning lights illuminate when all detectors respond to the fire test, cargo fire bottle DISCH light illuminates
D. Extinguisher lights illuminate, FWD and AFT cargo fire warning lights illuminate when all detectors respond to the fire test, cargo fire bottle DISCH light flashes

70.) 7. The number of cargo fire bottles installed on -800 aircraft is .
Reference: FRM 8.2.5.3

A. All -800 aircraft have 2 bottles
B. -800 ETOPs have 2 bottles, -800 domestic have 1 bottle
C. -800 ETOPs have 1 bottle, -800 domestic have 2 bottles
D. All -800 aircraft have 1 bottle

71.) 8. To determine the specific inoperative engine fire detector loop, select A or B on the OVHT DET switch, push the test switch and observe _____ .
Reference: AOM 16.8.1

A. The FAULT light remains extinguished and both ENG OVERHEAT lights and engine fire warning switches illuminate, that respective loop is good.
B. If the FAULT light illuminates and one of the ENG OVERHEAT lights and corresponding engine fire warning switch remain extinguished, there is a fault in the respective loop of the detection system of that engine.
C. If the FAULT light illuminates and both of the ENG OVERHEAT lights and corresponding engine fire warning switch illuminate, there is a fault in the respective loop of the detection system of that engine.
D. Both a and b

72.) 1. The Captain’s control wheel is connected by cables to the ____ while the FO’s control wheel is connected to the ____ . The two control wheels are connected _____ .
Reference: FRM 9.2.4.1

A. Aileron power control units, aileron power control units, by the spoiler PCUs
B. Aileron PCU’s, Aileron feel and centering unit, by a hydraulic line
C. Aileron power control units, Aileron feel and centering unit, by a cable drive system
D. Aileron PCUs through the aileron feel and centering unit, spoiler PCUs through the spoiler mixer, by a cable drive system

73.) 2. Using the aileron trim when the autopilot is engaged is prohibited because ______ .
Reference: FRM 9.2.4.1.2

A. Trim is not reflected in the control wheel position
B. Aileron trim does not move the trim when the autopilot is engaged
C. Aileron trim applied when the autopilot is on can result in abrupt rolling when autopilot is disconnected
D. Both a and c

74.) 3. Flight spoilers rise on the wing with the aileron up when the control wheel is displaced more than approximately _____ degrees.
Reference: FRM 9.2.4.2

A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12

75.) 4. Illumination of the elevator FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicates ______ ?
Reference: FRM 9.2.5.1.2

A. Either hydraulic system fails and/or the stabilizer trim fails
B. The elevator pitot system fails and/or the centering unit fails
C. Either hydraulic system fails and/or the centering unit fails
D. Either hydraulic system fails or the elevator pitot system fails

76.) 5. If the stabilizer trim is moved manually out of the electric trim limits, can it be repositioned back to normal electrical trim limits using the trim switches?
Reference: FRM 9.2.5.2.2

A. Yes, but only after the trim handles are stowed
B. No, it must be manually returned to normal electric trim positions
C. Yes, it can be moved via the trim switches
D. No, it must be moved manually until in the green band

77.) 6. If the auto speedbrakes are left in the down detent for landing, under what conditions, if any, will they deploy?
Reference: FRM 9.2.6.2

A. None, you must deploy them manually
B. Main landing gear wheel spin up (more than 60kts), both thrust levers to idle and reverse thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust.
C. Landing gear strut compression (both) and reverse thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust.
D. Landing gear strut compression (either) and reserve thrust levers positioned for reverse thrust

78.) 7. The flight deck crew’s indication of uncommanded trailing edge flap movement is the _____ .
Reference: FRM 9.2.7.6.2

A. TE warning light illuminates
B. Flap indicator needles split
C. Flap position indicator disagrees with the flap lever position
D. All of the above

79.) 8. When applying the Aircraft Trim Technique, rudder trim is used to level the wings based on control wheel displacement. What should be assured before using the rudder trim?
Reference: AOM 16.9.1

A. Symmetrical thrust
B. Fuel balanced, symmetrical thrust, autopilot MUST be disengaged prior to use of rudder trim
C. Fuel balanced, symmetrical thrust, in Heading Mode Only
D. Fuel balanced, symmetrical thrust

80.) 9. When would a maintenance action be required after applying the Aircraft Trim Technique?
Reference: AOM 16.9.1

A. If the final trim input results in spoiler pick-up, either improper technique was used or the aircraft requires maintenance action
B. If control wheel displacement is present
C. It is a maintenance function on heavy maintenance visits to trim the aircraft – no pilot input or action is required or requested
D. If the control wheel displacement exceeds 5 units

81.) 1. The primary flight display (PFD) VNAV Speed Band indicates FMC targeted airspeed during VNAV path descents. The upper and lower limits of this band indicate _____ .
Reference: FRM 10.1.2.1

A. Upper limit – autothrottle disconnect, lower limit – autothrottle wake up
B. Upper limit – transition from VNAV path to VNAV Speed, lower limit 1.3 stall margin
C. Upper limit – transition from VNAV path to VNAV speed, lower limit – autothrottle wake up
D. None of the above

82.) 2. What are the display modes of operation for the HGS?
Reference: FRM 10.2.2

A. Primary (PRI), Approach, VMC
B. Primary (PRI), AIII approach, IMC and VMC
C. AIII approach, IMC, VMC
D. IMC, VMC and Primary (PRI)

83.) 3. The following ILS approach criteria are required in the HGS AIII mode, ______ .
References: FRM 10.6.2.2, FRM 10.6.2.3

A. Both VHF navigation receivers are tuned to an ILS frequency and VHF #1 or VHF #2 localizer deviation is less than approximately ¼ dot and glideslope deviation is less than approximately 1¼ dots for at least five seconds
B. The difference between the aircraft’s magnetic track and the Captain’s selected course is less than 15°
C. Radio altitude is greater than 500 ft
D. All of the above

84.) 4. When using the HGS in VMC mode for a visual approach, it is critical to ensure _____ ?
Reference: FRM 10.6.2.5

A. Visual conditions are above 5000/5 exist
B. It is selected prior to turning a straight-in visual final
C. Proper mechanical alignment of the combiner
D. ILS approach frequency is active for the selected runway

85.) 5. What does the “ALIGN HUD” message indicate?
Reference: FRM 10.6.1.4

A. Combiner is not in the correct position in IMC or VMC modes
B. Crosswind is sufficient to cause the flight path vector to move off scale
C. Projector is not angled properly – call maintenance
D. The frequency and selected course do not agree with the NAV information being received

86.) 6. The flight path acceleration symbol on the HGS indicates _____ when it is below the flight path vector.
Reference: FRM 9.2.7.2

A. The aircraft is climbing
B. The aircraft is in steady flight
C. The aircraft is accelerating
D. The aircraft is decelerating

87.) 7. The Speed Error tape on the HGS displays the difference between indicated airspeed and the reference speed selected on the mode control panel. The tape length is equal to the diameter of the flight path circle, and represents approximately _____ kts of error. The maximum tape length is limited to _____ kts of error.
Reference: FRM 9.2.8.6.2

A. 5 kts, 15 kts
B. 5%, 20%
C. 5 kts, 25 kts
D. 10 kts, 20 kts

88.) 8. When landing, the Runway edge lines will appear in the HGS between ____ and ____ ft radio altitude?
Reference: FRM 10.9.2.1

A. Between 1000 and 50 ft radio altitude
B. Between 750 and 50 ft radio altitude
C. Between 500 ft radio altitude and touchdown
D. Between 300 and 60 ft radio altitude

89.) 9. On landing, tail strike monitoring becomes active on selected HGS systems below _____ when a tail strike is likely.
Reference: FRM 10.9.3

A. 10 ft AGL
B. 50 ft AGL
C. 100 ft AGL
D. 50 ft AGL

90.) 1. In reference to the MAX, which features are available in the VSD?
Reference: MAX FRM 10.1.9.2.3

A. Range to speed dot
B. Approach gateways
C. Flight Path vector
D. All of the above

91.) 2. Which of the following are true?
Reference: AOM 3.11.1

A. Do not use LNAV if the message “UNABLE REQD NAV PERF-RNP” is active
B. Flight director or autopilot is required for RNAV operations with an RNP of 1.0 NM or less
C. Use of the autopilot is required for RNAV approaches with an RNP less than 0.30 NM
D. All of the above

92.) 3. During the Captain’s Originating Preflight flow, what items are checked on the Navigation Panel?
Reference: AOM 6.4.1

A. VHF NAV and IRS Switches - NORMAL
B. Display Switches - AUTO/NORMAL
C. FMC Switches - NORMAL
D. All of the above

93.) 4. When is the decision made to use LNAV on the departure?
Reference: FOM 3.4.3

A. Pilot Flying briefing
B. Just prior to entering the runway
C. After engine start
D. During taxi out

94.) 5. What is the FMA indication that LNAV is armed and will become active after takeoff?
Reference: AOM 4.7.1

A. There is no indication
B. Roll mode is blank – LNAV appears at 50 ft AGL
C. Roll mode indicates LNAV in green
D. Roll mode indicates LNAV in white

95.) 6. When the autopilot is engaged, who makes FMC inputs?
Reference: AOM 4.1

A. The PF or PF directs PM
B. The PF
C. The PM
D. Anyone at anytime

96.) 7. When verifying MCP inputs, what CAUTION must be observed?
Reference: AOM 4.2.2

A. The CDU page will automatically switch to the MCP mode selected to verify that an MCP mode selection has occurred.
B. The MCP mode selector switch is illuminated to verify that an MCP mode selection has occurred.
C. The Green indicator on the MCP Mode Selector Switch must be illuminated green to verify that an MCP mode selection has occurred.
D. Proper annunciation on the FMA is the only way to verify that an MCP mode selection has occurred.

97.) 8. Which is not a selectable mode on the MAX’s Multi-Mode Navigation Control Panel?
Reference: MAX FRM 11.1.4.2

A. ILS
B. GPS
C. VOR
D. GLS

98.) 9. Which of the following CAUTIONS apply when using VNAV for departure?
Reference: AOM 4.8.1

A. The default is 250 kt below 10,000 ft MSL. Speed restrictions due to airspace or ATC restrictions may require FMC programming or (NG) SPD INTV.
B. Enter speed restriction(s) at appropriate waypoints only if more restrictive than the LARGE font speeds on the LEGS page.
C. Deleting the CLB page SPD REST removes the 250 kt below 10,000 ft MSL speed programming.
D. All of the above

99.) 1. If an Engine does not shut down when you position the Start Lever to CUTOFF, how can you verify the fuel valves did not close properly?
Reference: FRM 12.1.1

A. Dim ENG/SPAR VALVE CLOSED light
B. Blank ENG/SPAR VALVE CLOSED light
C. Bright ENG/SPAR VALVE CLOSED light
D. Flashing ENG/SPAR VALVE CLOSED light

100.) 2. Each center tank pump will automatically shut off after a short delay when that pumps’ sensor detects low output pressure.
Reference: FRM (NG & MAX) 12.2.2.2
True False

101.) 3. The center tank fuel feeds before the main tank fuel because ______ .
Reference: FRM 12.2.2.2

A. Center tank pumps are closer to the engines
B. The EECs meter fuel to the engines
C. Center tank pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps
D. None of the above

102.) 4. The fuel scavenge jet pump operates automatically to transfer any remaining center tank fuel to main tank No.1 when main tank ____ switch is ON, and the quantity of main tank No.1 is _____ .
Reference: FRM 12.2.2.5

A. No.1 AFT, one half
B. N.2 FWD, one-half
C. No.1 FWD, one-half
D. No.2 AFT, 1675 lbs

103.) 5. The spar fuel-shutoff valves are DC-motor operated from the _____ .
Reference: FRM 12.2.2.4

A. DC Bus 1
B. Hot Battery Bus
C. DC Standby Bus
D. DC Bus 2

104.) 6. The engine fuel-shutoff valves are fuel actuated, solenoid-controlled valves powered from the _____ .
Reference: FRM 12.2.2.4

A. Battery Bus
B. Transfer Bus 1
C. Switched Hot Battery Bus
D. Transfer Bus 2

105.) 7. Center tank fuel pumps may be used while operating the APU, even if it is operationally necessary to leave the flight deck unattended.
Reference: AOM 16.12.2
True False

106.) 8. A fuel audit can be completed by comparing ____ to ____ .
Reference: AOM 16.12.2

A. Loading Schedule pounds added, flight deck fuel quantity gauges
B. Loading Schedule pounds added, flight plan fuel load
C. Loading Schedule pounds added, aircraft basic empty weight
D. Fueling slip with gallons added, dripstick measurement

107.) 9. When fuel balancing in flight, what NOTEs are applicable to avoid potential problems?
Reference: AOM 16.12.2

A. Above 20,000 ft without pump pressure, thrust deterioration or engine flameout may occur and cross-feeding with all fuel pump switches on can lead to large fuel imbalance situations
B. Above 30,000 ft without pump pressure, thrust deterioration or engine flameout may occur and cross-feeding with all fuel pump switches on can lead to large fuel imbalance situations
C. Above 30,000 ft without pump pressure, thrust deterioration or engine flameout may occur and cross-feeding with just center tank fuel pump switches on can lead to large fuel imbalance situations
D. None of the above

108.) 10. Fuel may be transferred from one tank to another with passengers onboard. However, the fuel quantity in the tank to be transferred FROM must be maintained at not less than _____ lbs.
Reference: AOM 16.12.4

A. 1675
B. 4000
C. 2000
D. 8600

109.) 1. The primary purpose of the PTU (power transfer unit) is to supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when _____
hydraulic pump volume is lost.
Reference: FRM 13.2.2.4

A. A system electric
B. A system engine driven
C. B system engine driven
D. Standby

110.) 2. The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid needed to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when ___ pump volume is lost.
Reference: FRM 13.2.2.5

A. A system electric
B. A system engine-driven
C. B system engine-driven
D. Standby

111.) 3. If a leak develops in the system A hydraulic system in the engine-driven pump or its related lines, the reservoir quantity will indicate approximately ____ . If the leak develops in the electric motor-driven pump or its related lines, or components common to the engine and electric motor-driven pumps, the reservoir quantity will indicate ____.
Reference: FRM 13.2.2.2

A. 20%, 20%
B. 20%, 0
C. 0, 20%
D. 0, 0

112.) 4. If a leak develops in either pump, or line, or component of system B, the quantity decreases until it indicates approximately zero and system B pressure is lost. Will the PTU (power transfer unit) still operate if the B system quantity indicates zero?
Reference: FRM 13.2.2.3

A. No, the PTU will not operate
B. Yes, standpipe fluid remaining is sufficient for PTU operation
C. No, B system quantity indicating zero indicates there is no standpipe fluid
D. None of the above

113.) 5. The Hydraulic system limitation states that Minimum fuel for ground operation of electric hydraulic pumps is 1,675 lbs in the respective tank. What are the respective tanks?
Reference: FRM 13.2.2.1

A. A and standby system tank 1, B system tank 2
B. A system tank 1, B system tank 2
C. A and B system tank 1, standby system tank 2
D. A system tank 2, B system tank 1

114.) 6. If a leak occurs in the standby system, the reservoir quantity decreases to ____ . The LOW QUANTITY light illuminates when the reservoir is approximately ____ . System B continues to operate normally, however, the system B reservoir fluid level indication decreases and stabilizes at approximately full.
Reference: FRM 13.2.3.3

A. 0, half empty, 20%
B. 0, 0, 75%
C. 0, half empty, 72%
D. 50%, half empty, 80%

115.) 7. If the hydraulic system is not properly pressurized, foaming can occur at higher altitudes and can be recognized by _____ .
Reference: FRM 13.2.4

A. Pressure fluctuations
B. Blinking of the related low pressure lights
C. Master Caution and HYD annunciator lights may illuminate momentarily
D. All of the above

116.) 8. During Pushback and Engine Start, the Captain informs the ground crew of hydraulic system status by stating ____ . This applies only if a bypass pin is NOT installed. True or False?
Reference: AOM 7.1

A. “B pumps ON, Brakes set”, False
B. “A pumps OFF, Brakes set”, False
C. “A pumps OFF, Brakes set”, True
D. “B pumps ON, Brakes Set”, True

117.) 9. The standby hydraulic system is provided as a backup if system A and/or B pressure is lost. The standby system can be activated manually or automatically and uses a single electric motor-driven pump to power ____ .
Reference: FRM 13.2.3

A. Thrust reversers, Rudder, LED’s (extend only), Standby Yaw Damper
B. Thrust reversers, Rudder, LED’s (extend and retract), Standby Yaw Damper, Nose wheel steering
C. Thrust reversers, Rudder, LED’s (extend only), Standby Yaw Damper, Nose wheel steering
D. Thrust reversers, Rudder, LED’s (extend and retract), Standby Yaw Damper

118.) 10. When is the Flight Control LOW PRESSURE light deactivated?
Reference: FRM 13.1.3

A. When the associated switch is placed to STBY RUD
B. When the standby rudder shutoff valve opens
C. Either a or b
D. Both a and b must occur

119.) 1. After a manual gear extension, is it possible to raise the landing gear?
Reference: FRM 14.2.2.3

A. No, the manual gear access door disables the gear up sequencing even after the door is subsequently closed
B. Yes, but the manual gear extension door must be open, normal A system pressure must be available and the landing gear lever is placed down before moving it to up.
C. Yes, but the manual gear extension door must be closed, normal A system pressure must be available and the landing gear lever is placed down before moving it to up.
D. No, once lowered manually, it cannot be retracted

120.) 2. The parking brake is not available with the A and B systems de-pressurized. True or False?
Reference: FRM 14.2.4.6

A. True, the brakes do not apply until either hydraulic electric pump is activated
B. False, the parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake accumulator
C. False, the parking brake is electrically activated at all times
D. True, the brakes will not apply until both hydraulic systems electric pumps are on

121.) 3. Can the autobrakes be disarmed without the AUTOBRAKE disarm light illuminating?
Reference: FRM 14.2.4.5.3

A. No, all actions will cause the light to illuminate after the autobrakes are armed in RTO or for landing
B. Yes, when advancing the throttle above idle after landing, the disarm light will not illuminate
C. Yes, any time the autobrake switch is selected off
D. Yes, but only if the autobrake switch is selected off on the ground

122.) 4. Are there any warnings associated with the nose gear steering switch?
Reference: AOM 6.4.1

A. A CAUTION indicates momentarily selecting the switch to ALT pressurizes the nose wheel steering
B. A NOTE indicates the switch should be left in Normal
C. A WARNING indicates momentarily selecting the switch to ALT pressurizes the nose wheel steering
D. No WARNINGs are associated with the system

123.) 5. The normal brake system is powered by hydraulic system ____ while the alternate brake system is powered by hydraulic system ____ .
References: FRM 14.2.4.1, FRM 14.2.4.2

A. B, A
B. A, Standby
C. A, B
D. B, Accumulator

124.) 6. Anti-skid protection is available with the loss of both System A and B hydraulics, True or False?
FRM 14.2.4.4
True False

125.) 7. Below what speed must the aircraft be to select the RTO on the autobrakes?
Reference: FRM 14.2.4.5.1

A. Below 5 kts
B. Below 10 kts
C. 0 (aircraft stopped)
D. Below 60 kts

126.) 1. The PSEU light is inhibited ______ .
Reference: FRM 15.2.4.3

A. In flight, when thrust levers are advanced towards takeoff power, for 30 seconds after landing
B. In flight, with auto-throttle ON, for 30 seconds after landing
C. In flight, when engine power reaches takeoff thrust, after landing
D. In flight, after landing and with auto-throttle switch ON

127.) 2. Upon deviating from the selected altitude by more than 300 ft, a momentary tone sounds and the ALTITUDE ALERT lights flash. Flashing continues until ____.
Reference: FRM 15.2.5.2

A. Altitude deviation becomes less than 300 ft
B. Altitude deviation becomes more than 900 ft
C. A new altitude is selected
D. All of the above

128.) 3. The weather radar automatically begins scanning for windshear when _____ .
Reference: FRM 15.2.7.2

A. Thrust levers set for takeoff, but not if engine is off or IRS not aligned
B. In flight below 2,300 ft RA (predictive windshear alerts are issued below 1,200 ft RA)
C. Thrust levers set for takeoff, even if engine is off or IRS not aligned
D. Both b and c

129.) 4. During the Captain’s originating pre-flight flow, the stall warning test and Mach airspeed test were missed. Once airborne, can the tests be accomplished?
Reference: FRM 15.1.4

A. As long as AC power is available, both can be tested in flight
B. Mach airspeed test can, stall warning test cannot
C. Neither can be tested in flight
D. Yes, both can be tested in flight

130.) 5. The Terrain elevation number displays the elevation of the highest and lowest terrain. The Amber elevation display indicates ____ .
Reference: FRM 15.1.7.2

A. Amber – terrain elevation is between 500 ft below and 500 ft above aircraft altitude
B. Amber – terrain elevation is between 500 ft below and 2000 ft above aircraft altitude
C. Amber – terrain elevation display is unreliable
D. Amber – terrain elevation display warning alerts inhibited

131.) 6. On the transponder control panel, what indications occur when the Function Switch is placed to TEST?
Reference: AOM 16.15.1

A. Transponder display indicates 8888, ATC fail light illuminates
B. Transponder display indicates 0000, ATC fail light illuminates
C. Transponder display indicates 0000, ATC fail light flashes
D. Transponder display indicates 8888, ATC fail light flashes

132.) 7. If you conduct a stall warning test and the control column does not shake, what might be the problem?
Reference: AOM 16.15.3

A. AC power is not available to the system
B. No problem, the control column makes a noise but does not actually shake
C. The leading edge devices have “drooped” due to lack of hydraulic pressure
D. Both a and c

133.) 1. Immediate Action items in the QRC/QRH checklists must be ____.

A. Accomplished from memory
B. Stated in the proper order
C. Recited verbatim
D. Both a and b

134.) 2. After completion of the immediate action items from memory, the crew will, via the QRC, ____ .
Reference: QRH

A. Verify completion of the immediate action items
B. Complete any reference items on the QRC
C. Complete the remainder of the QRH checklist, if required.
D. All of the above

135.) 3. Under which circumstance(s) must the Captain make a decision to land at the nearest suitable airport?
Reference: QRH

A. Engine failure/Fire
B. Wheel well fire
C. One main AC power source remaining
D. All of the above

136.) 4. Which of the following items should be considered when deciding on the nearest suitable airport for landing during an emergency situation?
Reference: QRH

A. Emergency Response availability
B. Airport Facilities
C. Weather
D. All of the above

137.) 5. The QRH is completely comprehensive and should never be deviated from in emergency situations. True or False?

Reference: QRH
True False

138.) 6. During a non-normal situation, the QRH should be accomplished using _____ method.
Reference: QRH

A. “Challenge-Response-Response”
B. “Challenge-Response-Challenge Again”
C. “Challenge-Respond-Argue”
D. “Challenge-Challenge- Challenge”

139.) 7. The QRH can be an essential tool in managing emergency situations. However, in ALL situations, you should ALWAYS Maintain Aircraft Control first, and then _____ .
Reference: QRH

A. Call Dispatch, Coordinate with Maintenance, Declare an Emergency
B. Declare an Emergency, Call Dispatch, Coordinate with Maintenance
C. Analyze The Problem, Take Appropriate Action, Maintain Situational Awareness
D. Call Dispatch, Brief the Flight Attendants, Take Appropriate Action

140.) 1. The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is developed by the FAA with participation by the aviation industry. The MEL for each operator is derived from the MMEL and may differ from other operator’s MEL list.

Reference: MEL
True False

141.) 2. Before operation with inoperative equipment (MEL), the following documentation is required:
Reference: MEL

A. Airworthiness Release
B. Aircraft Maintenance Record/Logbook entry
C. Other approved documentation
D. All of the above

142.) 3. Once an MEL is listed for an aircraft, it is the duty of the _____ to ensure the inoperative equipment is repaired in a timely fashion.
Reference: MEL

A. FAA
B. International Aviation Authority
C. Aircraft Manufacturer
D. Operator

143.) 4. If a Pack becomes inoperative during climb out, the Captain must establish communications with maintenance and assign it to an MEL.

Reference: MEL
True False

144.) 5. An MEL assignment to inoperative equipment gives Maintenance the authority to approve the legal airworthiness of the aircraft and to make the final “GO” or “NO GO” decision of a flight.

Reference: MEL
True False

145.) 6. Dispatching an aircraft with inoperative equipment requires which of the following?
Reference: MEL

A. The aircraft logbook entry is completed and properly signed by the Mechanic or Captain.
B. All actions and limitations in the proviso have been accomplished.
C. Any required amendments to the Dispatch Release have been obtained
D. All of the above

146.) 7. Inoperative equipment listed under the MEL must have placarding attached as close as possible to the inoperative item. If unable, an MEL placard will be affixed to the ____ in an NG and to the ____ in a MAX.
Reference: MEL and MAX MEL

A. Front cover of Maintenance Logbook, Front cover of Maintenance Logbook
B. FLT DK DOOR control panel and P9 forward console panel
C. Captain's BACKGROUND/AFDS FLOOD light control panel and P9 forward console panel
D. GROUND PROXIMITY panel, Captain’s Radio Tuning Panel

147.) 1. No Captain may allow a flight to continue toward any airport to which it has been dispatched or released if, in the opinion of the Captain or Dispatcher, ____ .
Reference: FOM 3.1.2

A. The weather will be below minimums
B. The weather is expected to be at minimums at planned arrival time
C. The flight cannot be completed safely
D. The fuel remaining is not adequate to land at planned landing fuel

148.) 2. The Captain must make all takeoff and landings with a New First Officer in which of the following situations?
Reference: FOM 3.1.4

A. At special airports designated by the FAA or Southwest Airlines.
B. Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport
C. The crosswind component for the runway to be used is greater than 15 kt.
D. All of the above

149.) 3. Transfer of aircraft control must be ____ .

A. Loud and clear
B. Clear and concise
C. Announced and hands removed from the controls
D. Announced

150.) 4. After a Captain exercises emergency authority, an Irregularity report must be filed no later than ____ following completion of the pairing in which the event occurred.
Reference: FOM 5.1.4

A. 48 hours
B. 1 calendar day
C. 2 calendar days
D. 24 hours

151.) 5. If the Captain makes the decision to reject during a First Officer takeoff, the Captain should announce ____ .
Reference: FOM 5.2

A. Reject! Give me the aircraft
B. Reject! I have the aircraft
C. Abort!
D. Reject!

152.) 6. It is important that the ____ and thoroughly familiarize themselves with weather conditions, NOTAMs, route of flight, best altitude, alternate operation possibilities, and planned fuel loading.
Reference: FOM 6.5

A. Captain, Dispatcher and Maintenance Control discuss
B. Captain and Dispatch discuss
C. Captain and First Officer discuss
D. Captain and Supervisor discuss

153.) 7. What are the operational taxi speeds?
Reference: FOM 8.1

A. Normal 20 kts or less, Do not exceed 30 kts
B. Normal 15 kts or less, Do not exceed 30 kts
C. Less than 35 kts
D. Normal 15 kts or less, Do not exceed 25 kts

154.) 8. When given a clearance to hold, the Captain should .
Reference: FOM 10.5

A. Transfer control of the aircraft to the FO while coordinating with dispatch
B. Notify dispatch as soon as practical
C. Brief the FO on the holding/diversion plan
D. All of the above

155.) 9. Circle to land procedures are ____ .
Reference: FOM 11.1.3.10

A. Authorized as published
B. Authorized with prior permission from dispatch
C. Authorized with restrictions
D. Never authorized

10. On an RNAV approach plate, what does “TAA” indicate?
Reference: AOM 4.11.2

A. Transition Area Authorization
B. Terminal Arrival Area
C. Terminal Approach Authorization
D. Transition Approach Area

157.) 1. Airports that may be used by Southwest Airlines for scheduled operations, provisional, refueling and alternates must be listed in OpSpecs section ____ .
Reference: IFOM 2.1.1

A. B031
B. A012
C. B050
D. C070

158.) 2. For planned operations to U.S. territories (e.g., Puerto Rico), the preferred destination alternates in the event of a diversion are ____ .
Reference: IFOM 2.1.3

A. Soviet ally controlled aerodromes
B. U.S. territory airports
C. NATO controlled aerodromes
D. Non U.S. territory airports

159.) 3. ARINC provides VHF coverage at or above ____ within the majority of Mexico via the MexNet network.
Reference: IFOM 2.4.5

A. FL 180
B. FL 200
C. FL 240
D. FL 370

160.) 4. To mitigate head-on collision risk and exposure to wake turbulence when operating in non-radar RVSM airspace in oceanic regions, Southwest Airlines is authorized to use _____ without clearance.
Reference: IFOM 6.8

A. Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure (SLOP)
B. Airspeed changes
C. Departing Oceanic Track Contingencies
D. FIR Boundary Crossing Procedures

161.) 5. Flight Deck Crew situational awareness is enhanced when one crew member can respond to foreign controllers in their native language.

Reference: IFOM 7.1
True False

162.) 6. Jeppesen Grid MORAs provide 2000 ft or greater obstacle separation; therefore Grid MORA altitudes may differ from SWA TER chart altitudes.

Reference: IFOM 8.3.1
True False

163.) 7. If HF communications are lost while on an international flight, you should _____ .
Reference: IFOM 8.4.3

A. Proceed as originally cleared
B. Attempt contact with other aircraft in the area
C. Maintain a listening watch on 121.5 MHZ
D. All of the above

164.) 8. If a radio distress signal (MAYDAY) or an urgency signal (PAN-PAN) becomes necessary during a flight, you should repeat it ____ times before broadcasting your radio transmission.
Reference: IFOM 7.1

A. 1
B. 4
C. 3
D. None of the above

165.) 9. Class II Airspace entry will not be allowed if which of the following navigational failures are experienced prior to the oceanic entry point?
Reference:
Reference: IFOM 8.4.7

A. Single failure of an inertial reference unit
B. Dual failure of the FMCs
C. Any failure that generates an UNABLE REQD NAV PERF-RNP message
D. Any of the above

166.) 1. After deicing/anti-icing is completed, the Captain is responsible for ensuring that a ____ is accomplished.
References: AOM 15.1.3, AOM 15.1.10.1

A. Clean Aircraft Check
B. Preflight Contamination Check
C. Functional Check flight
D. EPA-Mandated Deicing Fluid Containment Check

167.) 2. If freezing precipitation in the form of ice pellets of any intensity or heavy snow is reported or derived from the appropriate tables, the aircraft must be anti-iced with _____.
References: AOM 15.1.6, AOM 15.1.8

A. Type I - Heated
B. Type II – 50/50
C. Type IV – 50/50
D. Type IV – 100%

168.) 3. The Captain may use his/her personal observation to avoid anti-icing if precipitation is reported as heavy snow.

Reference: AOM 15.1.6
True False

169.) 4. Cold soaked fuel frost (CSFF) may form on the lower surface of the wing and is permissible for the next flight if it does not exceed ____ inch(s) of thickness.
Reference: AOM 15.1.6

A. 4
B. 1
C. 1/8
D. 1/4

170.) 5. Which of the following methods may be used to remove Cold Soak Fuel Frost (CSFF)?
Reference: AOM 15.1.6

A. Radiant Heating, Add Fuel, Type I Deice
B. Radiant Heating, Hot Water, Type I Deice
C. Radiant Heating, Add Fuel, Hot Water
D. Radiant Heating, Type I Deice, Jetway Air – Hot

171.) 6. After an engine start at a high altitude airport where the outside temperature is below -35C, you must operate the engines at idle for ____ minutes before changing the thrust lever position.
Reference: AOM 15.1.11

A. 3.5
B. 10-15
C. 2
D. 5

172.) 7. When using NG ENG ANTI ICE due to weather conditions, a run-up should be made to what power setting, and duration and intervals, to minimize ice buildup on the fan spinner and blades?

A. 70% N1, 30 seconds, every 15 minutes
B. 50% N1, 30 seconds, every 15 minutes
C. 50% N1, 10 seconds, every 15 minutes
D. 70% N1, 30 seconds, every 30 minutes

173.) 8. A MAX Power Takeoff must be accomplished when _____ .
Reference: AOM 15.1.14

A. The aircraft has been deiced/anti-iced (not applicable for the removal of cold-soaked fuel frost)
B. The runway is contaminated with clutter
C. Temperature is below 10°C
D. All of the above

174.) 1. When assessing risk, what color on the Risk and Resource Management model is representative of proactive management that anticipates problems and minimizes errors?
Reference: FOM 2.2.3

A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange

175.) 2. Unpredictable situations or flow of information are referred to as ____ in the Risk and Resource Management model.
Reference: FOM 2.2.3

A. Flight attendants
B. Crew Factors
C. Task Loading
D. Additive Conditions

176.) 3. The “Press on Regardless” attitude is an example of a(n) _____ in the Risk and Resource Management model.
Reference: FOM 2.2.3

A. Mob mentality
B. Additive Conditions
C. Task Loading
D. Crew Factors

177.) 4. Using which resource can help minimize risk by reducing reliance on memory in the Risk and Resource Management model?
Reference: FOM 2.2.3

A. Policies, Procedures and Flows
B. Briefings & External Resources
C. Automation
D. Checklists

178.) 5. There is a high chance of serious error or operational failure, and communications must become more directive when operating in the _____ on the Risk and Resource Management model.
Reference: FOM 2.2.3

A. Green
B. Red
C. Orange
D. Yellow

179.) 6. “Who has more information” or “who needs to know” are examples of which step of the ABCD element in the Risk and Resource Management model?
Reference: FOM 2.2.3

A. Do and Debrief
B. Access
C. Balance
D. Communicate

180.) 7. “What are the priorities” and “what are the options” are examples of which step of the ABCD element in the Risk and Resource Management model?
Reference: FOM 2.2.3

A. Communicate
B. Access
C. Balance
D. Do and Debrief