mochida final

Inhibitors of the inflammatory response include

a. NSAIDS that selectively reduce the production of prostaglandins
b. glucocorticoid steroid hormones that inhibit phospholipase A2
c. specific COX-2 inhibitors that target the inflammatory induced increase in prostaglandins
d. a and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

The complement cascade is included in the innate immune system and

a. requires removal of antigen-antibody complexes by eosinophils to prevent full activation
b. can be activated by antigen-antibody complexes only if the individual has been exposed to the antigen previously
c. is able to kill target cells by formation of the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)
d. a and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct

The neutrophil

a. is the most abundant white blood cell and is generally considered to be the first line of defense against infection
b. is incapable of killing pathogens if an individual is homozygous recessive for myeloperoxidase and cannot produce hypochlorous acid as an oxidative killing mechanism
c. secretes proteases and reactive oxygen radicals that can damage tissues when activated
d. a and c are correct.
e. a, b, and c are correct

4. During the acute phase response (ACR) of inflammation

a. C-Reactive Protein (CRP) and serum amyloid a (SAA) levels in the blood increase
b. HDL bound cholesterol decreases and the profile of plasma lipid risk factors for atherosclerosis and cardiovascular disease increase
c. The synthetic profile of proteins synthesized by the liver is altered drastically
d. All the above are correct

Long chain omega-3 fatty acids, such as eicosapentaenoic acid found in cold water marine fish,

a. are absorbed intact across the intestinal epithelium from dietary sources
b. are classified as essential fatty acids since the body cannot make them
c. when taken in the diet, change prostaglandin and leukotriene types and suppress the inflammatory response
d. All of the above are correct

Synthesis of prostaglandins and leukotrienes

a. requires 20-carbon polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) as precursor molecules for both
b. decreases to non-detectable levels in the circulation in response to interleukin-1 (IL-1) or LPS.
c. is significantly decreased by glucocorticoids that inhibit specific phospholipase enzymes.
d. a and c are correct
e. a, b and c are correct

Fever

a. may reach lethal levels in response to some inhaled anesthetics (malignant hyperthermia)
b. can be induced in response to Interleukin 1 (which was originally named endogenous pyrogen)
c. is part of the nonspecific or innate body defense mechanisms (low grade fever increases the efficiency of the immune system)
d. All the above are correct

Dietary protein

a. may affect plasma cholesterol levels differently depending on whether the source is animal (casein) or vegetable (soy)
b. must include sufficient essential amino acids to meet the individuals needs
c. may place stress on the skeletal system by causing renal loss of calcium if on high protein diets
d. All the above are correct

Dietary carbohydrates

a. can only be absorbed as monosaccharides across the digestive tract epithelium
b. can cause digestive tract upsets if disaccharides (e.g. lactose) cannot be cleaved to monosaccharides
c. must supply sufficient glucose to supply the individual’s daily requirement
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b and c are correct

Dietary lipids

a. may be polyunsaturated (oils at room temperature) or saturated fatty acids (solids at room temperature)
b. that are artificially hydrogenated (trans fatty acids) have been implicated as significant risk factors for cardiovascular diseases
c. have been implicated as a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease if taken in excessive amounts
d. b and c only are correct
e. a, b and c are correct

Metabolic pathways for energy production

a. that utilize carbohydrates may be inhibited by high ATP levels in the cell
b. may utilize protein and lipid stores in the body as well as carbohydrates
c. may be affected (growth hormone, glucocorticoids) or regulated by hormones (thyroid hormones)
d. b and c are correct
e. a, b and c are correct

Vitamins

a. such as vitamin D may require metabolic alterations by organs such as liver and kidney to become biologically active.
b. A, D E and K are fat soluble and remain in the body for considerable time after ingestion
c. that are water soluble wash out of the body quickly and must be replenished often by dietary sources.
d. b and c are correct
e. a, b and c are correct

Dietary antioxidants
a. include vitamins C and E and beta carotene
b. are beneficial since they protect the body from reactive oxygen radicals produced during energy metabolism and inflammation
c. should only be consumed in trace amounts since high dietary intakes are extremely toxic
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b and c are correct

Allergic reactions to dietary components
A. may result in anatomical changes in the intestinal tract, e.g., villi reduction in celiac disease
B. are increasing in frequency in the general population
C. may be sufficiently severe to be life threatening
D. All the above are correct

The trace element necessary for crosslink formation in collagen and elastin is

a. cobalt
b. copper
c. zinc
d. selenium

16. The trace element that can cause severe bone weakness if accumulated in the body is

a. iron
b. cadmium
c. zinc
d. copper

DNA

a. that occurs in mitochondria does not undergo meiosis and the nucleotide sequence can be used to determine relationships between groups of individuals
b. has hydrogen bonds that dictate bonding of adenine to thymine and cytosine to guanine
c. of the human genome contains approximately 3 billion nucleotide pairs
d. All the above are correct

Comparison of prokaryotic and eukaryotic mRNA would show that

A. eukaryotic ,but not prokaryotic, mRNA may be cut and spliced and have introns removed to produce different proteins from the same genetic transcript
B. Eukaryotic mRNA is double stranded while prokaryotic mRNA is single stranded
C. Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic mRNA begin translation into proteins with the amino acid methionine.
D. a and c are correct
E. a, b and c are correct

Nucleotides

a. consist of a phosphate group, five carbon sugar and a nitrogenous base
b. are metabolized as a primary energy source by cells
c. metabolism may contribute to gout in some individuals since uric acid is the end product of adenine and guanine metabolism
d. a and c are correct
e. a, b and c are correct

Many body cells (except for stem cells) have a finite number of divisions possibly because of loss of

a. mitochondria
b. centromeres
c. histones and hence nucleosomes necessary for chromosome coiling
d. nucleotides from telomeres of chromosomes

Cell cycle times

a. for different cell populations in the body will be very similar
b. vary widely for different cell populations mostly related to differences in G1 phase of the cell cycle
c. differences are mostly related to differences in the S phase of the cell cycle in which DNA is duplicated
d. can be altered by deleting some events in the M or mitosis phase

Changing gene expression to enable an individual to adapt to different environments

a. cannot be done since gene expression is independent of environment
b. can only be done by gene therapy techniques
c. can occur by environmentally induced hypermethylation of cytosine or guanine bases in DNA
d. can occur by environmental pressures but the changes cannot be inherited

Mutations that occur in DNA
a. may or may not show phenotypic variations that will be detrimental to the organism
b. may be caused by ionizing radiation
c. can occur by addition or deletion of a nucleotide (frameshift mutation)
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b and c are correct

Post-translational modifications of proteins

a. may include hydroxylation of amino acids and glycosylation of proteins
b. may be necessary for normal function of the protein
c. may be controlled by cytoplasmic or Golgi apparatus enzymes
d. All the above are correct

Epigenetic influences on gene expression

a. may be induced by something as simple as a dietary deficiency
b. might explain differences in phenotypic differences in identical twins who have identical nucleotide sequences
c. have caused a major shift in paradigms in molecular biology
d. a, b and c are correct.

Which of the following statement is TRUE about ectodermal dysplasias (EDs)?

A. People with ED often have certain cranial-facial abnormalities but development of their eyes and ears are usually normal.
B. Gene therapy is widely used for permanent cure for ED.
C. Symptoms can range from mild to severe and sometimes but not always include dental abnormalities.
D. Most ED conditions are only present in single family units.
E. An estimated 1 in 1,000 births results in an ED.

Which of the following statement is FALSE about symptoms of ectodermal dysplasias (EDs)?

A. Fingernails and toenails may be thick, abnormally shaped, discolored, ridged, slow-growing, or brittle.
B. Individuals with certain ED syndromes cannot perspire as their sweat glands may function abnormally or may not have developed at all.
C. Scalp and body hair may be thin, sparse, and very light in color.
D. EDs are a group of about 150 heritable disorders affecting the ectoderm and mesoderm.
E. Skin can be prone to rashes or infections and can be thick over the palms and soles.

Which of the following statement BEST describes the inheritance of ectodermal dysplasias (EDs)?

A. When ED is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, there is a 25% chance for each child to inherit the abnormal gene.
B. In autosomal recessive inheritance, there is a 25% chance that the child will be an unaffected carrier, like the parents.
C. When ED is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, the parent who is affected always has two copies of the abnormal gene.
D. In X-linked recessive inheritance, women will be more affected than men because women have two X chromosomes.
E. In autosomal recessive inheritance, parents with an abnormal copy of the gene are called “carriers”.

Which of the following statement is FALSE about de novo (new) mutations leading to ectodermal dysplasias (EDs)?

A. If a child carries de novo mutation, there is about 90% chance that it will occur in another child of the same parents.
B. The affected child may transmit the disease-causing gene to future generations.
C. A new ED-associated mutation can occur in a child from parents without the mutation at the time of egg or sperm formation, or after fertilization.
D. Even in families who have the exact same mutation, there can be variability in their symptoms.

Choose the single BEST answer that includes tissues and organs derived from ectoderm.

A. sebaceous glands, thyroid glands, nails, lens, small intestine
B. inner ear, cornea, teeth, limb skeleton, skeletal muscles
C. oral epithelium, nails, inner ear, nerves, tendon
D. oral epithelium, mammary glands, sweat glands, hair, anal canal

Choose the single BEST answer about p63 that was discussed in the lecture.

A. a, b and c are correct
B. Mouse models show that loss of function of p63 causes several ED-associated phenotypes including abnormalities in the skin, cranial-facial structures, and limb development.
C. p63 is an essential transcription factor expressed in epithelial stem cells.
D. p63 mutations cause ectodermal dysplasias (EDs) including, Hay-Wells syndrome, Rapp-Hodkin syndrome, and EEC syndrome.

Choose the single BEST answer for the following case.
“In 1875, Charles Darwin described a peculiar disorder that appeared in each generation of one family’s male members, affecting some, sparing others. Darwin noted that “Though the daughters in the above family were never affected, they transmit the tendency to their sons; and no case has occurred of a son transmitting it to his sons.”

A. It was Y-linked recessive inheritance.
B. It was autosomal recessive inheritance.
C. It was X-linked dominant inheritance.
D. It led to the discovery of the gene for hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia with X-linked recessive inheritance.

Which of the following conditions demonstrates very clearly that the presence of saliva is essential for the protection of oral hard and soft tissues:

a. Side effects of pancreatic cancer
b. Side effects of oral ionizing radiation treatment
c. Secondary to juvenile asthma
d. Concomitant with HIV infection
e. Common side effects of diabetes

There is ample evidence that the super saturation of saliva with respect to calcium and phosphate salts is very important for the stabilization and repair of the enamel mineral. The major salivary proteins responsible for this characteristic of saliva are acidic PRPs, Statherin, Histatin 1 and some Cystatins. Which of the following statements represents the molecular characteristic common to all these proteins and is essential for exerting the calcium phosphate precipitation inhibitory activity in saliva? These proteins;

a. contain phosphate groups linked to serine residues.
b. are enriched with respect to proline, glycine and glutamine in their carboxyl-terminal region.
c. have several cysteine residues in their primary structure.
d. are hydrophobic due to their high content in tyrosine residues.
e. are enriched with many histidine residues within their polypeptide chain

There is ample evidence that the super saturation of saliva with respect to calcium and phosphate salts is very important for the stabilization and repair of the enamel mineral. The major salivary proteins responsible for this characteristic of saliva are acidic PRPs, Statherin, Histatin 1 and some Cystatins. Which of the following statements represents the molecular characteristic common to all these proteins and is essential for exerting the calcium phosphate precipitation inhibitory activity in saliva? These proteins;

a. contain phosphate groups linked to serine residues.
b. are enriched with respect to proline, glycine and glutamine in their carboxyl-terminal region.
c. have several cysteine residues in their primary structure.
d. are hydrophobic due to their high content in tyrosine residues.
e. are enriched with many histidine residues within their polypeptide chain

There are possible pathways during the development of cariogenesis, which require the knowledge of the basic processes occurring on tooth surfaces and knowledge of the qualities of whole saliva. This knowledge is of clinical importance. The processes or conditions described below are true except:

a. Dental biofilm forming on the tooth surface produces an acidic environment via glycolysis.
b. The generated acid penetrates the acquired enamel pellicle surface and enters the tooth mineral forming a subsurface demineralized zone called the incipient enamel lesion or “white spot enamel”.
c. The removal of the dental biofilm allows a better localization of the “white spot lesion” permitting an explorer to penetrate the enamel into the lesion providing a more rapid access of saliva leading to the remineralization of the enamel defect.
d. The removal of the dental biofilm allows saliva to come in contact with the tooth and the calcium and phosphate of saliva being present in a supersaturated state will diffuse thru the pellicle and remineralize the “white spot lesion”.
e. Without the removal of the dental biofilm, the acid production continues and the subsurface lesion will enlarge until it communicates with the surface of the enamel leading to an irreversible caries lesion. This lesion will not undergo remineralization naturally since the ingress of saliva with its calcium phosphate precipitation inhibitors will coat the cavity walls thereby preventing any repair.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Whole saliva represents essentially a dilute form of plasma or serum since the major protein compositions of both body fluids are identical.
b. The standard conditions of oral fluid exhibit always a state of super saturation with respect to calcium/phosphate minerals such as dicalcium phosphate, octocalcium phosphate and hydroxyapatite.
c. The sequential stages of dental biofilm formation occur in the following order: a) formation of the acquired enamel pellicle, b) microbial growth of adhered microbial species, c) bacteria-bacteria interactions, d) initial microbial adherence to the acquired enamel pellicle.
d. The major effects of the acquired enamel pellicle is a reduction of the surface enamel integrity and an increase in frictional forces leading to tooth wear.
e. The major human histatins are histatin 1, histatin 3 and histatin 5. Their biosynthesis comprises alternate RNA splicing leading to different mRNAs.

Interestingly, most of the salivary proteins are present in salivary secretions not as single entities but as groups of salivary protein families. The proteins of each family comprise several proteins exhibiting very similar structures and functions. The development of such genetic polymorphisms over time indicates very strongly the

a. Biological importance of saliva during phylogenetic development
b. Waste of nature in protein synthesis
c. Absence of specific functions of salivary proteins
d. Lack of stability of salivary proteins
e. Absence of oral hard and soft tissue protection by saliva.

The potential use of whole saliva or salivary secretions for diagnostic purposes in medicine has shown increased interest over recent years. Among many attempts in this area a clear success has been a saliva based HIV test (“OraQuick”). This success is based on the following parameters except:

a. HIV is caused by a single infectious agent
b. The diagnosis simply involves presence or absence of this agent
c. No quantitation of the infectious agent is required
d. Sensitivity and specificity of the assay are between 60% and 80%
e. The availability of this test has led to a higher number of individual HIV screening.

The major source of valuable biomarker information for monitoring particularly systemic disease is present in:

a. Parotid secretion
b. Minor gland secretion
c. Whole saliva
d. Submandibular secretion
e. Sublingual secretion

Which of the following is NOT the major function of periodontal ligament (PDL)?

a. Tooth support
b. Nutrient supply
c. Shock absorbance
d. Mineral reservoir
e. Sensory receptor

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a. PDL is a soft connective tissue between cementum and alveolar bone.
b. PDL fibers are embedded into two mineralized tissues.
c. “Oxytalan fiber” is a component of ECM in PDL.
d. The stem cells found in the PDL region are derived from ectoderm.
e. Fibroblasts are the main cell type in the PDL region.

Which of the following statements is true?

a. In PDL, degraded collagen is eliminated by adaptive immunity.
b. Epithelial rests of Mallasez are cluster of cells observed within acellular cementum.
c. The most abundant type of collagen in PDL is type I.
d. Collagen turnover is very low in PDL.

Which of the following statements is true?

a. The PDL region contains proteoglycans, but not elastin.
b. There are many PDL specific molecules identified.
c. The diameter of PDL collagen fibril is thicker than that of bone.
d. PDL fibroblasts synthesize collagen, while odontoclasts degrade it.
e. PDL has high tensile strength, which can be explained by immature collagen cross-links.

Which proteoglycan is present in PDL?

a. Decorin
b. Nephrocan
c. Glypican
d. Keratocan
e. Betaglycan

Proteoglycans are important in PDL, because they restrict collagen fibril growth.

a. The sentence is true
b. The sentence is false