EPPP - Practice Exam 1

B

The husband appears to experience his seemingly long-term symptoms as ego-syntonic, which suggests the possibility of a personality disorder. His symptoms are most suggestive of Schizoid Personality Disorder, which is characterized by detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression.

Answer A: An individual with Avoidant Personality Disorder desires close interpersonal relationships but avoids them to avoid feeling hurt.

Answer C: Schizoaffective Disorder involves a combination of schizophrenic and affective symptoms. This man does not exhibit the psychotic symptoms (hallucinations and delusions) that must be present for this diagnosis.

Answer D: The husband does not seem to have the cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities that are characteristic of Schizotypal Personality Disorder.

D



Marlatt and Gordon report that, for alcoholics, 38% of incidents of relapse are related to negative emotional states, 18% to interpersonal conflicts, and 18% to social pressure. Together, these three triggers account for nearly three-fourths of relapse incidents.


Answer A: According to Marlatt and Gordon (1985), urges and temptations account for about 11% of relapses among alcoholics (with similar rates for other types of addictions).


Answer B: Although negative emotional states are important determinants of relapse, positive emotional states and negative physical states are less predictive than interpersonal conflicts and social pressure.

Answer C: This response can be eliminated because it does not include negative emotional states.

C



The boy's symptoms are suggestive of mania which, in adolescents, is sometimes preceded by a history of behavioral problems. The boy's symptoms and their sudden onset are most suggestive of Bipolar Disorder.


Answer A: For a diagnosis of ADHD, there would have to be some evidence of hyperactivity-impulsivity and/or inattention in at least two settings.


Answer B: A diagnosis of Conduct Disorder requires a persistent pattern of antisocial behavior. Although the question mentions that the boy has had behavioral problems in the past, there is not sufficient evidence to conclude that they meet the criteria for this diagnosis.

Answer D: A diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder requires a history of both major depressive and hypomanic episodes.

B


The man's primary symptoms are grandiosity and lack of empathy. These are core features of Narcissistic Personality Disorder.


Answer A: A diagnosis of Histrionic Personality Disorder requires a pattern of excessive emotionality and attention-seeking.


Answer C: A diagnosis of Schizotypal Personality Disorder requires the presence of pervasive social and interpersonal deficits and eccentricities in cognition, perception, and behavior.

Answer D: A diagnosis of Delusional Disorder is made in the presence of one or more non-bizarre delusions with unimpaired functioning apart from the impact of the delusions.

B


It is sometimes difficult to distinguish between substance-induced disorders and other medical conditions. The symptoms listed in the question are characteristic of caffeine Intoxication.


Answer A: Alcohol Withdrawal often involves tremor, nausea and vomiting, autonomic hyperactivity, anxiety, transient illusions and hallucinations, insomnia, and seizures.


Answer C: Stimulant Intoxication may involve pupillary dilation, chills, nausea or vomiting, confusion, psychomotor agitation, and tachycardia or bradycardia.

Answer D: Hyperthyroidism, an endocrine disorder, produces weight loss, increased appetite, intolerance to heat, tremors, and rapid heart rate.

A


Common symptoms of SAD are listed in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials. People who are diagnosed with SAD usually experience hypersomnia, increased appetite and weight gain, and a craving for carbohydrates.


Answer B: Loss of appetite without weight loss is not characteristic of SAD.


Answer C: Hypersomnia (not insomnia) is characteristic of SAD.

Answer D: People with symptoms of SAD often experience a craving for carbohydrates.

C


A key assumption underlying DBT is that the central problem in Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is a dysfunctional emotion regulation system. According to Linehan, emotion dysregulation is the core feature of BPD and is the result of excessive emotional vulnerability, an inability to modulate strong emotions, and exposure to an invalidating environment.


Answer A: Boundary disturbances are viewed as the cause of neurotic behavior by Gestalt therapists.


Answer B: Seligman initiated research surrounding learned helplessness as a contributing factor to depression.

Answer D: Kernberg identified pathological internalized object relations as the etiological factor in BPD.

A


There are two basic approaches to diagnosis - categorical classification and dimensional classification. The DSM-5 utilizes a categorical approach, which involves determining whether a person meets the criteria for a given diagnosis. When using a dimensional approach, the individual is ranked on a quantitative dimension (e.g., on a scale from 1 to 10) on each symptom or other characteristic.

Answer B: The DSM-5 uses a categorical approach to diagnosis. A dimensional approach to diagnosis is based on quantification instead of categorization.

Answers C and D: A dimensional approach to diagnosis is based on the quantification of attributes.

C

J. Conger's model explains alcohol addiction (Reinforcement theory and the dynamics of alcoholism, Quarterly Journal of Studies on Alcohol, 17, 296-305, 1956). Conger's theory proposes that drinking is reinforced by its tension reduction properties (i.e., drinking recurs because it removes anxiety and stress) and that this effect eventually leads to addiction.

D


Metabolic encephalopathy is a state of global brain dysfunction. Its symptoms range from impairments in executive functioning to agitated delirium to coma.


Answer A: Gerstmann's syndrome is caused by damage to certain areas of the parietal lobe and involves a combination of finger agnosia, right-left confusion, agraphia, and acalculia.


Answer B: Cushing's syndrome is caused by excessively high levels of cortisol resulting from the use of glucocorticoids or an abnormality in the pituitary or adrenal gland.

Answer C: Wernicke's encephalopathy is caused by lesions in certain areas of the brain, often as the result of a thiamine deficiency.

C


Each of the phenomena listed in the answers is characteristic of Schizophrenia and other disorders, but only one describes the woman's symptomology. A delusion is a false belief that persists despite evidence to the contrary. The woman's delusion (her interpretation of an external event as though it has special significance for her) is a "delusion of reference."


Answer A: An illusion is a distorted perception or memory.


Answer B: A hallucination is a false perception.

Answer D: Blocking is an abrupt, involuntary interruption in the flow of speech or thought.

C

To assign a diagnosis of a Personality Disorder to someone under the age of 18, the features must be present for at least one year. Antisocial Personality Disorder is the exception to this rule. According to the DSM-5, an individual must be at least 18 years old to receive a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder.

B

Postpartum depression is a mood disorder that begins within several weeks following delivery. Ten to 15% of women in the United States experience symptoms of postpartum depression. Factors associated with an increased risk for this diagnosis include having difficulty getting pregnant, having twins or triplets, having premature labor and delivery, experiencing pregnancy and birth complications, and having a baby during adolescence.

C

Cataplexy is a brief episode of a sudden loss of muscle tone that is associated with narcolepsy. The condition is triggered by strong emotions, such as joking, laughter, and anger.

B

For a diagnosis of ADHD, the DSM-5 requires that several inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive symptoms are present before age 12 and that symptoms are present in at least two settings (e.g., at home, school, or work; with friends or relatives; in other activities).

C



The client's symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of Persistent Depressive Disorder.


Answer A: Dysthymic Disorder is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.


Answer B: Mood Disorder NOS is not a DSM-5 diagnostic category.

Answer D: Unspecified Depressive Disorder applies when a clinician does not want to indicate the reason why a client's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific depressive disorder.

D



This question is asking which symptom is characteristic of Anorexia but not Bulimia. One of the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for Anorexia (but not Bulimia) is a "restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight" (p. 338).


Answer A: While binging and purging are classic signs of Bulimia Nervosa, some individuals with Anorexia engage in binging and purging, and the DSM-5 includes binge-eating/purging type as a specifier for Anorexia.


Answer B: Anorexia Nervosa and Bulimia Nervosa both involve a disturbance in the perception of one's body weight or shape.

Answer C: Menstrual irregularity is an associated feature of both disorders.

C


Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder involves recurrent episodes of depersonalization (a sense of unreality, detachment, or being an outside observer of one's thoughts, feelings, etc.) and/or derealization (a sense of unreality or detachment involving one's surroundings) that cause clinically significant distress or impaired functioning.


Answer A: Delusional Disorder involves one or more delusions that last at least one month. As defined in the DSM-5, a delusion is a false belief about external reality that is firmly held despite what almost everyone else believes and despite what constitutes proof or evidence to the contrary.


Answer B: A dissociative fugue is characterized by apparently purposeful travel with an inability to recall some or all of one's past and is included in the DSM-5 as a specifier for Dissociative Amnesia.

Answer D: Depersonalization Disorder is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.

B

For the diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder, the DSM-5 requires that "symptoms must be present in the early developmental period."

C



The symptoms listed in this question are consistent with the DSM-5 diagnosis of Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder. Specifically, this diagnosis involves difficulties with vaginal penetration, marked pelvic pain during penetration, anxiety associated with pelvic pain, or marked tensing of the pelvic floor muscles during penetration.


Answers A and B: Dyspareunia (painful sex) and Vaginismus (severe pain with penetration) are accounted for in the DSM-5 diagnosis of Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder.

Answer D: This diagnosis applies when a sexual dysfunction causes clinically significant distress, but the individual does not meet the full criteria for another sexual dysfunction.

C



Of the diagnoses listed in the answers, Other Specified Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder is the best choice since Renaldo's symptoms involve problems related to attention; however, it is unclear if he exhibits the minimum number of symptoms required for an ADHD diagnosis (at least five for individuals ages 17 and older).


Answer A: The information provided in the question does not indicate that Renaldo has symptoms of hyperactivity or impulsivity, so this diagnosis can be eliminated as the correct answer.


Answer B: There is no information provided in the question to suggest that Renaldo met the full diagnostic criteria for ADHD in the past, and the information provided about his current symptoms is limited, so it is not possible to conclude that he is currently in remission.

Answer D: The information provided in the question does not indicate that Renaldo has symptoms of hyperactivity or impulsivity, so this diagnosis can be eliminated as the correct answer.

A

According to the DSM-5, symptoms of Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) must be exhibited during interactions with at least one person who is not a sibling.

C

Croen et al. (2001) studied individual and family characteristics of children with a mild or severe Intellectual Disability and found low birth weight to be the strongest predictor of Intellectual Disability, with an unknown etiology.

D



The diagnosis of Conduct Disorder requires a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others and/or age-appropriate social norms or rules with three or more characteristic symptoms, e.g. bullying, threatening, or intimidating others; being frequently truant from school; running away from home at least twice; and vandalizing school property.


Answer A: Child or Adolescent Antisocial Behavior is included in the DSM-5 with Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention and may apply when the individual's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a mental disorder.


Answer B: A diagnosis of Adjustment Disorder is assigned when the individual does not meet the diagnostic criteria for another mental disorder.

Answer C: Oppositional Defiant Disorder involves a recurrent pattern of an angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness. The boy's symptoms are more severe than those associated with Oppositional Defiant Disorder.

C



Some symptoms of Stimulant Intoxication include tachycardia or bradycardia, pupillary dilation, elevated or lowered blood pressure, perspiration or chills, nausea or vomiting, weight loss, psychomotor agitation or retardation, muscular weakness, respiratory depression or cardiac arrhythmias, confusion, seizures, and coma.


Answer A: These symptoms are characteristic of Phencyclidine Intoxication.


Answer B: These symptoms are indicative of Inhalant Intoxication.

Answer D: These are symptoms of Stimulant Withdrawal, not Stimulant Intoxication.

D

The DSM-5 identifies 10 classes of drugs that are associated with Substance-Induced Disorders but only eight are associated with Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder: alcohol; cannabis; phencyclidine; other hallucinogen; inhalant; sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic; amphetamine or other stimulant; and cocaine.

B



Alcohol Withdrawal is diagnosed in the presence of at least two characteristic symptoms within several hours to a few days following cessation or reduction of alcohol consumption, e.g., hand tremor, insomnia, transient illusions or hallucinations, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.


Answer A: These symptoms are characteristic of Stimulant Withdrawal.


Answer C: These are symptoms of Alcohol Intoxication.

Answer D: These symptoms are associated with Opioid Withdrawal.

A



Researchers have consistently identified Major Depressive Disorder as a significant risk factor for suicide among older adults.


Answer B: While Substance Use Disorders have also been present in older adults who completed suicide, these diagnoses account for a smaller number of cases.


Answer C: Major Neurocognitive Disorder has been diagnosed in a smaller number of cases than Major Depressive Disorder.


Answer D: While anxiety disorders have also been present in older adults who completed suicide, these diagnoses account for a smaller number of cases.

D



Several factors place people at higher risk for delirium. People over 60 are at the highest risk in general for developing symptoms of delirium. Moreover, the risk for this population increases with the presence of a medical illness or surgery. Other high-risk factors include cardiotomy, burns, and rapid withdrawal from alcohol or a sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic.


Answers A and B: While older adults may develop symptoms of these disorders, this population is at particularly high risk for delirium, especially in association with medical illness and surgery.Answer C: Dementia is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.

C

Correlational studies have consistently implied a genetic contribution to Schizophrenia. The closer the genetic similarity, the higher the concordance rate for Schizophrenia. The woman's identical twin is most similar to her in terms of genetic make-up and, therefore, most likely to also receive the diagnosis.

A

In the beginning of group therapy, clients rely more on the therapist. Later, as the group members become closer, group cohesion develops and members interact more with one another. Initially, group members ignore each other and direct all of their comments and questions to the therapist.



Answer B: Interactions between group members are usually sparse at the onset of therapy.


Answer C: Although this may be true in some cases, most group members perceive the therapist as their ally.

Answer D: Cliques begin to develop, if at all, after the beginning stages of group therapy.

D

Many community-based training initiatives in evidence-based psychosocial treatments have acquired significant support due to the evidence that some EBTs can be conveyed effectively into non-research and community-based settings. Although many large health organizations such as the National Health Service in the United Kingdom, the United States Department of Veterans Affairs and state mental health systems have mandated the implementation of EBTs, the intensity and type of training varies considerably across these fields.

D


Different experts have labeled the different levels or categories of acculturation somewhat differently, but most distinguish between at least four levels - assimilated, integrated (bicultural), separated, and marginal. The bicultural individual has adopted both cultures. Biculturalism can be alternating (as in Manuel's case) or blended.


Answer A: The term "fused" refers to the melting pot position in which the two separate cultures cannot be distinguished.


Answer B: Separation occurs when the individual is immersed in his/her own ethnic culture and is not part of the larger (dominant) culture.

Answer C: An assimilated individual has given up his/her own ethnic culture and identifies with the larger (dominant) culture.

B


Program-centered administrative consultation is a form of mental health consultation that involves working with one or more administrators to resolve problems related to an existing program. In this example, the program serves as the client and the administrators serve as the consultee.


Answer A: This is an example of client-centered case consultation.


Answer C: This is an example of consultee-centered administrative consultation. The goal of this form of consultation is to enhance the consultee's performance in delivering services to a particular population.

Answer D: This is an example of consultee-centered case consultation.

C


The three multicultural counseling competencies described by Sue, Ivey, and Pedersen (1996) were originally identified by D. W. Sue et al. (Position paper: Cross-cultural counseling competencies, The Counseling Psychologist, 10, 45-52, 1982). The first competency is awareness of one's own values, beliefs, and stereotypes regarding human behavior. The second competency is knowledge about the worldview of minority and culturally-different clients. Finally, the third competency is possession of culturally-appropriate counseling skills.


Answer A: Ability and sensitivity are not included in the competencies.


Answer B: Flexibility and sensitivity are not included in the competencies.

Answer D: These are not the three factors described by Sue, Ivey and Pedersen.

C


The process of Freudian psychoanalysis is described as involving a combination of confrontation, clarification, interpretation, and working through. Clarification is used to clarify an issue by, for example, separating a key issue from less important ones.


Answer A: Reducing resistance is not the goal of clarification.

Answer B: This is a better description of interpretation than of clarification.

Answer D: This is part of the working through process.

A


Yalom describes the beginning of a new therapy group as involving three formative stages. According to Yalom, the third stage of group therapy is characterized by a growing sense of group cohesiveness, which leads to greater participation in the group and increased adherence to group norms.


Answer B: Universality was not described as the main contributor to this phenomenon.


Answer C: Identification was not described as the main contributor to this phenomenon.

Answer D: This is not one of Yalom's curative factors.

B


D. W. Sue and D. Sue describe "playing it cool" as a reaction of African Americans to long-term racial oppression (Counseling the culturally different, New York, John Wiley & Sons, 1999). Playing it cool helps African Americans conceal feelings that might be unacceptable to Whites and that, if expressed, could lead to harm and exploitation.


Answer A: "Playing it cool" is unrelated to locus of control.


Answer C: Sue and Sue did not characterize this stage.

Answer D: Playing it cool is not a sign of cultural or functional paranoia.

A


The key to this question is noting that the abuse is instrumental rather than expressive and knowing that therapists often recommend conjoint treatment only in the latter case (see, e.g., R. N. Mack, Spouse Abuse: A Dyadic Approach, in G. R. Weeks, Treating couples, New York: Bruner/Mazel, 1989). In cases of instrumental abuse (which is brutal, dangerous, and committed with little provocation), the woman's physical safety is the priority. Therefore, the best course of action is to make sure the husband and wife are physically separated and provided with separate therapy.


Answers B & C: These options are more appropriate for expressive abuse, in which the abuse is related to the emotional life of the couple and occurs within the context of escalating conflict.

Answer D: This is not advisable for couples presenting with instrumental abuse.

A


It is always important to take a client's cultural background into consideration when planning treatment. Promoting a "value-free" environment is similar to adopting a "color-blind" perspective. It is unethical in that it demonstrates a lack of cultural competence. Ethical standards require that psychologists practice within their scope of competence.

Answer B: Holistic perspectives are regarded as culturally competent.


Answer C: Incorporating indigenous practices when appropriate is well within the realm of cultural competence.

Answer D: Collaborative interventions are also generally regarded as demonstrative of cultural competence.

C


J. Sophie reviewed several of the prominent stage theories to derive her own general model [A critical examination of stage theories of lesbian identity development, Journal of Homosexuality, 12(2), 39-51, 1985/86]. These are the four stages described by Sophie.


Answer A: These are four of the six stages of Cass's (1984) stage model of gay and lesbian identity development. In order, the six stages are identity confusion, identity comparison, identity tolerance, identity acceptance, identity pride, and identity synthesis.


Answer B: These are the four stages of Troiden's (1988) gay/lesbian identity development model.

Answer D: These are the four stages of Cross's (1991) Black racial identity development model.

C


Bateson et al.'s 1956 paper, which proposed a theory involving the development of schizophrenia via double-bind communication transmitted multi-generationally, was titled Toward a Theory of Schizophrenia. They held that double-bind communication occurs when a family member receives contradictory messages from another family member and is unable to comment on those injunctions or escape from them. Their double-bind hypothesis provided an alternative to psychodynamic theory regarding the development of schizophrenia and proposed that the recipient of double-bind communication learns to escape the discomfort it creates by responding with similarly distorted and contradictory messages. Eventually, the individual becomes unable to understand the true meaning of his/her own messages and those of others.


Answer A: Researchers have found associations between experiences of childhood trauma and psychosis.


Answer B: European descent has not been identified by researchers as an etiological factor that contributes to the development of schizophrenia.

Answer D: Birth order is not an etiological factor contributing to the development of schizophrenia.

C


Family therapy is generally contraindicated when one family member's disturbance, while affecting the family, is basically unrelated to family processes or structure or is so disruptive that it would interfere with the success of therapy. Depression has been linked to a variety of factors including heredity, biochemical abnormalities, learned helplessness, hostility or aggression turned inward, and illogical schemata. It has not, however, been consistently linked with any particular family factor; and family therapy, therefore, would not be particularly useful as a treatment for this disorder.


Answer A: Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation.


Answer B: Family therapy would also be appropriate in this situation.

Answer D: Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation since eating disorders (especially anorexia and bulimia) have been linked to family factors.

B


Minuchin distinguished between three types of rigid triads that help alleviate tension between two family members - detouring, stable coalition, and triangulation. Detouring occurs when parents avoid the tension between them by either blaming or over protecting a child.


Answer A: Reframing is a paradoxical technique that involves providing an alternative meaning for a behavior so that it can be seen from a new perspective.

Answer C: A stable coalition occurs when a parent and child consistently "gang up" against the other parent.

Answer D: Triangulation occurs when both parents attempt to get the child to side with him or her.

B


George Kelly's personal construct therapy is a constructivist approach that focuses on how people "construe" events and proposes that construing involves reliance on personal constructs.


Answer A: William Glasser is associated with Reality Therapy.


Answer C: Victor Frankl is associated with Existential Therapy.

Answer D: Fritz Perls is associated with Gestalt Therapy.

A

If you think about Yalom's initial stages in group therapy, you might recall that it is the development of cohesiveness that moves the group forward into the working stage. Although Yalom believes that group therapy provides a number of curative factors, he emphasizes the importance of group cohesiveness and describes it as the analogue to the therapist-client relationship in individual therapy.

D


The Weisz et al. meta-analysis examined the effects of type of disorder, type of therapy, therapist experience, and child age and gender on psychotherapy outcomes [J. R. Weisz et al., Effects of psychotherapy with children and adolescents revisited: A meta-analysis of treatment outcome studies, Psychological Bulletin, 117(3), 450-468, 1995]. Weisz et al. report an effect size of .37 for male adolescents.


Answer A: The effect size for female children was .44.


Answer B: The effect size for male children was .48.

Answer C: The effect size for female adolescents was .86 for female adolescents.

A


Nathan Ackerman, a psychoanalyst and child psychiatrist, began investigating the role of family dynamics in the 1930's. In the 1940s, Ackerman started developing clinical techniques that applied psychoanalytic principles to the treatment of preschool children and their families. Ackerman is considered a pioneer in the assessment and treatment of families and the first to integrate the psychoanalytic approach with a systems approach in assessing and treating families.


Answer B: Whitaker applied experiential (humanistic) principles to family therapy.


Answer C: Stuart was an early contributor to behavioral family therapy.

Answer D: Liberman is a major figure in behavioral family therapy.

D


Jung's analytic psychology differs from Freud's psychotherapy in a number of important ways. For Jung the basic elements of the psyche are the conscious (which includes the ego) and the unconscious (which includes a personal and collective component). The ego is an important part of Jung's theory. Although he did make use of the notion of the "self," he considered the self to be the archetype for the ego.


Answer A: This is true about Jung's perspective. He described people as being more creative and goal-directed than Freud.


Answer B: This also describes Jung's approach.

Answer C: Jung placed a great deal of emphasis on changes that occur during adulthood, especially in midlife.

C


As its name implies, strategic family therapy involves the use of "strategies." Of the responses given, this one is the best example of the techniques used by a strategic family therapist. The therapist is assigning the couple a task that will help them face their own conflicts.


Answer A: Triangulation is associated with structural family therapy.


Answer B: This is not characteristic of strategic family therapy.

Answer D: This is more consistent with Milan Systemic Family Therapy.

D


Helms's six identity statuses are: contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion/emersion, and autonomy. Flexibility and complexity in processing information are characteristic of the final status of Helms's model. The attributes of the autonomy status include awareness of one's own Whiteness, role in perpetuating racism, and commitment to abandoning a sense of White entitlement.


Answer A: Internalization is the final stage in Cross's Black Racial Identity Development Model.


Answer B: Integrative-awareness is the final stage of the Racial/ Cultural Identity Development Model.

Answer C: Reintegration is the third status in Helm's model. The IPS for this status is selective perception and negative out-group distortion.

D

Eysenck's 1952 publication sparked research on psychotherapy outcomes. Eysenck reported that 66% of patients in eclectic therapy and 44% in psychoanalytic psychotherapy improved versus 72% of those with similar problems who did not receive therapy.

D

Sue et al. (1991) and others have found a few consistent differences in outcomes for members of different racial/ethnic groups. Sue et al. found that Hispanic Americans had the best outcomes.

B



Generalizations about the treatment of Hispanic and Hispanic American clients have been made in the literature, and you will need to be familiar with these generalizations for the licensing exam. Although Hispanic families do tend to be hierarchical, this does not preclude them from family therapy. In fact, family therapy is often the treatment-of-choice because of the close relationships between family members.


Answer A: This is true. There are different levels of acculturation not only between families but also within families (i.e., younger members of the family tend to be more acculturated to the white middle-class way of life).


Answer C: Past research has substantiated this finding.

Answer D: According to past research, this is also generally true.

D



Biculturalism among African-American and Mexican-American adolescents was examined by J. S. Phinney and M. Devich-Navarro (Variations in bicultural identification among African-American and Mexican-American adolescents, Journal of Research in Adolescence, 7(1), 3-32, 1997). These investigators found that the adolescents in their sample exhibited one of three patterns: blended biculturalism, alternating biculturalism, or separated. As defined by these authors, this pattern represents blended biculturalism.


Answer A: This describes marginalization. None of the adolescents in Phinney and Devich-Navarro's sample fit this pattern.


Answer B: Phinney and Devich-Navarro refer to this as alternating biculturalism.

Answer C: This is referred to as a fused identity. Phinney and Navarro found no evidence of this pattern in their sample.

D



Atkinson et al.'s (1993) model consists of five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance-immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness. Like most cultural/racial identity development models, the Atkinson et al. model describes the final stage as one of integration - i.e., of accepting one's own minority culture while also recognizing and incorporating the positive contributions of the majority culture. This is described as adopting a multicultural perspective.


Answer A: Atkinson et al. do not view assimilation as the outcome of successful identity development.

Answer B: Successful identity development doesn't necessarily involve developing an identity that is rooted in one's cultural/racial background.  Instead, the individual chooses which elements they want to incorporate into their identity.

Answer C: Atkinson et al. do not propose that being "culture-free" is an optimal state.

C


The psychologist should not mislead the insurance company about the appropriate form of treatment for the couple, since doing so would constitute insurance fraud.


Answer A: This answer is incorrect. This would not be appropriate, because individual therapy is not indicated.


Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Standard 6.06 of the Ethics Code states, "In their reports to payors for services or sources of research funding, psychologists take reasonable steps to ensure the accurate reporting of the nature of the service provided or research conducted, the fees, charges, or payments, and where applicable, the identity of the provider, the findings, and the diagnosis."

Answer D: This answer is incorrect. This action would constitute insurance fraud, and does not adhere to the Ethics Code.

D


The key term in this question is "court-ordered." Therapist-client privilege implies that, in most circumstances, a psychologist does not reveal confidential client information in the context of a legal proceeding without the consent of the client or his/her legal representative. There are exceptions to privilege, however, and a court order is one of these exceptions. If the information is damaging to the client, the normal procedure is to request that it be read by the judge in camera - i.e., in the privacy of the judge's chambers.

• Answer A: This answer is incorrect. A court order is one of the few exceptions to releasing information without obtaining client consent.
• Answer: This answer is incorrect. The court order requires the therapist to provide the requested information.

Answer C: This answer is incorrect. The court order may require the therapist to release information that is harmful to the client's case.

C


This issue is addressed in Standard 8.12(c) of the APA's Ethics Code. Standard 8.12(c) states that, "Except under exceptional circumstances, a student is listed as principal author on any multiple-authored article that is substantially based on the student's doctoral dissertation." Note that timeliness is one consideration when determining if a circumstance is "exceptional." Universities may have policies that establish a timeline (e.g., 12 months after defending the dissertation) for students to submit their work for publication. After that time, the dissertation chair may take over the lead and be listed as the primary author.


Answer A: This is the general rule for authorship credit. However, the standards for publications based primarily on a student's dissertation project differ.


Answer B: This is not consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code.

Answer D: The statement "except under exceptional circumstances" in Standard 8.12(c) suggests that there are times when it would be acceptable not to list the student as principal author.

D


Although the laws vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction, in general, a psychologist should not release information after a client's death without proper authorization, such as from the executor of the estate or the client's legal representative. See, e.g., R. I. Simon, Clinical psychiatry and the law, American Psychiatric Press, Washington, DC, 1992.


Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Confidentiality and patient privilege survive the patient's death.


Answer B: This answer is incorrect. The patient's privilege extends beyond death.

Answer C: This answer is incorrect. It fails to acknowledge that a deceased patient's records should not be released without proper authorization. Consultation with a legal representative is advised.

C

Before releasing any information to the client's new therapist, you would want to discuss the release with her to make sure she understands what information is being released. In addition, to be consistent with ethical obligations, you would want to obtain a verbal or written consent before releasing the information. You would not want to provide another professional with confidential client information unless you had discussed this with the client and obtained a signed written consent or a verbal consent, which you would document in her file.


Answer A: This answer is incorrect. You should contact the client to confirm the request and clarify what information is needed.


Answer B: This answer is incorrect. It is better to contact the client and confirm his or her request.

Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Although contacting the therapist to determine what information is needed might be appropriate, you should not do so without first getting the client's consent to communicate directly with the therapist. Therefore, this is not the best answer.

A


The situation described in this question is not directly addressed by the APA's Ethics Code. However, one of the answers is most consistent with the "spirit" of the Code. This response is most consistent with the requirements of the Ethics Code. Specifically, Standard 3.04 states that psychologists "take reasonable steps to avoid harming their clients/patients." Contacting the client prior to releasing the requested information to the attorney would help ensure that the client is not harmed.


Answer B: Releasing only relevant information is always the best action but, before making a decision about releasing the requested information, you would want to discuss the issue with the client given that he said he would never want you to release personal information under any circumstance.


Answer C: Because of the client's statement to you about the release of personal information, you would want to check with him to make sure he understands what information will be released and how that information will be used. You would also want to see a copy of the release before providing the attorney with the requested information.

Answer D: There is no information given in the question suggesting that it would be necessary to obtain a court order before releasing the requested information to the attorney.

C


Standard 10.08(a) addresses this issue. It states: "Psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with former clients/patients for at least two years after cessation or termination of therapy." In addition Standard 10.08(b) states: "Psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with former clients/patients even after a two-year interval except in the most unusual circumstances. Psychologists who engage in such activity ... bear the burden of demonstrating that there has been no exploitation, in light of all relevant factors ...." This answer is most consistent with the admonitions set forth in Standard 10.08.


Answer A. The APA Ethics Code offers clear direction on this matter.


Answer B. This answer is incorrect, because it is incomplete and does not fully address the APA's stand on the matter.

Answer D. This answer fails to account for the nuance in APA's guidance on relationships with former clients.

D


This is closest to the actual language of Standard 5.05 of the Ethics Code and, consequently, is the best answer. Testimonials are not entirely prohibited but should be obtained and used with caution.


Answer A: This answer is incorrect, as it is not as complete as response D.


Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Direct solicitation from a former client is not necessarily prohibited.

Answer C: This answer is incorrect. This response is close but, if you read carefully, it's not a completely accurate reflection of the requirements of the Ethics Code.

C


This issue is addressed by A. J. Kimmel in "Ethical issues in behavioral research," Blackwell Publishers, Cambridge, MA, 1996. Kimmel concludes that, when the effectiveness of an intervention is unknown, it is acceptable to include a "no-treatment control group" in a research study. However, as soon as the treatment is shown to be effective (especially when it is effective for a serious disorder or problem), the treatment should be made immediately available to individuals in the control group.


Answer A: Dr. James should make the efficacious treatment available to the participants in the control group.


Answer B: When an experimental treatment is determined to be effective, especially for serious conditions, it should be made available to the control groups once the benefits are apparent.

Answer D: Publishing the results is a good idea, however this answer does not address the underlying issue of making effective treatments available to participants in the control group.

C


In most situations, psychologists must maintain the confidentiality of their clients unless the client waives his/her right to confidentiality or a breach of confidentiality is mandated by law. Psychologists ordinarily maintain the confidentiality of a client who is the victim of spousal or partner abuse, and the primary intervention in this situation would be to ensure the safety of Mrs. Maitalain, which would include discussing her options. An exception is when there is reason to suspect that children are also at risk. Also, note that most jurisdictions mandate reporting of certain types of abuse for "vulnerable adults," but there is no information given in this question that indicates that Mrs. Maitalain is a vulnerable adult.


Answer A: The therapist should help the client understand her options and create a safety plan.


Answer B: Therapists working with clients who experience intimate partner abuse work with them to clarify their options.

Answer D: Confronting the husband in Mrs. Maitalain's therapy session could make her situation worse.

B


A review of the literature on risk management reveals consensus among the experts that good record-keeping is a key defense in cases of malpractice. S. Knapp, for instance, notes that "An axiom of risk management is that if it is not documented, it did not occur" (Professional liability and risk management in an era of managed care, in D. T. Marsh and R. O. Magee [Eds.], Ethical and legal issues in professional practice with families, New York, John Wiley and Sons, 1997).


Answer A: Simply having licensure status does not constitute the best defense in cases of litigation.


Answer C: Documenting informed consent is essential to ethical practice, but clinical records are the best defense in cases of malpractice.

Answer D: Obviously, liability insurance is important, however, this is not the correct answer. Adequate records are known in the profession as the best defense.

C


Although this issue is not explicitly addressed in the Ethics Code, the "spirit" of the Code dictates that confidential information be treated with care. When a client's therapy fee has been paid by an insurance company, it is likely that the client has already signed a waiver on his/her insurance form. In addition, therapists are expected to cooperate with peer reviews. Therefore, this is the best response. A therapist would be required to provide information to the insurance company as requested, but the therapist should release only relevant information and should take steps to ensure that confidentiality will be safeguarded.


Answer A: Before a therapist bills a client's insurance, the client must sign a waiver to allow the therapist to share information with the company. Therefore, client permission has been granted. The more pertinent concern in this case is confidentiality.


Answer B: This answer is incorrect, because it is incomplete and does not address the larger issue of confidentiality.

Answer D: This answer is incorrect. While the statement is true, this answer fails to address the more salient concern regarding confidentiality.

A


The licensing exam measures knowledge of several areas in the field of psychology and is a measure of knowledge that candidates seeking licensure should have.


Answer B: This answer is incorrect. While this would be nice, the test has not been validated as a measure of job proficiency.


Answer C: This answer is incorrect. This is not an accurate description of the licensing exam.

Answer D: This describes licensure but not the licensing exam.

A


This question is apparently asking about competence to stand trial. A psychologist may be asked to evaluate a person's current mental status to determine if he/she is competent to stand trial (i.e., is able to understand court procedures and the charge against him/her).


Answer B: A psychologist would determine the person's status at the time of the crime in order to support the insanity defense.


Answer C: Mental status at the time of the arrest is less relevant in this case.

Answer D: This answer is incorrect, as mental status prior to the crime does not impact competence to stand trial.

B


This answer reflects the actual language of the Ethics Code, Standard 4.02: Discussing the Limits of Confidentiality. Therefore, it is the best answer.


Answer A: This answer is incomplete, as it does not include the second half of Answer B, "and when feasible thereafter as needed."


Answer C: Documenting the discussion in writing is a good idea but is not required. Therefore, this is not the best answer.

Answer D: This answer is vague and does not reflect the language used in Standard 4.02.

D


Managed care reduces health costs in several ways including the use of a "gatekeeper" who makes referrals to specialists, including a psychotherapist, psychiatrist, or another specialist. Very often, the gatekeeper is the individual's primary care physician.


Answer A. A peer review board is not a gatekeeper in managed care.


Answer B. An HMO is not a gatekeeper.

Answer C. A clinical supervisor is not a gatekeeper in managed care. Primary care physicians normally serve in this role.

C


Of the available answers, this one is the best choice. As mandated reporters, psychologists are required by law to report suspected child abuse. This issue is addressed by Leland Swenson in "Psychology and the law for the helping professions," Brooks/Cole, Pacific Grove, CA, 1997. Swenson notes that "Any required reporter who knows that another required reporter has not reported must report the evidence of abuse as well as identify the nonreporter" (p. 413).


Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Because child abuse reporting is a serious matter, simply "encouraging" the other therapist to report is insufficient.


Answer B: The most immediate concern in this case involves filing a report with the child abuse reporting authority.


Answer D: This answer is incorrect. As Swenson (1997) notes, the mandated reporter should provide the name of the individual who initially received the report of abuse.

A


This question is referring to a survey of APA Division 42 members [M. J. Murphy, C. R., DeBernardo, & W. E. Shoemaker, Impact of managed care on independent practice and professional ethics: A survey of independent practitioners, Professional Psychology: Research and Practice, 29(1), 43-51, 1998]. The results of that survey are described in the Ethical Manual in the written study materials. Increased demand due to utilization review was the most frequently cited negative effect, with 87% of respondents referring to the increase in paperwork and 83% referring to the increase in phone contacts with third-party payors.


Answer B: Thirty-eight percent of respondents cited some panels being closed to psychologists.


Answer C: Forty percent of respondents cited a decline in income due to a decrease in the volume of patients.

Answer D: Increased need for supervision was not one of the effects cited by respondents.

C


Of the responses given, this is the best one. It implies an immediate action that would help determine if the student is actually at risk. Immediate action is the appropriate response to situations involving a high risk for suicide.


Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Contacting the student directly is the better answer.


Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Referral to a therapist might be the next step after talking with the student.

Answer D: This answer is incorrect. There is no information in this question suggesting that the test needs to be re-administered.

D



This issue is addressed in Paragraph 5.02 of the Specialty Guidelines and is most consistent with the provisions of Paragraph 5.02 which states: "Forensic practitioners seek to avoid undue influence that might result from financial compensation or other gains. Because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees."


Answer A. This answer does not reflect the position of the Specialty Guidelines.


Answer B. Even if the fees are judged to be "fair and equitable" this arrangement is not consistent with ethical mandates.

Answer C. The risk of such an arrangement impacting a psychologist's objectivity is great enough that the Specialty Guidelines stress psychologists should avoid such an arrangement.

D


The release of confidential client information ordinarily requires a waiver from the client. Of the responses given, this is the best one. Privilege may or may not be waived in this situation and, even if it is, you should discuss the release of confidential information (even to the client's attorney) with the client and, in most cases, obtain a waiver.


Answer A: This answer is incorrect, because you should discuss the matter with the client and assure you obtain a release .


Answer B: This answer is incorrect, because the client maintains the privilege until the client releases it.

Answer C: This answer is incorrect because until you have obtained a release, you should not share information with another party, including the client's attorney.

D


This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines that require psychologists to avoid multiple relationships. For example, Guideline 7 of the APA's Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings identifies providing psychotherapy to prior child custody examinees as a multiple relationship that should be avoided.


Answer A: This answer is incorrect. In most situations, multiple relationships are to be avoided.


Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Dr. Drucker should avoid entering into a therapy relationship with the parent given he provided a previous custody evaluation.

Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Dr. Drucker should avoid forming a multiple relationship with the parent, given Guideline 7 of APA's Guideline for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings.

B

This issue is addressed in the APA's "General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services" and "Specialty Guidelines for Clinical Psychologists." Section 1.7 of the "Specialty Guidelines" states that "professional psychologists who wish to qualify as clinical psychologists meet the same requirements with respect to the subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral and postdoctoral education and training in clinical psychology."

Answer A: This answer is incorrect as it fails to account for the requirements laid out in the documents noted above.

Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Obtaining another doctoral degree is not required, but meeting the same requirements regarding the subject matter and professional skills is necessary.

Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Supervision alone would not be sufficient.

D


This question addresses the issue of competence. The Ethics Code clearly prohibits psychologists from working outside their scope of competence and expertise. Although psychologists can (and should) add to their skills, doing so requires special care so that the welfare of a client is not jeopardized. Mislabeling a child as learning disabled (or not learning disabled) can have very serious and long-lasting consequences, so this response is the best of those given.


Answer A. This answer is incorrect. The psychologist should refer the child to a psychologist competent in the assessment of Learning Disorders.


Answer B. This answer is incorrect. Learning to conduct evaluations requires training and supervision beyond a workshop.

Answer C. This answer is incorrect. A qualified provider should deliver the assessment.

B


This is the best response since it is most consistent with Standard 1.04 (Informal Resolution of Ethical Violations) of the Ethics Code and does not violate the client's confidentiality. As noted in the Ethics Code, any attempt at resolving a potential ethical violation by a psychologist must include consideration of the client's confidentiality.


Answer A. This answer is incorrect. Although this may be appropriate, this answer does not mention the issue of confidentiality. Consequently, it is not the best answer of those given.


Answer C. This answer is incorrect. This would not be an appropriate course of action since there is nothing in the question to imply that you already have a therapeutic relationship with the client.

Answer D. This answer is incorrect. It does not address the issue of client confidentiality.

A


Dr. Nillson's behavior violates Standard 7.03 of the Ethics Code, which calls for accuracy in teaching, as well as General Principle C (Integrity), which encourages "accuracy, honesty, and truthfulness."


Answer B. This answer is incorrect. As a psychologist, Dr. Nillson has an ethical duty to teach objectively, fully, and accurately.


Answer C. This answer is incorrect. Dr. Nillson is ethically obligated to make sure her choice of topics is not biased by her own personal beliefs. If she is unqualified to teach certain areas, she could arrange to have someone else do so.

Answer D. This answer is incorrect. Dr. Nillson's behavior is biased and, therefore, is unethical.

B


For the exam, you want to be familiar with the managed care terms listed in the answers to this question. Credentialing is a formal process for determining whether or not a provider meets and maintains qualification standards and provides some legal protection for the MCO.


Answer A. Concurrent review is the term used for utilization reviews conducted during the course of treatment.


Answer C. Quality management is another name for quality assurance.

Answer D. Clinical audit is a method of quality assurance.

C


This is pretty straightforward. The boy's welfare is your first concern, and you would want to make sure that he is not at risk for suicide. Suicide threats and ideation should always be taken seriously. Before notifying his parents, however, you'd want to determine how serious his thoughts about suicide are.


Answer A. This answer is incorrect. You would want to talk with the boy and determine whether his comments were serious. A thorough suicide assessment is warranted.


Answer B. This answer is incorrect. Notifying his parents may be a reasonable option, but the psychologist should gather more information first.

Answer D. This answer is incorrect. Suicide threats should always be taken seriously. The psychologist should talk with the boy to obtain more information.

C


Standard 8.09(b) states that "Psychologists trained in research methods and experienced in the care of laboratory animals supervise all procedures involving animals and are responsible for ensuring appropriate consideration of their comfort, health, and humane treatment." The Ethics Code is not "crystal clear" about this issue, but it does seem to imply that the psychologist maintains responsibility for the care and treatment of animal subjects.


Answer A: This answer is incorrect. While the psychologist may designate others to care and maintain the animals, the animals' welfare is ultimately the responsibility of the psychologist.


Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Providing designees proper training is certainly necessary, but the responsibility for animals' well-being resides with the psychologist.

Answer D: This answer is incorrect. Standard 8.09(b) states that psychologists supervise, and are therefore responsible for, animal care.

A


Job relatedness and business necessity are conditions that may permit the use of a selection procedure that is having an adverse impact for members of a protected group. If a selection or other employment procedure is found to be having adverse impact, the employer may be able to continue using the procedure if he/she can demonstrate that it is job related and a business necessity. See, e.g., the Americans with Disabilities Act and the Federal Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures.


Answer B: Truth in testing is not associated with "job relatedness" and "business necessity".


Answer C: Comparable worth, also known as pay equity, refers to the principle that jobs that require the same education, experience, skills, and other qualifications should pay the same wage or salary regardless of the employee's age, gender, race, ethnicity, etc.

Answer D: Personnel training is not associated with "job relatedness" and "business necessity".

C

Holland used the term differentiation to describe the extent to which a person has clearly defined interests. A person who scores high on one of his interest scales and low on all other scales is highly differentiated. According to Holland, the importance of a good "fit" between a person's interests and the characteristics of the job is most important for those who are highly differentiated.

D


The rational-economic model assumes that decision-makers are perfect and rational. The rational-economic model assumes that decision-makers will consider all possible alternatives and choose the optimal one.


Answer A: Satisficing decisions" better describes the assumption underlying the administrative model of decision-making.

Answer B: Bounded rationality is also associated with the administrative model, which does not view decision-makers as entirely perfect and rational.

Answer C: Representative decisions are not associated with the rational-economic model.

D


Research examining the strengths and weaknesses of various decision-making strategies has found that bounded rationality often fails because of the problem described in this question. This is the term used in the literature for the phenomenon described in this question.


Answer A: The term minimizing, is not associated with decision-making or conflict resolution. 


Answer B: Group decision-making can also be affected by group polarization, which is the tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreme (more conservative or risky) in the direction of the views initially held by group members than decisions that would have been generated by individual members alone.

Answer C: The term sub-optimize, is not associated with decision-making or conflict resolution.

D


In fairness research, there is a focus on what a person receives (distributive justice) and how perceived goods are allocated (procedural justice), and then there is the interpersonal treatment received by individuals as the justice is carried out. For the most part, organizational justice is concerned with the ways in which employees decide if they been treated fairly in their jobs and the conditions in which those determinations influence other work-related variables.


Answer A is incorrect as compensatory justice tends to be more for criminal matters and how punishment is administered to the convict.


Answer B is incorrect as procedural justice would have been in this case the amount of money that the company set aside for bonuses as opposed to how much each individual receives.

Answer C is incorrect as this is a type of justice that has more to do with criminal punishment than social fairness.

B


Process consultation is an organizational development (OD) strategy that, as its name suggests, focuses on organizational processes - or, more specifically, the social processes that are a normal part of the job. Process consultation focuses on identifying and altering the overt behaviors that are interfering with normal social processes. It is based on the assumption that behavior change is the priority and precedes attitude change.


Answer A: This is the opposite of what is true. A distinguishing characteristic of process consultation is its assumption that behavior change precedes attitude change.


Answer C: This is not a focus (or prediction) of process consultation.

Answer D: This is not a focus (or prediction) of process consultation.

C


The research has shown that the effectiveness of group decision-making is affected by a number of factors (e.g., groupthink, the risky shift). Not surprisingly, groups are more effective when members have different skills and knowledge.


Answer A: Individual decisions tend to be better than group decisions for tasks that require a high degree of creativity.


Answer B: A high degree of cohesiveness can lead to groupthink.

Answer D: A directive leader can lead to groupthink.

C


Mediation is often distinguished from fact-finding and arbitration. In mediation, a neutral third party (the mediator) uses various tactics to facilitate voluntary agreement between disputants. Mediators can make recommendations, but they have no formal power and cannot impose their solution or decision.


Answer A: This sounds more like arbitration.


Answer B: This sounds a more like fact-finding than mediation.

Answer D: This does not describe the role of a mediator.

B


Achievement-oriented people tend to prefer moderate to moderately difficult tasks. This might not be the answer you'd guess if you're totally unfamiliar with the research on this topic, but, in fact, it is the correct answer.


Answer A: You probably could have eliminated this response on the basis of common sense. People who are achievement-oriented would not get too much gratification from success on easy tasks.


Answer C: Somewhat surprisingly, it is people with a low need for achievement who choose more difficult tasks.

Answer D: If you had eliminated answer "A" for the correct reason, that should have helped you eliminate this answer too since tasks of varying difficulty levels would include easy tasks.

C

A good "rule-of-thumb" for answering questions is to eliminate responses that contain absolutes (e.g., "always" or "never"). Groups that are heterogeneous with regard to members' skills, experience, and other characteristics have been found to be particularly beneficial for disjunctive tasks in which only one member needs to identify the correct response or solution. For a discussion of this issue, see D. T. Kenrick, S. L. Heuberg, & R. B. Cialdini, Social psychology: Unraveling the mystery, Boston, Allyn & Bacon, 2001.

B


The implications of incentive/reward and other motivational theories are summarized by R. A. Katzell and D. E. Thompson in Work motivation: Theory and practice, American Psychologist, 45(2), 144-153, 1990. Incentive/reward theory is broader than reinforcement theory and emphasizes the features of the job and work environment that maximize worker interest and satisfaction.


Answer A: Clearly tying rewards and punishments to effective performance is an implication of reinforcement theory, which is different from incentive/reward theory in its premises and implications.

Answer C: Explicitly linking individual goals to organizational goals is not a key implication of incentive/reward theory.

Answer D: Allowing workers to identify their preferred benefits  is also not an implication of incentive/reward theory.

A


As described by McGregor (1960), Theory X and Theory Y managers are distinguished by their different assumptions about employee characteristics. Knowing that Theory X managers have a pessimistic view of employees would have enabled you to identify this as the correct response.


Answer B: This is more consistent with the assumptions of Theory Y managers who have more positive views of employees.


Answer C: McGregor's theory does not identify factors that determine the most effective management style. Instead, McGregor proposed that a Theory Y style is most likely to have the greatest benefits for an organization.

Answer D: McGregor's theory centers on the manager's assumptions, not on a manager's style and whether this depends on the nature of tasks and certain characteristics of the employees.

B


In this situation, the evaluation of the instructor has become more extreme for some group members as a result of their participation in the group. Group polarization refers to the tendency of groups to make more extreme decisions than individual group members would make alone. Of the responses given, group polarization best "fits" the situation described in this question.


Answer A: Social facilitation occurs when performance on a task is improved as the result of the presence of other people.


Answer C: The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to make dispositional attributions when judging the behavior of others.

Answer D: Negative framing refers to presenting a problem to a person in negative terms.

A


The BIB items do not seem to be measuring what they are intended to measure - in other words, they are lacking face validity. Face validity is not a type of validity in the same sense that content, construct, and criterion-related validity are (it is not empirically- or theoretically determined). However, face validity is often desirable because it maximizes the motivation and interest of applicants or examinees.


Answer B: When a test has been found to measure the hypothetical trait (construct) it is intended to measure, the test is said to have construct validity.

Answer C: The term social validity, is not associated with the BIB. 

Answer D: Predictive validity is the preferred type of criterion-related validity when the purpose of testing is to predict future performance on the criterion.

B


Expectancy theory predicts that motivation is a function of three beliefs: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. For additional information on expectancy theory, see the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. Instrumentality refers to the belief that good performance will be rewarded.


Answer A: Valence refers to the idea that employees will work hard if they believe the rewards are desirable.


Answer C: Vigor is not a part of this theory.

Answer D: Expectancy is the belief that high effort will lead to successful task performance

A


Groupthink was originally described by Arthur Janis to describe several failed foreign policy decisions including the Kennedy administration's decision to invade Cuba. Although Janis did not believe that high cohesiveness alone necessarily leads to groupthink, he considered it to be the primary condition and proposed that cohesiveness is likely to lead to poor decision making when it is combined with certain other conditions including insulation from outside opinions, the presence of external threats, and highly directive leadership.


Answer B: This would likely have the opposite effect.


Answer C: This would also be more likely to have the opposite effect.

Answer D: This too would have a better chance at having the opposite effect.

C


The Americans with Disabilities Act protects the rights of people with physical and mental disabilities. Although ADA permits only post-offer, pre-employment medical exams, it explicitly excludes drug testing as a medical exam. In other words, drug testing is not prohibited at any time during pre-employment or employment.

Answer A: The ADA does, in fact, address the issue of drug testing.


Answer B: The ADA permits drug testing before or after a job offer has been made.

Answer D: The ADA permits drug testing before or after a job offer has been made and there does not need to be a suspicion of drug use to perform a drug test.

B


Equity theory predicts that motivation is a function of the comparisons workers make between their own input/outcome ratio and those of workers doing similar jobs. According to equity theory, motivation is a result of our social comparisons. Additional information on equity theory is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.


Answer A: The Rosenthal effect is another name for the self-fulfilling prophecy effect, which is not really relevant to equity theory.


Answer C: Drive theory is also a theory of motivation but is not as relevant to equity theory as social comparison theory.

Answer D: The buffering hypothesis predicts that the perception of adequate social support buffers people against the negative effects of stress.

D


The "two factors" in Herzberg's two-factor theory are hygiene factors and motivator factors. According to Herzberg, hygiene factors contribute to dissatisfaction when they are inadequate but do not contribute to satisfaction or motivation. Hygiene factors include job security, pay and benefits, relationships with co-workers, working conditions, and company policies.


Answer A: Quality is not one of the factors in Herzberg's two-factor model.


Answer B: Quantity is not one of the factors in Herzberg's two-factor model.

Answer C: As described by Herzberg, motivator factors include the nature of the work itself and opportunities for responsibility, achievement, and promotion. Motivator factors do not contribute to dissatisfaction but contribute to satisfaction and motivation when they're adequate.

C


This question is asking about a situation in which the views of group members become increasingly extreme due to their participation in the group. Group polarization refers to the tendency of people to make more extreme decisions when acting as members of a group than they would have made as individuals.


Answer A: Deindividuation occurs when a person feels "anonymous" as a member of a group.


Answer B: A social trap is a conflict that occurs when behavior has positive short-term consequences but negative long-term consequences.

Answer D: Group contagion refers to the transmission of emotion through a crowd or group.

C


Equity theory proposes that a worker compares his or her input/outcome ratio to the ratio of another worker performing the same or a similar job. When the ratios seem equal to the worker, the worker is motivated to continue performing at the same level. If the ratios are unequal, this has an effect on motivation, performance, and other job outcomes. This pertains to the predictions of equity theory.

Answer A: Intrinsic motivation is not addressed by equity theory.


Answer B: Self-efficacy beliefs are not addressed by equity theory.

Answer D: The answer, "the employee's perceptions regarding the likelihood that successful performance will be rewarded with desirable outcomes", sounds like one of the components of expectancy theory.

A


There has been a myriad of research investigating the relationship between job satisfaction and various measures of job performance. The most consistent finding is that job satisfaction is inversely related to absenteeism and turnover. Job satisfaction has consistently been found to be inversely correlated with both turnover and absenteeism (although it appears to have a slightly stronger relationship with turnover than absenteeism).


Answer B: Conversely, job satisfaction tends to increase with age.


Answer C: Conversely, individuals with higher levels of education tend to have higher levels of satisfaction.

Answer D: The results of research investigating the differences between males and females have been inconsistent. Some studies indicate that males tend to be more satisfied, while others indicate that females are more satisfied.

A


The situational leadership model distinguishes between four leadership styles and proposes that the optimal style depends on the employee's maturity level, which is determined by a combination of his/her ability and willingness to take responsibility. Hersey and Blanchard recommend a telling style when the employee is low in both ability and willingness. Even if you're not familiar with the theory, it makes sense that this type of employee would need to be told what to do.


Answer B: A selling style is best for the type of employee who is low in ability and high in willingness.


Answer C: A participating style is best for employees high in ability and low in willingness.

Answer D: A delegating style is optimal for employees high in ability and high in willingness.

D


A needs assessment is conducted in organizations to determine training needs. The systems approach to needs assessment involves three types of analysis: organization, task/job, and person.


Answer A: This describes systems in Bronfenbrenner's ecological model.


Answer B: This describes the stages in Lewin's model of planned change.

Answer C: This does not describe the components of a needs assessment.

A


A response is brought under stimulus control when the person learns to respond in situations in which reinforcement is likely but not in situations in which no reinforcement (or punishment) is likely. In the situation described in this question, Kevin has learned to swear in some situations but not in others because of the different consequences for doing so in those situations.


Answer B: Partial reinforcement refers to the use of an intermittent (partial) schedule of reinforcement.


Answer C: Shaping is a type of reinforcement in which successive approximations to the desired response are reinforced.

Answer D: Overcorrection is a behavioral technique that is used to reduce an undesirable behavior and replace it with a more desirable one.

C


The research on biofeedback is far from consistent, but biofeedback does appear to have positive effects for several problems including hypertension. For hypertension, biofeedback seems to be about as effective as relaxation training and self-monitoring.


Answer A: The research on biofeedback demonstrates that it has beneficial effects (for most of the disorders to which it has been applied).


Answer B: Research demonstrates the effectiveness of biofeedback in the treatment of hypertension does not depend on whether individuals are also taking medication.

Answer D: The research has shown that biofeedback has beneficial effects, but these effects do not exceed those associated with other treatments.

A


Positive reinforcement involves the application of a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior. Here, the staff member's presence is reinforcing the child's misbehavior. While the staff member's intention is to decrease the boy's behavior, she is actually increasing it. This is apparently because the desirable, reinforcing properties of the staff member's presence and attention are stronger than any aversive effect of what she is saying to him. Often, parents who find that their attempts at punishment fail to decrease a behavior are unaware that the punishment actually contains reinforcing properties, such as attention.


Answer B: Negative reinforcement is the removal of a stimulus following a behavior in order to increase that behavior. In this case, a stimulus (the staff member's attention) is being applied rather than removed.


Answer C: Punishment is used to reduce or eliminate a behavior. Positive punishment occurs when the application of a stimulus following a response decreases that response. In this case, the child's tantrums are occurring more often, and the staff member's behavior is apparently reinforcing rather than punishing.

Answer D: Negative punishment occurs when the removal of a stimulus following a behavior decreases that behavior.

A


Negative punishment involves taking a stimulus away following a behavior in order to decrease that behavior, which is what occurs in time-out. Time-out involves removing the child from all sources of positive reinforcement for a pre-specified period of time following a behavior in order to reduce that behavior.


Answer B: Negative reinforcement involves taking a stimulus away following a behavior in order to increase the behavior.


Answer C: A behavior is brought under stimulus control when it is elicited by the presence of a cue or prompt.

Answer D: Fading refers to the gradual removal of prompts.

B


According to Rehm's self-control theory, individuals with depression selectively attend to negative events and to the immediate consequences of their behavior; make inaccurate internal attributions about their behaviors; and have low rates of self-reinforcement. There are several models of depression, but only one identifies all three of the components listed in the question as the factors underlying this disorder.


Answer A: Bandura's self-efficacy model has not been widely applied to the understanding or treatment of depression. However, it implies that depression and other undesirable or maladaptive behaviors are due to a low sense of self-efficacy.


Answer C: Seligman's learned helplessness model attributes depression to prior exposure to uncontrollable negative events, which leads to a sense of helplessness.

Answer D: Self-verification theory is not a theory of depression. It predicts that people tend to seek information that confirms the self-concept.

• B
• Thermal (temperature) biofeedback provides feedback on skin temperature, which indicates changes in blood-flow. Raynaud's disease is a disorder of the blood vessels that limits circulation to certain areas of the body (usually the fingers and toes). It is triggered by cold or emotional stress and causes a change in color of the skin with coldness and numbness followed by throbbing, tingling, or stinging pain upon warming or relief of the stress. Thermal biofeedback has been found to be an effective treatment for Raynaud's disease and a number of other disorders including hypertension and migraine headache.

Answer A: Respiration biofeedback is useful for alleviating hyperventilation.


Answer C: Galvanic skin response (GSR) training has been found useful for treating stuttering.

Answer D: EMG biofeedback has been found to be effective for treating temporomandibular joint (TMJ) syndrome.

B


A number of operant techniques are used to reduce the frequency and/or strength of a behavior. One of them, stimulus control, involves stimulus discrimination, or learning to respond differently in the presence of different stimuli. When a behavior is under the control of stimuli in this manner, the behavior is said to be under stimulus control. Sandy has been instructed to limit (control) the number and kind of stimuli that are associated with cigarette smoking. By doing so, smoking will become associated with (under the control of) a restricted number of stimuli.


Answer A: Self-monitoring involves having a client record information about the frequency and conditions of a target behavior. For Sandy, self-monitoring might be initially used in order to determine what kind of program would be most effective for reducing her smoking (i.e., she might record information about where and when she smokes).


Answer C: Overcorrection involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior and then having the individual practice more appropriate behaviors in an exaggerated fashion. It is most useful for the treatment of socially inappropriate and self-injurious behaviors.

Answer D: Response cost involves the removal of a specific positive reinforcement each time a behavior is performed. If response cost were to be used with Sandy, she might have to give up an hour of watching television each time she smokes.

C


John Watson applied Pavlov's classical conditioning model to human behavior. In his most famous study, Watson taught Albert B., an 11-month-old child, to fear a white rat. Albert B.'s phobia was created by pairing a US (loud noise) with a CS (white rat) so that the CS alone eventually elicited a startle response.


Answer A: Albert B.'s phobia was established through classical conditioning and, thus, did not involve confining him.


Answer B: Pavlov showed that requiring subjects to make difficult stimulus discriminations produced "experimental neurosis." It is not the procedure used by Watson.

Answer D: Watson's research with Albert did not involve the application of punishment. The use of punishment to decrease a response is an operant conditioning technique.

A

In an early evaluation of the trace decay theory of forgetting, Jenkins and Dallenbach (1924) had subjects who had memorized a list of nonsense syllables either sleep or stay awake before being asked to recall the syllables. Those who slept recalled more syllables. The results of the Jenkins and Dallenbach study suggest that Bob, who slept after studying the list of syllables, will exhibit the greatest recall.

D


Stress inoculation training was designed to help people cope more effectively with stress by increasing their coping skills. Unfortunately, the names given to the three stages vary somewhat in the literature, so you need to be flexible when looking for the correct answer to a question on this technique. The first stage of stress inoculation training is ordinarily referred to as the conceptualization, education, or cognitive phase; the second stage as the skills application or training phase or the skills acquisition and rehearsal phase; and the third phase as the application or application and follow-through phase.


Answer A: These are not the three stages of stress inoculation training as described by Meichenbaum and Jaremko (1982).


Answer B: These are the three targets of Rehm's self-control therapy.

Answer C: These are steps in Meichenbaum and Goodman's self-instructional training.

D


A careful reading of this question reveals that it is describing "backward conditioning." Backward conditioning rarely works; therefore, the target behavior will not change in frequency. For classical conditioning to be effective, the conditioned stimulus must be presented before the unconditioned stimulus.


Answer A: Given that backwards conditioning rarely works, the target behavior will not be eliminated.


Answer B: The target behavior will not be suppressed.

Answer C: The target behavior will not paradoxically increase.

D

Cognitive distortions are relatively commonplace--not just among those who suffer from depression or other mental illnesses. According to Beck, what distinguishes people with depression from others is the frequency and prevalence of the distortions and the apparent inability to correct them. Answers A, B, & C are incorrect.

C

Having participants count backwards ensures that they do not rehearse the list of letters so that an accurate estimate of the duration of short-term memory can be ascertained. Information is retained in short-term memory for a very short period unless it is rehearsed or repeated.


Answer A: Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned material interferes with the recall of previously learned material, and it is most likely to occur when recently and previously learned material are similar. Counting backwards is not similar to memorizing letters, so counting backwards will not increase the effects of retroactive interference.


Answer B: Trace decay theory proposes that memories fade over time. Counting backwards wouldn't affect the process of trace decay.

Answer D: Having participants count backwards may or may not improve their concentration, so this is not the best answer.

C


Prospective memory refers to the ability to "remember to remember" (e.g., to remember an appointment in the future). Remembering that you have a doctor's appointment on Thursday at 3 p.m. depends on prospective memory.


Answer A: Working memory is an aspect of short-term memory, and working memory is responsible for the manipulation and processing of information.


Answer B: Episodic memory contains memories of one's personal experiences.

Answer D: Metacognition is a term used to describe "knowing about knowing."

B


Interoceptive exposure involves exposing the individual to internal bodily sensations (e.g., elevated heart rate, hyperventilation) associated with a panic attack or other anxiety response by having him/her inhale carbon dioxide, spin in a chair, etc. Interoceptive exposure has been found useful for reducing anxiety associated with panic attacks, PTSD, and other anxiety-related disorders.


Answer A: Desensitization in imagination involves a therapist instructing clients to imagine they are exposed to feared objects or anxiety-provoking situations.


Answer C: Flooding involves in vivo exposure to a feared stimulus for a prolonged period of time.

Answer D: Utilizing systematic desensitization, clients may engage in graded (graduated) exposure to a feared stimulus first in imagination. When they have become desensitized to a majority of items on their anxiety hierarchy, they may then move to in vivo desensitization.

D


Knowing the schedule of reinforcement of slot machines may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. When using a variable ratio schedule, a reinforcer is provided after a variable number of responses. Of the four intermittent schedules, it is associated with the highest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction once the reinforcer is no longer provided.


Answer A: When using a fixed interval schedule, reinforcement is delivered after a fixed period of time regardless of the number of responses made.


Answer B: When using a fixed ratio schedule, a reinforcer is delivered each time the subject makes a specific number of responses.

Answer C: With a variable interval schedule, the interval of time between delivery of reinforcers varies in an unpredictable manner from interval to interval.

B


Short-term memory is very limited in terms of duration and capacity, but the latter can be expanded by "chunking" information into meaningful units. Miller proposed that short-term memory can hold between 5 and 9 units of information and that the ability to hold larger amounts of information is due to chunking information into groups of related items. The range of 7 +/- 2 is between 5 (7-2) and 9 (7+2).


Answer A: The range of 5 +/-  2 would be 3 and 7 units of information.


Answer C: The range of 9 +/- 2 would be 7 to 11 units of information.

Answer D: The range of 11 +/- 2 would be 9 to 13 units of information.

A



In this situation, the mother is using the behavioral technique of differential reinforcement to eliminate an undesirable behavior. Differential reinforcement involves reducing an undesirable self-reinforcing behavior by providing a reinforcer after each predefined interval of time that the individual does not engage in that behavior but, instead, engages in other (different) behaviors.

Answer B: Time-out involves removing the individual from all sources of positive reinforcement for a period of time following an undesirable behavior to eliminate that behavior.


Answer C: Overcorrection involves having the individual correct the consequences of an undesirable behavior and/or practice corrective (alternative) behaviors.

Answer D: Shaping involves teaching a new behavior by reinforcing successive approximations to that behavior.

B


It is important to identify the mother's behavior (picking up her child) as the target behavior in the question, which is controlled by negative reinforcement. In this situation, the mother's "picking-up-her-child" behavior occurs because it is reinforced by the cessation of her child's whining. The mother's behavior increases (reinforcement) because of the stimulus that is removed following the behavior (negative).


Answer A: Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior increases because of the stimulus that is applied (or added) following the behavior.


Answer C: Positive punishment occurs when a behavior decreases because of the application of a stimulus following the behavior.

Answer D: Negative punishment occurs when a behavior decreases because of the removal or cessation of a stimulus following the behavior.

C



In operant conditioning, extinction occurs when reinforcement for a previously reinforced behavior is removed. The term "extinction burst" refers to the temporary increase in behavior that occurs when reinforcement is removed from a previously reinforced behavior.


Answer A: Satiation occurs when a reinforcer has lost its reinforcing value.

• Answer B: When a behavior that was previously not reinforced begins to be reinforced, it increases the likelihood the subject will exhibit the behavior (following the principles of operant conditioning). This does not describe an extinction burst.
• Answer D: When an extinguished behavior is accidentally reinforced, the subject may increase the exhibition of behavior as a function of reinforcement (following the principles of operant conditioning). This increase is different from an extinction burst, when the increase in behavior follows the removal of a reinforcer for the previously reinforced behavior.

C


According to Seligman's (1990) theory of learned optimism, the attributions of optimistic people are just the opposite of those made by depressed and other pessimistic people. Of the responses given, this one fits best with Seligman's theory which proposes that optimistic people tend to make external, specific, and unstable (temporary) attributions for negative events.


Answer A: This is an internal attribution and is not consistent with Seligman's theory.


Answer B: The word "unlucky" may be an internal or external attribution, depending on the person, so it is not the best answer to this question.

Answer D: This is a global (rather than specific) attribution.

B


Episodic (autobiographical) memory consists of memories for personal events (e.g., first date, graduation from college). Long-term memory can be divided into two types - procedural and declarative - and declarative memory can be further divided into semantic and episodic memory.


Answer A: Procedural memory contains memories of skilled responses and actions (e.g., riding a bicycle).


Answer C: Semantic memory contains memories of general knowledge.

Answer D: Implicit memory refers to memories that are recalled without conscious effort.

D

According to Kohlberg, a child recognizes that he/she is a boy/girl by age three (gender identity). Subsequently, the child realizes that gender is stable over time and then, by age seven, realizes that gender is constant across different situations.

B


Recent studies using more sophisticated research methods have reported that pre-school and kindergarten children act based on knowledge of race and even show dominant race bias in their choices.


Answer A: This reflects past theories in which children were thought to require reasoning skills in order to understand the concept of race.


Answer C: This is opposite of what is true. These cognitive theories led to previous estimates that racial awareness occurred later when the ability for social abstraction has developed.

• Answer D: Although some imitation is probably present, the racial awareness demonstrated in the young child appears to be due to their social experience and learning, rather than superficial imitation.
• [Dulin-Keita, A., Hannon, L., Fernandez, J. R., & Cockerham, W. C. (2011). The Defining Moment: Children's Conceptualization of Race and Experiences with Racial Discrimination. Ethnic and racial studies, 34(4), 662682, Van Ausdale D and Feagin JR. (2001). The First R: How Children Learn Race and Racism. Lanham, MD: Rowman and Littlefield.]

D


According to Piaget, a child passes through four stages of cognitive development: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. The manipulation of symbols is an essential characteristic of the preoperational stage of development.


Answer A: This is more characteristic of the concrete operational stage.


Answer B: This usually doesn't occur until around age 7, when the child is in the concrete operational stage.

Answer C:This is characteristic of the sensorimotor period of development.

C


The child in the question is exhibiting insecure/avoidant attachment. Babies in the Ainsworth studies exhibiting insecure/avoidant attachment often had mothers who tend to be either very impatient and nonresponsive or, alternatively, overstimulating.


Answer A: Abuse and neglect are most associated with the disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern.


Answer B: Maternal depression may lead to insecure attachment, but you can't draw this conclusion from the information given (i.e., the mother may or may not be depressed).

Answer D: Single parenthood has not been linked to the insecure/avoidant attachment pattern.

A

The studies have consistently shown that children do not spontaneously and consistently use rehearsal until about age 9 or 10. The first-graders in one study could be taught to use rehearsal for a specific task; however, they did not generalize this knowledge to other tasks. [Keeney, T.J. et al. (1967). Spontaneous and induced verbal rehearsal in a recall task. Child Development, 38, 953-966].

C


Use of tobacco, alcohol, and/or marijuana (which are referred to as "gateway" drugs in the literature) is the single-best predictor of illicit drug use and drug abuse by adolescents. [See Pentz, M.A. (1994). Primary prevention of adolescent drug abuse. In C. B. Fisher and R. M. Lerner (Eds.), Applied developmental psychology. New York: McGraw-Hill].


Answer A: Although drug use by parents or other family members is a good predictor of adolescent drug abuse, it's not as accurate as prior drug use.


Answer B: This also is not as strong of a predictor as prior drug use.

Answer D: Depression is not as predictive as previous drug use.

B


One of the most commonly-cited studies on the outcomes for at-risk children is the longitudinal study by Werner and Smith (1982). [Werner, E. and Smith, R. (1982). Vulnerable but invincible. New York:McGraw-Hill]. That study and others have identified several factors that predict positive outcomes for high risk (vulnerable) children. Children with positive outcomes tend to be described as very active and socially responsive during infancy. Factors associated with a positive outcome are related to the child's ability to successfully elicit attention and appropriate care from his/her caretakers.


Answer A: While significantly lower-than-average IQs are associated with a poor outcome, many children with average IQs have a positive outcome.


Answer C: Learning disabilities (with or without special education) are associated with poorer outcomes.

Answer D: Many of the mothers in the Werner and Smith study worked outside the home. However, this did not seem to have a negative effect since the children often had close relationships with their grandmothers and/or siblings who acted as caretakers.

B


Piaget distinguished between two stages of moral development, heteronomous and autonomous. Children in the autonomous stage believe that rules can be changed by consensus.


Answer A: This belief is more characteristic of the heteronomous stage.


Answer C: This is more characteristic of the heteronomous stage.

Answer D: This doesn't describe the autonomous stage as accurately as response B.

D


To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to be aware that colorblindness is a recessive trait that is carried on the X chromosome. Since the gene for color blindness is carried on the X chromosome, colorblindness would have to come from the mother for sons and from both the mother and father for daughters. However, since there's no history of colorblindness in the mother's family, this will not occur.


Answer A: For a son to be colorblind, he would have to inherit the colorblind gene from his mother. This will not occur in this case since there is no history of colorblindness in Alice's family.


Answer B: For a daughter to be colorblind, she would have to inherit the colorblind gene from her father and her mother. Since there's no history of colorblindness in Alice's family, this would not occur. (However, a daughter would carry the trait if she inherits the gene from her father.)

Answer C: Since there is no history of color blindness in Alice's family, the child will not be colorblind.

A


The ability to imitate the behavior of a model after a time delay of hours or days is referred to as deferred imitation. Piaget believed that this does not occur until about 18 months of age and depends on the ability to represent objects and actions symbolically, i.e., to form a mental representation of the object or action.


Answer B: Assimilation refers to the incorporation of new information into existing knowledge. Although assimilation may be involved in the ability to imitate a model, it does not account for deferred imitation.


Answer C: Transductive (precausal) reasoning is one of the limitations of the preoperational stage and reflects an incomplete understanding of cause and effect.

Answer D: As defined by Piaget, centration is another limitation of the preoperational stage and refers to the tendency to focus on the most noticeable feature of an object.

C


The final stage in Erikson's stages of psychosocial development involves a conflict between integrity versus despair. Successful resolution of this conflict of late adulthood (ages 65 and over) involves developing a broader philosophical and moral perspective ("wisdom") that younger adults often lack.


Answer A: The development of a coherent identity is the goal of adolescence.


Answer B:Developing intimate relationships is a goal during young adulthood.

Answer D: "Hope" is not associated with this stage.

A


This is a difficult question since the visual cliff is probably most associated with the study of depth perception in infants. This has also been used to study attachment and other developmental phenomena. The mother's behavior is a variable in this study (she either smiles or makes a fearful face). If attachment has developed, the mother's facial expression will serve as a signal of safety or danger to the infant. This is referred to as social referencing.


Answer B: Empathy is not typically studied in infants, and therefore this answer could be eliminated, even without knowledge of the above research.


Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Knowing that the visual cliff experiment involves a decision to move across an apparent cliff, it is possible that this answer may be chosen as a guess, but the focus of this research is not on impulsivity.

Answer D: The visual cliff has not been studied as a test of infant temperament.

A


Baumrind distinguished between four parenting styles based on level of control and warmth. Rejecting/neglecting parents are low in control and low in warmth. Their children have the worst outcomes, e.g., they are antisocial, use drugs and alcohol, and score low on cognitive tests.


Answer B: Permissive/laissez faire parents are low in control and high in warmth. Their children also have poor outcomes but not as poor as those of children of rejecting/neglecting parents. They are immature, impulsive, and self-centered and low in achievement-orientation.


Answer C: Authoritarian parents are high in control and low in warmth. Their children tend to be aggressive, mistrusting, and dependent and have low levels of self-esteem and academic achievement.

Answer D: Authoritative parents are high in control and warmth. Their children have the best outcomes. They are mature, resilient, achievement-oriented, and responsible, and do well in school.

B


Piaget defined circular reactions as the behaviors that are responsible for the development and modification of cognitive schemas during the sensorimotor stage. These can be viewed as "miniature experiments" that involve engaging in specific actions to observe their consequences. He described these reactions as involving six substages, and this occurs in substage 5.


Answer A: This answer describes primary circular actions (substage 2).


Answer C:This answer describes secondary circular actions (substage 3).

Answer D: This answer describes coordinated secondary circular reactions (substage 4).

B

Skeletal age is a measure of bone maturation and is determined through X-rays of the long bones of the body, which provide information on the degree to which ossification (hardening of soft tissues into bones) has occurred. Girls are ahead of boys in terms of skeletal age from birth, and this gap increases throughout infancy in childhood and explains why girls reach their full height before boys do. [See, e.g., Berk, L.E.(2004). Development through the lifespan, Boston: Pearson Education.]

A


For the exam, note that Mischel and colleagues are well-known for their research on delay of gratification. Mischel and Metcalfe propose that delay of gratification is related to "hot" and "cool" systems in the brain. [Metcalfe, J., & Mischel, W. (1999). A hot/cool-system analysis of delay of gratification: Dynamics of willpower. Psychological Review, 106(1), 319.] The hot system is emotional and demands immediate gratification, while the cool system is cognitive and, in certain conditions, can divert attention away from the hot (arousal-based) features of a reward, resulting in an increased ability to delay gratification. According to these investigators, the hot system develops earlier than the cool system, which explains why the ability to delay gratification increases with increasing age.


Answer B: Rutter is best known for his research on risk and resilience. 

Answer C: Many researchers have studied aggression, however, Mischel and colleagues are more known to have studied delayed gratification. 

Answer D: Attitude is more general and many have researched the concept, but Mischel and colleagues are more known to have studied delayed gratification.

D


Newborns exhibit a number of reflexes that disappear within the first year of life. The Babinski reflex is also referred to as the plantar reflex and is one of a few early reflexes that does not seem to serve a function. It disappears at about 8 to 12 months of age.


Answer A: The root reflex (rooting) occurs when the corner of a baby's mouth is touched and, in response, the baby turns his/her head in the direction of the touch and opens his/her mouth.


Answer B: As its name implies, the palmar reflex (also known as the palmar grasp reflex) occurs when an object is placed in the palm of an infant's hand or his/her palm is stroked.

Answer C:The Moro reflex is also known as the startle reflex and occurs when, in response to a loud noise or sudden movement, the baby throws his/her head back, extends his/her arms and legs, and then brings his/her arms and legs inward. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four reflexes listed in the answers to this question.

B


Only one of the theorists listed emphasized the roles of both language and social interactions in cognitive development. Vygotsky's sociocultural theory focuses on the impact of language (e.g., the internalization of dialogues with peers and adults) and social interactions on cognitive development.


Answer A: Eleanor Gibson is best known for her studies on perceptual development in infants.


Answer C: Perry's research focused on changes in cognitive development from adolescence to early adulthood, and he distinguished between dualistic and relativistic thinking.

Answer D: Rutter is probably best known for his work on risk and resilience.

D


Children of depressed mothers are at higher risk for emotional and behavioral problems, although the exact nature and severity of the problems depend on several factors including early mother-child interactions. There is some evidence that signs of distress (e.g., elevated heart rate and greater right frontal lobe EEG asymmetry) are apparent by the time the infant is three months of age.


Answer A: This is the opposite of what is true.


Answer B: The effects of maternal depression are evident early, as indicated in response D.

Answer C: There are no indications that there is a variance of the effect based on age.

C

Internalization is a key concept in Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development. For example, he described language development as a process involving a transition from social (external) speech to private (self-directed) speech to internal speech. In other words, speech first serves a social function (social speech); is then used to direct, plan, and evaluate one's own actions (private speech); and then acts as a tool for thinking (internal speech).


Answer A: For Piaget, a symbol is an internalized sensory image or word that represents an event. Internalization of schemes is Piaget's sixth and final sensorimotor substage, which develops between 18 and 24 months of age. In this substage, the infant develops the ability to use primitive symbols. Although the similarity in terms makes this question difficult, there is a distinction between internalization of an operation and internalization of a symbol.Answer B: Erikson uses the term internalization in the context of personality development which, in his theory, takes place through a series of crises that must be overcome and internalized by the individual in preparation.

Answer D: Elkind extended Piaget’s work by identifying the specific characteristics of adolescent egocentrism.

B

The results of Gorchoff, John, and Helson's research confirmed earlier reports that marital satisfaction tends to increase when children leave home. The increase was due an increase in the quality of interactions with their partners rather than the quantity of time spent with their partners.. [Gorchoff, S.M., John, O.P. and Helson, R. (2008). Contextualizing marital satisfaction during middle age: An 18-year longitudinal study. Psychological Science, 19(11), 1194-2000.].

• C
• Data on child maltreatment are collected by the National Child Abuse and Neglect System (NCANDIS) from child protective services in all 50 states, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico. The 2012 data revealed that 80.3% of the perpetrators of child maltreatment were parents, with 88.5% of the parents being biological parents (U. S. Department of Health and Human Services (2012). Child Maltreatment. Washington, DC: U. S. Government Printing Office).

B

Patterson and his colleagues have found that parents of highly aggressive children tend to rely on physical punishment, frequently fail to connect their punishments to the child's behavior, do not state clear rules, and do not consistently punish violations of rules.

A


The Adult Attachment Interview categorizes respondents in terms of three main categories: autonomous, dismissing, and preoccupied. Dismissing individuals describe their parents in positive terms that are not substantiated by descriptions of actual interactions.


Answer B: Preoccupied individuals are confused, angry, or passively preoccupied with attachment figures.

Answer C: The Adult Attachment Interview includes a fourth category (unresolved/disorganized) that is assigned to respondents who have an unresolved experience related to loss or abuse. It is assigned in conjunction with one of the three categories listed above.

Answer D:This is not one of the scoring categories for the Adult Attachment Interview.

B

The NICHD research has found that participation in high-quality early child care is actually associated with enhanced pre-academic (cognitive) skills and language performance at age 4-1/2. However, children who attend daycare tend to exhibit a higher degree of externalizing behaviors and conflicts with adults even when quality, type, and stability of the daycare is controlled. However, these behaviors are within the normal range. [ National Institute of Child Health and Human Development [NICHD] Early Child Care Research Network. (2003). Does amount of time spent in child care predict socioemotional adjustment during the transition to kindergarten? Child Development, 74, 976-1005. ]


Answer A: The NICHD research found that children who attend daycare are not at higher risk for serious (clinical) behavioral problems.


Answer C: As noted above, participation in daycare is associated with better pre-academic and language skills.

Answer D: This is not correct.

D



Piaget proposed that the ability to form mental representations occurs at the end of the sensorimotor stage. From 18 to 24 months, the child is in this substage, which is characterized by the development of the ability to form internal representations of objects and events. (Note that some recent research suggests that deferred imitation and problem solving - which depend on mental representation - occur at an earlier age than Piaget proposed.)


Answer A: From 4 to 8 months of age, the child is in the secondary circular reactions substage of the sensorimotor stage.


Answer B:From 8 to 12 months, the child is in the coordinated secondary circular reactions substage.

Answer C:From 12 to 18 months, the child is in the tertiary circular reactions substage.

D


The Heinz dilemma required research participants to reason about a dilemma in which a man must choose between not stealing a drug and stealing the drug to save his wife's life.


Answer A: Incorrect. Clever Hans was a horse that was falsely claimed to have learned arithmetic.


Answer B: Incorrect. "Good boy/Good girl is not an example of Kohlberg's dilemma stories.

Answer C: Incorrect. Hawthorne refers to the phenomenon in which research subjects may be affected by an awareness of being studied.

B

Parents and researchers agree that infants exhibit a variety of emotions through their facial expressions. By 3 to 4 months of age, infants express at least four emotions through their facial expressions: interest, sadness, distress, and disgust. Anger, joy, surprise, and fear do not emerge until about 6 to 8 months.

• C
• Retinal disparity refers to the fact that our eyes see objects from two different viewpoints (one for each eye) and the closer an object is, the greater the two views differ.

Answer A: Convergence refers to the turning inward of the eyes as an object gets closer and the turning away of the eyes as an object gets farther away.

Answer B: Monocular cues contribute to depth perception for objects that are far away.

Answer D: Optic flow is the motion or pattern generated by an eye that is moving relative to the environment.

• B
• Risperidone is classified as an atypical antipsychotic and commonly used to treat Schizophrenia. Although extrapyramidal side effects may occur, they are much less common with risperidone than with the typical (traditional) antipsychotics.

Answer A: Weight gain and sexual dysfunction are common side effects of risperidone.

Answer C: Risperidone can produce NMS, although this side effect is rare.

Answer D: One problem with risperidone is that it has a delayed onset.

B

The fluid surrounding auditory hair cells is full of potassium.

• A
• Beta activity occurs when an individual is alert and attentive to events in the environment or is thinking actively.

Answer B: In the presence of some theta activity, the firing of neurons in the neocortex becomes more synchronized. This stage is a transition between sleep and wakefulness.

Answer C: Delta waves are slow, low-frequency brainwaves that are the dominant pattern of deep, NREM sleep.

Answer D: Alpha activity consists of regular, medium-frequency waves that occur when an individual is resting quietly.

• A
• Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex of the prefrontal cortex results in a condition known as pseudopsychopathy (or orbitofrontal disinhibition syndrome). Symptoms include aggressive outbursts, inappropriate sexual behavior, making lewd comments, and inappropriate joking.

Answer B: Incorrect. Damage to the mediofrontal area of the prefrontal cortex produces pseudodepression. Symptoms present as depression but without the negative cognitions, vegetative symptoms, or dysphoria that are characteristic of major depression.

Answer C: Damage to the somatosensory cortex affects the ability to sense pressure, temperature, pain, proprioception, and gustation.

Answer D: Damage to the dorsolateral area of the prefrontal cortex results in impaired organization, planning, and insight.

• C
• The hypothalamus has been linked to a number of functions including maintaining the body's homeostasis, regulating the release of hormones from the pituitary and other endocrine glands, and mediating aggressive responses. Lesions in certain areas of the hypothalamus (including the medial hypothalamus) have been linked to rage reactions and other forms of aggressive behavior.

Answer A: Indifference and apathy are the likely consequences of lesions in certain areas in the right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex.

Answer B: Memory loss can be caused by damage to the hippocampus, thalamus, or prefrontal cortex.

Answer D: Receptive (Wernicke's) aphasia is caused by damage to Wernicke's area, which is located in the dominant temporal lobe.

A

Research on brain plasticity has shown that left hemisphere damage during early childhood does not usually produce clinically significant language dysfunction. A young child who sustains damage to the language areas in the left hemisphere may show delays in language development but, in most cases, will eventually exhibit language abilities within the low-normal to normal range due to the assumption of language functions by the right hemisphere. However, the child may also experience deficits in some right-hemisphere functions as a result and/or a drop in IQ.

B

The symptoms listed in this question are characteristic of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a rare disorder that can occur with any class of neuroleptic agents. NMS can be fatal unless it is recognized early and the medication is immediately stopped.

• C
• The circle of willis is the joining area of several arteries that supply oxygenated blood to most of the cerebrum. The other answer options are more directly involved in regulating sexual behavior. 

Answer A: Endorphins are neurotransmitters that have been implicated in pleasurable experiences, learning and memory, as well as sexual behavior.

Answer B: During sexual activity, the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system mediates erection in males while the sympathetic branch stimulates ejaculation.

Answer D: Serotonin is a neurotransmitter involved in sexual activity and arousal, among other things.

• D
• Split-brain patients have had their corpus collosum severed, usually as a treatment for severe epilepsy. A primary function of the corpus collosum is to transfer sensory (and some motor) information from one hemisphere to the other. When the corpus callosum is severed, messages from the right brain cannot be transferred to the left brain and visa versa. This deficit is most apparent in tasks involving sensory input.

• A
• You may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question by knowing that "chroma" refers to color. Total color blindness, or complete achromatopsia, is an autosomal recessive disorder that is caused by a lack of functioning of the cone cells.

Answer B: Akinetopsia is the inability to perceive moving objects as the result of brain damage.

Answer C: Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar faces.

Answer D: Color agnosia is the inability to name or discriminate between colors.

• D
• Grave's Disease is also known as hyperthyroidism. This occurs when the thyroid produces too much thyroxine. Symptoms include a sped-up metabolism, elevated body temperature, heat intolerance, increased appetite with weight loss, agitation, reduced attention span, fatigue, and emotional liability.

Answer A:  Hypoglycemia is low blood glucose. Symptoms include dizziness, hunger, headaches, blurred vision, palpitations, anxiety, and confusion.

Answer B: Hypothyroidism is the opposite of Grave's Disease. It occurs from reduced secretion of thyroxine and symptoms include slowed metabolism, reduced appetite with weight gain, low body temperature, lethargy, depression, apathy, and impaired memory and concentration.

Answer C: Excessive blood glucose leads to diabetes mellitus. When left untreated it can cause increased appetite with weight loss, polyuria, polydipsia, increased infection, apathy, and mental dullness.

C

An action potential (nerve impulse) occurs when a neuron "fires", i.e., when an electrical signal is sent through the axon and triggers the release of a neurotransmitter from the axon terminal into the synaptic cleft. An action potential is caused by the exchange of ions across the neurons' semipermeable membrane. Specifically, with sufficient stimulation, the cell's sodium channels open and sodium ions rush into the cell, creating a state of depolarization (which means that the neuron has become more positively charged). Subsequently, the cell's potassium channels open and the potassium rushes out of the cell, which reverses the depolarization and causes repolarization of the cell.

B

The pituitary gland secretes gonadotropic hormones.

Answer A: The ovaries secrete progesterone in females. In males, the testes produce progesterone.

Answer C: The testes secrete two types of androgens: testosterone and androstenedione.

Answer D: The ovaries secrete estrogen in females. In males, estrogen is secreted by the testes.

C

Hypoglycemia is caused by low blood glucose. It can be a condition by itself, a complication of diabetes, severe liver disease, a pancreatic tumor, or as a result of using drugs.

Answer A: Anemia is a condition where the body lacks enough healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to the body's tissues. Symptoms include fatigue, pale or yellowish skin, chest pain, cold hands and feet, and dizziness.

Answer B: Hemophilia is an inherited bleeding disorder where the blood does not clot properly. This can lead to spontaneous bleeding as well as bleeding following injuries or surgery.

Answer D: Hyperglycemia occurs when the body has high blood glucose. Symptoms include nausea and vomiting, weakness, shortness of breath, fruity-smelling breath, and abdominal pain.

A

Parkinson's disease is due to a progressive degeneration of dopamine-containing cells in the substantia nigra, which affects other parts of the brain. Parkinson's symptoms include shaking, stiffness, difficulty with walking and balance and coordination.

C

Severing the corpus callosum means that signals cannot pass from one hemisphere to another, which leads to serious coordination problems but does not cause anterograde amnesia. Answers A, B, and D are strongly linked to anterograde amnesia.

Answer A: Removal of the medial temporal lobes, which include the hippocampus, is a treatment for severe epilepsy and causes anterograde and retrograde amnesia for events occurring up to 3 years prior to the surgery.

Answer B: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome begins with Wernicke's encephalopathy (mental confusion, abnormal eye movements, and ataxia). It is then followed by Korsakoff's syndrome, which involves anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation.

Answer D: A closed-head TBI usually causes a loss of consciousness followed by anterograde and retrograde amnesia.

D

There is evidence that tardive dyskinesia is related to dopamine oversensitivity and/or GABA depletion. There is evidence that dopamine depleting drugs alleviate some symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.

Answer A: Research on serotonin has found that SSRIs and other serotonergic drugs are not useful as a treatment for TD.

Answer B: In fact, the opposite is true-drugs that decrease norepinephrine levels suppress the symptoms of TD.

Answer C: Drugs that increase GABA (e.g. GABA agonists) have beneficial effects for many patients with TD.

C

Migraine headaches are more common in females than males and have been linked with certain personality characteristics. The onset of migraines typically occurs between puberty and mid-life and personality traits that have been linked to migraines include perfectionism, neatness, restraint, and ambitiousness.

C

Loss of sensation due to brain injury is likely to involve the somatosensory cortex. The somatosensory cortex is located on the postcentral gyrus in the parietal lobe.

Answer A: The lateral fissure separates the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobe. Damage to this area would not result in loss of sensation in the fingers.

Answer B: Damage to the precentral gyrus would result in impairment with execution of movement.

Answer D: The precentral sulcus divides the inferior, middle, and superior frontal gyri from the precentral gyrus. Damage to the sulcus can result in language and speech problems.

A

Huntington's disease (chorea) is a basal ganglia disorder, and the basal ganglia are involved in the control of motor movements. The caudate nucleus and putamen are structures of the basal ganglia and have been found to be the brain areas most severely affected by Huntington's disease.

Answer B: Damage to the suprachiasmatic nucleus would impact circadian rhythms and the sleep-wake cycle.

Answer C: Atrophy to the septum would result in impulse control issues and possibly addictive disorders.

Answer D: The medulla regulates vital functions like breathing, heartbeat, and blood pressure. Damage to this area is cause for serious concern and can be fatal.

D

Proliferation is the production of new cells. Early in development, cells lining the ventricles of the brain divide.

Answer A: Synaptogenesis is the formation of synapses that continues throughout life.

Answer B: After axons form, myelination occurs. This is the formation of the myelin sheath. Myelin sheaths are made of myelin, and myelin is produced by different types of neuroglia.

Answer C: Migration is the directed movement of a single or group of cells toward their eventual destination in the brain after proliferation occurs.

D

A simple partial seizure begins on one side of the brain and affects only one side of the body. A loss of consciousness does not occur.

Answer A: Absence seizures are usually brief (less than 15 seconds), sudden lapses of consciousness without prominent motor symptoms. There is a quick return to a normal level of alertness.

Answer B: Atonic seizures involve a sudden loss of muscle strength that can cause the individual to fall to the ground.

Answer C: Clonic seizures are characterized by repeated jerking movements of the arms and legs on one or both sides of the body, sometimes accompanied by numbness or tingling.

B

Anticholinergic drugs block the action of a neurotransmitter called acetylcholine. This inhibits nerve impulses responsible for involuntary muscle movements and various bodily functions.

Answer A: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have a relatively low anticholinergic effect.

Answer C: Glycine is an amino acid that the body is able to produce on its own. It is needed for the growth and maintenance of tissue and for making certain hormones and enzymes.

Answer D: Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter that is released by nerve cells in the brain and plays an important role in learning and memory.

B

Wernicke's area is the region of the brain that is important for language development. It is located in the temporal lobe on the left side of the brain and is responsible for the comprehension of speech.

Answer A: The occipital lobe is primarily responsible for vision.

Answer C: The frontal lobe is part of the brain that controls important cognitive skills such as emotional expression, problem-solving, memory, language, judgment, and sexual behaviors.

Answer D: The parietal lobe contains the primary sensory cortex, which controls sensation (i.e., touch and pressure).

D



Holland distinguished between six personality/occupational themes. A person who scores high on the realistic theme enjoys and may be satisfied by technical, physical, mechanical, and/or outdoor activities.


Answer A: A person who scores high on the investigative theme has scientific, mathematical, analytic, or scholarly interests.


Answer B: Mechanical is not one of Holland's themes.

Answer C: A person who scores high on the conventional theme has interests in keeping records, organizing data, attending to detail, or following through on others' instructions.

B



The WPT is a short-form test of general mental ability. It is well-known for its use in business settings and by the NFL to assess players in the pre-draft season.


Answer A: The SII is an assessment that helps individuals identify their work personality by exploring their interests in six broad areas: realistic, investigative, social, enterprising, and conventional (often referred to as RIASEC).


Answer C: The 16PF is a trait-based assessment that measures 16 factors of an individual's personality that predicts work behavior, communication, and performance.

Answer D: The MBTI assessment is a questionnaire that measures psychological preferences in how individuals perceive the world and make decisions.

A

Horn and Cattell divided general intellectual ability into two components: crystallized and fluid. Crystallized intelligence refers to acquired knowledge and skills, is affected by educational and cultural experiences, and includes reading and numerical skills and factual knowledge. Language comprehension is a measure of crystallized intelligence.

A



The CARS is a paired-comparison rating task that uses adaptive testing principles to present pairs of scaled behavioral statements to the rater.


Answer B: The CAT is testing where the computer software chooses and presents the examinee with harder or easier questions as the test progresses, depending on how well the previous questions are answered.


Answer C: The BARS is a type of performance appraisal that uses behaviors as anchors where the rater chooses the behavior that is most representative of the employee's performance.

Answer D: The CSAQ is a method of collecting survey data that takes advantage of computer technology to create an instrument that allows an examinee to complete the survey with little to no human assistance.

D



Knowing that SAT refers to the Scholastic Assessment Test may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT) is used to predict the college success of high school seniors to facilitate admissions and scholarship decisions. It consists of two parts -- the SAT Reasoning Test and the SAT Subject Tests.


Answer A: The Strong Interest Inventory (SII) and the Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) are used to assist individuals in choosing an occupation.


Answer B: Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS) can be used to help individuals choose an occupation or a college major based on identified interests. The survey includes scores on four scales, including the Occupational Scales, College Major Scales, Vocational Interest Estimates, and Dependability Indices.

Answer C: The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) is used to predict the graduate school success of college seniors.

B



The Tower of London measures attention, working memory, and executive functioning, particularly inhibition. It requires the examinee to move disks, one at a time, so that they end up in a particular goal configuration. Poor performance has been linked to frontal lobe damage, ADHD, autism, and depression.

Answer A: The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is used to assess the ability to form abstract concepts and shift cognitive strategies in response to feedback. It requires the examinee to sort response cards using a sorting strategy that is not disclosed; and the examinee is given feedback by the examiner about whether their strategy is "right" or "wrong."


Answer C: The Tower of London is a variation of the Tower of Hanoi puzzle which consists of three rods and a number of disks of different sizes, which can slide onto any rod. The puzzle starts with the disks in a neat stack in ascending order of size on one rod, the smallest at the top, thus making a conical shape. The objective of the puzzle is to move the entire stack to another rod, while obeying three simple rules. Research suggests that this task is less correlated with inhibition than the Tower of London. As such, Tower of London is the best answer.

Answer D: The Tower of Brahma is another name for the Tower of Hanoi, on which the Tower of London is based.

C

The Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) theory of cognitive abilities combines the Cattell-Horn theory of fluid and crystallized intelligence and Carroll's three stratum theory of intelligence. It has influenced the development of several intelligence tests, including the fifth edition of the Stanford-Binet. The CHC theory distinguishes between 10 broad-stratum cognitive abilities and over 70 narrow-stratum cognitive abilities, with each broad ability being composed of several related, but distinct, narrow abilities. The ten broad abilities are fluid intelligence, crystallized intelligence, quantitative knowledge, reading/writing ability, short-term memory, visual processing, auditory processing, long-term storage and retrieval, processing speed, and correct decision speed/reaction time.

D



There are two important goals when interviewing and assessing children: establishing rapport and maintaining the child's cooperation. It has been suggested that using descriptive statements, using reflection, providing labeled praise, and avoiding critical statements can be helpful. Providing labeled praise indicates approval and helps guide and encourage the child to behavior in a particular way.


Answer A: Praising the child upon giving correct answers is equivalent to giving the child feedback during the assessment, which could potentially invalidate the outcome. This differs from labeled praise, as labeled praise guides behavior without responding to specific answers.


Answer B: Criticism elicits negative emotional reactions and defensiveness from children and disrupts the development of rapport. Better tactics for altering undesirable behavior are to make rule-based corrections ("One of the rules in this room is that ..."), to make invitational statements ("Come and sit at the table"), and to ignore the behavior.

Answer C: Using closed-ended questions can be unhelpful, unless you are trying to clarify a response, as they can be leading and limit information obtained. Open-ended questions are more helpful, as they elicit a greater amount of information from the child and reduce the likelihood that they will be led to accept the interviewer's conclusions.

B



Most scoring and interpretation systems for the Rorschach involve looking at the examinee's responses in regard to location, determinants, form quality, content, and popularity/frequency of occurrence. Form quality refers to the degree to which an examinee's response matches the actual form (shape) of the inkblot and provides information on the degree of congruence between the examinee's response and reality.


Answer A: This response refers to determinants.


Answer C: This response refers to location.

Answer D: This response refers to developmental quality.

B



Conflict can be defused by focusing on a common, "superordinate" goal shared by the parties.


Answer A: Involved explanations of psychological processes have not been shown to be effective in reducing conflict.


Answer C: Sometimes, persuasive information is effective in reducing conflict. However, this information should be factual, not false. In addition, the receiving party must be willing to consider the information; such willingness is unlikely with gang members.

Answer D: This does not factor into the correct answer.

D



Deaux and Emswiller (1974) found that attributions related to achievement vary, depending on the sex of the achiever. Specifically, they found that: 1. both males and females viewed ability as the cause of success for males on traditionally masculine tasks, 2. both males and females viewed luck as the cause of success for females on traditionally masculine tasks, 3. both males and females viewed ability as the cause of success for males and females on traditionally feminine tasks. Jack's success in both fixing a transmission (a traditionally masculine task) and decorating (a traditionally feminine task) will be attributed to ability; Jane's success in sewing (a traditionally feminine task) will be attributed to ability, but her success in cutting down a tree (a traditionally masculine task) will be attributed to luck.

Answers A: Jack's success in decorating will be attributed to ability, not luck.

Answer B: Jack's success in decorating will be attributed to ability, not luck.

Answer C: Jane's success in sewing will be attributed to ability, not luck.

C

Most studies support the principle of "mood congruency." Except in special circumstances (e.g., when current mood is attributed to an experimental manipulation), there is a consistent relationship between affect and cognition. People in a positive mood perceive, encode, and retrieve positive information more efficiently, while people in a negative mood perceive, encode, and retrieve negative information more efficiently.

A

This question is an example of the two or three "distant galaxy" questions that you're likely to encounter on the licensing exam. J. Hewig et al. found males and females both gazed at the face of a member of the opposite sex for the longest period of time. These findings are consistent with previous research using other methodologies. (Gender differences for specific body regions when looking at men and women, Journal of Nonverbal Behavior, 32(2), 67-78, 2008.)

A

A number of factors influence whether bystanders will assist the apparent victim of an accident, crime, or other emergency situation, including the number of bystanders present. Research has found that bystanders are less likely to offer help when in the presence of others than when alone. The greater the number of bystanders, the less likely anyone will offer assistance.

A

Byrne's law of attraction proposes that there is positive linear relationship between level of attraction and similarity in attitudes. (The attraction paradigm, New York, Academic Press, 1971.) Byrne proposes that people are reinforced for interacting with others who have similar attitudes because doing so confirms their effectiveness in interpreting the world and produces positive affect.

B



Much research has been conducted on communicator, audience, and message characteristics that influence whether a listener is likely to be persuaded. Research suggests that listeners are better able to resist a persuasive message if they have been forewarned about its content.


Answer A: "Accidental" messages are associated with greater attitude change than intended messages.

Answer C: A communicator arguing against his/her own best interest is more likely to change the attitudes of listeners than a communicator arguing to advance his/her own interests.

Answer D: A moderate discrepancy in position between the listener and communicator is associated with greater attitude change than either a high or low discrepancy.

B

Kahneman and Tversky (1984) identified the four heuristics (mental shortcuts) listed in the answers. The representativeness heuristic involves judging the likelihood or frequency of an event based on the extent to which it resembles (represents) and is similar to the original event.

C



Studies on the relationship between gender and the effects of crowding have produced somewhat inconsistent results. A review of the research indicates that the inconsistencies are due largely to the setting in which the research was conducted. Women tend to respond better than men in crowded laboratory (experimental) situations, while men do better in naturalistic settings.

Answers A, B, and D: Research has shown that, despite mixed results, women appear to cope better with crowding in lab settings, while men cope better with crowding in more natural settings.

C

The "elaboration likelihood model " (Petty and Cacioppo, 1980), distinguishes between central and peripheral processing routes. A person is more likely to use the central processing route when he/she is highly motivated. Relevance of the message affects this motivation.


Answer A: Locus of control is not part of the elaboration likelihood model.


Answer B: This situation is more likely to lead to peripheral processing.

Answer D: A weak message is more likely to result in peripheral processing.

D



The more statistical comparisons made within a research study, the greater the likelihood of making a Type I error. By using the MANOVA to simultaneously assess the effects of one or more independent variable(s) on two or more dependent variables, the fewer the total number of statistical comparisons, and the lower the probability of making a Type I error. (The word "error" in the term experiment wise error rate refers to a Type I error.)


Answer A: To maximize experimental variance, a researcher will control extraneous variance and minimize error variance. This is unrelated to the issue of the higher probability of making a Type I error from making multiple comparisons or controlling for experiment wise error.


Answer B: Researchers use random sampling to control for extraneous variables and is unrelated to the issue of the higher probability of making a Type I error from making multiple comparisons or controlling for experiment wise error.

Answer C: Increasing statistical power is often accomplished by increasing the sample size and unrelated to the issue of the higher probability of making a Type I error from making multiple comparisons or controlling for experiment wise error.

C



To answer this question correctly, you need to know that an interaction occurs when the effects of one independent variable differ for different levels of another independent variable. Because the interaction is significant, this means that the effects of training type may differ for different levels of self-efficacy (i.e., training method #1 might be most effective for people with low self-efficacy, while training method #2 might be most effective for people with high self-efficacy).


Answer A: This is only reflective of a main effect for the training variable, and does not account for the main effect of the self-efficacy variable or the interaction effect. Because the interaction is significant, this means that the effects of training type may differ for different levels of self-efficacy.


Answer B: This does not address the interaction effect. Because the interaction is significant, this means that the effects of training type may differ for different levels of self-efficacy.

Answer D: Based on the information provided in the question, there are significant main effects for both training type and level of self-efficacy, indicating that the training is effective regardless of level of self-efficacy. Because the interaction is also significant, this means that the effects of training type may differ for different levels of self-efficacy, meaning certain combinations of training and level of self-efficacy will be more effective than others. It does not indicate it is only effective for certain levels of self-efficacy.

A



Alpha is also known as the level of significance and its value is set by the researcher prior to analyzing the data collected in a research study. Alpha determines the probability of making a Type I error, which occurs when a researcher rejects a true null hypothesis.


Answer B: One minus alpha is the probability of retaining a true null hypothesis.


Answer C: Beta is hypothetical (i.e., it is not set by the researcher) and refers to the probability of making a Type II error, which occurs when a researcher retains a false null hypothesis.

Answer D: One minus beta is also hypothetical. It refers to the probability of rejecting a false null hypothesis and is also referred to as power.

C



In a skewed distribution, the distribution is asymmetrical and the mean, median and mode have different values due to the presence of a few outliers in the positive or negative end of the distribution. In a negatively skewed distribution, the mean is affected most by the few outliers in the negative (low) end of the distribution and has the lowest value.


Answer A: The term leptokurtic is used to describe a distribution of scores that is more "peaked" than the normal distribution.


Answer B: The term platykurtic is used to describe a distribution of scores that is flatter than the normal distribution.

Answer D: In a positively skewed distribution, the mean is larger than the median which is larger than the mode.

B


A moderator variable affects the direction or strength of the relationship between independent and dependent variables. For example, if the results of a research study indicate that EMG biofeedback is more effective for tension headaches than for migraine or cluster headaches, type of headache is a moderator variable (i.e., type of headache moderates the effects of EMG feedback on headache symptoms).


Answer A: This describes a mediator variable.


Answer C: This refers to a type of research design and does not describe a moderator variable.

Answer D: In correlational research, the dependent (outcome) variable is often referred to as the criterion variable.

A


Knowing that statistical power is affected by sample size would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. A common use of power analysis is to determine the minimum sample size needed, given the desired level of power, type of statistical test, level of significance, and expected effect size.


Answer B: Meta-analysis is a statistical practice of combining data from multiple studies where the treatment is consistent.


Answer C: Incremental analysis is not a statistical term.

Answer D: Sensitivity analysis is not a statistical term.

B



In this situation, multiple X scores will be used to predict multiple Y scores. Canonical correlation is an extension of multiple regression and is appropriate when there is more than one Y variable.


Answer A: You would choose multiple regression when using scores on two or more X variables to predict a single Y score.


Answer C: You would use multiple discriminant analysis when the Y variable is nominal and two or more X variables will be used to place the examinee into a category on Y.

Answer D: You would use cluster analysis to identify or confirm homogeneous subgroups.

C



About 95% of scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus two standard deviations from the mean. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the areas under the normal curve so that you can answer questions like this one. See the Statistics and Research Design chapter for a description of areas under the normal curve.


Answer A: About 95% of scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus two standard deviations from the mean.


Answer B: About 68% of scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus one standard deviation from the mean. About 95% of scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus two standard deviations from the mean.

Answer D: About 99% of scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus three standard deviations from the mean, whereas roughly 95% of scores fall between the scores that are plus and minus two standard deviations from the mean.

C


The Solomon four-group design combines the pre-test/posttest control group design with the post test only control group design. The purpose of Solomon four-group design is to evaluate the effects of pretesting on a study's internal and external validity.


Answer A: Techniques like using alternate forms can help reduce practice effects.


Answer B: Researchers use techniques like deception to help reduce demand characteristics.

Answer D: To help control for selection bias, researchers use random selection from subgroups of the population to assist with ensuring they are representative of the larger population.

D


In this situation, you are correlating a variable representing a true dichotomy (pregnant versus not pregnant) with a variable representing a ratio (continuous) scale of measurement (number of stress events). The point biserial correlation coefficient is appropriate when one variable is a true dichotomy and the other is continuous.


Answer A: The Pearson r is appropriate when both variables are measured on a continuous scale.


Answer B: Spearman rho is appropriate when both variables are expressed in terms of ranks. In this question, neither variable is measured using a rank order.

Answer C: The biserial correlation coefficient is used when one variable is an artificial dichotomy (a continuous variable that has been artificially or arbitrarily dichotomized) and the other variable is continuous.

C



Whenever a researcher draws a sample from a population, there is a good chance that the sample will not be entirely representative of that population. As a result of random (chance) factors, the sample may not "mirror" the population in terms of important characteristics. This is referred to as sampling error.


Answer A: Test reliability refers to the degree to which a test measures a characteristic consistently and dependably. Sampling error is the result of random (chance) factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample.


Answer B: Test validity refers to the degree to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure. Sampling error is the result of random (chance) factors that produce a nonrepresentative sample.

Answer D: Sampling error is a result of random (chance) factors, NOT non-random factors that produce a non-representative sample.

D


This is the only response that does not describe an advantage of either multiple regression or the ANOVA, which makes it the correct response. At least one reason for R. A. Fisher's development of the ANOVA was to have a mathematically simpler alternative to multiple regression for analyzing the effects of qualitative variables. However, with the availability of computers, the need for the ANOVA has been questioned.


Answer A: This is an advantage of multiple regression. All of the information is provided with a single analysis as opposed to the two-step process required when using the ANOVA.


Answer B: This is also an advantage of multiple regression. It can be used for independent variables measured on any scale of measurement and doesn't require that continuous variables be categorized (which has the effect of reducing the usefulness of the data).

Answer C: The "stepwise" method of multiple regression does have this advantage.

C


The accuracy of a predictor can be described in terms of its sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value. A predictor's sensitivity refers to the proportion of individuals in the validation sample who have the characteristic measured by the predictor and were accurately identified by the predictor as having that characteristic. It provides an index of the predictor's ability to identify true positives. Sensitivity is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the number of true positives plus false negatives.


Answer A: A predictor's positive predictive value indicates the probability that an individual identified as a positive is a true positive. It is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the number of true and false positives.


Answer B: A predictor's negative predictive value indicates the probability that an individual identified as a negative is a true negative. It is calculated by dividing the number of true negatives by the number of true and false negatives.

Answer D: A predictor's specificity refers to the proportion of individuals in the validation sample without the characteristic measured by the predictor who were correctly identified by the predictor as not having that characteristic. It provides an index of the predictor's ability to identify true negatives. Specificity is calculated by dividing the number of true negatives by the number of true negatives plus false positives.

D

In factor analysis, a test's communality indicates its "common variance," or the amount of variability in test scores that is explained by the factors that the test shares in common with the other tests included in the analysis. A test's communality is interpreted directly as the amount of variability in test scores explained by the identified factors. Therefore, when the communality is .40, this means that 40% of the variability in test scores is explained by the identified factors.

A


The Spearman-Brown formula is also known as the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula and is used to estimate the effects of adding or subtracting items to a test on its reliability coefficient. For example, if a 50-item test has a reliability coefficient of .80, the Spearman-Brown formula could be used to estimate what the test's reliability coefficient would be if the number of items was doubled.


Answer B: This describes the correction for attenuation formula.


Answer C: The standard error of measurement is used to construct a confidence interval around an examinee's obtained test score. The confidence interval indicates the range within which the examinees true score is likely to fall.

Answer D: The coefficient of multiple determination provides this information.

B

When factors are orthogonal (uncorrelated), a test's factor loadings can be squared and summed to calculate the communality (the amount of variability in test scores explained by the identified factors). Test A's communality is equal to .40 squared (.16) plus .30 squared (.09), which is .25.

B

The criterion-related validity coefficient is interpreted like any other correlation coefficient for two variables -- i.e., it is squared to obtain a measure of shared variability. A validity coefficient of .70 indicates that 49% (.70 squared) of variability is shared by the predictor and criterion -- or, put another way, that 49% of variability in criterion scores is explained by variability in predictor scores.

A



A measure has content validity when its items represent the content (or behavior) domain the test was designed to measure.


Answer B: This technique would be used to establish construct or criterion-related validity.


Answer C: This describes concurrent validity (a type of criterion-related validity).

Answer D: This describes predictive validity (another type of criterion-related validity).

D



If the characteristic measured by a test fluctuates over time (i.e., is a "state"), it would not be appropriate to assess the test's reliability using a method that requires administering the test (or alternative forms of the test) at different times. A coefficient of internal consistency would be appropriate for a test that measures a characteristic that fluctuates over time since it requires administering the test only once.


Answer A: A coefficient of equivalence is obtained when equivalent forms reliability is used. In most cases, it is necessary to administer the different forms at different times; therefore, this method would not be the best for a test that measures a characteristic that fluctuates over time.


Answer B: The coefficient of stability is obtained when using test-retest reliability, which would also be inappropriate for a measure of a characteristic that fluctuates over time.

Answer C: The coefficient of determination is not a measure of reliability.

C

To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that z-scores indicate how far a raw score is below or above the mean. In this distribution, the mean is 120 and the standard deviation is 12. Therefore, a raw score of 138 is 1.5 standard deviations above the mean and is equivalent to a z-score of 1.5.

B

To calculate the 68% confidence interval, one standard error is added to and subtracted from the examinee's test score. Adding and subtracting 5 (the standard error) to and from the examinee's score of 103 produces a confidence interval that ranges from 98 to 108.

A



To answer this question, you need to know that the "coefficient of stability" is another name for the test-retest reliability coefficient. The coefficient of stability indicates the degree of consistency (reliability) of a test across time.


Answer B: The alternate forms reliability coefficient is also called the coefficient of equivalence when the two forms are administered to the same group of examinees at the same time.

Answer C: This is incorrect, as a coefficient of stability is a measure of reliability, not validity.

Answer D: This is incorrect, as a coefficient of stability is a measure of reliability, not validity.