What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a
force that would not normally cause a fracture?
B.
Which type of fracture usually occurs in an individual who engages in a new activity that
is strenuous and repetitive?
D.
Which term is used to identify the temporary displacement of two bones causing the bone
surfaces to partially lose contact?
A.
Dislocation is the temporary displacement of a bone from its normal position in a joint. If
the contact between the two surfaces is only partially lost, then the injury is referred to as a
subluxation
Improper reduction or immobilization of a fractured femur can result in which outcome
after cast removal?
C.
Improper reduction or immobilization of a fractured bone may result in nonunion, delayed
union, or malunion. Malunion is the healing of a bone in a nonanatomic position that could
result in the bone not being straight.
Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone?
C.
The tear in a ligament is referred to as a:
C.
Referred to as golfer's elbow, this tendinopathy is a degenerative process of the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, and palmaris longus tendons.
C.
Which medical diagnosis is characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon?
B.
lateral epicondylopathy commonly called tennis elbow
How is rhabdomyolysis characterized?
A.
Which pathophysiologic alteration precedes crush syndrome after prolonged muscle
compression?
D.
Myoglobinuria is an excess of myoglobin (an intracellular muscle protein) in the urine. Muscle cell damage releases the myoglobin. The most severe form is often called crush syndrome. Less severe and more localized forms of muscle damage are called compartment syndromes.
By the time osteoporosis is visible on an x-ray examination, up to what percent of bone
has been lost?
A.
A bone density of 645 mg/cm2 would support which diagnosis?
A.
A bone density of 750 mg/cm2 would support which diagnosis?
C.
Which type of osteoporosis would a person develop after having the left leg in a cast for 8
weeks to treat a compound displaced fracture of the tibia and fibula?
C.
Considering the pathophysiologic process of osteoporosis, after being activated by
receptor activator of nuclear factor kB ligand (RANKL), receptor activator of nuclear
factor kB (RANK) activates which of the following?
B.
Considering the pathophysiologic process of postmenopausal osteoporosis, which changes
are believed to play a significant role in the development of age-related bone loss?
B.
Considering the pathophysiologic process of osteoporosis, which hormone exerts
antiapoptotic effects on osteoblasts but proapoptotic effects on osteoclasts?
C.
Considering the pathophysiologic process of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal-regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of nuclear factor kB ligand (RANKL) on osteoblasts and osteoclasts?
D.
What is the most common clinical manifestation of osteoporosis?
D.
Which disorder is characterized by the formation of abnormal new bone at an accelerated
rate beginning with excessive resorption of spongy bone?
D.
Of the available options, only Paget disease (osteitis deformans) is a state of increased metabolic activity in bone characterized by abnormal and excessive bone remodeling, both
resorption and formation. Chronic accelerated remodeling eventually enlarges and softens
the affected bones.
Which statement is false about factors that contribute to the difficulty in treating bone
infections?
a. Bone contains multiple microscopic channels that are impermeable to the cells and
biochemicals of the body’s natural defenses.
b. Microcirculation of bone is highly vulnerable to damage and destruction by bacterial toxins, leading to ischemic necrosis of bone.
c. Bone cells have a limited capacity to replace bone destroyed by infections.
d. Bacteria are walled off by macrophages and T lymphocytes; consequently, the antibiotics cannot penetrate the infected area.
D
Bone death as a result of osteomyelitis is due to what?
A.
Vessel damage causes local thrombosis (blockage) of the small vessels, which leads to ischemic necrosis (death) of bone
When considering osteomyelitis, sequestrum is identified as what?
D.
Lifting of the periosteum disrupts blood vessels that enter bone through the periosteum,
which deprives the underlying bone of its blood supply. This deprivation leads to necrosis
and death of the area of infected bone, producing sequestrum, an area of devitalized bone
What pattern of bone destruction is described as not well-defined and not easily separated
from normal bone?
B.
What pattern of bone destruction is decribed as well-defined margins separated from surrounding normal bone and well-defined lytic area in affected bone?
B.
What pattern of bone destruction is decribed as poorly demarcated margins with abnormal lytic bone merging imperceptibly with surrounding normal bone?
A.
Which is a characteristic of inflammatory joint disease?
C.
Inflammatory joint disease is characterized by systemic signs of inflammation (fever,
leukocytosis, malaise, anorexia, hyperfibrinogenemia) and inflammatory damage or
destruction in the synovial membrane or articular cartilage.
What is a primary defect in osteoarthritis?
A.
the primary defect in osteoarthritis is the loss of articular cartilage.
In osteoarthritis, what is the effect of the disruption of the pumping action of proteoglycans?
D.
Changes in the conformation of proteoglycans disrupt the pumping action that regulates
the movement of water and synovial fluid into and out of the cartilage. Without the
regulatory action of the proteoglycan pump, cartilage imbibes too much fluid and becomes less able to withstand the stresses of weight bearing.
Which joint disease is characterized by joint stiffness on movement and joint pain of
weight-bearing joints that is usually relieved by rest?
D.
Which medical diagnosis is described as a chronic inflammatory joint disease
characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints?
A.
What is the primary pathologic alteration resulting from ankylosing spondylitis (AS)?
B.
In ankylosing spondylitis, the CD8+ T cells are presented with which antigen?
C.
Cartilage antigens are proposed as the targets for the immune response and the presentation of such antigens to CD8+ T cells.
What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty
arthritis?
A.
The pathophysiologic presentation of gout is closely linked to the metabolism of which
chemical?
D.
Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia?
A.
At what age is peak bone mass and strength reached in women?
D.
What event is associated with the beginning of bone loss in women?
D.
What term is used to identify the calcium crystals that are associated with chronic gout?
B.
What is not a primary sources of bacterial infection that leads to hematogenous bone
infection?
C.
Which structure is not often affected by Paget disease?
E.
Paget disease most often affects the axial skeleton, especially the vertebrae, skull, sacrum,
sternum, and pelvis
Which clinical manifestation is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?
D.
Rheumatoid arthritis begins with general systemic manifestations of inflammation, including fever, fatigue, weakness, anorexia, weight loss, and generalized aching and stiffness.
McArdle disease
B.
Myoadenylate deaminase deficiency
D.
Rhabdomyolysis
B.
Polymyositis
A.
Myositis
B.
In which fracture is the outer surface of the bone disrupted, but the inner surface remains intact and typically occurs in the metaphysis or diaphysis of the tibia, radius, and ulna?
B.
Which bone disorder occurs when bone volume remains unchanged, but the replaced bone consists of soft osteoid instead of rigid bone?