EPPP - Psychological Assessment - Domain Quiz

B

The WAIS-IV is often used to assist in the diagnosis of traumatic brain injury (TBI). The Processing Speed score is most adversely affected by TBI, with the negative impact being most pronounced for individuals with moderate to severe TBI.

Answer A: Although memory is affected by TBI, the Working Memory score tends to be less adversely affected than the Processing Speed score.

Answer C: Perceptual Reasoning is less adversely affected than Processing Speed.

Answer D: Verbal Comprehension is less adversely affected than Processing Speed.

A

The Glasgow Coma Scale is a 15-point scale that assesses level of consciousness through visual, verbal, and motor responses.

Answer B: The Global Deterioration Scale is a measure of cognitive functioning that is useful for assessing individuals with Alzheimer's dementia or other types of primary degenerative dementia.

Answer C: The Trail Making Test is a measure of motor speed, visual attention, and cognitive flexibility.

Answer D: The Neuropsychiatric Inventory Questionnaire (NPI-Q) is a screening test for dementia.

C

Self-report is a form of data collection in which the participant or client themselves provides the targeted information. Self-Report, including the use of surveys, is one of the most common ways social scientists collect data from a large group of people. The advantages of self-report methods are quick production and scoring and low cost. The greatest disadvantages can be weak validity and weak reliability.

Answer A: Psychophysiological measures are used to observe physiological functions (heart rate, skin perspiration, facial muscles, etc.) which can often describe the emotional state of an individual. The physiological reactions are monitored and measured using sensors attached to the participant. As psychophysiological measures were not used in this scenario, this response is incorrect.

Answer B: Direct observation, also known as "observational study", is a method of collecting evaluative information in which the evaluator watches the participant in their usual environment without altering that environment. As direct observation was not used in this scenario, this response is incorrect.

Answer D: Interviews require researchers to directly ask open ended or close ended questions, noting each category can lead to various answers and thus add to the quality of the data. Structured interviews are typically easy to replicate as there are a fixed set of closed questions that are used, which means it is easy to test for reliability. As structured interviews were not used in this scenario, this response is incorrect.

B

There are a variety of advantages associated with technology in regard to assessing and diagnosing individuals, including decreasing costs of administration of assessments and increasing efficiency by bypassing challenges encountered with traditional evaluation (e.g., data entry and administration).

Answer A: This response is not correct, as not all clients will be familiar with technology or find it easy to use.

Answer C: While greater security measures may be put in place through the use of technology, cyber infiltration has increased over time. Thus, this response is incorrect.

Answer D: This response is incorrect because numerous people do not have access to a computer or sufficient internet service.

B

The K Scale is considered to be a "suppressor variable" since scores correlate with defensiveness, education level, and socioeconomic status, which are unrelated to what is measured by the clinical scales but impact scores on those scales. A high score indicates a desire to "fake good" or responding "false" to all items and is associated with resistance and poor treatment prognosis. A very low score suggests excessive frankness, self-criticism, or a desire to "fake bad."

Answer A: A F-score of 100 or higher on this scale suggests an invalid profile. A low score may indicate an attempt to "fake good," a tendency toward social conformity, denial of problems, or an absence of significant psychopathology.

Answer C: A high score on the L scale indicates the examinee's attempt to present themself in a favorable light or the examinee's lack of insight into their motivation. A low score suggests frankness in responding, exaggeration of negative characteristics, or independence.

Answer D: The Fb scale is used to identify an attempt to "fake bad" on the last 197 items of the MMPI-2 and is interpreted similarly to the F scale.

C

Administration of the SB5 begins with the routing subtests, Object Series/Matrices, which is nonverbal, and Vocabulary, which is verbal.

Answer A: Digit span is a working memory subtest on the WAIS-IV. Vocabulary is a subtest of verbal comprehension on the WAIS-IV.

Answer B: Symbol search is a core subtest on the WAIS-IV that measures an individuals processing speed. Block design is a non-verbal task on the WAIS-IV that measures the perceptual reasoning ability of an individual.

Answer D: Procedural knowledge is a nonverbal subtest domain on the SB5 that measures knowledge. Delayed response is a subtest that measures an individual's working memory based on a series of nonverbal tasks completed on the SB5.

D

The cohort effect refers to the confounding effects of intergenerational differences in experience or other characteristics. Cohort effects can be a source of error in cross-sectional studies. In the study described in this question, the colleague predicts research findings will be confounded by differences in computer experience related to differences in age.

Answer A: The Rosenthal effect, or self-fulfilling prophecy effect, is not relevant to this situation.

Answer B: The Hawthorne effect refers to the tendency of research participants to act in atypical ways because they are participating in a research study (e.g., because of the novelty of the situation or the special attention they are receiving).

Answer C: A carryover effect is a potential problem in within-subjects research. It occurs when exposure to one level of an independent variable impacts how participants respond to another level of the independent variable.

C

Raven's Progressive Matrices are nonverbal measures of general intelligence (g). The tests require the examinee to solve problems involving abstract figures and designs by indicating which of several alternatives complete a given matrix.

Answer A: Raven's Progressive Matrices are not assessments of simultaneous and sequential processing.

Answer B: While reasoning capabilities influence performance on Raven's Progressive Matrices, the measures assess general intelligence not specific to inductive and deductive reasoning.

Answer D: Although they are considered culture-fair tests, Raven's Progressive Matrices do not evaluate academic achievement.

B

Testing the limits is a form of dynamic assessment done after the standard administration of an assessment measure to obtain additional qualitative information about an examinee and/or determine if they may benefit from assistance or instruction. It involves deviating from standardized testing procedures and may include giving the examinee additional cues, suggestions, or feedback.

Answer A: Testing the limits does not refer to providing formal instruction/training before reassessing.

Answer C: Testing the limits is not associated with determining the accuracy of test results for predicting performance.

Answer D: Testing the limits is not used to determine the accuracy of results.

B

Scale 4 on the MMPI-2 is the Psychopathic Deviate scale and Scale 9 is the Hypomania scale. The 4-9/9-4 code (highest scores on Scales 4 and 9) is associated with alcohol and substance abuse, antisocial behavior, and/or impulsivity.

Answer A: The 2-6/6-2 code (highest scores on Scales 2 and 6, Depression and Paranoia respectively) is associated with hopelessness, depression, and paranoia.

Answer C: The 9-0/0-9 code (highest scores on scales 9 and 0, Hypomania and Social Introversion respectively) is associated with egocentrism and grandiosity.

Answer D: The 2-1/1-2 code (highest scores on scales 2 and 1, Depression and Hypochondriasis respectively) is associated with depression, worry, and pessimism.

A

Standardization refers to two characteristics of a test. First, a test is standardized when the administration and scoring procedures are clearly defined. Second, a test is standardized when it has been administered under standard conditions to a representative sample for the purpose of establishing norms. Norms facilitate test score interpretation by making it possible to compare an examinee's test performance to that of the performance of people in an appropriate norm group (e.g., examinees of the same age and race/ethnicity).

Answer B: A measure has incremental validity when its use results in an increase in decision-making accuracy.

Answer C: Criterion-related validity is established by administering a predictor and criterion to a sample and correlating their scores to obtain a criterion related validity coefficient.

Answer D: Domain-referenced testing is also known as criterion- or content-referenced testing. It refers to a method of score interpretation that indicates what an examinee knows or can do in terms of a particular content or behavior domain.

B

The inquiry phase is the second phase of Rorschach administration. During this phase, the examiner actively questions the examinee about the features of the inkblots that determined the examinee's responses in order to facilitate scoring.

Answer A: This is a better description of the initial free association phase.

Answer C: This answer does not describe the purpose of the inquiry phase.

Answer D: This answer does not describe the purpose of the inquiry phase. This likely would occur before administration begins.

B

Early cross-sectional studies on the relationship between age and IQ suggested that IQ scores begin to decline after late adolescence or early adulthood. Subsequent cross-sequential studies found, however, that this result was due more to methodology than to actual IQ score declines. In fact, the apparent age-related declines identified in cross-sectional studies were due to cohort (intergenerational) effects.

Answer A: Cross-sequential design combines cross-sectional and longitudinal methodologies. Investigators who used cross-sequential design in their research found that cross-sectional design is more likely to find early age-related declines in IQ because it is more vulnerable to cohort effects.

Answer C: Longitudinal research is likely to find that intelligence continues to increase over time, with significant declines not occurring until the period just preceding death.

Answer D: Early cross-sectional studies on the relationship between age and IQ suggested that IQ scores begin to decline after late adolescence or early adulthood. This finding was later found to be influenced by a cohort effect, not an analogue experiment.

D

Dynamic assessment is based on the assumption that cognitive abilities and processes are modifiable and is used to assess an examinee's learning potential - i.e., to determine if an examinee's test performance improves when they receive assistance or instruction. Dynamic assessment involves deviating from standardized procedures for a test after the test has been administered to the examinee using the standardized procedures.

Answer A: This response describes the purpose of criterion-referenced scores, which also are known as domain-referenced scores.

Answer B: This response describes functional behavioral assessment.

Answer C: This response describes criterion-related validity.

C

The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition (SB5) was designed as a measure of general cognitive ability and also to assist in psychoeducational evaluation, the diagnosis of developmental disabilities and exceptionalities, and forensic, career, neuropsychological, and early childhood assessment. It is intended for use with individuals aged 2 to 85+.

Answer A: The Wechsler Primary and Preschool Scale of Intelligence, Fourth Edition (WPPSI-IV) is a measure of intelligence appropriate for individuals aged 2 years, 6 months to 7 years, 7 months.

Answer B: The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale, Fourth Edition (WAIS-IV) is measure of intelligence appropriate for individuals aged 16:0 through 90:11.

Answer D: The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale-Third Edition (CMMS) is a measure of general reasoning for individuals aged 3:6 through 9:11.

C

Infant and preschool tests (including the Denver Development Screening Test, Bayley Scales, and Fagan Test of Infant Intelligence) generally are considered valid as screening devices for developmental delays and disabilities. While studies have found that infant and preschool intelligence tests administered after age 24 months have moderate validity for predicting future IQ scores, these tests have little or no validity for predicting future IQ when administered prior to 24 months of age.

Answer A, B, and D: Knowing that intelligence tests for infants and older children, adolescents, and adults measure different traits may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. While studies have found that infant and preschool intelligence tests administered after age 24 months have moderate validity for predicting future IQ scores, these tests have little or no validity for predicting future IQ when administered prior to 24 months of age.

B



Some interest and personality tests provide ipsative scores, which permit intraindividual comparisons but not interindividual comparisons. When an interest test yields ipsative scores, an individual’s scores indicate his/her relative standing in terms of the interests measured by the test (i.e., they indicate which interest is the strongest for the examinee, which is the second strongest, etc.). 

Answer A: The absolute strengths of an examinee’s interests would be measured by a criterion-referenced score, which permits interpreting an examinee’s test performance in terms of what the examinee can do with regard to a clearly defined external criterion. 

Answer C: The Strong Interest Inventory (SII) provides occupational scales which indicate the degree to which the examinee’s interests are similar to those of satisfied workers (of the same gender) in diverse occupations. Answer D: The Self-Directed Search (SDS) provides scores of congruence, which measures the degree of consistency between the examinee’s expressed interests and the examinee’s Summary Code.

C

The knowledge, skills, training, and other qualifications needed to administer a test and interpret its results are important considerations when choosing a test or other assessment technique. The Ethical Standards for the Distribution of Psychological Tests and Diagnostic Aids (APA, 1950), includes a three-tier system for categorizing test user qualifications. Level B tests refer to those that require some technical knowledge of test construction as well as the completion of supporting psychological and educational subjects.

Answer A: This response refers to Level A tests.

Answer B: This answer does not correspond with any of the three tiers.

Answer D: This response refers to Level C tests.

D

The Self-Directed Search is based on Holland's theory of career choice which emphasizes the importance of matching a person's preferences to the characteristics of the job. The measure provides scores on Holland's six occupational themes, which are conceptualized as being similar to one another to varying degrees. Social work may be fulfilling for someone who scores highest on the social theme, which is the theme most dissimilar to the realistic theme.

Answer A: Agricultural work is consistent with the realistic theme.

Answer B: The role of administrative assistant is associated with the conventional theme, which is similar to the realistic theme.

Answer C: Biologist is associated with the investigative theme, which also is similar to the realistic theme.

D

For the exam, you'll want to be familiar with the abilities measured by the Wechsler subtests. Note that this question is asking which subtest is described incorrectly. The Block Design subtest actually is a measure of nonverbal reasoning, visual-motor coordination, and processing speed.

Answer A: The Comprehension subtest is a measure of verbal reasoning, practical knowledge, and social judgment.

Answer B: The Similarities subtest assesses verbal reasoning, abstract reasoning, and auditory comprehension.

Answer C: The Symbol Search subtest assesses visual-motor processing speed, perception, and visual attention.

D

Research on earlier versions of the SAT and similar tests found that they are somewhat less accurate for predicting the college GPA of examinees who obtain test scores in the middle-range than of examinees who obtain more extreme scores and that SAT scores are related to socioeconomic status and ethnicity.

C

Sternberg's triarchic theory defines "successful intelligence" as the ability to adapt to, modify, and choose environments that accomplish one's goals and the goals of society and proposes that it is composed of three abilities analytical, creative, and practical. According to Sternberg, traditional intelligence tests focus on analytical ability but neglect creative and practical abilities, which are also important contributors to academic and occupational achievement.

Answer A: This option is in reference to Gardner's multiple intelligences theory.

Answer B: This option is in reference to Spearman's two-factor theory.

Answer D: This option is in reference to Horn and Cattell's fluid and crystallized intelligence theory.

D

Interest inventories are good predictors of occupational choice, satisfaction, and persistence but are less valid than intelligence tests for predicting academic and occupational success. Studies suggest that job performance is more closely related to ability than to interests.

D

A distinction is often made between achievement and aptitude tests. Strictly speaking, achievement tests assess the extent of past learning in classrooms or other controlled settings, while aptitude tests focus on the capacity to learn in the future. Advocates of the position described in this question contend that past learning is due to a substantial degree to aptitude and, therefore, view achievement test performance as an indicator of aptitude (i.e., view past performance as a good predictor of future learning). Although not all experts agree with this position, most agree that there is not a clear distinction between the two assessments and that achievement is affected by aptitude and vice versa considering how the tests were developed historically.

Answer A: While the terms are not synonymous, both tests are used to predict future learning. Aptitude tests have been traditionally defined as measures of innate capacity or potential for learning a specific skill, whereas achievement tests have been considered measures of knowledge or behavior acquired in a classroom or other controlled setting.

Answer B: While this is true, the tests do so to varying degrees.

Answer C: This statement is inaccurate. Future accomplishments and aptitude evaluation results are significantly influenced by the availability of environmental resources and opportunities for learning.

D

The MMSE was developed as a measure of cognitive functioning for older adults and is also used as a screening tool for dementia. The MMSE assesses six aspects of cognitive functioning: orientation, registration, attention and calculation, recall, language, and visual construction.

Answer A: This response describes the Hiskey-Nebraska Test of Learning Aptitude.

Answer B: This response describes the Glasgow Coma Scale.

Answer C: This response describes the Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning.

C

The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, Fifth Edition (WISC-V) provides a Full Scale IQ (FSIQ) score; scores on five Primary Index Scales (Verbal Comprehension, Visual-Spatial, Fluid Reasoning, Working Memory, and Processing Speed), scores on optional Ancillary and Complementary Index Scales, and individual subtest scores. The FSIQ provides a measure of general intellectual functioning (g) and is based on seven subtests (Similarities, Vocabulary, Block Design, Matrix Reasoning, Figure Weights, Digit Span, and Coding) that represent all of the aspects of cognitive functioning assessed by the five Primary Index Scales.

B

The original MMPI clinical scales and the Occupational scales of the Strong Interest Inventory were developed on the basis of empirical criterion keying. When using empirical criterion keying to construct scales, items that distinguish between different criterion groups or between criterion groups and a control (general reference) group are included in each scale.

Answer A: This describes the theoretical method of test construction.

Answer C: This answer does not accurately describe empirical criterion keying.

Answer D: This answer does not accurately describe empirical criterion keying.

D

As its name implies, curriculum-based measurement is closely linked to the curriculum. It involves periodic assessment of school-aged children with brief measures of basic academic skills that reflect the school's curriculum in order to identify the student's instructional needs.

Answer A: A norm-referenced test permits interpretation of an individual examinee's performance in terms of the performance of other examinees in the norm sample.

Answer B: A standardized achievement test provides information about an examinee's knowledge and level of performance but usually doesn't yield the kind of information that is needed to determine a student's instructional needs.

Answer C: A functional behavioral analysis is a type of behavioral assessment that is used to identify the characteristics of a target behavior as well as its antecedents and consequences in order to determine the best way to modify that behavior.

D

The research has confirmed that the WAIS is useful for assessing aspects of cognitive ability that are affected by Alzheimer's dementia. The Verbal Comprehension Index is least likely to be impacted, considering that verbal information typically is stored in long-term memory and is not inherently impacted by declines in short-term memory and processing speed.

Answer A: Processing speed is directly impacted by the natural aging process. This decline often is exacerbated by mild Cognitive Impairment and Alzheimer's.

Answer B: Working memory is significantly impacted by Alzheimer's, as short-term memory deteriorates in response to the disease.

Answer C: The Perceptual Reasoning Index is significantly impacted by Alzheimer's, as it secondarily assesses processing speed and working memory.

A

The Individuals with Disabilities Act (IDEA) began as Public Law 94-142 (the Education of all Handicapped Children Act). The purpose of IDEA is to improve the educational opportunities for children and adolescents with disabilities. It requires the following: 1) All disabled people from infancy to 21 years of age must be evaluated by a team of specialists to determine their specific needs; 2) An Individualized Educational Program (IEP) must be developed for each disabled child enrolled in the public education system that provides education for the student in the "least restrictive environment" and that has been approved by the child's parents; 3) While reliable, valid, and nondiscriminatory psychological and educational tests may be used, assignment to special education classes cannot be made on the basis of IQ tests only.

Answer B: This response describes one of the provisions of the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA).

Answer C: This answer describes one of the provisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act.

Answer D: This answer does not describe a provision of IDEA.

A

Of the cognitive ability tests listed, only one makes use of the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory. The Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) theory of cognitive abilities distinguishes between ten broad-stratum level abilities and over 70 narrow-stratum abilities that are each linked to one of the broad-stratum abilities. The CHC theory serves as the framework for both the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition (KABC-II) and the Woodcock-Johnson IV. Scores on the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition (KABC-II) are interpreted by using either the Cattell-Horn-Carroll theory of cognitive abilities or Luria's neuropsychological model.

Answers B, C, and D: The Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) theory serves as the framework for both the Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition (KABC-II) and the Woodcock-Johnson IV.

D

Identification of the big five personality traits was based on an atheoretical lexical approach, which assumed that all socially relevant traits were incorporated into language. A list of 18,000 traits were derived from Webster's Dictionary and factor analysis identified five core factors, including extraversion, conscientiousness, openness to experience, neuroticism, and agreeableness.

Answer A: Empirical criterion keying involves choosing items for different scales on the basis of how well the items distinguish between different criterion groups. This method was used in the development of the Kuder Occupational Interest Survey as well as the Occupational scales of the Strong Interest Inventory.

Answer B: Homogeneous keying describes a process in which items are selected for inclusion in a test's scales on the basis of their high correlations with other items in the scale and low correlations with scores on other scales.

Answer C: Actuarial (statistical) predictions are based on empirically validated relationships between test results and specific criteria and make use of a multiple regression equation or similar statistical technique.

C

A slope (predictive) bias is suggested when a predictor has different validity coefficients for different groups. When a test has different validity coefficients for different groups, it will also have different regression lines since the slope of the regression line is directly related to the magnitude of the validity coefficient.

Answer A: Differences in mean scores on either the predictor or criterion may or may not be indicative of a slope bias. Intercept bias (or unfairness) occurs when the validity coefficients and criterion performance for different groups are the same, but their mean scores on the predictor differ.

Answer B: Differences in mean scores on either the predictor or criterion may or may not be indicative of a slope bias.

Answer D: Intercept bias occurs when the validity coefficients and criterion performance for different groups are the same, but their mean scores on the predictor differ. In a scatterplot, the regression lines for different groups cross the Y-intercept, not the X-intercept, at different points.

B

The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey provides information on an examinee's interests in vocational interest areas. It provides scores on four scales - Occupational Scales, College Major Scales, Vocational Interest Estimates, and Dependability Indices. The Occupational Scales specifically indicate the strength of the relationship between the examinee's interests and those of satisfied workers in different occupations.

Answer A: The Occupational Scales include a broad range of occupations.

Answer C: This answer describes the Vocational Interest Estimates (VIE's).

Answer D: This answer does not describe the Occupational Scales.

B

The MMPI-2 provides scores on 10 clinical scales. Since the validity of interpreting clinical scale scores in isolation is dubious, most experts agree that the MMPI clinical scales are most effectively interpreted in terms of score patterns through profile analysis. A number of available coding systems facilitate this type of interpretation.

Answer A: Many test items are included in more than one clinical scale. Thus, the validity of considering each clinical scale without reference to the others is questionable.

Answers C and D: Most experts agree that the MMPI clinical scales are most effectively interpreted in terms of score patterns through profile analysis.

A

The BVRT is used to assess visual memory, visual perception, and visual-motor skills for the purpose of identifying brain injury. Administration of the BVRT requires the examinee to reproduce (draw) simple geometric figures from memory. The greater the number of errors, the more likely that the examinee has a brain injury.

Answer B: This response describes the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test (Bender-Gestalt II).

Answer C: This response describes the Tower of London.

Answer D: This response does not describe the BVRT.

A

Measures of psychomotor skills are usually apparatus tests that assess speed, coordination, strength, and other motor responses. Factor analyses have shown that there is no "general psychomotor factor" and that the various psychomotor skills are relatively independent.

Answer B, C, and D: Factor analyses have shown that there is no underlying "general psychomotor factor indicating that psychomotor skills are relatively independent.

B

The Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning was developed as a method for monitoring recovery from head trauma, and the current version involves rating the individual in terms of ten levels of functioning. The behaviors described in this answer are characteristic of Level IV. Even if you're not familiar with the specific characteristics of the eight levels of the Scale, knowing that Level IV is in the mid-range would have helped you identify this as the correct answer to this question.

Answer A: This describes behaviors characteristic of Level I.

Answer C: This answer describes Level VIII functioning.

Answer D: This answer does not accurately describe any of the levels of functioning assessed by the Rancho Scale.

C

Actuarial (statistical) interpretations are based on empirically validated relationships between test results and target criteria, while clinical interpretations are based on the decision-maker's intuition, experience, and knowledge. Studies comparing the two methods have generally found that the actuarial method alone is more accurate than clinical judgment alone and about equally accurate as a combination of actuarial and clinical methods.

Answers A, B, and D: Studies comparing the two methods have generally found that the actuarial method is more accurate than the clinical method.

C

The Leiter International Performance Scale Third Edition (Leiter-3) was designed to be a culture-fair test of cognitive abilities for individuals aged 3 to 75+. A distinctive feature of the Leiter-3 is that it does not rely on verbal instructions or responses. Because of this feature, it is an appropriate test for individuals with hearing and language impairments.

Answer A: The Haptic Intelligence Scale can be used to assess the intelligence of individuals with visual impairments.

Answer B: Tests used to assess the intellectual development of infants under age 2 include the Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development and the Fagan Test of Infant Intelligence.

Answer D: The intelligence of individuals diagnosed with Intellectual Disability is commonly assessed with the Stanford-Binet.

B

Horn and Cattell distinguish between two general intelligences: Fluid intelligence does not depend on specific instruction, is relatively culture-free, and enables an individual to solve novel problems as well as perceive relations and similarities. In contrast, crystallized intelligence consists of acquired knowledge and skills, is affected by educational and cultural experiences, and includes reading, numerical skills, and factual knowledge.

Answer A: This answer describes Sternberg's Triarchic Theory.

Answer C: This answer describes Spearman's Two-Factor Theory of intelligence.

Answer D: This answer describes Gardner's Multiple Intelligences Theory.

C

Research by Flynn (1998) and others has shown that IQ test scores have generally increased from one generation to the next, especially in industrialized countries. Flynn proposes that increases in IQ test scores from one generation to the next represent increases in abstract problem solving as the result of environmental factors.

A

Investigative scales are found on the Self-Directed Search (SDS), based on Holland’s (1997) theory of career choice which emphasizes the importance of matching a person’s preferences to the characteristics of the job.

A

The Slosson tests include the Slosson Intelligence Test Primary (SIT-P-1) and the Slosson Intelligence Test - Revised 3rd Edition for Children and Adults (SIT-R3-1). The SIT-R3-1 is a screening test of crystallized (verbal) intelligence for individuals aged 4:0 through 65:11.

Answer B: The Slosson Intelligence Test is a screening test for crystallized intelligence.

Answer C: The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test is a measure of receptive vocabulary.

Answer D: The Leiter-3 was designed as a culture-fair measure of cognitive abilities for individuals aged 3 to 75+ years.

B

The Cognitive Assessment System assesses cognitive processing abilities that are central to learning. It is based on the PASS model of intelligence that distinguishes between the four cognitive functions identified by Luria (1980) - planning, attention, simultaneous processing, and sequential processing.

Answer A: The Slosson Intelligence Test Primary is a screening test of intelligence for children aged 2:0 through 7:11. It was designed as a method for obtaining a quick estimate of mental ability and for identifying children at risk for educational failure or who require more extensive testing.

Answer C: The Kuhlman-Anderson Test is a multilevel battery for children in grades K through 12 and evaluates school learning ability.

Answer D: The Woodcock-Johnson IV Tests of Cognitive Ability assess general and specific cognitive abilities and are based on the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of intelligence.

C

The Wonderlic Personnel Test is a 12-minute, 50-item exam that assesses cognitive ability (general intelligence) and is used in organizations to assist with hiring decisions.

Answer A: While motor skills are necessary to perform many employment tasks, the Wonderlic does not assess motor skills.

Answer B: While the Wonderlic is a personnel test, it does not assess clerical skills.

Answer D: While the Wonderlic is brief, it is not an interest inventory. As such, it is not used by a potential employee to determine their compatibility in a particular field of interest. The Wonderlic is used by employers to assist with hiring decisions when evaluating potential employees.

A

This question describes a projective personality test, which eliminates two of the tests listed in the answers. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is a projective personality test that consists of picture cards that depict one or more human figures. The examinee is asked to make up a story about each picture and their responses are scored and interpreted using one of several scoring and interpretation systems.

Answer B: The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is an objective personality test that consists of 124 forced-choice items.

Answer C: The Rorschach is a projective personality test that presents the examinee with ten bilaterally symmetrical inkblots. The examinee is asked to describe what they see in each inkblot.

Answer D: The Bender-Gestalt test is a measure of visual-motor integration that requires the examinee to copy and recall geometric figures.

C

For the licensing exam, you'll want to be familiar with the purpose and assumptions underlying the four tests listed in the answers to this question. These tests are described in the Psychological Assessment chapter of the written study materials. The EPPS (Edwards Personal Preference Schedule) is based on Murray's personality theory which distinguishes between 15 basic needs (e.g., Achievement, Exhibitionism, Autonomy).

Answer A: The developers of the 16 PF (Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire) used factor analysis to categorize adjectives that describe personality traits.

Answer B: The MBTI (Myers-Briggs Type Indicator) is based on the work of Carl Jung. Responses are used to classify the examinee in terms of 16 personality types that represent varying combinations of his four dimensions (e.g., extraverted-intuitive-feeling-perceiving).

Answer D: The NEO-PI-3 (NEO Personality Inventory, Third Edition) assesses the "Big Five" personality traits.

D

The Beck Depression Inventory-II (BDI-II) consists of 21 items that the examinee rates in terms of severity on a four-point scale ranging from 0 to 3. An examinee's score on the BDI-II can range from 0 to 63, and scores of 29 to 63 are considered indicative of severe depression.

Answer A: Scores of 0 to 13 are indicative of minimal depression.

Answer B: Scores of 14 to 19 are indicative of mild depression.

Answer C: Scores of 20 to 28 are indicative of moderate depression.

D

For the EPPP, you will want to be familiar with various aspects of brain functioning and what measures are used to assess them. The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) is considered to be a measure of executive cognitive abilities and is used by neuropsychologists to assess the functioning of the frontal lobe. It can detect perseverative thinking and deficits in abstract reasoning.

Answer A: The parietal lobe is responsible for sensation, perception, and spatial reasoning, as well as movement.

Answer B: The temporal lobe is responsible for auditory processing and forming long-term memories.

Answer C: The occipital lobe is responsible for visual processing.

C

The Stroop Color-Word Association Test is a measure of cognitive flexibility, selective attention, and response inhibition. It assesses the degree to which the examinee can suppress a prepotent response in favor of an unusual one (i.e., name the print color rather than the color name). Poor performance on the Stroop Test has been linked to frontal lobe damage, ADHD, autism, and depression.

Answer A: The Beery Test of Visual-Motor Integration is a measure of visual-motor integration skills.

Answer B: The Benton Visual Retention Test is used to assess visual memory, visual perception, and visual-motor skills.

Answer D: The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess level of consciousness following a traumatic brain injury.

D

A suppressor variable is a variable that affects the score or status of another variable but is irrelevant to the variable. The K Scale is considered a suppressor variable because it correlates with defensiveness and other characteristics (education level and SES) that are irrelevant to what is being measured by several of the MMPI-2's clinical scales but that may affect scores on those scales. Consequently, an examinee's score on the K scale is used to correct their scores on certain clinical scales and thereby increase their validity.

Answer A: The Cannot Say (?) Scale is not considered to be a suppressor variable, but it is also a validity scale. The score on this scale indicates the number of unanswered items or items answered both true and false. The score may be influenced by reading difficulties, indecisiveness, distractibility, rebelliousness, or defensiveness.

Answer B: The L (Lie) Scale is not considered to be a suppressor variable, but it is also a validity scale. It is used to determine the examinee's inclination to be truthful in their responses or attempt to present in an overly positive fashion.

Answer C: The F (Frequency) Scale is not considered to be a suppressor variable, but it is also a validity scale. This scale is comprised of items to detect unusual or atypical responses (e.g., bizarre sensations, strange thoughts, and peculiar experiences) and is used to determine an examinee's attempt to respond in a deviant or atypical manner in an attempt to "fake bad" or "fake good."

A

Although the use of anatomically correct dolls to evaluate children for sexual abuse is controversial, there is evidence that they are useful in some circumstances. Answer A is the best response of those given, as there is evidence that children who have been sexually abused are more likely than those who have not to provide sexualized responses to these dolls. In addition, they are useful for children who have limited verbal abilities or are too embarrassed to verbally describe what has happened to them.

Answer B: While research regarding the use of anatomically correct dolls has found that the dolls can serve as a stimulus for a child's memories, they have not been determined to assist in the recovery of repressed memories.

Answer C: A review of the research suggests that the use of anatomically correct dolls does not cause young children to act more suggestively than they would with other dolls.

Answer D: This has not been substantiated by the research.

B

Crystallized and fluid intelligence were originally distinguished by Cattell and Horn (1966). Crystallized intelligence (Gc) refers to acquired knowledge and skills, is affected by educational and cultural experiences, and includes reading and numerical skills and factual knowledge.

Answer A: Fluid intelligence (Gf) is relatively culture-free.

Answer C: Fluid intelligence (Gf) does not depend on specific instruction.

Answer D: Fluid intelligence (Gf) enables an individual to solve novel problems and perceive relations and similarities.

D

Gardner's (1998) theory of multiple intelligences distinguishes between eight types of intellectual ability: linguistic, musical, logical-mathematical, spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, and naturalistic. Practical ability is a major element of Sternberg's Triarchic Theory.

Answer A: Spatial ability is one of Gardner's abilities.

Answer B: Bodily-kinesthetic ability is also one of Gardner's abilities.

Answer C: Logical-mathematical ability is one of the abilities identified by Gardner.

C

The contribution of heredity to IQ is confirmed by studies showing that the greater the genetic similarity, the higher the concordance rate. Although the rates vary somewhat from study to study, a rate of .58 is the average reported concordance rate for fraternal twins reared together.

Answer A: The concordance rate for biological parent and child (together) is .39.

Answer B: A concordance rate of .67 is the rate for identical twins reared apart.

Answer D: A concordance rate of .24 is the rate reported for biological siblings reared apart.

D

The Seattle Longitudinal Study examined age-related trends for six mental abilities: inductive reasoning, spatial orientation, perceptual speed, numeric ability, verbal ability, and verbal memory. The results of this study found that only perceptual speed declines substantially prior to age 60, while numeric ability begins to decline after age 60 and the other four abilities remain relatively stable until age 70 or 75.

Answer A: Verbal ability tends to remain consistent until about age 70 or 75.

Answer B: Numeric ability tends not to show significant decline until after age 60.

Answer C: Inductive reasoning tends to remain consistent until about age 70 or 75.

A

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the mean and standard deviation of the SB5's Full Scale IQ, composite scores, and subtest scores. The Full Scale IQ and composite (cognitive factor) scores have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15, while the subtest scores have a mean of 10 and standard deviation of 3.

C

The SB5 provides scores on five cognitive factors: Fluid Reasoning, Knowledge, Quantitative Reasoning, Visual-Spatial Processing, and Working Memory. Verbal Comprehension is one of the four indices of the WAIS-IV.

Answer A: Fluid Reasoning is a cognitive factor assessed by the SB5.

Answer B: Quantitative Reasoning is a cognitive factor assessed by the SB5.

Answer D: Working Memory is a cognitive factor assessed by the SB5.

C

The Fagan Test of Intelligence is a measure of intelligence for infants 3 to 12 months of age. The Fagan Test evaluates an infant's selective attention, which is presumed to reflect their ability to retain information.

Answer A: The Fagan Test of intelligence does not assess sensorimotor skills.

Answer B: The Fagan Test of intelligence does not assess visual-motor problem solving.

Answer D: The Fagan Test of intelligence does not assess personal self-sufficiency.

A

A diagnosis of Intellectual Disability requires deficits in intellectual functions (e.g., reasoning, problem solving, abstract thinking) that are confirmed by a clinical assessment and individualized, standardized intelligence testing; deficits in adaptive functioning that result in a failure to meet community standards of personal independence and social responsibility and impair functioning across multiple environments in one or more activities of daily life (e.g., communication, social participation, independent living); and the onset of intellectual and adaptive functioning deficits during the developmental period. The Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales, Second Edition provides information on the personal and social skills of individuals from birth to age 90.

Answer B: The Beery Developmental Test of Visual-Motor Integration is used to assess visual-motor skills of children ages 3 through 18.

Answer C: The Wonderlic is a 12-minute test of cognitive ability for adults used primarily by employers to assist with hiring decisions. It would not be useful for diagnosing Intellectual Disability.

Answer D: The WRAT4 (Wide-Range Achievement Test, Revision 4) is a rapid screening measure for estimating grade level functioning in reading, spelling, and arithmetic.

B

The Differential Aptitude Test (DAT) is designed primarily to assist in the educational and career counseling of students in grades 7 through 12. The DAT provides scores on eight skills that are related to occupational performance -- verbal reasoning, numerical ability, abstract reasoning, clerical speed and accuracy, mechanical reasoning, space relations, spelling, and language usage.

Answer A: The DAT was not designed to evaluate the creativity of children and adolescents. It was designed to assess broad intellectual ability and specific job-related abilities to assist with educational and career counseling.

Answer C: The DAT was not specifically designed to assess students with learning disabilities. The Stanford-Binet Intellectual Scales could be used to evaluate the intellectual ability of students with learning disabilities.

Answer D: The DAT was not designed to evaluate gifted children and adolescents. It was designed to assess broad intellectual ability and specific job-related abilities to assist with educational and career counseling.

D

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the specific MMPI-2 profiles that are described in the written study materials. A very high score on the F scale in conjunction with scores over 65 on most or all clinical scale suggests random responding.

Answer A: When an examinee answers "false" to all items, scores on all three validity scales and clinical scale scores on the left side of the profile (Scales 1 through 5) are elevated.

Answer B: When scores on the L, F, and K scales assume a V-shaped pattern (elevated L and K Scale scores with a low score on the F Scale), this suggests an attempt to present oneself in a favorable light (to "fake good").

Answer C: Malingering is suggested when L and K Scale scores are around 50, the F Scale score is slightly elevated, and the clinical score profile is "saw-toothed" (high and low scores on alternate scales).

D

The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is an objective personality inventory that is based on the personality theory of Carl Jung. The Myers-Briggs provides information on the four bipolar dimensions identified by Jung: Introversion-Extraversion, Sensing-Intuition, Thinking-Feeling, and Judging-Perceiving.

Answer A: The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is based on Jung's personality theory.

Answer C: The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is based on Murray's theory of needs.

Answer D: The NEO Personality Inventory-3 (NEO-PI-3) was developed to assess the Big Five personality traits. The Big Five traits were identified using a list of 18,000 personality traits derived by Gordon Allport using the 1925 edition of Webster's Dictionary.

A

Only one of the tests listed in the answers requires examinees to copy and recall figures. The Bender-Gestalt (Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test) is a brief measure of visual-motor integration and requires the examinee to first copy geometric figures and then draw them from memory.

Answer B: The Stroop Color-Word Association Test requires the examinee to say the ink color of a word rather than read the color name.

Answer C: The ITPA (Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities) assesses the examinee's strengths and weakness in terms of language.

Answer D: The Slosson tests are measures of intelligence for children and adults.

B

The ITPA is a measure of linguistic abilities and is based on Osgood's communication model, which distinguishes between channels of communication, psycholinguistic processes, and levels of organization.

B

The Embedded Figures Test is a paper-and-pencil measure of field independence and dependence used to assess Autism Spectrum Disorder. Its items require the examinee to separate a targeted figure from a complex background.

D

The Strong Interest Inventory provides scores on four scales: General Occupational Themes, Basic Interest Scales, Occupational Scales, and Personal Styles Scales. As its name implies, the General Occupational Themes Scale provides information on occupational themes and, more specifically, on Holland's six occupational themes.

Answer A: The Personal Styles Scales provide scores on work style, learning environment, leadership style, risk taking, and team orientation.

Answer B: The Basic Interest Scales provide scores on 30 basic interests, including athletics, performing arts, research, healthcare services, teaching and education, and entrepreneurship.

Answer C: The Strong Interest Inventory does not provide scores on Super's major life roles.

C

The Strong Interest Inventory provides scores on General Occupational Themes, Basic Interest Scales, Occupational Scales, and Personal Styles Scales. The Occupational Scales were derived using a criterion keying method that involved comparing the responses of individuals employed in specific occupational groups to individuals in a general representative sample. The General Occupational Themes and Basic Interest Scales utilized a logical content method.

Answer A: The General Occupational Themes were developed utilizing a logical content method.

Answer B: The Basic Interest Scales were developed utilizing a logical content method.

Answer D: College Major Scales are included in the Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS), not in the Strong Interest Inventory.

A

The Wide-Range Achievement Test (WRAT) is a rapid screening device for assessing reading, spelling, and math skills and was designed to be used to assist in the diagnosis of a learning disability.

Answer B: The Differential Aptitude Test (DAT) assesses job-related abilities and broad intellectual skills and is used for vocational counseling.

Answer C: The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (PPVT) is a measure of receptive vocabulary.

Answer D: The Cognitive Assessment System (CAS) is a measure of basic cognitive processes central to learning and is designed to assist with differential diagnosis, determining eligibility of special education, and instructional planning.

A

The Big Five personality traits are openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. (A useful way for remembering the Big Five is with the acronym "OCEAN.") The best general conclusion about the five factor model of personality is replicable across cultures. However, factor analyses have not been entirely consistent, with evidence for openness to experience showing the weakest replicability in some Asian and other non-Western countries.

Answers B, C, and D: While the correct response to this question indicates that openness to experience has not been replicable in some Asian and other non-Western countries, it also has been found that the strength or prevalence of certain traits varies between cultures. In their comparison of the Big Five traits in 10 world regions, researchers found that levels of Extraversion, Agreeableness, and Openness were lowest in East Asian nations, while levels of Agreeableness and Conscientiousness were highest in African nations.

A

On the MMPI, a combination of high scores on the hypochondriasis and hysteria scales (Scales 1 and 3) and a low score on the depression scale (Scale 2) is referred to as the conversion-V pattern. The conversion-V pattern is characteristic of people with Conversion Disorder or other somatoform disorder. (Note that, in the DSM-5, the Somatoform Disorder category has been replaced by the Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders category.)

Answer B: Higher scores on Scales 6 and 8 than on Scale 7 is referred to as the psychotic-V pattern and is associated with psychotic symptoms.

Answer C: Alcohol and drug abuse and depression are associated with high scores on Scales 2, 4, and 7.

Answer D: Elevated scores on Scales 2, 7, and 8 are associated with schizoid reactions and phobic and depressive symptoms.

A

The NEO Personality Inventory-3 (NEO-PI-3) and its predecessors were developed by Costa and McCrae (1985) to assess the Big Five personality traits – extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism, and openness to experience.

Answer B: The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is based on the work of Carl Jung and describes personality in terms of four bipolar dimensions: Introversion-Extraversion, Sensing-Intuition, Thinking-Feeling, and Judging-Perceiving. 

Answer C: The Rorschach Inkblot Test is a projective personality test that presents examinees with 10 inkblots and is based on the premise that their responses to the inkblots reflect their underlying personality.

Answer D: Cattell’s Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16 PF) was constructed on the basis of factor analysis, which identified 16 primary personality traits.

A

A number of tests have been found useful for evaluating the abilities of individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder. Children with autism often show superior performance on the Embedded Figures Test, which measures field dependence/independence.

Answer B: Children with autism tend to demonstrate impaired performance on the WCST.

Answer C: Children with autism receive low scores on the Tower of London.

Answer D: Children with autism tend to receive lower scores on the Arithmetic subtest of the WISC-V.