EPPP - I/O Psychology - Domain Quiz

D

The compressed workweek decreases the number of days worked in a given work cycle by increasing the number of hours worked per day. For example, a compressed workweek might entail four ten-hour shifts rather than the usual five eight-hour shifts. In their meta-analysis of the research, Baltes and colleagues found that the compressed workweek had positive effects on supervisor ratings of employee performance, employee overall job satisfaction, and employee satisfaction with the work schedule. In contrast, the compressed workweek did not have a strong impact on objective measures of job performance or on absenteeism [B. B. Baltes et al., Flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work, Journal of Applied Psychology, 1999, 84(4), 496-513]. Note that these findings are not entirely consistent with earlier conclusions about the effects of the four-day (compressed) workweek, but the question is specifically asking about Baltes's research.

C

A leaderless group discussion is a simulation technique that is often used as part of an assessment center. Leaderless group discussions and other simulations are frequently included in management development programs. Knowing that assessment centers are used for the hiring, promotion, and training of managerial-level employees would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. A leaderless group discussion (as part of an assessment center or alone) provides information about an individual's communication, decision-making, and leadership skills to determine his/her potential as a manager.

D

Holland distinguished between six occupational themes and conceptualized them as being similar to one another to varying degrees. Social work is an appropriate career for people who score highest on the social theme, which is the most dissimilar from the realistic theme. 

Answer A: Agricultural work is consistent with the realistic theme.

Answer B: Bookkeeper is associated with the conventional theme, which is similar to the realistic theme.

Answer C: Technical writer is associated with the investigative theme, which is also similar to the realistic theme.

B

Step 2 is to create and include questions involving the organization's performance, capacity, motivation, and environment.

Answer A: Step 1 of the four-step organizational assessment is to determine the purpose of the evaluation, the organization's time and budget, methodology, and how findings will be communicated.

Answer C: Step 3 involves the collection of both qualitative and quantitative data from multiple sources, such as documentation, site visits, and interviews.

Answer D: Step 4 is the analysis of the findings.

C

Goals-based measures the extent to which the program is achieving its objectives; process-based evaluates the effectiveness of systems and structures that guide a program's success, and outcomes-based evaluates the benefits received by client participation in a program.

Answer A: Structured-based is not a relevant method of program evaluation.

Answer B: Organizational-based is not a relevant method of program evaluation.

Answer D: Didactic-based is not a relevant method of program evaluation.

B

The slope of a regression line in a criterion-related validity study indicates the degree of correlation between the predictor and the criterion. If the slope of the regression line for two different groups differs, this suggests that there may be differential validity (different validity coefficients for different groups). Additional information on unfairness and differential validity is provided in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.

Answer A: It is the predictor cutoff scores of the two groups that help determine whether there is unfairness, not the slope of the regression line.

Answer C: Incremental validity refers to decision-making accuracy and, although it is affected by a predictor's validity, its magnitude is not determined by comparing the slopes of two different groups.

Answer D: Convergent validity refers to the degree of correlation between two measures that assess the same trait using different techniques.

C

This question is asking about the phenomenon in which group decisions tend to be more extreme (either riskier or more conservative) than decisions made by individuals. Group (response) polarization occurs when a person makes a more extreme decision in a group than he/she would have made alone.

Answer A: The free-rider effect suggests that people reduce their effort on a group task when they observe that their contributions to a group are dispensable and that the group will succeed without them.

Answer B: Groupthink refers to a suspension of critical and objective thinking that can occur under certain circumstances in group decision-making. Although groupthink can result in more extreme decisions, this isn't necessarily so.

Answer D: Risky shift is similar to group polarization but includes only the "risky" end of the decision continuum. Therefore, answer C is a better response.

C

A consistent finding of the research on a number of topics is that personal control (or the sense of control) is an important factor in human behavior. In one study, perceived control declined and stress increased as traffic congestion increased. See G. W. Evans and S. Carrere, Traffic congestion, perceived control, and psychophysiological stress among urban bus drivers, Journal of Applied Psychology, 76, 658-663, 1991.

C

When using the forced-choice technique, the rater chooses the behavior from two or more behaviors that best describe the employee, with behaviors being paired or grouped so that they are similar in terms of social desirability. This technique was developed specifically to reduce rater biases, and there is some evidence that it accomplishes this goal.

Answer A: This technique is not easy to develop and use. A known drawback is the difficulty of its development.

Answer B: The forced-choice technique is considered more useful for obtaining an overall rating of performance than for obtaining the specific information needed to give employees feedback about their performance.

Answer D: The forced-choice technique is a subjective, not an objective, measure of job performance.

B

Of the theories listed, equity theory best explains the outcomes of the study described in this question. Equity theory is used to predict how workers will respond in situations they perceive as equitable or inequitable. According to this theory, employees who perceive their situation as inequitable will attempt to create equity by decreasing their inputs (e.g., effort and performance) or by increasing their outcomes (which employees in this situation cannot do).

Answer A: Alderfer proposed that people may be motivated by more than one need at a time, but his ERG theory doesn't explain why the control group displayed a decrease in productivity. 

Answer C: The John Henry effect predicts that employees in the control department will try to outperform employees in the experimental department.

Answer D: Social comparison theory predicts that we learn about our own abilities (or other characteristics) by comparing them to those of other people.

B

The outcomes associated with different work shifts are summarized in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. Studies comparing the impact of the various work shifts have not produced entirely consistent results. However, it does appear that the night shift is associated with the highest accident rates and lowest performance, apparently as the result of sleep deprivation. In contrast, the swing shift has the most negative impact on family and other social relationships, apparently as the result of time away from family and friends.

A

Janis (1972) coined the term "groupthink" to describe the suspension of critical thinking that occurs in highly cohesive groups. Groupthink is associated with illusions of invulnerability and superior morality, strong pressure toward uniformity, and insulation from outside input. Groupthink occurs most often in highly cohesive groups when members feel a need to achieve consensus and, therefore, disregard and discourage consideration of alternative actions. Actively encouraging dissent and criticism would help disrupt the pattern of communication and problem-solving that characterizes groupthink.

Answer B: Having the group leader present his/her favored solution at the start of the meeting would tend to increase groupthink.

Answer C: High group cohesiveness and interdependence are a symptom of groupthink.

Answer D: Groups have a tendency to make decisions that are riskier than the decisions made by individuals working alone. Thus, this course of action would not reduce groupthink.

C

The performance appraisal techniques used in organizations differ not only in terms of the ways in which they are developed and executed but also in the amount and type of feedback they provide to employees. BARS (behaviorally-anchored rating scale) is a graphic rating scale in which an employee's performance on several dimensions is rated in terms of specific behaviors. This format facilitates providing the employee with feedback about acceptable and unacceptable work-related behaviors.

Answer A: The forced-choice technique requires the rater to pick the statements from several that are most and least descriptive of the employee. Although this technique helps reduce certain rater biases, it is less useful than BARS for providing employees with feedback about their job performance.

Answer B: The forced-distribution technique requires the rater to assign a certain percentage of employees to one of several predetermined categories (e.g., highest 10%, next highest 20%, middle 40%, and so on). It does not generate the kind of information that is useful for feedback purposes.

Answer D: A BIB (biographical information blank) is not a performance appraisal technique but, instead, a method for collecting biographical data from job applicants.

C

The primary goal of TQM is to continuously improve the quality of the organization's products and services. This is accomplished by evaluating customer satisfaction, maximizing employee involvement and empowerment, and making continuous improvements in organizational processes. Although TQM emphasizes team involvement in decision-making, decisions are too often made unilaterally by the supervisor.

Answer A: Although leader ability is always important, it has not been identified as a particular problem in TQM, which emphasizes the involvement of employees in decision-making processes.

Answer B: Teamwork is considered a key feature of TQM; and the research has shown that, under the right circumstances, teamwork is associated with positive outcomes for the company.

Answer D: Pay and other benefits not adequately linked to team performance have not been identified as a problem by the research on TQM.

A

Tuckman and Jensen (1977) distinguish between five stages of group development - forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. The norming stage is characterized by agreement, commitment, and unity. Members listen to and support each other during this stage and develop close relationships. The norming stage may become a "period of play" with the task becoming temporarily abandoned by workers.

Answer B: During the forming stage, group members become acquainted and attempt to establish ground rules for the group.

Answer C: During the performing stage, group members are more focused on "getting the job done."

Answer D: The storming stage is characterized by power struggles and conflict.

D

Krumboltz proposes that career decisions are based on what the individual has learned. Krumboltz's social learning theory of career decision-making proposes that career decisions are based primarily on what we have learned, especially from our interactions with others.

Answer A: Roe (1972) focuses on the impact of basic needs on career development.

Answer B: Ego identity development is a focus of Tiedeman and O'Hara's (1963) theory of career development.

Answer C: Perceptions of the match between abilities and the requirements of the job do not accurately describe Krumboltz's theory of career decision-making.

D

A mediator is a neutral third party whose primary task is to help disputants reach an agreement. Perhaps the most creative thing a mediator can do is to introduce new issues and alternatives, thereby broadening the disputants' horizons and providing them with ideas for achieving integrative agreements (J. Z. Rubin et al., Social conflict: Escalation, stalemate, and settlement, New York, McGraw-Hill, Inc., 1994, p. 209).

Answer A: Encouraging direct contact between disputants at the beginning of the mediation process is a good idea only when the conflict between disputants is mild. With more serious conflicts, the better course of action is to initially meet separately with each disputant to identify and clarify the relevant issues.

Answer B: A closed site is preferable during the initial stages of mediation. An open site is best when an agreement between disputants is very close to being reached.

Answer C: It is usually more effective to address multiple issues as a package rather than to negotiate issues separately. Also, when there are a large number of issues that must be resolved separately, it is better to progress from the more general to the more specific.

A

This question is referring to Chin and Benne's (1976) distinction between three strategies for planned change: normative-reeducative, rational-empirical, and power-coercive. A key characteristic of the normative-reeducative strategy is its focus on collaboration between individuals representing different disciplines and interests in order to use norms and peer pressure to foster change.

Answer B: The rational-empirical strategy utilizes information as the primary change agent.

Answer C: The power-coercive strategy utilizes the power and authority of leaders to facilitate change.

Answer D: Reciprocal-deterministic is not one of the three change strategies identified by Chin and Benne.

C


Knowing that the "self-concept" is a key concept in Super's theory would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question. According to Super, the self-concept consists of the values, abilities, personality traits, needs, and interests that we believe we possess. Self-concept influences career choice, and the degree of match between the self-concept and the job affects the individual's job satisfaction, stability, and success.

Answer A: Ego identity is a focus of Tiedeman and O'Hara's theory of career development.

Answer B: The degree of satisfaction that a person has with his/her life, in general, is not a focus of Super's theory.

Answer D: Prepotent needs are a focus of Maslow's theory of self-actualization.

B

While males and females do not differ substantially or consistently in terms of overall leadership style, there is evidence of consistent gender differences in decision-making style. The research has found that, with regard to decision-making style, female leaders tend to adopt a more democratic (participative) approach.

D

Career concept is a key concept in K. R. Brousseau and M. J. Driver's model of career development (Enhancing informed choice: A career-concepts approach to career advisement, Selections, Spring, 24-31, 1994). As defined by Brousseau and Driver, career concept refers to an individual's career decisions and motives, which vary in terms of three dimensions - frequency of job change; direction of change; and type of change in job content. Status on these dimensions produces four career concepts: steady-state, linear, spiral, and transitory.

B

A distinction is made between four types of group tasks - compensatory, disjunctive, conjunctive, and additive. For disjunctive tasks, the group selects a solution (ideally the optimal solution) from those proposed by individual group members.

Answer A: In a compensatory task, the group's performance is the average of the effort or performance of the individual members.

Answer C: On conjunctive tasks, group members act in unison, which means that the group product is limited by the performance of the weakest member.

Answer D: When working on an additive task, the group product is the sum of the contributions of each member.

B

This question is asking about equity theory, which predicts that motivation and performance are related to perceptions about one's own input/outcome ratio and the input/outcome ratios of comparable others. Underpayment is more likely to cause a substantial change in performance, especially a long-term change.

Answer A: Although under- and overpayment may affect an employee's performance, not surprisingly, underpayment tends to have a greater impact.

Answer C: This is the opposite of what the research has found.

Answer D: A sense of inequity does, in fact, alter performance.

A

The impact of group heterogeneity versus homogeneity with regard to skills, personality, etc. depends on the outcome measure - i.e., for some outcomes, heterogeneity is preferable but, for others, homogeneity is best. Much of the research on group heterogeneity has focused on its effects on creativity and decision-making and has found a positive effect of heterogeneity on both measures.

Answer B: Research has not shown that heterogeneous groups are more creative but less productive overall. 

Answer C: Research has not shown that heterogeneous groups make better decisions but are less productive overall. 

Answer D: Research has not shown that heterogeneous groups are more creative but worse at decision-making.

A

The only information you are given about the company's selection procedure is that job applicants don't think it "looks like" it is measuring job-related skills and knowledge. Face validity is not an actual type of test validity but refers to the extent to which a test "looks valid" to examinees.

Answer B: Content validity refers to the extent to which a test measures the content or behavior domain it was designed to measure. It is usually established by having subject matter experts use a systematic method for determining if test items are a thorough and accurate sample of the content or behavior domain.

Answer C: External validity refers to the generalizability of research results.

Answer D: Ecological validity refers to the extent to which the procedures, context, methods, etc. of a research study approximate the "real-life" situation that is being studied.

D

Research on goal-setting theory has shown that several factors affect the willingness and ability of employees to achieve work-related goals. For example, in most circumstances, the acceptance of goals is more important than participation in setting goals. Studies have found that moderately difficult goals plus feedback about progress toward those goals result in the greatest productivity.

Answer A: Participation in goal-setting is more effective for workers who have a high need for achievement.

Answer B: Feedback about the achievement of goals is important regardless of whether goals are set by the employees themselves or are assigned to employees by the supervisor.

Answer C: Moderately difficult goals (not goals "within the capabilities of the least proficient workers") have been found to be most effective.

C

Researchers interested in work-related communication distinguish between two types of communication networks - centralized and decentralized. The research indicates that decentralized networks, in which no one individual has greater access to information, are best for complex, unstructured tasks that have a number of different solutions. Centralized networks, on the other hand, are better for simple, structured tasks.

Answer A: The opposite is true; a decentralized communication network is associated with better group performance.

Answer B: A decentralized communication network is associated with better group performance and an authoritarian leadership style was not found to be a factor.

Answer D: A decentralized communication network is associated with better group performance and an authoritarian leadership style was not found to be a factor.

A

Researchers interested in leadership in organizations distinguish between transformational and transactional leaders. Transactional leaders prefer routine and stability and rely primarily on rewards and punishments to motivate employees.

Answer B: Communicating high expectations for performance to employees is not characteristic of transactional leaders.

Answer C: Acting as a role model for employees sounds like a transformational or charismatic leader.

Answer D: Being convinced of the moral rightness of his/her decisions is most associated with charismatic leaders, who are similar to transformational leaders but rely more on their personal characteristics (charisma) to motivate employees.

B

The language in this question is nearly identical to that found in the EEOC's Uniform Guideline. As defined by the EEOC, adverse impact is suggested when there is a difference between groups in terms of rates of selection, promotion, etc.

Answer A: Test bias is a possible cause of adverse impact but is not specific enough and therefore, not the best response. 

Answer C: Criterion deficiency refers to the extent to which a criterion measure does not assess all of the aspects of the ultimate (accurate and complete) criterion.

Answer D: Situational specificity is occurring when validity information is specific to a particular circumstance and does not generalize to other circumstances.

C

For the exam, you want to be familiar with factors that do and do not correlate with job satisfaction, which are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. The research has found that job satisfaction is a good predictor of longevity and mental and physical health. However, the studies have consistently found low correlations between job satisfaction and performance.

C

The four leadership styles listed in the answers to this question are commonly identified in the literature and, for the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between them. Transformational leaders motivate employees by recognizing the need for change, creating a vision that guides change, and transmitting that vision to employees. In contrast to charismatic leaders, they empower followers and activate their higher-order needs.

Answer A: Charismatic leaders share several characteristics with transformational leaders but exert influence primarily through their own personal qualities (e.g., self-confidence and charisma). As defined by some experts, charismatic leaders have a "dark side" - e.g., they may expect unquestioning loyalty, devotion, and obedience from followers.

Answer B: Transactional leaders foster worker motivation and productivity primarily by simplifying and structuring tasks and providing rewards for successful performance.

Answer D: Bureaucratic leaders adhere strictly to established procedures and policies.

A

The studies have found that job satisfaction is relatively stable over time and across jobs. One explanation for the stability of job satisfaction is that it is strongly related to a tendency toward positive or negative affect, which is a stable characteristic: In other words, people with negative affect tend to be dissatisfied with work, while those with positive affect tend to be satisfied.

D

For the exam, you want to know what the base rate and selection ratio are as well as how these factors contribute to a test's ability to improve decision-making accuracy. This information is presented in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. The Taylor-Russell tables provide information on a test's decision-making accuracy for various combinations of base rates, selection ratios, and validity coefficients. The tables indicate that a test with a low or moderate validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .10) and the base rate is moderate (near .50).

A

Expectancy theory predicts that employee motivation is a function of three factors: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Additional information on these factors and how they impact motivation is presented in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. In the context of expectancy theory, instrumentality refers to an employee's beliefs about the link between performance and outcomes.

Answer B: This describes an employee's expectancy beliefs.

Answer C: Commitment to work-related goals does not describe the factor of instrumentality and is not specifically related to expectancy theory. 

Answer D: A willingness to accept responsibility does not describe the factor of instrumentality and is not specifically related to expectancy theory.

A

ERG theory proposes that we have three basic needs: existence, relatedness, and growth. Alderfer modified Maslow's need hierarchy theory so that it better corresponds to research showing that humans have three (rather than five) distinct needs and that more than one need can act as a motivator at any point in time.

B

Peer evaluations are not often used in organizations, but the research indicates that they can provide accurate and useful information. Peer evaluations have been found valid for certain purposes and appear to be particularly accurate in predicting training success and subsequent promotions.

Answer A: The research suggests that peer and supervisor ratings agree more with each other than they do with self-ratings.

Answer C: Peer evaluations have not been found to be consistently more lenient than self-evaluations.

Answer D: Peer evaluations are not preferred by employees to supervisor evaluations.

B

Job rotation, job enrichment, and job enlargement are methods of job redesign. By increasing the variety of tasks (which all three methods of job redesign do), worker alienation and boredom are likely to be reduced.

Answer A: Maximizing responsibility and autonomy is true of job enrichment but not job enlargement and may or may not be true of job rotation depending on what jobs are involved.

Answer C: Increasing organizational commitment has not been shown to be an outcome of all three of these methods of job redesign.

Answer D: Improving the quality but not the quantity of work does not accurately describe the outcomes associated with all three of these types of job redesign.

C

As their name implies, trainability tests are used to determine if individuals will benefit from training. Trainability tests are similar to work samples except they are given to people who currently do not have sufficient skills or knowledge to perform the job. They are used to determine if a job applicant is likely to benefit from training.

B

Although studies have shown that participation in goal-setting is generally less important than the acceptance of goals, there is evidence that, in some circumstances, participation is associated with benefits. There is evidence that, when workers participate in setting their own goals, the goals are more difficult than those the supervisor would have set alone.

B

D. A. Nadler (Feedback and Organizational Development: Using Data-Based Methods, Reading, MA, Addison-Wesley, 1977) identifies four commonly used data collection methods in organizational development: interviews, questionnaires, observations, and secondary (archival) sources. Nadler recommends using multiple methods to ensure that the collected data is complete and unbiased. However, of the four techniques, questionnaires are most useful for collecting quantitative data from a large number of individuals.

C

Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership proposes that a worker's performance depends on the interaction between the leader's leadership style (high LPC versus low LPC) and the favorableness of the situation, which refers to the extent to which the leader has influence, the tasks are structured, and the leader is in a position to reward employees for good performance. Fiedler believed that different leadership styles are more effective in different situations. Specifically, he believed that low LPC leaders are most effective in very favorable and unfavorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations. Therefore, if the situation changes in terms of favorableness, an effective leader can actually become ineffective (and vice versa). Additional information on Fiedler's theory that you want to be familiar with for the exam (including a definition of low and high LPC leaders) is presented in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials.

A

At first glance, it may appear that this question is asking about selection procedures, but it is actually addressing rater biases. For the exam, you'll want to be familiar with the common rater biases that are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. This is an example of the halo effect, a rater bias in which the rater allows an evaluation of a ratee on one dimension of behavior to influence his/her evaluations of the ratee on unrelated dimensions. In this case, the personnel manager's evaluation of the applicant's appearance is affecting his/her ratings of the applicant on other dimensions.

Answer B: The Hawthorne effect is not a rater bias. The Hawthorne effect occurs when the behavior of research participants is altered because of the novelty of the research situation and the special attention they are receiving as research participants.

Answer C: Behavioral contrast occurs when the removal of reinforcement from one behavior produces a decrease in that behavior and an increase in another reinforced behavior.

Answer D: Reactance occurs when a person does the opposite of what he/she is requested to do because the person feels his/her personal freedom is being threatened by the request.

B

Not surprisingly, process consultants focus on organizational processes. Process consultants focus on processes or interactions between people and how these processes interfere with the achievement of their goals.

Answer A: Process consultation involves a less structured approach to identifying and resolving consultee problems than formal interviews and focuses on helping employees identify and resolve their own work-related problems.

Answer C: Acting as a mediator or arbitrator is not the role that process consultants adopt.

Answer D: Although process consultants are concerned about consultees' goals, the use of a survey is associated more with the technique known as survey feedback.

D

This supervisor's ratings seem to be tainted by a rater bias, which is a risk whenever a subjective rating scale is used. Common rater biases are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. The central tendency bias occurs when a rater uses the middle (average) range of a rating scale regardless of the actual performance of the ratees. Of course, in this situation, all of the supervisor's employees may have been working at an average level but, of the alternatives given, central tendency bias is the best choice.

Answer A: The halo effect occurs when a rater's rating of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects his/her ratings of the employee on unrelated dimensions.

Answer B: The Hawthorne effect is not a rater bias but, instead, refers to the tendency for research participants to behave differently simply because they are participating in a research project.

Answer C: Social desirability is the tendency for research participants or test takers to act or respond in a manner that they believe to be most socially acceptable.

B

The usefulness of a selection test for making hiring decisions is affected by three factors: its validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate. These factors are described in the section on incremental validity in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. A predictor's decision-making accuracy (incremental validity) is maximized when the base rate is close to 50% and the selection ratio is as low as possible. A selection ratio of 1:20 (5%) means that there are twenty applicants for every one job opening, and, of the selection ratios given, it is the lowest. (A low selection ratio is preferable because it provides the employer with a larger pool of applicants to choose from and thereby maximizes the usefulness of the selection test.).

D

Job enrichment is based on Herzberg's two-factor theory and involves redesigning a job so that it provides workers with opportunities to satisfy their motivator needs - e.g., opportunities for responsibility, recognition, and advancement. Job enrichment has been found to be effective for a variety of jobs. Early applications of this technique applied it to a diverse range of jobs including clerks, service representatives, laboratory technicians, and production workers.

C

Job enrichment involves redesigning a job so that it provides workers with opportunities to satisfy their motivator needs - e.g., opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, recognition, and advancement. The research suggests that there are individual differences with regard to the acceptance and effectiveness of job enrichment. For example, young, well-educated employees are likely to respond favorably to job enrichment, while employees preferring stability and security to responsibility are likely to respond unfavorably.

Answer A: Job enrichment is associated with job satisfaction, at least for some workers.

Answer B: Job enrichment does not involve "simply increasing the variety of job tasks." This sounds more like job enlargement.

Answer D: Job enrichment has not been linked to low self-esteem.

D

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the basic assumptions and predictions of the major theories of motivation, which are described in the Industrial-Organizational Psychology chapter of the written study materials. According to the two-factor theory, lower-level needs such as physiological and safety needs have little effect on job satisfaction or motivation when they are fulfilled but produce dissatisfaction when they are unfulfilled. In contrast, higher-level needs have little effect on satisfaction and motivation when they are unfulfilled but increase satisfaction and motivation when they are fulfilled. The two-factor theory would, therefore, predict that financial incentives, which address lower-level needs, would not increase motivation and satisfaction.

Answer A: ERG theory predicts that people have three basic needs - existence, relatedness, and growth. From the perspective of ERG theory, opportunities for increased compensation may actually help satisfy an individual's needs and thereby would lead to increased satisfaction and motivation.

Answer B: Expectancy theory predicts that valued outcomes lead to increased satisfaction and motivation. There is no information provided in the question suggesting that the wage and incentive program is not valued by employees, so this is not the best response.

Answer C: Equity theory predicts that motivation is related to the comparisons we make between our input/outcome ratio and the input/outcome ratios of workers performing similar jobs. There is no information given in this question suggesting that this type of comparison is responsible for the employees' lack of response to the wage and incentive program.

D

Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) are empirically developed biodata forms that contain multiple-choice questions that assess various aspects of the applicant's background including work history, family history, health, and attitudes. A disadvantage of BIBs and other empirically derived biodata forms is that some items may not seem to be related to actual job performance to job applicants - i.e., the items lack face validity. As a result, applicants may resist answering items because they perceive them to be an invasion of privacy.

Answer A: BIBs are empirically developed and, therefore, typically have good criterion-related validity.

Answer B: Rater biases are not an issue for BIBs.

Answer C: BIBs use a multiple-choice format and, therefore, are easy to score.

A

Job satisfaction has been linked to a number of consequences, including turnover rates. The correlation between satisfaction and turnover is one of the strongest reported in the literature, with lower levels of satisfaction being associated with higher levels of turnover.

Answer B: Job productivity has not been found to correlate highly with turnover. 

Answer C: Intelligence has not been found to correlate highly with turnover. 

Answer D: Motivation has not been found to correlate highly with turnover.

D

McGregor (1960) distinguished between two types of managers - Theory X and Theory Y. The belief that managers must closely supervise employees is consistent with McGregor's description of Theory X managers. According to McGregor, these managers believe that workers have an inherent dislike of work, do not want responsibility, and perform best when they are closely supervised and controlled (e.g., through the use of rewards and punishments).

Answer A: The belief that managers empower employees by encouraging them to set their own performance goals sounds more like Theory Y managers who assume that workers are capable of (and prefer) self-control and self-direction.

Answer B: The belief that managers are most effective when the task is complex and unstructured is not consistent with McGregor's description of Theory X managers.

Answer C: The belief that managers believe that workers perform best when jobs are enriched sounds more like a Theory Y manager.

C

Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model proposes that a leader is most effective when his/her leadership style matches the subordinate's ability and motivation (willingness to accept responsibility), and they distinguish between four styles -- telling, selling, participating, and delegating. According to Hersey and Blanchard, a participative leadership style is most effective when subordinates have high levels of ability and low levels of motivation.

Answer A: According to Hersey and Blanchard, telling style is most effective for employees low in both ability and motivation.

Answer B: According to Hersey and Blanchard, selling style is most effective for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation.

Answer D: According to Hersey and Blanchard, delegating style is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.

C

The leniency bias is a type of rater bias that involves giving ratees high ratings on each dimension of performance regardless of their actual performance. Rater biases can be alleviated by using relative rating scales such as the forced distribution scale which assigns ratees to a limited number of categories based on a predefined normal distribution.

Answer A: The double-blind technique is used in research and involves keeping participants and the experimenter uninformed of which group (e.g., experimental versus control) participants are in.

Answer B: A weighted BIB is used to collect biographical information about a job applicant and would not be useful for alleviating a leniency bias.

D

The most recent version of Bandura's (1997) social learning theory - social cognitive theory - emphasizes the impact of self-regulation on behavior. Bandura's social cognitive theory distinguishes between four processes that contribute to self-regulation: goal-setting, self-observation, self-evaluation, and self-reaction. According to this theory, self-regulation (the exercise of influence over one's own behavior) is a primary determinant of motivation.

Answer A: Designing a job so that rewards are matched to the employee's prepotent needs is associated with Maslow's need hierarchy theory.

Answer B: Bandura's theory focuses more on individual behavior than on team behavior.

Answer C: Designing a job so that job roles and responsibilities match the employee's self-concept is associated with Super's theory of career development.

B

The critical incident technique is a method of job analysis, and its results are often used to develop performance appraisal measures. The critical incidents identified using the critical incident technique are behaviors that are crucial to job performance (i.e., extreme behaviors) and often do not reflect what people typically do.

Answer A: One criticism of the critical incident technique is that it often focuses too much on employee traits rather than on the characteristics or requirements of the job.

Answer C: Susceptibility to bias has not been found to be a problem with the critical incident technique. 

Answer D: By definition, critical incidents are specific job behaviors.

B

Empirical research has identified five basic personality traits (the "Big Five"): neuroticism, extraversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness. Conscientiousness refers to the individual's level of responsibility, dependability, persistence, self-control, and achievement motivation. Perhaps not surprisingly, of the Big Five traits, conscientiousness has been found to be the best predictor of job performance across different jobs, job settings, and criterion measures.

A

As its name implies, a formative evaluation is conducted while a program is being "formed." The purpose of a formative evaluation is to obtain the information needed to modify a program as it is being developed in order to determine if modifications are needed to achieve the program's goals.

Answer B: The determination of whether the program has produced outcomes commensurate with the program's goals describes a summative evaluation.

Answer C: To initially formulate the goals and objectives of a new program is not the function of a formative evaluation.

Answer D: The purpose of a formative evaluation is not to identify and define the causal links between observed relationships among a set of variables.

D

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the difference between unfairness and differential validity, which are two causes of adverse impact. The illustrations provided in the Industrial-Organization Psychology chapter may be useful if you're having trouble understanding this difference. The situation described in the question illustrates the EEOC's definition of unfairness: "When members of one race, sex, or ethnic group characteristically obtain lower scores on a selection procedure than members of another group, and the differences in scores are not reflected in differences in a measure of job performance, use of the selection procedure may unfairly deny opportunities to members of the group that obtains the lower scores" (Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, Section 14.B.8.a).

Answer A: Differential validity occurs when a predictor has different validity coefficients for members of different groups. No information is given about the validity coefficients for males and females, so you cannot conclude that the selection test has differential validity.

Answer B: Differential selection is a threat to the internal validity of a research study and is not relevant to this situation.

Answer C: The situation described in the question could lead to an adverse impact if females are not hired because of their low scores on the predictor. However, the question does not state that the hiring rate for females is lower than the rate for males, so this is not the best response.

D

Identical elements refer to the similarity between the learning and performance environments. Providing identical elements refers to matching the training environment to the job environment and is useful for maximizing the transfer of training.

Answer A: Overlearning involves practicing past the point of mastery and is not relevant to identical elements.

Answer B: The term overtraining is used in sports psychology and refers to the physical and psychological stress resulting from excessive athletic training.

Answer C: Elaborative rehearsal involves making new information meaningful by relating it to previously acquired information. It is not relevant to identical elements.

A

The Leaderless Group Discussion is a simulation technique that presents four to eight participants with problems that they must solve in a prespecified period of time. When using this technique, each participant has an opportunity to assume a leadership role. This allows each participant to demonstrate his/her leadership (managerial) skills.

D

This is a difficult question because there does not seem to be a strong consensus in the literature about the uses of peer appraisals and because there are several different types that are each associated with different advantages and disadvantages. Peer appraisals seem to be particularly useful for predicting future success (e.g. promotions and raises).

Answer A: One fairly consistent finding is that peer appraisals are not associated with bias.

Answer B: One type of peer appraisal -- peer rankings -- is actually considered useful for the purpose of providing employees with feedback.

Answer C: Fostering competition among employees is not considered an advantage of peer appraisals.

C

A decision tree is associated with only one of the models listed in the answers. The Vroom-Yetton-Jago normative (decision-making) model includes a decision tree that poses eight questions related to the situation. The leader's answers to these questions indicate the optimal leadership style.

C

Social loafing is the tendency to exert less effort when working as a group member than when working alone. Social loafing is most likely to occur when group members believe that their contribution to the group product will not or cannot be evaluated.

Answer A: A group member with more task-related expertise than the other members will most likely not engage in social loafing.

Answer B: Choosing not to participate in the group has not been linked to social loafing.

Answer D: This is the opposite of what is true. Social loafing is unlikely to occur when group members are motivated to achieve the group's goal.

D

According to Hollander (1960), idiosyncrasy credits allow group members to occasionally violate group norms without experiencing negative consequences. A group member accumulates idiosyncrasy credits by gaining prestige, status, and respect; and one way for doing so is to consistently adhere to group norms.

A

Researchers interested in organizational justice distinguish between three types - distributive, procedural, and interactional. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the nature of each type of justice as well as with the outcomes of research on these types of justice. Distributive justice refers to the fairness of the outcomes of organizational policies and procedures.

Answer B: This sounds more like procedural justice, which refers to the fairness of the ways in which procedures and policies are implemented.

Answer C: This also sounds like procedural justice.

Answer D: Interactional justice refers to how employees perceive the quality and content of their interactions with managers and other employees.

B

The Yerkes-Dodson law pertains to the relationship between arousal and learning or performance. The Yerkes-Dodson law predicts an inverted U-shaped relationship between arousal and learning or performance, with moderate levels of arousal being associated with the highest levels of learning or performance.

B

Survey feedback entails three steps: data collection, feedback meetings, and action plans. The survey feedback process involves administering a survey to employees at all levels to assess their attitudes toward and perceptions of the organization and to evaluate the organizational climate. The results of the survey are discussed with employees and provide the basis for identifying specific problems and action plans for resolving those problems.

A

Hofstede's five cultural dimensions are power distance, uncertainty avoidance, individualism, masculinity, and long-term orientation. Even if you're unfamiliar with Hofstede's research, you probably could have guessed that the United States scores high on individualism.

Answer B: Although the U.S. is high on individualism, it is low on power distance.

Answer C: The U.S. is low on power distance and moderate to high on masculinity.

Answer D: The U.S. is low to moderate on uncertainty avoidance.

D

The person-organization fit refers to the match between the employee's values, needs, preferences, etc. and the culture of the organization. A good P-O fit has been linked to several benefits including enhanced satisfaction, motivation, and organizational commitment and reduced stress and turnover. Selection and socialization have been identified as the primary opportunities for ensuring a good person-organization fit (e.g., Chatman, 1991): Selection helps identify individuals whose characteristics match the characteristics of the organization, while socialization (e.g., behavioral modeling by and feedback from the supervisor, participation in work-related social events) helps employees acquire the skills, knowledge, and attitudes that are compatible with the organization's culture.

A

A job evaluation is conducted in organizations to determine the relative worth of jobs in order to set wages and salaries. Several methods of job evaluation are useful for establishing comparable worth, which refers to the principle that men and women should receive comparable compensation for work that requires similar skills, knowledge, responsibilities, etc.

Answer B: The 80% rule is used to determine if a job selection technique is having an adverse impact.

Answer C: A needs assessment is conducted to determine training needs.

Answer D: A person analysis is part of a needs assessment and involves determining which employees require training and what knowledge, skills, and abilities they need to acquire to perform their jobs effectively.

D

Knowing that Edgar Schein is interested in organizational culture would have helped you identify the correct response to this question. Schein (1992) proposed that the basic assumptions (the unconscious beliefs, attitudes, emotions, etc.) underlying an organization's culture can act as cognitive defense mechanisms for individuals and groups that can impede the ability to make changes in the organization.

A

House's path-goal theory distinguishes between four leadership styles: directive, supportive, participative, and achievement-oriented. According to the path-goal theory, the optimal leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the worker (e.g., self-confidence and locus of control) and the work situation (e.g., degree of task challenge and ambiguity).

Answer B. Path-goal theory identifies worker and situational characteristics as determinants of the optimal leadership style but does not focus on the person-organization fit.

Answer C: Path-goal theory does not identify the leader's orientation as a determinant of the optimal leadership style.

Answer D: This response is associated with Fiedler's contingency model of leadership.

C

Herbert Simon (1979) identified two models of individual decision-making: the rational-economic model and the bounded rational (administrative) model. These models are described in the Industrial-Organizational chapter of the written study materials and, for the exam, you want to be familiar with their characteristics. According to Simon, limited time and resources require decision-makers to be less than totally rational. Specifically, rather than considering all alternatives before making a decision, they consider alternatives only until they encounter one that meets the minimum requirements of acceptability.

Answer A: The bounded rationality (administrative) model does not predict that decision-makers "satisfice" due to a tendency to make conservative decisions. 

Answer B: Peer pressure is more likely a specific example of potential liability of group decision-making, namely groupthink. 

Answer D: The bounded rationality (administrative) model does not link decision-makers with the concept of insufficient response-contingent reinforcement.

D

Maslow's need hierarchy theory proposes that humans have five basic needs (physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization) and that these needs emerge in a hierarchical order, with unsatisfied lower-level needs being prepotent. Maslow's theory predicts that once an individual's physiological needs are satisfied, his/her safety needs become prepotent - i.e., they become the primary motivators.

Answer A: Belongingness, according to Maslow, becomes the primary source of motivation only after one's safety needs are satisfied.

Answer B: Esteem, according to Maslow, becomes the primary source of motivation only after one's belongingness needs are satisfied. 

Answer C: Growth is one of the three needs of Alderfer's ERG Theory.

D

Kirkpatrick (1976) distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation - reaction, learning, behavioral, and results. Results criteria are the fourth level in Kirkpatrick's model and assess the value of the training program in terms of the organization's goals. According to Kirkpatrick, the higher the level of evaluation, the more difficult and costly the evaluation process is but the more significant the information.

Answer A: Learning criteria measure how much trainees have learned.

Answer B: Behavioral criteria assess participants' change in performance once they return to the job.

Answer C: Reaction criteria assess participants' subjective reactions to the training program. Reaction criteria represent the first level in Kirkpatrick's model and provide the least useful information.

C

Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is a type of rater training. The goal of FOR training is to improve raters' accuracy when completing performance appraisals by helping them identify and focus on the most important job performance dimensions and distinguish behaviors that are indicative of good, average, and poor performance within each dimension.

B

The validity of the various selection procedures used in organizations varies somewhat, depending on the specific job. However, this question is asking which procedure is most valid across different jobs and job settings. Based on their meta-analysis of published validity studies, Schmidt and Hunter (1998) conclude that general mental (cognitive) ability tests have the highest criterion-related validity coefficients across different jobs, job settings, and criterion measures.

Answer A: Interviews tend to have fairly low validity, and situational (future-oriented) interviews are less valid than behavioral (past-oriented) interviews.

Answer C: Interest tests are good predictors of job choice, satisfaction, and persistence but are not good predictors of job performance.

Answer D: Work sample tests are valid for some jobs but are unavailable for many jobs. In addition, they are useful only for hiring experienced applicants.

B

In this situation, the supervisor's knowledge of the employee's selection test score is "contaminating" his/her rating of the employee on a criterion (job performance) measure. The situation described in this question illustrates criterion contamination.

Answer A: Criterion deficiency refers to the degree to which a criterion measure does not measure all aspects of the "ultimate" criterion. The information provided in the question does not indicate that the measure of job performance is deficient in terms of being a thorough measure of performance. It only indicates that the measure is susceptible to criterion contamination.

Answer C: Criterion relevance refers to the extent to which a criterion measure evaluates the "ultimate" criterion.

Answer D: Criterion partiality is a made-up term and is therefore incorrect.

C

Research on group decision-making has confirmed that it is associated with several liabilities including group polarization. The research has shown that, after participating in a group discussion, group members are likely to advocate more extreme positions than they would have advocated if they had not participated in the discussion. This phenomenon is referred to as group polarization.

A

The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a method for obtaining quantitative information about job requirements. The PAQ is a worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that is used to obtain information about the attributes needed to perform a job.

C

Holmes and Rahe (1967) developed the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (SRRS) as a method for evaluating a person's current level of stress. The death of a spouse is the most stressful event included in the SRRS.

Answer A: Losing one's job is the 7th most stressful event on the SRRS.

Answer B: Sexual difficulties are the 9th most stressful event.

Answer D: Imprisonment is the 3rd most stressful event.

B

Job burnout is caused by accumulated stress associated with overwork. An early sign of job burnout is a sudden increase in work effort that is not accompanied by an increase in productivity. Other signs include a sense of low personal accomplishment, cynicism, and exhaustion.

A

For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the phenomena listed in the answers to this question. Knowing that Mayo and his colleagues conducted their studies at the Hawthorne Plant of the Western Electric Company would have helped you identify this as the correct response.

Answer B: The Zeigarnik effect refers to the tendency to remember unfinished tasks better than finished ones.

Answer C: The halo bias (effect) occurs when a rater's rating of an employee on one dimension of performance affects how he/she rates the employee on other unrelated dimensions of performance.

Answer D: Confirmation bias is the tendency to search for or pay attention to information that verifies one's beliefs.

D

The name of these teams -- i.e., self-managed work teams -- should have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. SMWTs are made up of employees who work together as a unit, with leadership usually rotating from one member to another. Members of SMWTs make hiring, budget, and other decisions that were previously made by managers.

A

Overlearning is what it sounds like -- i.e., studying or reviewing material past the point of mastery.

Answer B: Overtraining is a term used in sports psychology and refers to physical and psychological stress resulting from excessive athletic training.

Answer C: Elaborative rehearsal involves relating new information to existing information and is useful for ensuring that information is stored in long-term memory.

Answer D: Maintenance rehearsal involves simply repeating information with little or no processing.

C

Social loafing theory predicts that people will, at least in certain circumstances, exert less effort when working in a group than when working alone. This makes sense: You're more likely to "loaf" when working in a large group and your individual contribution will not be evaluated or recognized.Answer A: This response is only half right because the theory predicts that social loafing increases as the group size increases and decreases when individual contributions are identifiable and rewarded.

Answer B: This response is the opposite of the social loafing theory as it predicts that social loafing increases as the group size increases and decreases when individual contributions are identifiable and rewarded.

Answer D: This response is only half right because the theory predicts that social loafing increases as the group size increases and decreases when individual contributions are identifiable and rewarded.

B

An important thing to remember about goal-setting theory is that it predicts that acceptance of goals is considered to be of paramount importance. Acceptance is the critical factor: A person must consciously accept the goals and intend to achieve them.

Answer A: Although participation in goals can increase one's acceptance (and intentions), it is not considered necessary.

Answer C: A consistent self-concept is not a prediction made by goal-setting theory (although it would contribute to a person's acceptance of goals).

Answer D: Willingness and self-efficacy is not a prediction of goal-setting theory.

A

Path-goal theory is classified as a contingency theory because it proposes that the best style (directive, supportive, participative, or achievement-oriented) depends on the nature of the situation. According to the path-goal theory, the best leadership style depends on certain characteristics of the task (e.g., level of ambiguity, structure) and of the workers (e.g., traits, abilities).

A

Holland's theory distinguishes between six personality and occupational types - realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional ("RIASEC"). According to Holland, a person is highly differentiated when he/she obtains a high score on only one personality dimension. He also believed that a personality-occupational match is most accurate for predicting outcomes for those who are highly differentiated.

C

Locke and Latham (1984), the founders of goal-setting theory, proposed that, under conditions of task interdependence, the optimal strategy is to set goals for the group along with goals for each individual group member. Empirical research has found that group plus individual goals and group goals alone have similar effects on productivity and that the lowest productivity is produced by individual goals alone.