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The community health nurse is creating a poster for an educational session for a
group of community members and will be discussing the risk factors associated
with breast cancer. Which risk factors for breast cancer would the nurse list on the
poster? Select all that apply.
1.Multiparity
2.Early menarche
3.Early menopause
4.Family history of breast cancer
5.High-dose radiation exposure to chest
6.Previous cancer of the breast, uterus, or ovaries
- 2.Early menarche
- 4.Family history of breast cancer
- 5.High-dose radiation exposure to chest
- 6.Previous cancer of the breast, uterus, or ovaries
- Rationale: Risk factors for breast cancer include nulliparity or first child born after age 30 years; early menarche; late menopause; family history of breast cancer; high-dose radiation exposure to the chest; and previous cancer of the breast, uterus, or ovaries. In addition, specific inherited mutations in BReast CAncer (BRCA)1 and BRCA2 increase the risk of female breast cancer; these mutations are also associated with an increased risk for ovarian cancer.
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The nurse is preparing a list of home care instructions regarding stoma and laryngectomy care for a client with laryngeal cancer who had a laryngectomy. Which instructions would be included in the list? Select all that apply.
1.Restrict fluid intake
2.Obtain a MedicAlert bracelet.
3.Keep the humidity in the home low
4.Prevent debris from entering the stoma.
5.Prevent debris from entering the stoma.
6.Avoid swimming and use care when showering.
- 2.Obtain a MedicAlert bracelet.
- 4.Prevent debris from entering the stoma.
- 5.Prevent debris from entering the stoma.
- 6.Avoid swimming and use care when showering.
- Rationale: The nurse would teach the client how to care for the stoma, depending on the type of laryngectomy performed. Most interventions focus on protection of the stoma and the prevention of infection. Interventions include obtaining a MedicAlert bracelet, preventing debris from entering the stoma, avoiding exposure to people with infections, and avoiding swimming and using care when showering. Additional interventions include wearing a stoma guard or high-collared clothing to protect the stoma, increasing the humidity in the home, and increasing fluid intake to 3000 mL/day to keep the secretions thin.
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The primary health care provider prescribes a 24-hour urine collection for vanillylmandelic acid (VMA). The community health nurse visits the client at home and instructs the client in the procedure for the collection of the urine. Which statement, if made by the client, would indicate a need for further instruction?
1."I can take medication if I need to during the collection."
2."When I start the collection, I will urinate and discard that specimen."
3."I will pour the urine in the collection bottle each time I urinate and refrigerate the urine."
4."I will start the collection in 2 days. Starting now, I cannot eat or drink any tea, chocolate,
vanilla, or fruit until the test is completed."
1."I can take medication if I need to during the collection."
- Clients are reminded not to take medications for 2 to 3 days before a 24-hour urine collection for VMA. Because a 24-hour urine collection is a timed quantitative determination, it is essential that the client start the test with an empty bladder. Therefore, the client is instructed to void, discard the first urine, note the time, and start the test. The 24-hour urine specimen collection bottle must be kept on ice or refrigerated. For a VMA determination, the client is instructed to avoid tea, chocolate, vanilla, and all fruits for 2 days before urine collection begins.
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A client had a colectomy 2 days earlier to remove a bowel tumor and had a new colostomy created. The client is beginning to pass malodorous flatus from the stoma. What is the correct interpretation by the nurse?
1.This is a normal, expected event.
2.The client is experiencing early signs of ischemic bowel.
3.The client would not have the nasogastric tube removed.
4.This indicates inadequate preoperative bowel preparation.
1.This is a normal, expected event.
- Rationale: As peristalsis returns following creation of a colostomy, the client begins to pass malodorous flatus. This indicates returning bowel function and is an expected event. Within 72 hours of surgery, the client would begin passing stool via the colostomy. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect interpretations.
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A client who has undergone gastric surgery to remove a tumor has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low intermittent suction that is not draining properly. Which action would the nurse take initially?
1.Call the surgeon to report the problem.
2.Reposition the NG tube to the proper location.
3.Check the suction device to make sure it is working.
4.Irrigate the NG tube with saline to remove the obstruction.
3.Check the suction device to make sure it is working.
- Rationale: After gastric surgery, the client will have an NG tube in place until bowel function returns. It is important for the NG tube to drain properly to prevent abdominal distention and vomiting. The nurse must ensure that the NG tube is attached to suction at the level prescribed and that the suction device is working correctly. The tip of the NG tube may be placed near the suture line. Because of this possibility, the nurse would
- never reposition the NG tube or irrigate it. If the NG tube needs to be repositioned, the nurse needs to call the surgeon, who would do this repositioning under fluoroscopy.
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The nurse is caring for a client after abdominal surgery to treat a malignant bowel tumor with creation of a colostomy. The nurse is assessing the client for a prolapsed stoma and would expect to note which observation if this is present?
1.A sunken and hidden stoma.
2.A narrow and flattened stoma.
3.A stoma that is dusky or bluish.
4.A stoma that is elongated with a swollen appearance.
4.A stoma that is elongated with a swollen appearance.
Rationale: A prolapsed stoma is one in which the bowel protrudes, causing an elongated and swollen appearance of the stoma. A retracted stoma is characterized by a sinking of the stoma. A stoma with a narrow opening is described as being stenosed. Ischemia of the stoma would be associated with a dusky or bluish color.
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The nurse is preparing to teach a client with a new colostomy about how to perform a colostomy irrigation. Which information would the nurse include in the teaching plan?
1.Use 500 to 1000 mL of warm tap water.
2.Suspend the irrigant 36 inches above the stoma.
3.Insert the irrigation cone ½ inch into the stoma.
4.If cramping occurs, open the irrigation clamp farther.
1.Use 500 to 1000 mL of warm tap water.
Rationale: The usual procedure for colostomy irrigation includes using 500 to 1000 mL of warm tap water. The solution is suspended 18 inches above the stoma. The cone is inserted 2 to 4 inches into the stoma but would never be forced. If cramping occurs, the client would decrease the flow rate of the irrigant as needed by closing the irrigation clamp. This practice is not common because of odor-proof pouches.
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The nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client with suspected esophageal cancer. Which statement made by the client indicates the presence of a risk factor for esophageal cancer?
1."I've been smoking for 20 years now."
2."I eat plenty of fresh fruits and vegetables."
3."I'm 5 feet, 8 inches tall and weigh 160 pounds."
4."My alcohol consumption is about 2 beers per month."
1."I've been smoking for 20 years now."
- Rationale: Primary risk factors associated with the development of esophageal cancer are
- smoking and obesity. The compounds in tobacco smoke may be responsible for the genetic mutations seen in many squamous cell carcinomas of the esophagus. Malnutrition, untreated gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and excessive alcohol intake are also associated with esophageal cancer. Diets that are chronically deficient in fresh fruits and vegetables have also been implicated in the development of squamous cell carcinoma of
- the esophagus.
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The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the operating room after colectomy to remove a bowel tumor and the creation of a colostomy. The nurse is assessing the drainage in the pouch attached to the site where the colostomy was formed and notes serosanguineous drainage. Which nursing action is appropriate based on this assessment?
1.Apply ice to the stoma site.
2.Apply pressure to the stoma site.
3.Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP).
4.Document the amount and characteristics of the drainage.
4.Document the amount and characteristics of the drainage.
- Rationale: During the first 24 to 72 hours following surgery, mucus and serosanguineous drainage are expected from the stoma. Applying ice or pressure to the stoma site are inappropriate actions. Notifying the PHCP is unnecessary because this is an expected finding.
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The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively after creation of a colostomy to treat a bowel tumor. What is an appropriate potential client problem?
1.Fear
2.Sexual dysfunction
3.Altered body image
4.Excessive nutritional intake
3.Altered body image
Rationale: Altered body image for a client who is postoperative after creation of a colostomy relates to loss of bowel control, the presence of a stoma, the release of fecal material onto the abdomen, the passage of flatus, odor, and the need for an appliance (external pouch). There are no data in the question to support sexual dysfunction or fear. Inadequate nutritional intake rather than excessive intake would more likely be a client problem.
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The nurse is reviewing laboratory test results for the client with liver cancer and notes that the client's albumin level is low. Which nursing action is focused on the consequence of low albumin levels?
1.Evaluating for asterixis
2.Inspecting for petechiae
3.Palpating for peripheral edema
4.Evaluating for decreased level of consciousness
3.Palpating for peripheral edema
Rationale: Albumin is responsible for maintaining the osmolality of the blood. When there is a low albumin level, there is decreased osmotic pressure, which in turn can lead to peripheral edema. The remaining options are incorrect and are not associated with a low albumin level.
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When assessing a lesion diagnosed as basal cell carcinoma, the nurse most likely expects to note which findings? Select all that apply.
1.An irregularly shaped lesion
2.A small papule with a dry, rough scale
3.A firm, nodular lesion topped with crust
4.A pearly papule with a central crater and a waxy border
5.Location in the bald spot atop the head that is exposed to outdoor sunlight
- 4.A pearly papule with a central crater and a waxy border
- 5.Location in the bald spot atop the head that is exposed to outdoor sunlight
Rationale: Basal cell carcinoma appears as a pearly papule with a central crater and rolled waxy border. Exposure to ultraviolet sunlight is a major risk factor. A melanoma is an irregularly shaped pigmented papule or plaque with a red-, white-, or blue-toned color. Actinic keratosis, a premalignant lesion, appears as a small macule or papule with a dry, rough, adherent yellow or brown scale. Squamous cell carcinoma is a firm, nodular lesion topped with a crust or a central area of ulceration.
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The nurse in the ambulatory care unit is providing home care instructions to a client after cryotherapy for the treatment of malignant skin lesions. Which statement would be most appropriate for the nurse to include in the home care instructions for this client?
1."Apply ice to the site to prevent swelling."
2."Clean the site with alcohol 3 times daily."
3."Apply a warm, damp washcloth if discomfort occurs."
4."Avoid showering or taking baths until seen by the primary health care provider in 1
week."
3."Apply a warm, damp washcloth if discomfort occurs."
- Rationale: Cryotherapy involves the local application of liquid nitrogen to the lesion; this
- causes cell death and tissue destruction. Tissue freezing is followed in 1 to 2 days by hemorrhagic blister formation; therefore, ice is not applied to the site. The application of a warm, damp washcloth intermittently to the site will provide relief of any discomfort. The nurse instructs the client to clean the site with the prescribed solution to prevent secondary infection. A topical antibiotic also may be prescribed. Alcohol would cause irritation to the skin. There is no reason for the client to avoid showering or bathing.
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The nurse is providing information to a client scheduled for a skin biopsy. The
client asks the nurse how painful the procedure is. The nurse would plan to make
which response to the client?
1."The procedure is painless."
2."A preoperative medication will put you to sleep."
3."An analgesic will be prescribed after the procedure."
4."The local anesthetic may cause a stinging sensation."
4."The local anesthetic may cause a stinging sensation."
- Rationale: A skin biopsy is not painless. The most common source of pain during a skin
- biopsy is the initial local anesthetic, which can produce a burning or stinging sensation. A
- preoperative medication that puts the client to sleep is not a component of this proced‐
- ure. Analgesics may be prescribed after the procedure, but this option does not address
- the issue related to the amount or type of pain associated with the procedure itself.
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The nurse is reviewing the discharge instructions for the client who had a skin biopsy of a suspected cancer lesion. Which statement, if made by the client, would indicate a need for further instruction?
1."I will keep the dressing dry."
2."I will watch for any drainage from the wound."
3."I will use the antibiotic ointment as prescribed."
4."I will return tomorrow to have the sutures removed."
4."I will return tomorrow to have the sutures removed."
Rationale: Sutures usually are removed 7 to 10 days after a skin biopsy, depending on surgeon preference. After a skin biopsy, the nurse instructs the client to keep the dressing dry and in place for a minimum of 8 hours as prescribed. After the dressing is removed, the site is cleaned once a day with tap water or saline to remove any dry blood or crusts. The surgeon may prescribe an antibiotic ointment to minimize local bacterial colonization. The nurse instructs the client to report any redness or excessive drainage at the site. The site may be closed with sutures or may be allowed to heal without suturing.
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The nurse has provided discharge instructions to a client who has had cryosurgery to remove a malignant skin lesion. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client makes which statements? Select all that apply.
1."I need to avoid baths or showers for 7 to 10 days."
2."I need to clean the site as prescribed to prevent infection."
3."I need to apply ice to the site continuously to prevent swelling."
4."I need to expect some swelling and tenderness in the affected area."
5."I need to apply alcohol-soaked dressings twice a day for 30 minutes each time."
- 2."I need to clean the site as prescribed to prevent infection."
- 4."I need to expect some swelling and tenderness in the affected area."
- Rationale: Cryosurgery involves the local application of liquid nitrogen to isolated lesions,
- causing cell death and tissue destruction. The nurse teaches the client to expect swelling and increased tenderness of the treated area when the skin thaws. Tissue freezing is followed in 1 to 2 days by hemorrhagic blister formation. The nurse instructs the client to clean the treatment site as prescribed to prevent secondary infection. A topical antibiotic also may be prescribed. Intermittent application of a warm, damp washcloth to the site will provide relief from any discomfort. Alcohol-soaked dressings will cause irritation. It is not necessary to avoid bathing or showering. Because cryosurgery involves tissue freezing, the application of ice is avoided following the procedure.
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The nurse is providing home care instructions to the client who just had surgery for squamous cell carcinoma. The nurse provides follow-up teaching and explains to the client to watch for which characteristics of this type of skin carcinoma?
1.Irregularly shaped, pigmented papules or plaques
2.Pearly papule with a central crater and rolled, waxy borders
3.Small macules or papules with dry, rough, adherent yellow or brown scale
4.Firm, nodular lesion topped with a crust or with a central area of ulceration
4.Firm, nodular lesion topped with a crust or with a central area of ulceration
Rationale: Squamous cell carcinoma presents with a firm, nodular lesion topped with a crust or with a central area of ulceration. Option 1 describes melanoma. Option 2 describes actinic keratosis. Option 3 describes basal cell carcinoma.
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The nurse is teaching the client about risk factors for skin cancer. Which statements by the client indicate that teaching was successful? Select all that apply.
1."I have to avoid excessive exposure to sunlight."
2."My dark skin color predisposes me to skin cancer."
3."I am at higher risk for skin cancer because my parent had it."
4."I am at higher risk for skin cancer because I am 20 years old."
5."I am immune to skin cancer because I work as a pest control exterminator."
- 1."I have to avoid excessive exposure to sunlight."
- 3."I am at higher risk for skin cancer because my parent had it."
Rationale: Options 1 and 3 describe risk factors for skin cancer. Additional risk factors for skin cancer include age greater than 60 years, light-colored skin, and occupational exposure to arsenic, which is commonly used in pest control.
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The nurse is providing teaching to a client with breast cancer who will undergo chemotherapy for cancer, and alopecia is expected from the chemotherapeutic agent. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
1."Excessive hair brushing needs to be avoided."
2."I can't believe my hair loss is going to be permanent."
3."I guess I'll have to stop using my electric hair dryer and curling rod."
4."I will have my hair stylist cut my hair short just before I start my treatments."
2."I can't believe my hair loss is going to be permanent."
Rationale: Alopecia refers to loss of hair and is a temporary side effect of many chemotherapeutic agents. Excessive brushing and use of electric appliances on the hair may hasten hair loss once chemotherapy is started. Cutting the hair short before starting the chemotherapy helps the client to gradually adapt to the loss.
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The nurse in the surgical care center will be assisting the primary health care provider to perform a punch biopsy of a client's skin lesion that is suspicious for skin cancer. Which interventions would be included in the preprocedure plan of
care? Select all that apply.
1.Obtain an informed consent.
2.Clean the area of the lesion with water.
3.Prepare to apply direct pressure to the biopsy site after the procedure.
4.Tell the client that a small piece of tissue will be removed for examination.
5.Teach the client about the need to cleanse the site postprocedure with hydrogen peroxide
and a topical corticosteroid every 4 hours.
- 1.Obtain an informed consent.
- 3.Prepare to apply direct pressure to the biopsy site after the procedure.
- 4.Tell the client that a small piece of tissue will be removed for examination.
Rationale: The nurse would obtain an informed consent from the client because the procedure is invasive. The nurse would cleanse the biopsy site with an antibacterial solution (not water) before the biopsy. The client is informed that a small piece of tissue will be removed for examination. Direct pressure is applied to the area to stop bleeding after the procedure. In the postprocedure period, the client is usually directed to keep the site clean and dry; antibiotic ointment may be prescribed, but normally a topical corticosteroid is not necessary.
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A client scheduled for a skin biopsy of a lesion suspected to be cancerous is concerned and asks the nurse how painful the procedure is. Which statement is the appropriate response by the nurse?
1."There is no pain associated with this procedure."
2."The local anesthetic may cause a burning or stinging sensation."
3."A preoperative medication will be given, so you will be sleeping and will not feel any
pain."
4."There is some pain, but the primary health care provider will prescribe an opioid analgesic after the procedure."
2."The local anesthetic may cause a burning or stinging sensation."
Rationale: Depending on the size and location of the lesion, a biopsy is usually a quick and almost painless procedure. The most common source of pain is the administration of the initial local anesthetic, which can produce a burning or stinging sensation. Preoperative medication is not necessary with this procedure. Opioid analgesics are not necessary following the procedure.
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The nurse is reviewing the postprocedure plan of care formulated by a nursing student for a client with prostate cancer who is scheduled for a bone biopsy to assess a bone tumor. The nurse determines that the student needs additional
teaching about postprocedure care if which inaccurate intervention is documented?
1.Elevating the limb
2.Monitoring vital signs every 4 hours
3.Administering opioid analgesics intramuscularly
4.Monitoring the biopsy site for swelling, bleeding, or hematoma
3.Administering opioid analgesics intramuscularly
- Rationale, Strategy, Tip Rationale: Nursing care after bone biopsy includes monitoring the
- site for swelling, bleeding, and hematoma formation. The biopsy site is elevated for 24
- hours or as prescribed to reduce edema. The vital signs are monitored every 4 hours for 24 hours for signs of complications such as infection and bleeding. The client usually requires mild analgesics. More severe pain usually indicates that complications are arising.
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A client who had cranial surgery 5 days earlier to remove a brain tumor has a few cognitive deficits and does not seem to be progressing as quickly as the client or family had hoped. The nurse plans to implement which approach as most helpful to the client and family at this time?
1.Emphasize progress in a realistic manner.
2.Set high goals to give the client something to "aim for."
3.Tell the family to be extremely optimistic with the client.
4.Inform the client and family of standardized goals of care.
1.Emphasize progress in a realistic manner.
Rationale: The most helpful approach by the nurse is to emphasize progress that is being made in a realistic manner. The nurse does not offer false hope but does provide factual information in a clear and positive manner. The nurse encourages the family to be realistic in their expectations and attitudes. The plan of care needs to be individualized for each client.
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A client had a transsphenoidal resection of the pituitary gland to remove a pituitary tumor. The nurse notes drainage on the nasal dressing.
Suspecting cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, the nurse would look for drainage that is of which characteristic?
1.Serosanguineous only
2.Bloody with very small clots
3.Sanguineous only with no clot formation
4.Serosanguineous, surrounded by clear to straw-colored fluid
4.Serosanguineous, surrounded by clear to straw-colored fluid
- Rationale: CSF leakage after cranial surgery may be detected by noting drainage that is serosanguineous (from the surgery) and surrounded by an area of clear or straw-colored
- drainage. The typical appearance of CSF drainage is that of a "halo." The nurse also would further verify actual CSF drainage by testing the drainage for glucose, which would be positive.
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The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which would the nurse expect to note specifically in this disorder?
1.Increased calcium level
2.Increased white blood cells
3.Decreased blood urea nitrogen level
4.Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow
1.Increased calcium level
Rationale: Findings indicative of multiple myeloma are an increased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow, anemia, hypercalcemia caused by the release of calcium from the deteriorating bone tissue, and an elevated blood urea nitrogen level. An increased white blood cell count may or may not be present and is not related specifically to multiple myeloma.
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The nurse is creating a plan of care for the client with multiple myeloma and includes which priority intervention in the plan?
1.Encouraging fluids
2.Providing frequent oral care
3.Coughing and deep breathing
4.Monitoring the red blood cell count
1.Encouraging fluids
- Rationale: Hypercalcemia caused by bone destruction is a priority concern in the client
- with multiple myeloma. The nurse would administer fluids in adequate amounts to maintain a urine output of 1.5 to 2 L/day; this requires about 3 L of fluid intake per day. The fluid is needed not only to dilute the calcium overload but also to prevent protein from precipitating in the renal tubules. Options 2, 3, and 4 may be components of the plan of care but are not the priority in this client.
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The nurse is teaching a client about the risk factors associated with colorectal cancer. The nurse determines that further teaching is necessary related to colorectal cancer if the client identifies which item as an associated risk factor?
1.Age younger than 50 years
2.History of colorectal polyps
3.Family history of colorectal cancer
4.Chronic inflammatory bowel disease
1.Age younger than 50 years
Rationale: Colorectal cancer risk factors include age older than 50 years, a family history of the disease, colorectal polyps, and chronic inflammatory bowel disease.
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A client is diagnosed as having a bowel tumor. The nurse would monitor the client for which complications of this type of tumor? Select all that apply.
1.Flatulence
2.Peritonitis
3.Hemorrhage
4.Fistula formation
5.Bowel perforation
6.Lactose intolerance
- 2.Peritonitis
- 3.Hemorrhage
- 4.Fistula formation
- 5.Bowel perforation
Rationale: Complications of bowel tumors include bowel perforation, which can result in hemorrhage and peritonitis. Other complications include bowel obstruction and fistula formation. Flatulence can occur but is not a complication; lactose intolerance also is not a complication of intestinal tumor.
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The nurse has admitted a client to the clinical nursing unit after undergoing a right mastectomy. The nurse would plan to place the right arm in which position?
1.Elevated on a pillow
2.Level with the right atrium
3.Dependent to the right atrium
4.Elevated above shoulder level
1.Elevated on a pillow
- Rationale: The client's operative arm would be positioned so that it is elevated on a pillow
- and not exceeding shoulder elevation. This position promotes optimal drainage from the limb, without impairing the circulation to the arm. If the arm is positioned flat (option 2) or dependent (option 3), this could increase the edema in the arm, which is contraindicated because of lymphatic disruption caused by surgery.
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The nurse is participating in a health screening clinic and is preparing teaching materials about colorectal cancer. Which risk factor for colorectal cancer would
the nurse include?
1.High-fiber, low-fat diet
2.Age older than 30 years
3.Distant relative with colorectal cancer
4.Personal history of ulcerative colitis or gastrointestinal polyps
4.Personal history of ulcerative colitis or gastrointestinal polyps
Rationale: Common risk factors for colorectal cancer include age older than 50 years; first-degree relative with colorectal cancer; high-fat, low-fiber diet; and history of bowel problems, such as ulcerative colitis or familial polyposis.
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The nurse is teaching a client who has had a laryngectomy for laryngeal cancer how to use an artificial larynx. Which statement would the nurse include in the teaching?
1."Hold the device alongside the neck."
2."Insert the device into the tracheostomy."
3."Swallow air into the esophagus to make speech."
4."Hold the device over the upper portion of the sternum."
1."Hold the device alongside the neck."
Rationale: The artificial larynx is an electronic device that assists the client to produce speech after laryngectomy. There are two types: one is held at the side of the neck and the other is inserted into the mouth. The vibration produces a mechanical-sounding speech that is monotone in quality but intelligible. There is no need to insert the device into the tracheostomy or to hold the device over the sternum. Esophageal speech involves swallowing air, trapping it in the esophagus, and releasing it to create sound.
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A client has been hospitalized for removal of a cervical radiation implant used to treat cancer. The implant is removed, and the nurse provides home care instructions to the client. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
1."Cream may be used to relieve dryness or itching."
2."Some vaginal bleeding is expected for 1 to 3 months."
3."Sexual intercourse may be resumed after 7 to 10 days."
4."Foul-smelling vaginal discharge is a sign of an infection."
4."Foul-smelling vaginal discharge is a sign of an infection."
Rationale: Some foul-smelling vaginal discharge is expected and is not a sign of an infection in this client. As well, this type of discharge will occur for some time after removal of a cervical radiation implant. All other options are accurate discharge instructions.
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The nurse is providing instructions to the client who is receiving external radiation therapy to the breast for the treatment of cancer. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates the need for further instruction?
1."I will dry affected areas with patting motions."
2."I will wear soft clothing over the affected site."
3."I will use a washcloth to wash the affected area."
4."I need to make sure I carry bags of groceries on the unaffected side."
3."I will use a washcloth to wash the affected area."
Rationale: External radiation therapy requires that markings be placed on the skin so that therapy can be aimed at the affected areas. The hand rather than a washcloth needs to be used to wash the area to avoid irritation. The nurse would instruct the client who is undergoing external radiation therapy to dry affected areas with a patting (rather than rubbing) motion so as not to disrupt the markings on the skin. Soft clothing needs to be worn so that the affected area is not irritated. The client needs to be sure to carry items such as a bag of groceries on the unaffected side.
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The home health care nurse is visiting a client who has undergone a mastectomy. The nurse determines that the client demonstrates the greatest adjustment to the loss of the breast if which behavior is noted?
1.The client looks at the surgical site.
2.The client performs the prescribed arm exercises.
3.The client takes the pain medication as prescribed.
4.The client has read all of the postoperative materials provided by the hospital nurse.
1.The client looks at the surgical site.
Rationale: Of the options provided, the client behavior in the correct option demonstrates the greatest adaptation or adjustment (looking at the surgical site). This indicates that the client has acknowledged and is beginning to cope with the loss of the breast. Reading postoperative care booklets and performing prescribed exercises indicate an interest in self-care and are positive signs indicating adjustment. Taking pain medication is unrelated to adjustment to the loss of the breast.
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The home health care nurse is preparing to provide instructions to a client after a vulvectomy. Which instruction would the nurse provide to the client?
1."You can engage in sexual activity in 2 weeks."
2."It is all right to begin to drive a car as long as you do not drive long distances."
3."Resume activities slowly, keeping in mind that walking is a beneficial activity."
4."It is important to rest and sit in a chair with your legs elevated as much as possible."
3."Resume activities slowly, keeping in mind that walking is a beneficial activity."
Rationale: The client would resume activities slowly, and walking is a beneficial activity. Sexual activity is prohibited for approximately 4 to 6 weeks after surgery. Activities to be avoided include driving, heavy housework, wearing tight clothing, crossing the legs, and prolonged sitting and standing. The client would not be instructed to sit in a chair as much as possible because pressure on the surgical site could lead to complications related to the surgery.
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The ambulatory care nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who underwent cryosurgery with laser therapy because of a positive Papanicolaou test. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?
1."I need to take sitz baths every 4 hours for the next week."
2."I would expect the vaginal discharge to be clear and watery."
3."Very strong pain medications will be needed to relieve any discomfort I may have."
4."If I note any odor to the vaginal discharge, I would call the primary health care provider
immediately."
2."I would expect the vaginal discharge to be clear and watery."
Rationale: Vaginal discharge would be clear and watery after cryosurgery with laser therapy. The client would be told that the vaginal discharge may be odorous as a result of the sloughing of dead cell debris. This vaginal odor takes about 8 weeks to resolve. The client needs to be instructed to avoid any sitz baths or tub baths while the area is healing, which takes approximately 10 weeks. Pain is mild after this procedure, and very strong pain medication will not be needed.
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The nurse has provided discharge instructions to a client who underwent a right mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further instruction regarding home care measures?
1."It is all right to use a straight razor to shave under my arms."
2."I must be sure to use thick potholders when I am cooking."
3."I must be sure not to have blood pressures taken or blood drawn from my right arm."
4."I need to inform all of my other health care providers that I have had this surgical procedure."
1."It is all right to use a straight razor to shave under my arms."
Rationale: After mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, the client is at risk for arm edema and infection. The client needs to be instructed regarding home care measures to prevent these complications. The client needs to be told to avoid activities such as carrying heavy objects or having blood pressure measurements taken on the affected arm. The client also needs to be instructed in the techniques to avoid trauma to the affected arm, such as using an electric razor to shave under the arms, using gloves when working in the garden, and using or wearing thick potholders when cooking.
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A client is admitted to the nursing unit after undergoing radical prostatectomy for cancer. The nurse anticipates that which problem would be of most concern to the client in the immediate postoperative period?
1.Concern about the outcome of surgery
2.Continuous pain because of the effects of cancer
3.Appearance disturbance as a result of the presence of a suprapubic catheter
4.Concern about caring for self at home because of insufficient help after discharge
1.Concern about the outcome of surgery
Rationale: In the immediate postoperative period, the client who has had surgery for cancer may experience fear or concern related to the uncertain outcome of surgery. Postoperative pain is classified as acute, not continuous. The client may experience an alteration in appearance, but this is more likely to be related to the anticipated change in sexual function than the presence of the suprapubic catheter. The priority focus in the immediate postoperative period is not on concerns that apply to hospital discharge.
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The home care nurse visits a client who has just returned home from the hospital after a mastectomy with a suction drain in place. Which observed client behavior requires a need for further teaching?
1.Empties the drain to prevent infection
2.Elevates the arm when lying and sitting
3.Applies lotion to the area after the incision heals
4.Performs full range-of-motion exercises to the upper arm
4.Performs full range-of-motion exercises to the upper arm
Rationale: The client needs to be instructed to limit upper arm range-of-motion exercises to the level of the shoulder only. Once the suction drain has been removed, the client can begin full range-of-motion exercises to the upper arm as prescribed. The client would elevate the arm while sitting down or lying, and the client will be able to apply lotion to the incision once it has healed. The drain is emptied as needed.
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The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client with a diagnosis of leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the client's platelet count is 20,000 mm3 (200 × 109/L). The nurse would prepare to implement which action based on this finding?
1.Remove the fresh flowers from the client's room.
2.Remove the rectal thermometer from the client's room.
3.Instruct family members to wear a mask when entering the client's room.
4.Call the dietary department to report that the client will be on a low-bacteria diet
2.Remove the rectal thermometer from the client's room.
Rationale: When the client's platelet count is low, the client is at risk for bleeding. Options 1, 3, and 4 relate to the risk for infection. Rectal temperatures would not be taken on a client who is at risk for bleeding because the thermometer could cause an alteration in the delicate rectal membranes and lead to bleeding.
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The clinic nurse has conducted a health screening clinic to identify clients who are at risk for cervical cancer. The nurse is reviewing the assessment findings in the records of the clients who attended the clinic. Which client is at lowest risk for developing this type of cancer?
1.A multiparity client
2.A single white client
3.A client with a history of chronic cervicitis
4.A client who had early, frequent intercourse with multiple sexual partners
2.A single white client
Rationale: Risk factors associated with cervical cancer include early, frequent intercourse with multiple sexual partners; multiparity; chronic cervicitis; and a history of genital herpes or human papilloma. Cervical cancer also occurs with higher frequency in African Americans. Regarding the options provided, the single white client is at lowest risk for the development of cervical cancer.
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The nurse is reviewing the medical record for a client who has been diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. The nurse would check which diagnostic test noted in the client's record to determine the stage of the disease?
1.Blood studies
2.Bone marrow examination
3.Excisional lymph node biopsy
4.Positron emission topography (PET) scan
4.Positron emission topography (PET) scan
Rationale: Hodgkin's disease is a chronic progressive neoplastic disorder of lymphoid tissue. It is characterized by painless enlargement of lymph nodes with progression to extra-lymphatic sites, such as the spleen and liver. Diagnostic testing for this disorder includes blood studies, excisional lymph node biopsy, bone marrow examination, and radiographic studies. These tests are used for evaluation purpose but are not definitive. PET scan with or without computed tomography is used to diagnose and determine the stage of the disease.
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The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client with bladder cancer with bone metastasis. The nurse would contact the primary health care provider (PHCP) if which finding is noted?
1.Calcium level of 15 mg/dL (3.75 mmol/L)
2.Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L)
3.Platelet count of 200,000 mm3 (200 × 109/L)
4.White blood cell (WBC) count of 6000 mm3 (6 × 109/L)
1.Calcium level of 15 mg/dL (3.75 mmol/L)
Rationale: Hypercalcemia is a serum calcium level greater than 10.5 mg/dL (2.6 mmol/L). It most often occurs in clients who have bone metastasis and is a late manifestation of extensive malignancy. The presence of cancer in the bone causes the bone to release calcium into the bloodstream. Hypercalcemia is an oncological emergency, and the PHCP needs to be notified. Options 2, 3, and 4 indicate normal laboratory values.
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The community health nurse has conducted a teaching session for community members about the risk factors for laryngeal cancer. Which statement by a person attending the session indicates that teaching was effective?
1."Alcohol consumption is not associated with this type of cancer."
2."Exposure to airborne carcinogens can cause this type of cancer."
3."Cigarette smoking does not contribute to the development of this type of cancer."
4."Overuse of the voice is not associated with this type of cancer unless it causes spitting up
of blood."
2."Exposure to airborne carcinogens can cause this type of cancer."
Rationale: To decrease the risk of laryngeal cancer, the client needs to be instructed to avoid cigarette smoking, alcohol consumption, exposure to airborne carcinogens, and vocal abuse. The client is instructed to schedule routine physical examinations. The client also needs to be instructed to seek medical care if difficulty in swallowing, persistent hoarseness, enlarged lymph nodes in the neck, or unexplained weight loss occurs.
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A client is admitted to the hospital with suspected bladder cancer. The nurse assesses the client for which early signs and symptoms of the disease?
1.Proteinuria and dysuria
2.Hematuria and absence of pain
3.Painful urination and hematuria
4.Pyuria and palpable abdominal mass
2.Hematuria and absence of pain
- Rationale: The most common earliest manifestation of bladder cancer is hematuria that is not accompanied by pain. The hematuria is intermittent at first. Later signs and symptoms
- include hematuria with dysuria and frequency because of bladder irritation. Pyuria and proteinuria are not part of the clinical picture. A mass usually is not palpable.
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The nurse is caring for a client who the physician suspects could have leukemia. The nurse anticipates that the physician will prescribe which of the following to confirm the diagnosis?
1.Platelet count
2.Bone marrow biopsy
3.White blood cell count
4.Complete blood cell count
2.Bone marrow biopsy
Rationale: Bone marrow aspiration or biopsy allows examination of blast cells and other hypercellular activity. Blood studies will not provide a definitive diagnosis of leukemia.
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The nurse conducted discharge teaching for the client diagnosed with melanoma. Which statement by a client indicates that education was effective?
1."It is contagious."
2."Metastasis is rare."
3."It is highly metastatic."
4."It is characterized by local invasion."
3."It is highly metastatic."
Rationale: Melanomas are pigmented malignant lesions originating in the melanin-producing cells of the epidermis. This skin cancer is highly metastatic, and the affected person's survival depends on early diagnosis and treatment. It is not a contagious lesion. Basal cell carcinomas arise in the basal cell layer of the epidermis. Early malignant basal cell lesions often go unnoticed, and although metastasis is rare, underlying tissue destruction can progress to include vital structures. Squamous cell carcinomas are malignant neoplasms of the epidermis. They are characterized by local invasion and the potential for metastasis.
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The nurse is performing a skin assessment on a client diagnosed with malignant melanoma. The nurse would expect to note which characteristic of this type of skin lesion?
1.An irregularly shaped lesion
2.A small papule with a dry, rough scale
3.A firm nodular lesion topped with crust
4.A pearly papule with a central crater and a waxy border
1.An irregularly shaped lesion
Rationale: A melanoma is an irregularly shaped pigmented papule or plaque with a red, white, or blue tone. Actinic keratosis, a premalignant lesion, appears as a small macule or papule with a dry, rough adherent yellow or brown scale. Squamous cell carcinoma is a firm nodular lesion topped with a crust or a central area of ulceration. Basal cell carcinoma appears as a pearly papule with a central crater and rolled waxy border.
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The nurse is reviewing the record of a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease. Which assessment findings noted in the client's record are associated with this diagnosis? Select all that apply.
1.Fever
2.Weight loss
3.Night sweats
4.Visual changes
5.Enlarged, painless lymph nodes
- 1.Fever
- 2.Weight loss
- 3.Night sweats
- 5.Enlarged, painless lymph nodes
Rationale: Assessment of a client with Hodgkin's disease most often reveals enlarged, painless lymph nodes along with fever, malaise, and night sweats. Weight loss may be a feature in metastatic disease. Visual changes are not specifically associated with Hodgkin's disease.
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The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client with leukemia receiving chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the white blood cell and neutrophil counts are extremely low and places the client on neutropenic precautions. Which interventions are components of these types of
precautions? Select all that apply.
1.Allowing only fresh fruits in the client's room
2.Removing fresh-cut flowers from the client's room
3.Encouraging the client to eat any types of fresh vegetables
4.Instructing family members on the proper technique for hand washing
5.Instructing family members to wear a mask when entering the client's room
- 2.Removing fresh-cut flowers from the client's room
- 4.Instructing family members on the proper technique for hand washing
- 5.Instructing family members to wear a mask when entering the client's room
Rationale: In the immunocompromised client, a low-bacteria diet is necessary. This includes avoiding the intake of fresh fruits and vegetables. Thorough cooking of all food also is required. Cut flowers and any standing water are removed from the room because both tend to harbor bacteria. Anyone who enters the client's room needs to perform strict and thorough hand washing and wear a mask.
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A client has just been told by the primary health care provider about a diagnosis of breast cancer. The client responds, "Oh, no! Does this mean I'm going to die? The nurse interprets the client's initial reaction as which response?
Fear
Rage
Denial
Anxiety
- Fear
- The client's reaction is one of fear. The client has verbalized the object of fear (dying), which makes anxiety incorrect. There is no evidence of rage or denial in the client's statement.
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The nurse has provided instructions to a client receiving external radiation therapy. Which client statement would indicate a need for further instruction regarding self-care related to the radiation therapy to treat lung cancer?
"I need to eat a high-protein diet."
"I need to avoid exposure to sunlight."
"I need to wash my skin with a mild soap and pat dry."
"I need to apply pressure on the irritated area by wearing snug clothing to prevent bleeding."
"I need to apply pressure on the irritated area by wearing snug clothing to prevent bleeding."
Rationale: The client would avoid pressure on the irritated area and needs to wear loose-fitting clothing. Specific primary health care provider instructions would be necessary if an alteration in skin integrity occurred as a result of the radiation therapy. Options 1, 2, and 3 are accurate measures to implement after radiation therapy.
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The nurse has provided instructions to a client regarding testicular self-examination (TSE). Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching regarding TSE?
"I know to report any small lumps."
"I examine myself every 2 months."
"I examine myself after I take a warm shower."
"I feel something like a cord in the back and going up."
"I examine myself every 2 months."
Rationale: TSE would be performed every month. Small lumps or abnormalities needs to be reported. The spermatic cord finding (option 4) is normal. After a warm bath or shower, the scrotum is relaxed, making it easier to perform TSE.
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A client seeks treatment in an ambulatory clinic for a complaint of hoarseness that has lasted for 6 weeks. On the basis of this symptom, the nurse would consider developing a plan of care for which possible medical diagnosis?
Thyroid cancer
Acute laryngitis
Laryngeal cancer
Bronchogenic cancer
Laryngeal cancer
Rationale: Hoarseness is a common early sign of laryngeal cancer but not of broncho‐genic or thyroid cancer. Hoarseness that lasts for 6 weeks is not associated with an acute problem, such as laryngitis.
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A client calls the ambulatory care clinic and tells the nurse that they found an area that looks like the peel of an orange when performing breast self-examination (BSE) but found no other changes. What is the nurse's best response to this client?
-"Good job performing your BSE. I am sure that is nothing to be concerned about."
-"Make sure you tell the primary health care provider about your finding at the next regularly scheduled visit."
-"I am glad you called to report this finding. Can you come to the clinic to see your
primary health care provider tomorrow?"
-"Do you have a thermometer? You need to take your temperature and call back if you have a fever over 101° F (38.3° C)."
- "I am glad you called to report this finding. Can you come to the clinic to see your
- primary health care provider tomorrow?"
- Rationale: Peau d'orange or orange peel appearance of the skin over the breast is associated with late breast cancer. Therefore, the nurse would arrange for the client to come to the clinic as soon as possible. Peau d'orange is not indicative of an infection.
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The nurse is taking a history from a client suspected of having testicular cancer. Which data will be most helpful in determining the risk factors for this type of
cancer?
Age and race
Marital status
Number of children
Number of sexual partners
Age and race
Rationale: Two basic but important risk factors for testicular cancer are age and race. The disease occurs most frequently in white individuals, generally between the ages of 15 and 34 years (although some sources say 15 to 44 years). Other risk factors include a history of undescended testis and a family history of testicular cancer. Marital status and number of children are not associated with an increased risk of testicular cancer. In addition, the number of sexual partners is not associated with testicular cancer.
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Which interventions are the most appropriate for a client who is experiencing thrombocytopenia? Select all that apply.
-Use a straight-edge razor for shaving.
-Obtain a rectal temperature every 8 hours.
-Check secretions for frank or occult blood.
-Give vitamin K by the intramuscular route.
-Encourage fluid intake to avoid constipation.
-Provide oral sponges or a soft toothbrush for oral care.
- Check secretions for frank or occult blood.
- Encourage fluid intake to avoid constipation.
- Provide oral sponges or a soft toothbrush for oral care.
- Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is a condition in which the platelets fall below the number needed for normal coagulation. When a client has thrombocytopenia, the risk of bleeding is greatly increased. To monitor for bleeding, the nurse needs to check all secretions for frank or occult blood. Valsalva maneuvers (as in straining to have a stool, vomiting, or sneezing) could cause intracerebral bleeding when the platelet count is low. To avoid
- constipation, the nurse would encourage the client to take more fluids and increase dietary fiber. The nurse needs to encourage the client to use a soft toothbrush or oral sponges to decrease irritation to the mouth and bleeding from the gums. An electric
- razor is recommended for shaving during times when the client is thrombocytopenic. The
- nurse would not take rectal temperatures or use any rectal suppositories because of the risk for injury to the rectal membranes with resultant bleeding. Medications would not be given subcutaneously or intramuscular.
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The nurse is providing care to a client who has undergone modified right mastectomy for the treatment of breast cancer. Which activity would the nurse incorporate into the plan of care?
-Keep suction drains fully inflated to provide adequate suction.
-Perform venipunctures and blood pressures on the operative side only.
-Inform the client that drains will be removed on the second postoperative day.
-Maintain head of the bed elevation at 30 degrees with the right arm elevated on a pillow.
Maintain head of the bed elevation at 30 degrees with the right arm elevated on a pillow.
Rationale: The client would have the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees with the affected arm elevated on a pillow. Keeping the affected arm elevated promotes lymphatic fluid return after removal of lymph nodes and channels. Gentle suction must be maintained on the drain bulb to prevent fluid accumulation at the operative site. With short hospital stays, drainage tubes are usually removed about 1 to 3 weeks after hospital discharge when the client returns for an office visit. All staff must avoid using the affected arm for measuring blood pressure, giving injections, or drawing blood.
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The community health nurse is preparing an educational session for a group of clients and will be discussing the primary prevention strategies and treatment measures for breast cancer. What information would the nurse include in the
educational session?
-Older individuals are more likely to get mammograms.
-Treatment decisions are based on a individual's overall health.
-Those younger than age 65 are more likely to get breast cancer.
-An individual's age is the main factor used to decide which screening methods to use.
Treatment decisions are based on a individual's overall health.
Rationale: Breast cancer occurs most often in those who are 65 years of age or older, and older individuals are less likely to have mammograms. Rather than using age to decide on screening and treatment measures, overall health is used to make these determinations, since health status has a greater influence on tolerance to treatment.
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The community nurse is planning to conduct a health promotion program at a local school to discuss the risk factors associated with cervical cancer. Which are risk factors for cervical cancer? Select all that apply.
-Smoking
-Chlamydia infection
-Human papillomavirus infection
-Having a family history of cervical cancer
-Gynecological screening exams (Pap smears) starting at age 21
- Smoking
- Chlamydia infection
- Human papillomavirus infection
- Having a family history of cervical cancer
Rationale: Risk factors for cervical cancer include human papillomavirus infection, chlamydia infection, active and passive cigarette smoking, multiparity, obesity, long-term use of oral contraceptives, use of an intrauterine device, having multiple full-term pregnancies, having a first full-term pregnancy earlier than age 17, biological females whose birthing parents took diethylstilbestrol, and having a family history of cervical cancer. Screening every 3 years via gynecological examinations and Papanicolaou (Pap) tests are recommended starting at age 21.
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The nurse would include which intervention in the care of a client who has undergone a vaginal hysterectomy for the treatment of cancer? Select all that apply.
-Elevate the knee gatch on the bed.
-Encourage ambulation as prescribed.
-Remove antiembolism stockings twice daily.
-Assist with range-of-motion (ROM) leg exercises.
-Check placement of pneumatic compression boots
- -Encourage ambulation as prescribed.
- -Remove antiembolism stockings twice daily.
- -Assist with range-of-motion (ROM) leg exercises.
- -Check placement of pneumatic compression boots
Rationale: The client is at risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or thrombophlebitis after this surgery, as with any other major surgery. The nurse needs to avoid using the knee gatch in the bed because doing so inhibits venous return, thus placing the client at greater risk for DVT or thrombophlebitis. The nurse will implement measures that prevent DVT or thrombophlebitis; ROM exercises, ambulation, antiembolism stockings, and pneumatic compression boots are all helpful.
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The oncology nurse specialist provides an educational session for nursing staff regarding the characteristics of Hodgkin's disease. The nurse determines that further teaching is needed if a nursing staff member states that which is a
characteristic of the disease?
-Reed-Sternberg cells are present.
-The lymph nodes, spleen, and liver are involved.
-The prognosis depends on the stage of the disease.
-The disease occurs most often in those older than 75 years of age.
-The disease occurs most often in those older than 75 years of age.
Rationale: Hodgkin's lymphoma is a cancer that can occur at any age but appears to peak in two different age groups: in teens and young adults and in adults in their 50s and 60s. The remaining options are characteristics of this disease.
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The community health nurse conducts a health promotion program for community members regarding testicular cancer. The nurse determines
that further information needs to be provided if a community member states that which is a sign of testicular cancer?
-Alopecia
-Back pain
-Painless testicular swelling
-Heavy sensation in the scrotum
-Alopecia
Rationale: Alopecia is not an assessment finding in testicular cancer. Alopecia may occur, however, as a result of radiation or chemotherapy. The remaining options are assessment findings in testicular cancer. Back pain may indicate metastasis to the retroperitoneal lymph nodes.
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A client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. Which is the most likely expected effect?
-Dyspnea
-Diarrhea
-Sore throat
-Constipation
-Sore throat
- Rationale: In general, only the area in the treatment field is affected by the radiation. Skin
- reactions, fatigue, nausea, and anorexia may occur with radiation to any site, whereas other side effects occur only when specific areas are involved in treatment. A client receiving radiation to the larynx is most likely to experience a sore throat. Dyspnea may occur with lung involvement. Diarrhea and constipation may occur with radiation to the gastrointestinal tract.
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A cervical radiation implant is placed in a client who is undergoing treatment of cervical cancer. The nurse would initiate which activity prescription as the most appropriate for this client?
-Bed rest
-Out of bed ad lib
-Out of bed in a chair only
-Ambulation to the bathroom only
-Bed rest
Rationale: The client with a cervical radiation implant needs to be maintained on bed rest in the dorsal position to prevent movement of the radiation source. The head of the bed is elevated to a maximum of 10 to 15 degrees for comfort. The nurse avoids turning the client on the side. If turning is absolutely necessary, a pillow is placed between the knees and, with the body in straight alignment, the client is logrolled.
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The client reports to the nurse that while performing testicular self-examination, a lump the size and shape of a pea was found. Which statement is the most appropriate response to the client?
-"Lumps like that are normal. Don't worry."
-"Let me know if it gets bigger next month."
-"That's important to report even though it might not be serious."
-"That could be cancer. I'll ask the primary health care provider to examine you."
-"That's important to report even though it might not be serious."
Rationale: Testicular cancer almost always occurs in only one testicle and is usually a pea-size, painless lump when discovered. The cancer is highly curable if found early. The finding would be reported to the primary health care provider.
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The nurse is admitting a client with laryngeal cancer to the nursing unit. What would the nurse assess for as the most common risk factor for this type of
cancer?
-Alcohol abuse
-Cigarette smoking
-Use of chewing tobacco
-Exposure to air pollutants
-Cigarette smoking
Rationale: The most common risk factor associated with laryngeal cancer is cigarette smoking. Heavy alcohol use and the combined use of alcohol and tobacco increase the risk. Another risk factor is exposure to environmental pollutants.
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The nurse is reviewing the preoperative prescriptions for a client with a colon tumor who is scheduled for abdominal perineal resection and notes that the primary health care provider has prescribed neomycin for the client. After discussing a prescription for neomycin with the nursing student who is caring for the client, the nurse determines that the student understands the rationale for administration if which statement is made?
-"The client is allergic to penicillin."
-"It will help to decrease the bacteria in the bowel."
-"It is given to prevent an immune dysfunction postoperatively."
-"It is given because the client has an infection that must be treated prior to surgery."
-"It will help to decrease the bacteria in the bowel."
- Rationale: To reduce the risk of contamination at the time of surgery, the surgeon may prescribe that the bowel is emptied and cleansed with laxatives and enemas. However, this is not always prescribed because of the risk of dehydration and fluid and electrolyte imbalances. An intestinal anti-infective such as neomycin may be prescribed to decrease the bacteria in the bowel. There are no data in the question that indicate that the client
- has an infection or is allergic to penicillin. The medication does not prevent immune dysfunction.
-
The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a radical neck dissection and creation of a tracheostomy because of laryngeal cancer and is providing discharge instructions to the client. Which would be included in the instructions? Select all that apply.
-Protect the stoma from water.
-Use a humidifier if dryness is a problem.
-Keep powders and sprays away from the stoma site.
-Use an air conditioner to provide cool air to assist in breathing.
-Apply a thin layer of non–oil-based ointment to the skin around the stoma to prevent cracking.
- -Protect the stoma from water.
- -Use a humidifier if dryness is a problem.
- -Apply a thin layer of non–oil-based ointment to the skin around the stoma to prevent cracking.
- Rationale: Air conditioners would be avoided to prevent excessive coldness. The remaining options are appropriate interventions regarding stoma care after radical neck dissection and creation of a tracheotomy.
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Which statement made by a client who will undergo cytoreductive (debulking) surgery for ovarian cancer indicates that teaching by the nurse was effective?
-"The surgery will remove precancerous tissue."
-"The surgery will help to reduce the size of the tumor."
-"The surgery will cure the cancer by removing all small and large tumor cells."
-"The goal of this surgery is to improve my appearance so I will feel better about myself."
-"The surgery will help to reduce the size of the tumor."
Rationale: Cytoreductive or debulking surgery may be used if a large tumor cannot be removed completely, as is often the case with late-stage ovarian cancer (e.g., the tumor is attached to a vital organ or has spread throughout the abdomen). When this occurs, as much tumor as possible is removed, and adjuvant chemotherapy or radiation may be prescribed. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect purposes for cytoreductive surgery.
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The nurse is caring for a client with prostate cancer who is being treated with a hormone therapy. What would the nurse monitor for in order to evaluate the
effect of this treatment?
-An increase in testosterone levels
-An increase in prostaglandin levels
-An increase the amount of circulating androgens
-A decline in the amount of circulating androgens
-A decline in the amount of circulating androgens
- Rationale: Hormone therapy (androgen deprivation) is a mode of treatment for prostatic
- cancer. The goal is to limit the amount of circulating androgens because prostate cells
- depend on androgen for cellular maintenance. Deprivation of androgen often can lead to
- regression of disease and improvement of symptoms. The remaining options do not
- identify the goals of this form of treatment.
-
The nurse is caring for a client with cancer of the prostate who has undergone a prostatectomy. Which action would the nurse plan to include in discharge instructions?
-Avoid driving the car for a few days.
-Restrict fluid intake to prevent incontinence.
-Avoid lifting objects heavier than 20 Lb (9 kg) for at least 6 weeks.
-Notify the primary health care provider if small blood clots are noticed during urination.
-Avoid lifting objects heavier than 20 Lb (9 kg) for at least 6 weeks.
- Rationale: The client who has undergone a prostatectomy needs to avoid lifting objects
- heavier than 20 lb (9 kg) for at least 6 weeks. Driving a car and sitting for long periods are
- restricted for at least 3 weeks. A high daily fluid intake would be maintained to limit clot formation and prevent infection. Small pieces of tissue or blood clots may be passed during urination for up to 2 weeks after surgery; this is an expected occurrence.
-
The oncology nurse is providing a teaching session for a group of nursing students regarding the risks and causes of bladder cancer. Which statement by a student would indicate a need for further teaching?
-"Bladder cancer most often occurs in women."
-"Using cigarettes and drinking coffee can increase the risk."
-"Bladder cancer generally is seen in clients older than age 40."
-"Environmental health hazards have been implicated as a cause."
-"Bladder cancer most often occurs in women."
Rationale: The incidence of bladder cancer is greater in men than in women and affects white people twice as often as black people. The remaining options describe risks associated with bladder cancer.
-
The nurse is caring for a client after intravesical instillation of an alkylating chemotherapeutic agent for the treatment of bladder cancer. What would the
nurse instruct the client to do after the instillation?
-Urinate immediately.
-Maintain strict bed rest.
-Change position every 15 minutes.
-Retain the instillation fluid for 30 minutes.
-Change position every 15 minutes.
Rationale: With intravesical instillation, normally the medication is injected into the bladder through a urethral catheter, the catheter is clamped or removed, and the client is asked to retain the fluid for 2 hours. The client changes position every 15 to 30 minutes, usually from side to side and from supine to prone. The client then voids and is instructed to drink water to flush the bladder.
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The community nurse is conducting a health promotion program, and the topic of the discussion relates to the risk factors for gastric cancer. Which item, if identified as a risk factor by a client, indicates a need for further discussion?
-Smoking
-A low-fat diet
-Foods containing nitrates
-A diet of smoked, highly salted, and spiced foods
-A low-fat diet
Rationale: A low-fat diet is not a risk factor for gastric cancer. A high-fat diet plays a role in the development of cancer of the pancreas and other types of cancers. The remaining options are risk factors related to gastric cancer.
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A client with leukemia is receiving busulfan and allopurinol. The nurse would plan to tell the client that the purpose of the allopurinol is to prevent which problem?
-Nausea
-Alopecia
-Vomiting
-High uric acid levels
-High uric acid levels
Rationale: Allopurinol decreases uric acid production and reduces uric acid concentrations in serum and urine. In the client receiving chemotherapy, uric acid levels increase as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurs because of the chemotherapy. This medication prevents or treats hyperuricemia caused by chemotherapy. Allopurinol is not used to prevent alopecia, nausea, or vomiting.
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A 67-year-old client is receiving outpatient radiation treatments for carcinoma of the oropharynx and has developed dysphagia. The nurse develops a teaching plan regarding dysphagia and includes which interventions in the plan? Select all that apply.
-Teach the client to speak slowly.
-Teach the client to enunciate clearly.
-Encourage the client to drink only thin liquids.
-Teach the client to examine the oral mucosa daily.
-Encourage the client to use artificial saliva to manage dryness.
- -Teach the client to examine the oral mucosa daily.
- -Encourage the client to use artificial saliva to manage dryness.
Rationale: Epithelial cells of the head and neck are destroyed by radiation. Examining the oral mucosa is a preventive intervention so that changes in the mucosa will be noted immediately. Inflammation and ulceration also occur because of rapid cell destruction, thereby impairing normal saliva excretion and distribution. Artificial saliva aids in preventing further damage by lubricating the affected area. The client with dysphagia has difficulty swallowing, not difficulty speaking; therefore, teaching the client to speak slowly and enunciate clearly will provide no health benefit for the impairment in swallowing. A client with difficulty swallowing would avoid drinking thin liquids because of the increased risk of aspiration owing to epiglottis dysfunction related to radiation therapy.
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A client with a medical diagnosis of breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy. The client complains to the nurse about hair loss and severe fatigue from the treatment. Which interventions would the nurse plan to implement for this client? Select all that apply.
-Review side effects of chemotherapy and treatment with the client.
-Teach the client how to resolve specific concerns of her personal life.
-Teach the client to pace activities with rest so as to maintain strength.
-Offer information on available counseling services and support groups.
-Tell the client about some other clients who have had breast cancer treatment.
-Inquire how the cancer diagnosis and treatment affect the client's normal routine.
- -Review side effects of chemotherapy and treatment with the client.
- -Teach the client to pace activities with rest so as to maintain strength.
- -Offer information on available counseling services and support groups.
- -Inquire how the cancer diagnosis and treatment affect the client's normal routine.
Rationale: It is not therapeutic, nor is it the nurse's role to teach the client how to resolve specific concerns of the client's personal life. The nurse needs to determine how the cancer diagnosis and treatment are affecting the client's normal routine, and the client needs to be aware of potential side effects of treatment so as to cope with the events with medications or other measures. It is important for the nurse to inform clients about support groups available (e.g., Reach for Recovery) so that the client does not feel isolated. Teaching clients to pace activities even when they feel well will conserve energy so that they ultimately feel stronger and less fatigued. It is a breach of confidentiality and the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) laws for the nurse to discuss other clients and their medical problems.
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The nurse is monitoring a client with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Which sign would the nurse specifically monitor for and report to the primary health care provider?
-Anemia
-Bleeding
-Pancytopenia
-Lymphadenopathy
-Lymphadenopathy
Rationale: CLL causes a slow increase in immature B cells. These cells infiltrate the bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen, and liver. CLL eventually causes bone marrow failure; therefore, the client will have enlarged and swollen lymph nodes. Options 1 and 2 are clinical manifestations of acute leukemias. Option 3 is a clinical manifestation of hairy cell leukemia.
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A client with bladder cancer has undergone surgical removal of the bladder with creation of an ileal conduit. Which assessment findings indicate that the client is developing complications? Select all that apply.
-Dusky appearance of the stoma
-Stoma protrusion from the skin
-Sharp abdominal pain with rigidity
-Urine output greater than 30 mL/hour
-Mucous shreds in the urine collection bag
- -Dusky appearance of the stoma
- -Stoma protrusion from the skin
- -Sharp abdominal pain with rigidity
- Rationale: To create an ileal conduit, the surgeon takes a short segment of the small intestine and reconnects the remaining intestine so that it functions normally. One end of the removed segment of intestine is placed at the skin surface to create the stoma. The stoma would be red and moist. A pale, dusky stoma indicates poor vascular supply that could result in necrosis. The stoma would be flush to the skin. The client would not have sharp abdominal pain with rigidity, an indication of peritonitis. Any of these findings
- needs to be reported to the primary health care provider. Options 4 and 5 are normal findings.
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A client who is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer develops myelosuppression. Which instructions would the nurse plan to include in the
client's discharge teaching plan? Select all that apply.
-Avoid contact sports.
-Wash hands frequently.
-Increase intake of fresh fruits and vegetables.
-Avoid crowded places such as shopping malls.
-Treat a sore throat with over-the-counter products.
-Avoid people who have received live attenuated vaccines.
- -Avoid contact sports.
- -Wash hands frequently.
- -Avoid crowded places such as shopping malls.
- -Avoid people who have received live attenuated vaccines.
Rationale: Effective measures need to be used to protect the client from infection and bleeding. A variety of interventions are essential to keep the client who is receiving chemotherapy safe. Live attenuated vaccines can easily infect clients with myelosuppression, and crowded places usually have people who are sick and coughing and sneezing, which can easily cause illness in myelosuppressed clients. Contact sports can result in injury or bleeding, and hand washing is the mainstay of asepsis and protection from infection. The client with myelosuppression would not eat fresh fruits and vegetables because of the risk of contamination or infection. All foods need to be thoroughly cooked. Option 5 is incorrect because many over-the-counter products contain acetaminophen or aspirin, which could potentially mask an elevated temperature. Additionally, aspirin is an antiplatelet and can cause bleeding. Clients receiving chemotherapy would not take any other medications without direction from PHCP.
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A client with laryngeal cancer has undergone laryngectomy and is now receiving external radiation therapy to the head and neck. The nurse would monitor the client for which side and adverse effects of external radiation? Select all that apply.
-Cystitis
-Stomatitis
-Dysgeusia
-Leukopenia
-Xerostomia
-Thrombocytopenia
- -Stomatitis
- -Dysgeusia
- -Xerostomia
Rationale: Stomatitis (inflammation of the mucous lining in the mouth), dysgeusia (distorted sense of taste), and xerostomia (dry mouth) are local effects of external radiation to the head and neck. Options 4 and 6 are systemic effects and would most likely occur if radiation were applied to areas around the bone marrow. Option 1 is unrelated to the client's condition.
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The nurse in the primary health care provider's office is performing a postoperative assessment of a client who underwent right mastectomy 2 weeks
ago. The client tells the nurse that they are very concerned because they have numbness in the area of the surgery and along the inner side of the arm from the armpit to the elbow. The nurse would provide which information to the client about this concern?
-These sensations are signs of a complication.
-These sensations probably will be permanent.
-These sensations dissipate over several months and usually resolve after 1 year.
-It is nothing to worry about because most people who have this type of surgery experience this problem.
-These sensations dissipate over several months and usually resolve after 1 year.
Rationale: Numbness in the area of the surgery and along the inner side of the arm from the armpit to the elbow occurs in most women after mastectomy. It is a result of injury to the nerves that provide sensation to the skin in those areas. These sensations may be described as heaviness, pain, tingling, burning, or "pins and needles." These sensations dissipate over several months and usually resolve by 1 year after surgery. These sensations are not a sign of a complication and are not permanent. The nurse would not tell the client that a complaint is nothing to worry about because this is nontherapeutic and avoids the client's concern.
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