ZX3000Bingo

  1. DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?
    Bronze Star with combat V
  2. In 2010, United States Coast Guard reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for _____ days.
    87 Days
  3. Who served as a boarding officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?
    DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal
  4. What is the tepid water range on an eyes station?
    60-100 degrees F
  5. What are the 3 different types of MILSTRIPS in FLS?
    Free issue items that are stocked in NESSS

    Cost items that stocked in NESSS

    Items that are purchased from other DOD agencies
  6. A MILSTRIP may also be created directly from the _________ module within FLS.
    Project module
  7. For FLS MILSTRIPS what are priority codes 02 or 03 used for?
    Emergency Requisitions
  8. For FLS MILSTRIPS what are priority codes 05 or 06 used for?
    Mission Impaired Requisitions
  9. For FLS MILSTRIPS what are priority codes 12 or 13 used for?
    Routine Requisitions
  10. What fund code will be present in NESSS if NIIN is a “Free Issue”?
    Fund code will be 00
  11. What fund code will be present in NESSS if NIIN is a cost item?
    Fund code field will be blank
  12. If applicable, check the CASREP check box. This will cause the Document Number to be created with a “___” serial number.
    “W”
  13. When the OPFAC is selected using the LOV, it will change the Supplementary SVC Code from ______ to ______ and the MILSTRIP will not be rejected in the Requisition Management validation process.
    Y to Z
  14. What feature is the default view when the Maintenance menu is selected and will show a list of all O-Level tasks that are approved for the unit?
    Work Lists feature
  15. If the task has been assigned a “Scheduled” date it will also show up on the
    Maintenance Calendar
  16. If the task is not listed on the Work List, and it should be, check the “Status” of the task from the _______________ ______________ list.
    Maintenance Task
  17. Unit Maintenance Calendar is displayed in ______________ view.
    Monthly
  18. Tasks are displayed on the calendar on the “scheduled” date. Tasks are colored as follows:
    • O-Level = O-Level
    • Overdue O-Level = Overdue O-Level
    • D-Level = D-level
    • Cancelled/Completed = Cancelled/Completed
  19. What is the definition of D-Level?
    Scheduled tasks to be completed by the shore-side support activities
  20. What is definition of O-Level maintenance?
    Scheduled tasks to be completed by unit
  21. What is the definition of Overdue O-Level?
    Overdue scheduled tasks to be completed by the ship
  22. What are the 3 different views of looking a maintenance calendar?
    Day, Week, Month
  23. What are not shown on the Calendar in the default view?
    Hourly Maintenance
  24. What are the 3 different types of Maintenance Tasks shown on Work Lists?
    Official Maintenance Tasks (both O-Level and D-Level)

    Local Maintenance Tasks

    Corrective Actions
  25. All Maintenance Task created here are considered local (O-Level) ____________ _________ actions which could be preventive or corrective.
    One-Time
  26. Request for modifications to Official Maintenance Procedure (CIFD, Labor, Required dates, etc.) may be submitted by what?
    CG-22 (Maintenance/Publication Feedback)
  27. When modifying a Maintenance Task which status should not be selected unless have been directed to do so?
    Pending
  28. Which tab in modifying a Maintenance task is not permitted and must submit a CG-22?
    Configuration Items Tab
  29. When completing a Maintenance Task what must be entered to close the task?
    Change Status to Completed

    Enter date the task was completed

    Enter the Labor Hours
  30. If ANY outside assistance (NED, MAT, Contractor, etc.) was used in completing a Maintenance Task use ________ as the labor rate.
    OTH
  31. Attachments added/linked to a Non-Casualty Work Request (NCWR) will be sent to FLS when the NCWR is “____________”.
    Transmitted
  32. What Class of bond is metallic surfaces bonded by welding or brazing?
    Class A
  33. What Class of bond is metallic surfaces bonded by bolting or clamping?
    Class B
  34. What Class of bond is metallic surfaces bonded by bridging them with a metallic (conductive) bond strap?
    Class C
  35. The direct current (DC) resistance across bonded surfaces (not using the bolt, clamp or bond strap as one of the surfaces) must be _______ ohms or less?
    0.1 ohms
  36. On metallic-hull ships, the ____________ shall be considered ground potential?
    Ship's Hull
  37. What are shipboard spaces having electromagnetic shielding against radiated emissions in the 10 MHz to 1000 MHz frequency range?
    TEMPEST Protected Space
  38. What is required to be worn by any person within a tower’s drop zone?
    A Safety Helmet
  39. Towers are classified as elevated structures as defined by who?
    OSHA
  40. What is the drop zone when talking about towers?
    The radius is ½ the height of the tower and centered on the tower axis
  41. What is the safety climber distance?
    150 feet
  42. When climbing to a height of 150 ft. or less a safety observer should be located where?
    The ground
  43. Who shall have constant two-way communication with the climber on the tower?
    Safety Observer
  44. When climbing towers greater than 150 ft. in height the safety observer shall join the primary climber on the tower and stay within ___________ ft. of the primary climber at all times.
    150 ft
  45. The climber shall be issued a written qualification letter from the servicing CEU. This letter will specify what?
    The max height of tower that the individual is authorized to climb

    Whether the individual is authorized to climb an energized or non-energized tower

    NOT  doing PMS on Lightning protection “ON TEST”
  46. The climber must use a complete Personal Fall Arrest System (PFAS) which consists of what?
    Full body harness

    Deceleration lanyard

    Connecting devices (D-Rings)

    When using a ladder for ascent or descent, the climber must us a ladder safety climbing device
  47. Shock absorbing fall restraint lanyards must meet ANSI Z359.1-1332 and ANSI A10.14-1991. The devices limit free fall to _________ feet?
    6 Feet
  48. Ropes, straps and webbing used in lanyards, lifelines and strength components of body harness shall be made from what type of fibers?
    Synthetic
  49. All connecting hardware must have a minimum tensile strength of ________ lbs.?
    5000 lbs
  50. All connecting hardware shall be proof tested to a minimum of ________ lbs.?
    3600 lbs.
  51. What is the working load limit for a full body harness is what lbs.?
    310 lbs.
  52. In inclement weather radio checks should be initiated at least every ______ minutes?
    5 minutes
  53. What should be used to positively ground a tower?
    A dead-man stick
  54. True or False: NGPS and DGPS can be climbed while energized?
    False
  55. To further discourage travel of lightning into the transmitter building, antenna feedlines should have a _______________ shaped bends rather than straight lead to tower.
    “Vertical Z”
  56. The ball gaps for the isolation transformers should be set _____________ of an inch greater than the base insulator ball gap.
    1/8
  57. Each ungrounded tower is provided with a _________ __________ lightning protector (with or without a rain shield) for installation across the base insulator.
    Ball Gap
  58. XTL-5000 Low power range?
    10W +/- 1W
  59. XTL-5000 High power range?
    20-25 Watts
  60. If power indication is incorrect what should be done first?
    Perform Transceiver program
  61. What is the deviation of an XTL-5000?
    3.8KHz to 5KHz
  62. If deviation is incorrect what should be done?
    Replace Microphone
  63. What is a correct SINAD level on a XTL-5000 transceiver?
    12dB or higher
  64. What is the acceptable resistance reading for CEMT-390 Antenna?
    Greater than or equal to 100 Mega ohms
  65. When testing an HF antenna from the feed cable and you see a megger reading below 100 M ohms what should be done next?
    Attach megger to antenna
  66. After attaching the megger to the antenna and you see a reading of more than 100M ohms what should be replaced?
    Feed cable
  67. What is the minimum slug values for MORAD-VHF-159 VSWR test?
    Required slugs need 0-25 watts minimum with the frequency range of 156-163MHZ
  68. How do you get the transceiver test on the AIS transponder?
    FNC- 8
  69. Test transmissions will automatically “time out” after approximately _____ seconds?
    20 seconds
  70. What is the bonding and grounding standards for buildings?
    MIL-STD-188-124A
  71. The basic earth electrode subsystem configuration shall consist of driven ground rods uniformly spaced around the facility and placed __________ ft. to _________ ft. outside the drip line of structures.
    2 ft. to 8 ft. (0.6 m to 1.8 m)
  72. The resistance to earth of the earth electrode subsystem should not exceed ________ ohms at fixed permanent facilities.
    10 ohms
  73. Any metal object within ______ meters (_______ feet) of the lightning download shall be be bonded to the down conductor.
    1.8 meters
  74. Where practicable, a separation of at least ____________ feet shall be maintained between open conductors of power and communications systems and lightning down conductors?
    6 feet
  75. What shall be continuous and shall be bonded to an earth electrode subsystem or to a ground rod bonded this subsystem installed as near as practicable and within 1.8m (6feet) from the structure.
    Down Conductors
  76. All bonds between elements of lightning protection subsystems shall be made by what 3 ways?
    Welding

    BrazingUL approved high compression

    clamping devices
  77. If a tower is adjacent to another structure such that the minimum distance between the tower and structure is ________ meters (_______feet) or less, one earth electrode subsystem encompassing both the tower and the other structure shall be provided.
    6 meters (20 feet)
  78. What shall be used by independent routes to bond the earth electrode subsystem of the tower to the earth electrode subsystem if buildings and structures that have signal, control, or power line interfaces with the tower and are separated less than 60m (200 feet)?
    Two bare 1/0 AWG copper cables
  79. All waveguide to the antennas shall grounded where?
    Near the antenna

    At the horizontal/vertical transition near the base of the tower

    At the waveguide entry point
  80. All bends of ground conductors shall have a radius of ________ cm (____ inches) or greater and the angle of any bend shall not be less than ________ degrees.
    20 cm (8 inches); 90 degrees
  81. All bonds for ground conductors whose primary function is to provide a path for power, control or signal currents, and lightning protection shall have a maximum dc resistance of _____________ milliohm
    1 milliohm (0.001 ohm)
  82. Electrical coating should be applied when possible within temperature range of _______________?
    32-95 degrees F
  83. Self-vulcanizing tape must be applied above ________ degrees F?
    32 degrees F
  84. The method’s recommended maximum life (time between applications) is approximately ___________ months?
    12 months
  85. A suitable emergency eyewash facility (Page 40 in PDF)
    Equipment (afloat or ashore) with more than one power source of _________ volts or more shall have a labeling plate or placard?
    12 volts
  86. What is the tepid water range on an eyes station?
    60-100 degrees F
  87. Minimum flow for plumbed and portable Eyewash units is ________ GPM at what PSI?
    .4 GPM at 30 PSI
  88. If the hazard is non-corrosive, 1 door can be present as long it opens in the __________ direction of travel as the person is requiring the use of the flushing station?
    Same direction
  89. Minimum flow for plumbed and portable Eyewash units is ________ GPM at what PSI?
    .4 GPM at 30 PSI
  90. When can a climber not be qualified
    When he is commanded to not be
  91. Field units are not permitted to procure or acquire test equipment for installed and/or authorized electronics equipment with what unit funds?
    AFC-30 funds
  92. The contents of a SPETERL contains what 5 sections?
    Section 1 – SPETERL Reports

    Section 2 – Prime System Summary

    Section 3 – SCAT Inventory Summary

    Section 4 – SPETE Requirements

    ListSection 5 – Prime Systems and FSTERs with Supporting SCAT Codes
  93. Test equipment is classified in the SPETERL by what code used to identify a range of measurements by functional category of test equipment?
    A four-digit subcategory (SCAT) code
  94. The ___________ code represents a service and support category of the test equipment.
    PRI
  95. When the TMDE program receives a validation report from a unit with a priority of _________ or __________ (obsolete or nearing the end of service life), the program will attempt to upgrade the equipment to a newer model if one is available within the test equipment loan pool.
    72 or 95
  96. True or False; Items not listed on a unit SPETERL will not receive any support services within the CGETEP until they add via update or approved ACR to the unit SPETERL in the FISTER list.
    True
  97. What is the only SPETE?
    UPM -155 IFF Test Set
  98. Test equipment calibration service is organizational-level maintenance and is funded with ______________ funds?
    AFC-30
  99. Life-cycle support of TE associated with Navy-Type/Navy-Owned equipment is funded with what AFC fund code?
    AFC-80
  100. What plan contains cutter names and dates for planned availability maintenance? This plan shall be used by ESUs to trigger Technical Assessments, forecast travel expenditures, plan workloads, and create budget requests.
    The Five Year Maintenance Plan
  101. What program is a Consolidated Support Function (CSF) and receives funds each year via the AFC-42 budget board process?
    The Dry-Dock/Dock-Side Availability Program
  102. All large antennas like CEMT-229-B, D7061-L and HF NVIS shall be replaced at ________-year cycles, dock-side.
    6-year
  103. All transducers shall be replaced during the regular scheduled dry-dock closest to the _________ anniversary in accordance with the CMP.
    4th Anniversary
  104. What fund code is for mast preservation, safety matting and CGOne connections?
    AFC-30
  105. Foundations, hull rings, cable transits and stuffing tubes are typically funded with what AFC code?
    AFC-45
  106. Who funds SESEF testing for the CG?
    CG-6
  107. For FLS MILSTRIPS what are priority codes 02 or 03 used for?
    Emergency Requisitions (Page 2 in PDF)
  108. For FLS MILSTRIPS what are priority codes 05 or 06 used for?
    Mission Impaired Requisitions
  109. For FLS MILSTRIPS what are priority codes 12 or 13 used for?
    Routine Requisitions
  110. How often are Ordnance inspections at shore units and cutters WITHOUT NTNO Ordnance equipment?
    Annually
  111. How long after an inspection is a re-inspection conducted if major discrepancies are discovered in an OTI/OSI?
    90 days
  112. Rubber floor matting shall be MIL-DTL-_____________ compliant.
    15562
  113. The C4ITSC-FSD funds configuration management, replacement, and repair using what funds?
    AFC-42
  114. What is TYPE 1 RADHAZ sign?
    PEL
  115. Where shall a Type 1 RADHAZ sign never be posted?
    In an area undefined by a PEL line
Author
CDMT
ID
361569
Card Set
ZX3000Bingo
Description
Updated