EPPP - Learning Theory - Domain Quiz

D

Proactive interference occurs when previously learned information hinders the ability to recall information learned more recently; while retroactive interference occurs when information acquired more recently hinders the ability to recall previously acquired information. Retroactive and proactive interference provide an alternative explanation to trace decay theory for the inability to recall previously acquired information.

Answer A: Habituation occurs when a punishment loses its effectiveness, whereas satiation occurs when a reinforcer has lost its reinforcing value.

Answer B: Anterograde amnesia is the inability to form new long-term memories.

Answer C: Memory consolidation refers to the process whereby learning experiences in short-term memory are transformed into long-term memory.

C

Note that this question is asking which technique is NOT based on classical conditioning. Response cost is a type of negative punishment (operant conditioning) that involves removing a reinforcer following a target behavior to reduce or eliminate that behavior.

Answer A: Incorrect. Systematic desensitization is an evidence-based therapy approach for treating phobias and other anxiety by exposing patients to progressively more anxiety-provoking stimuli while teaching the use of relaxation techniques. It aims to substitute the anxiety response with a relaxation response using counter conditioning.

Answer B: Incorrect. Covert sensitization is a type of aversive counterconditioning that involves pairing the conditioned stimulus (CS) and unconditioned stimulus (US) in imagination.

Answer D: Incorrect. Implosive therapy is a behavior therapy for anxiety that combines classical extinction with psychodynamic principles. Additional information on the techniques listed in the answers to this question is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

D

Negative reinforcement is the removal of an aversive stimulus following a target behavior in order to increase the frequency of the target behavior. In this case, if students complete their homework for the week, they do not have to do the extra work of writing an essay that week. The removal of the aversive stimulus (i.e., writing the essay) will increase the frequency or likelihood that students will complete their homework (i.e., the target behavior).

Answer A: This is an example of positive reinforcement on a continuous reinforcement schedule; the son is rewarded each time the target behavior (i.e., picking up his toys) occurs, which will likely increase this behavior.

Answer B: This is an example of punishment by removal. The mom hopes that by taking away her daughter's car keys, it will decrease the number of tests she fails.

Answer C: This is an example of positive reinforcement on a fixed interval reinforcement schedule (i.e., reward every two weeks if the target behavior of perfect attendance occurred).

B

The question describes habituation which, in the context of punishment, occurs when the punisher loses its effectiveness. Gradually increasing the intensity of punishment over time is usually ineffective because it leads to habituation.

Answer A: Satiation occurs when a reinforcer loses its reinforcing value because the individual has received too much reinforcement.

Answer C: In the context of punishment, sensitization occurs when an individual's response to a neutral (innocuous) stimulus increases after the individual has been exposed to a punishing (aversive) stimulus.

Answer D: In operant conditioning, extinction occurs when a previously reinforced response is no longer reinforced and, as a result, the response decreases or no longer occurs.

C

Reciprocal inhibition involves using classical conditioning to replace an undesirable response with an incompatible response. The term reciprocal inhibition is often used interchangeably with counterconditioning. Wolpe originally used reciprocal inhibition to reduce anxiety. This involved pairing, in imagination, anxiety-arousing events with relaxation, which is incompatible with anxiety.

Answer A: This answer sounds most like self-instructional training (SIT) developed by Meichenbaum and Goodman (1971). The main goal of the treatment is to teach hyperactive and impulsive children to insert more adaptive and self-controlling thoughts between a stimulus situation and their behavioral response to the situation.

Answer B: A target of Beck's (1967, 1984) cognitive therapy is to identify cognitive dysfunctions and modify them.

Answer D: The goal of attribution retraining is to alter the individual's perceptions of the causes of his or her problematic behavior. Seligman's theory of learned optimism seeks to help clients attribute their failures to external, unstable, and specific factors and successes to internal, stable, and global factors.

B

This question is asking about research on the serial position effect, which identified a "recency-primacy shift." Specifically, the research has shown that, as the delay between study and recall increases, memory for the last item in a list decreases but memory for the first item increases -- i.e., there is a shift from a recency effect to a primacy effect.

Answer A: This is the opposite of what the recency-primacy shift indicates, as memory for the first item in a list increases and memory for the last item in a list decreases.

Answer C: As the delay between study and recall increases, only memory for the last item decreases.

Answer D: As the delay between study and recall increases, only memory for the first item increases.

A

Implosive therapy combines classical extinction with psychodynamic interpretation and is used to treat anxiety reactions. Knowing that implosive therapy is used to extinguish a phobic or other anxiety response would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question.

Answer B: Major Depressive Disorder is most effectively treated with a combination of an antidepressant and psychotherapy (usually CBT or IPT).

Answer C: Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder is most effectively treated with sex therapy and medications.

Answer D: Reactive Attachment Disorder is usually treated with psychotherapy for the child, family therapy, and parenting education.

D

An acrostic is made up of words beginning with the first letter of each word or phrase that is to be remembered. For example, the acrostic "my very educated mother just sent us nachos" is used to memorize the names of the eight planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune).

Answer A: Chunking involves grouping related items of information. To remember a string of 21 numbers, for instance, you might chunk the numbers into groups of three, resulting in seven distinct units of information. Chunking is useful for maintaining information in working memory.

Answer B: The keyword method is an imagery mnemonic that is useful for paired associate tasks in which two words must be linked. It involves creating an image for each word and visually joining the two images. As an example, to remember that the French word for church is eglise, you could form an image of a church with a giant egg outside the church doors.

Answer C: An acronym is a word that is formed using the first letter of each item in a list. For example, the acronym HOMES is used to remember the Great Lakes (Huron, Ontario, Michigan, Erie, and Superior).

B

The purpose of the study described in this question was to investigate how subsequent experience affects prior learning. Retroactive interference occurs when subsequent (new) learning interferes with prior (old) learning. It is most likely to occur when the new and old learning are similar in terms of content. In the study described in this question, participants in the experimental group learned two lists of similar content (i.e., nonsense syllables). In contrast, participants in the control group engaged in an unrelated task after learning the list of nonsense syllables to ensure that they did not continue to rehearse the list prior to recall testing. The finding that participants in the control group recalled more words from List A than participants in the experimental group is evidence that retroactive interference contributes to difficulty with the recall of the original list.

Answer A: Incorrect. Proactive interference occurs when prior (old) learning interferes with subsequent (new) learning; this is the opposite of what was observed in this study.

Answer C: Incorrect. Trace decay theory predicts that forgetting is due to the passage of time. The amount of time between learning List A and being tested on recall was the same for both the experimental and the control group, so the difference in the accuracy of recall between groups cannot be explained by this theory.

Answer D: Incorrect. The serial position effect refers to the tendency to recall the first and last items in a list better than items in the middle of the list, and therefore, it does not pertain to the results of this study.

C

Iconic memory is a component of the visual memory system. It refers to visual sensory memory or memory of brief (<1 second) visual images (i.e., icons).

Answer A: Flashbulb memories are vivid memories of surprising, emotional events.

Answer B: Recognition memory refers to the ability to recall information from long-term memory on the basis of recognition when given appropriate cues.

Answer D: Echoic memory refers to auditory sensory memory or memory of brief exposure to auditory information.

D

This incentive represents a fixed ratio schedule. Do not be misled by the statement "every six to eight weeks" because it is the number of responses (i.e., number of sales), NOT the time interval, that determines when salespeople will receive a bonus. Additionally, this example represents a fixed schedule because the reward follows a consistent number of responses (i.e., after every sixth sale).

Answer A: Variable schedules of reinforcement involve unpredictable or inconsistent number of responses or amount of time that must occur in order for a reward to be given. Interval schedules of reinforcement mean that the schedule is based on the time between reinforcements, which is not the case in this example.

Answer B: An incentive program would have a variable ratio schedule of reinforcement if rewards were given after an unpredictable number of responses or sales.

Answer C: Fixed interval schedules are reinforcement schedules in which rewards for a response are given only after a specified amount of time has elapsed.

B

In this scenario, Betsy receives reinforcement for two different behaviors, but the reinforcement for one behavior will be terminated. This question describes a "behavioral contrast," which occurs when a change in the reinforcement schedule of one part of the reinforcement changes a behavior in the opposite direction in the other component of the schedule. In this situation, the behavior that is no longer reinforced (i.e., the homework completion) will decrease while the behavior that continues to be reinforced (i.e., the violin playing) will increase.

Answer A: The behavior that is still being reinforced will not decrease.

Answer C: In this situation, the behavior that is no longer reinforced (i.e., the homework completion) will decrease while the behavior that continues to be reinforced (i.e., the violin playing) will increase.

Answer D: The behavior that is no longer being reinforced will decrease.

C

In this situation, you are recalling a personally experienced event, which is the definition of episodic memory.

Answer A: Implicit memory is one type of long-term memory, also known as unconscious memory; it is memory that occurs automatically. Examples include typing on a computer or riding a bike.

Answer B: Semantic memory is memory for the meaning of words and concepts. For example, recalling the names of colors or the sounds of letters or other basic facts uses semantic memory.

Answer D: Sensory memory is the shortest-term type of memory. It refers to brief impressions formed by input from the senses.

B

A variable ratio schedule produces behaviors that are most resistant to extinction because the relationship between responding and reinforcement is unpredictable.

Answer A: The acquisition of a response is rapid when using a fixed ratio schedule of reinforcement. However, because the relationship between responding and reinforcement is predictable, extinction happens faster for this schedule than for the variable ratio schedule.

Answer C: In the fixed interval schedule, resistance to extinction increases as the interval lengthens in time. However, the rate of extinction is faster with this schedule than with the variable ratio schedule.

Answer D: The rate of extinction with a variable interval schedule is faster than with the variable ratio schedule. Each of the intermittent schedules of reinforcement is associated with different rates of acquisition and extinction. Additional information about these schedules is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

D

As its name implies, stimulus control occurs when the probability of a behavior is greater under certain environmental conditions than others. In treatment, it involves bringing a behavior under the control by focusing on or reducing exposure to specific stimuli or cues. In the behavioral treatment of obesity, stimulus control involves strengthening appropriate cues for eating while weakening inappropriate cues by, for example, having the individual eat only in certain locations and at specific times of the day that have not been previously associated with overeating.

Answer A: This response is an example of aversive conditioning.

Answer B: This is an example of positive reinforcement on a fixed ratio schedule.

Answer C: This is an example of using replacement behaviors to facilitate behavior change.

A

Bandura's social learning theory is distinguished from behavioral theories by its recognition of the role of cognitive factors in learning. Bandura distinguished between learning and performance and proposed that people can learn (acquire) behaviors without actually performing them but by observing others perform the behavior.

Answer B: Although Bandura downplays the importance of external reinforcement, he does not entirely abandon the idea that reinforcement enhances the acquisition and performance of behaviors.

Answer C: Stimulus-Response connections are not part of Bandura's theory.

Answer D: Scaffolding is an element of Vygotsky's sociocultural theory of cognitive development.

C

Interventions based on operant conditioning aim to increase behaviors through reinforcement or decrease behaviors through punishment or extinction. Negative punishment involves taking something desirable away to reduce the occurrence of a behavior. In this case, the teacher is using a time-out to remove the child from all possible sources of positive reinforcement for a brief period whenever the unwanted behavior (i.e., tantrum) occurs to reduce its frequency.

Answer A: Positive punishment involves applying an undesirable stimulus following a behavior to decrease the occurrence of that behavior. In the situation described in the question, opportunities for reinforcement are being removed following the behavior.

Answer B: Negative reinforcement involves removing an undesirable stimulus following a behavior to increase the occurrence of that behavior.

Answer D: Overcorrection is a type of punishment that involves having an individual practice an appropriate behavior multiple times after engaging in an undesirable behavior.

D

Rehm's self-control therapy focuses on three aspects of self-control that contribute to depression. According to Rehm, deficits in self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement increase a person's vulnerability to depression.

Answer A: According to Beck, depression involves the cognitive triad of a negative view of oneself, the world, and the future.

Answer B: There are a number of therapies that address thoughts, feelings, and actions in treating depression; however, this answer option is very broad and does not reflect the components of Rehm's self-control therapy.

Answer C: Worker-oriented methods of a job analysis provide information about the knowledge, skills, and abilities that a worker needs to perform a job successfully.

A

A functional behavioral assessment is conducted to identify the factors that are maintaining or controlling an undesirable behavior and identify a more desirable substitute behavior that serves the same purpose.

Answer B: FBA is used to identify the factors (antecedents and consequences) that are controlling the target behavior so that those factors can be altered. A moderator is a variable that changes the strength or direction of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables.

Answer C: A dependent variable is a variable that changes in response to changes in the independent variable; in an FBA, the dependent variable may be the undesirable target behavior.

Answer D: Organismic variables are internal forces that cause animals to engage in behavior appropriate to their species (e.g., birds to fly).

C

William's parents are reinforcing the boy's whining on an intermittent schedule (i.e., not every time), which is producing an increase in his behavior.

Answer A: Differential reinforcement involves reinforcing a specific behavior while withholding reinforcement for other behaviors. Differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviors can be used to decrease a target behavior by reinforcing a behavior for which the target behavior cannot be completed simultaneously, but that is not what is occurring in this example.

Answer B: Response generalization occurs when a conditioned stimulus (CS) produces responses similar to the conditioned response (CR) or when a learned behavior is demonstrated in a novel way (i.e., in response to new conditions).

Answer D: Response discrimination is the opposite of response generalization and occurs when the individual responds to the CS only with a specific response (the original CR).

C

Counterconditioning is based on the principles of classical conditioning and involves pairing two incompatible responses in order to eliminate one of the responses. In sensate focus, pleasurable sensations are paired with performance anxiety in order to reduce the latter.

Answer A: Classical extinction occurs when a conditioned stimulus is presented repeatedly without the unconditioned stimulus, and as a result, they are no longer associated with one another and the conditioned response ceases to occur.

Answer B: Operant extinction occurs when reinforcement is no longer provided in response to a specific behavior; as a result, the target behavior eventually stops.

Answer D: Covert sensitization occurs when the client imagines engaging in the maladaptive behavior and then imagines (rather than actually confronts) an aversive stimulus.

D

The statement in this question asserts that a behavior followed by a positive (satisfying) consequence will increase in frequency. This is a type of operant conditioning referred to as positive reinforcement. The first name that may have come to mind when you read this question was Skinner. Thorndike was a predecessor of Skinner and proposed the law of effect, which predicts that behaviors that are followed by satisfying consequences will tend to occur again.

Answer A: Although Bandura recognizes the role of reinforcement in the acquisition and performance of behavior, his social learning theory proposes that people can acquire behaviors simply by observing others perform those behaviors. In addition, Bandura places more emphasis on the role of internal (versus external) reinforcement.

Answer B: Ebbinghaus is associated with research on memory and forgetting.

Answer C: Watson is associated with classical conditioning, not operant conditioning.

B

Experimental neurosis is an abnormal behavior condition (e.g., erratic behavior mimicking a mental disorder) displayed in laboratory settings when the scenario is difficult or impossible. It was exhibited by dogs in Pavlov's research when they were presented with stimuli very similar to the original conditioned stimulus; the normally docile animals became very agitated.

Answer A: Unavoidable aversive stimuli (i.e., exposure to negative stimuli that one cannot avoid or control) is a term related to the process by which learned helplessness is developed.

Answer C: Accidental conditioning refers to the unintentional pairing of a CS and unconditioned stimulus that results in a conditioned response.

Answer D: Higher order conditioning occurs when a stimulus that was previously neutral is paired with the conditioned stimulus and then produces the same conditioned response.

A

The term backward conditioning is associated with classical conditioning and involves presenting the US (unconditioned stimulus) prior to the CS (conditioned stimulus). To effectively establish a CR (conditioned response), the CS must be presented before or at the same time as the US.

Answer B: Presenting the US prior to the CS is not an effective strategy for conditioning even when the stimuli are similar.

Answer C: Presenting the CS before the US is the order of presentation for classical conditioning.

Answer D: Backward conditioning is a classical conditioning term and unrelated to positive reinforcement.

C

To ensure that the person actually performs the behaviors required during the restitution and positive practice phases of overcorrection, "extra help" is sometimes needed. It may be necessary to physically guide the person through the behaviors required during restitution and/or positive practice when the person is resistant to perform them on his/her own. Because physical guidance may be necessary, overcorrection is contraindicated for children who have experienced abuse or who are more physically powerful than the person administering the treatment.

Answer A: Differential reinforcement is an operant technique that combines positive reinforcement and extinction. Overcorrection is also an operant technique but is a form of positive punishment.

Answer B: Beck's Cognitive Therapy (CT) may utilize activity scheduling as a behavioral intervention.

Answer D: Behavior is said to be under stimulus control when its performance is contingent on the presence of certain stimuli, and it is considered a self-management procedure. Overcorrection is not a self-management procedure.

C

Blocking occurs when two different conditioned stimuli are paired with the unconditioned stimulus. The process described in this answer is the procedure used to investigate blocking. In this case, the second CS never becomes associated with the US and therefore does not elicit a CR. One theory to explain blocking is that the second CS does not provide information beyond what is already provided by the original CS.

Answer A: This sequence does not elicit blocking.

Answer B: Blocking involves the presence of two conditioned stimuli, not two unconditioned stimuli.

Answer D: For blocking to occur, the second CS is presented simultaneously with the original CS before the US.

D

The goal of covert sensitization is to eliminate a response by replacing it with an incompatible response. The target stimulus (in this case the fetish object) is paired in imagination with an aversive stimulus. Eventually, the target stimulus elicits the same unpleasant response as the aversive stimulus and, as a consequence, will be avoided. In this situation, the conditioned stimulus is the target stimulus, while the unconditioned stimulus is the aversive stimulus.

Answer A: A primary reinforcer is rewarding because of its inherent value. Food is a primary reinforcer for a hungry organism.

Answer B: A secondary reinforcer acquires its reinforcing value through its pairing with a primary reinforcer. Money is an example of a secondary reinforcer: It is valuable only because it can be exchanged for primary reinforcers.

Answer C: When using covert sensitization to reduce an undesirable behavior, the aversive stimulus (not the target) is the unconditioned stimulus.

B

Shaping is based on operant conditioning and involves reinforcing successive approximations to the target (desired) behavior. When using shaping to establish a new behavior, responses that come closer and closer to the desired behavior are successively reinforced.

Answer A: The term desensitization has several meanings depending on the context, and it is not relevant to the process of shaping. Desensitization typically refers to a decrease in emotional responsiveness to a stimulus after repeated exposure to it.

Answer C: Alternate response training involves training the individual to engage in a response that interferes with or is incompatible with the target (undesirable) response. Wolpe's technique of reciprocal inhibition is an example of alternate response training.

Answer D: Higher-order conditioning is a type of classical (not operant) conditioning in which a conditioned stimulus (CS) is paired with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also elicits the conditioned response (CR). Higher-order conditioning is not a component of shaping.

C

Aversive counterconditioning is a type of classical conditioning, and classical conditioning is most effective when a "delay" procedure is used. Delay conditioning involves applying the conditioned stimulus (the drink) before the start of the unconditioned stimulus (the electric shock) so that presentation of the two stimuli overlaps and both are terminated together. Of the various types of forward conditioning, delay conditioning is usually the most effective.

Answer A: This answer does not involve any delay between exposure to the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus, and therefore would not be as effective at reducing the client's consumption of alcohol.

Answer B: This would be an example of backward conditioning in which the unconditioned stimulus is presented first; this order is usually ineffective in creating behavior change.

Answer D: This is an example of trace conditioning, in which the conditioned stimulus is presented first and the presentation to the unconditioned stimulus is presented only after an interval, without overlap to the conditioned stimulus. This approach is ordinarily less effective than delay conditioning.

D

The explanation for the development of phobias provided in this question is consistent with the Pavlovian view. According to this theory, a fear response to a previously neutral object or event is a classically conditioned response in which fear is a conditioned response attached to the neutral stimulus (the conditioned stimulus) through its pairing with a stimulus that naturally elicits fear (the unconditioned stimulus).

Answer A: Negative reinforcement is an operant conditioning tool in which an aversive stimulus is removed as a consequence of a behavior, which is likely to lead to an increase of that behavior.

Answer B: Negative punishment is a type of operant conditioning in which something desirable is taken away in response to a behavior to decrease the frequency of that behavior.

Answer C: Stimulus discrimination is the ability to differentiate between a learned stimulus and similar stimuli; this would prevent phobic reactions from occurring in response to similar objects rather than facilitate additional phobic responses.

B

This question is asking, "Which of the following individuals would recommend clearly linking reinforcement to the behavior that you want to reinforce?" Skinner believed that behavior is determined by the consequences that follow it and that, when a behavior is reinforced, it increases. According to the principles of Skinner's operant conditioning, clearly linking reinforcement to performance of the behavior (e.g., by providing reinforcement immediately after the behavior) is one way to maximize the effectiveness of reinforcement.

Answer A: Pavlov is associated with classical conditioning, which involves pairing a conditioned stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus so that the conditioned stimulus alone produces a response similar to the response produced by the unconditioned stimulus. This type of conditioning is not relevant to this situation.

Answer C: Wolpe is most associated with systematic desensitization, which is based on the principles of classical conditioning.

Answer D: Tolman is best known for his research on rats in mazes, which led to his idea of cognitive maps and his cognitive theory of learning.

A

From the perspective of operant conditioning, new behaviors are acquired as the result of reinforcement. Behavioral chaining accounts for the acquisition of complex behavior based on the premise that each response in the chain of responses leading to the performance of a complex behavior serves as reinforcement for the previous response in the chain.

Answer B: Pavlov used the term stimulus substitution to describe the connection between a CS and US; specifically, the idea that the conditioned stimulus takes on the functions of the unconditioned stimulus. This view is no longer widely accepted.

Answer C: Higher order conditioning is a form of classical conditioning involving the pairing of a neutral stimulus with an established conditioned stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also elicits the conditioned response.

Answer D: Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus also elicit the conditioned response. It explains why behaviors occur in situations outside the context in which they were originally learned.

C

The multi-store model of memory divides it into three components: sensory, short-term, and long-term memory. Information acquired in the past few hours to days is stored in recent long-term memory.

Answer A: Working memory is part of short-term memory and is responsible for the temporary storage and manipulation of information (e.g., remembering a phone number until you have dialed it).

Answer B: Sensory memory stores sensory information for very brief periods (up to several seconds).

Answer D: Prospective memory refers to the ability to remember to do something in the future (e.g., to remember a future appointment).

B

According to the two-factor theory of learning, the development of a phobic response is the result of a combination of classical and operant conditioning. This question is asking about avoidance behavior, which is the aspect of a phobic response that is the result of operant conditioning. In this situation, the person's avoidance behaviors allow him/her to reduce or alleviate anxiety. In other words, avoidance behaviors occur because they are being negatively reinforced.

Answer A: Positive reinforcement does increase a behavior but involves the application of a stimulus following the behavior and therefore does not explain avoidance behavior related to phobias.

Answer C: The development of the phobia (i.e., the anxiety reaction) is the result of classical conditioning, but avoidance behavior is the result of operant conditioning.

Answer D: Unconditioned response is a classical conditioning term, and therefore, not possible to be the correct answer.

B

As described in the section on cognitive-behavioral interventions in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials, Beck's approach is based on the assumption that certain conditions must be met for relevant cognitions to become accessible and modifiable. According to Beck, the modification of dysfunctional cognitions "can only occur if the patient is engaged in the problematic situation and experiences affective arousal" (A. T. Beck and M. Weishaar. 1989. Cognitive therapy. In A. Freeman, et al. (Eds.), Comprehensive Handbook of Cognitive Therapy (pp. 29). New York, Plenum Press.).

Answer A: Intrinsic and extrinsic reinforcement are not part of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy.

Answer C: Self-efficacy, the belief in one's capacity to execute behaviors necessary to produce specific performance attainments, is a concept originally proposed by Albert Bandura.

Answer D: Personal responsibility is not part of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy.

A

A discriminative stimulus is a cue (antecedent) that signals that a particular response will be followed by a reinforcer. In the situation described in this question, the mother's yelling is serving as a cue that signals to Tommy that crying will result in reinforcement.

Answer B: An unconditioned stimulus naturally elicits the target response without learning or conditioning trials.

Answer C: A conditioned response is a response that occurs in the presence of a stimulus (the conditioned stimulus) as the result of the pairing of that stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus.

Answer D: The mother's yelling is not acting as a reinforcer for Tommy's behavior. Instead, it is her attention that has reinforcing value for Tommy and leads to increased frequency of him crying.

B

The term "dysfunctional beliefs" should have pointed to Ellis as the correct response. Ellis's assumption that all disorders can be attributed to the same set of irrational beliefs is considered by some to be a shortcoming of his approach.

Answer A: An important distinction between Beck and Ellis is that the former views each mental disorder as being characterized by a unique set of faulty cognitions, while the latter assumes that all disorders derive from the same set of basic irrational beliefs.

Answer C: Glasser is a psychiatrist known for the creation of Choice Theory and Reality Therapy. Glasser's work is based on the idea that every individual has the power to control themselves but limited power to control others and the theory that humans have five basic needs that they attempt to satisfy through behavioral choices.

Answer D: Meichenbaum is known for the development of cognitive behavioral modification, an approach to identify and challenge self-destructive beliefs specific to the individual.

A

Self-instructional training is a cognitive-behavioral technique that is used to teach people to make positive and helpful self-statements when they encounter problematic situations. Although it has subsequently been used to treat a variety of disorders, self-instructional training was originally described by Meichenbaum and Goodman as a method for helping children learn to control their impulsive behaviors (Meichenbaum, D. H., & Goodman, J. (1971). Training impulsive children to talk to themselves: A means of developing self-control. Journal of Abnormal Psychology, 77, 115-126).

B

The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which a high-frequency behavior is used to reinforce, and thus increase a low-frequency behavior. In this situation, the psychologist is suggesting that the mother use talking on the telephone (a high probability behavior) to reinforce studying (a low probability behavior). Note that the goal of the intervention is to increase studying and not to decrease talking on the telephone.

Answer A: Overcorrection is used to decrease a behavior and involves having the client correct the ill-effects of the target behavior and practice more appropriate behaviors.

Answer C: Response cost is used to reduce a behavior and involves removing a positive reinforcer each time the target behavior is performed.

Answer D: Flooding involves exposing a person to a conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus so that the conditioned response is extinguished.

B

Prompting involves providing an individual with appropriate cues to help elicit the desired behavior. In this situation, "moo" and "neigh" are acting as cues.

Answer A: Shaping is used to help an individual acquire a complex behavior and involves reinforcing successive approximations to the target behavior.

Answer C: Chaining is used to help establish a complex behavior by breaking the behavior down into a sequence of responses and using each response as reinforcement for the previous response and as a discriminative stimulus for the next response.

Answer D: Thinning is the process of gradually reducing the frequency of reinforcement (e.g., of switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule of reinforcement). For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four techniques listed in the answers to this question. Additional information on these techniques is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

A

The wording of this question implies that the correct answer must be a technique that is used to eliminate a response. Intermittent reinforcement produces behaviors that are very resistant to extinction. Therefore, when using extinction to eliminate a behavior, all reinforcement for that behavior must be consistently withheld. If the behavior is reinforced even once, the behavior may be reinstated and the extinction process will have to begin again.

Answer B: Shaping is used to establish a behavior and involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior.

Answer C: Negative reinforcement is also used to increase a behavior and involves removing an undesirable consequence when the behavior is performed.

Answer D: Chaining is used to establish complex behaviors.

A

Lewinsohn's (1974) behavioral model is based on operant conditioning and focuses on the consequences of behavior. Lewinsohn attributes depression primarily to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement and proposes that, when a person's behaviors are not reinforced, those behaviors are extinguished and the person is at increased risk for pessimism, low self-esteem, and other symptoms associated with depression.

Answer B: Although some behavioral models of depression do consider reinforcement of depressogenic behaviors, Lewinsohn's model does not.

Answer C: Perfectionism has been associated with depression and other mental health risks but is not part of Lewinsohn's behavioral model.

Answer D: Again, these factors have been linked to depression and poor mental health outcomes but are not part of Lewinsohn's model.

A

Stress inoculation is a cognitive-behavioral strategy that involves teaching clients skills to cope with future stressful situations. During the course of stress inoculation, clients learn to distinguish between ineffective and effective thoughts, actions, etc., and are taught alternative cognitive and behavioral skills that lead to effective coping in stressful situations.

Answer B: Although the skills taught in stress inoculation training may help reduce distress, it is not a crisis intervention.

Answer C: Aversive conditioning is a type of behavior therapy that makes a particular behavior (e.g., drinking) less appealing by pairing it with an unpleasant stimulus.

Answer D: Habit reversal training is a behavior therapy designed to help people eliminate unwanted behaviors or habits; for example, it can be used to treat trichotillomania.

C

The encoding specificity principle (Tulving & Thomson, 1973) states that the ability to recall information is improved when the same cues are available at encoding and retrieval. Research has consistently found that recognition memory is better than recall memory, and this has been attributed to the fact that recognition items provide more cues than do recall items (i.e., there is greater overlap between the information in the test items and the information contained in the memory trace). This finding is consistent with the encoding specificity principle.

Answer A: Although it is true that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal, it does not support the encoding specificity principle.

Answer B: Research indicating that retroactive interference has a greater impact on recent memories supports the consolidation theory of memory.

Answer D: Research showing that most memory loss is consistent with the typical forgetting curve supports the consolidation theory of memory.

C

Tolman believed that learning could occur without being manifested in performance (i.e., that learning could be latent). His research with rats in mazes indicated that the rats had learned the maze (i.e., had formed "cognitive maps") without exhibiting that learning until they were reinforced for doing so. He referred to this as latent learning. Additional information on latent learning is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Answer A: Bruner was a major contributor to knowledge about discovery (inquiry) learning.

Answer B: Bandura conducted research on observational learning.

Answer D: Kohler conducted research on insight learning.

D

Negative punishment occurs when the removal of a stimulus following a behavior decreases the behavior. In this situation, money (the stimulus) is being taken away following the use of directory assistance to decrease that behavior.

Answer A: The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement used to increase a behavior.

Answer B: Overcorrection involves having the individual engage in alternative behaviors (e.g., "fixing" the consequences of the undesirable behavior and/or practicing appropriate behaviors) whenever he/she performs the undesirable behavior.

Answer C: Negative reinforcement is used to increase a behavior and involves removing an undesirable stimulus when that behavior is performed. If you are having trouble distinguishing between positive and negative reinforcement and punishment, the summary table included in the section on principles of operant conditioning in the Learning Theory chapter may be helpful.

B

Ebbinghaus was among the first to conduct empirical studies on human memory. He was the participant in his own research, which involved memorizing lists of nonsense syllables and subsequently recalling the words to evaluate retention. His research led to the identification of learning and forgetting curves.

Answer A: Thorndike's experiments with cats in puzzle boxes led to the formulation of the "Law of Effect".

Answer C: Ebbinghaus used himself as his subject so did not need volunteers.

Answer D: Ebbinghaus's research focused on recall, not solving complex problems.

A

EMDR combines rapid lateral eye movements (which purportedly trigger adaptive neurophysiological information-processing mechanisms) with exposure and other techniques. Studies using a dismantling strategy or comparing EMDR to exposure-based treatments have generally found evidence that the essential component of EMDR is exposure to the feared stimulus in imagination rather than lateral eye movements. See Taylor, S., et al. (2003). Comparative efficacy, speed, and adverse effects of three PTSD treatments: Exposure therapy, EMDR, and relaxation. Journal of Clinical and Consulting Psychology, 72, 330-338.

Answer B: EMDR does not seek to utilize higher-order conditioning.

Answer C: Studies have generally found evidence that the essential component of EMDR is exposure to the feared stimulus in imagination rather than relaxation training. 

Answer D: EMDR utilizes rapid lateral eye movement as opposed to fixed visual attention.

B

Positive reinforcement is occurring when a behavior increases because it is followed by the application of a stimulus. In the situation described in this question, the increase in the boy's behavior is apparently due to the stimulus (the mother's yelling) that is applied after he engages in the behavior. Note that this example illustrates the fact that a positive reinforcer doesn't have to be considered positive or pleasant by everyone. For example, although many people might find yelling to be punishing, it may be that the boy in this situation thinks it is funny or that this is the only time when his mother's attention is focused on him.

Answer A: Negative reinforcement occurs when the removal of a stimulus following a behavior increases that behavior.

Answer C: Punishment decreases a behavior. Although the mother intends for her yelling to act as punishment, it is acting as reinforcement.

Answer D: Second-order conditioning (also referred to as higher order conditioning) occurs when presentation of the original conditioned stimulus is paired with a neutral stimulus so that presentation of the neutral stimulus eventually produces a conditioned response. Second-order conditioning is not relevant to the situation described in this question.

A

Operant extinction involves removing reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior. When using extinction, the withdrawal of reinforcement does not usually result in an immediate cessation of the behavior. Instead, the behavior often becomes more forceful and frequent before it begins to decline in severity or frequency. This phenomenon is referred to as a response (or extinction) burst.

Answer B: This is the opposite- you would see an initial increase rather than a reduction in behavior. 

Answer C: The behavior will become more frequent before it begins to decline in severity or frequency. 

Answer D: There is evidence of the effectiveness of using operant extinction; the behavior eventually does become eliminated if reinforcement continues to be absent.

D

Higher-order conditioning is a type of classical conditioning in which a conditioned stimulus (CS) is paired with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also elicits the conditioned response. In this situation, the CS is acting as a US (unconditioned stimulus) when it is paired with the neutral stimulus.

Answer A: The US is not typically part of higher order conditioning after it has been used to establish the CS and CR.

Answer B: The US is not a response.

Answer C: The UR and CR are often the same or similar (e.g., dogs salivating in response to food and/or the bell), but this is true for classical conditioning as well. An example of higher-order conditioning is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

D

Behaviorists distinguish between primary and secondary reinforcers. This answer describes secondary reinforcers, which are also known as conditioned reinforcers because they acquire their reinforcing value through their association with primary reinforcers (i.e., as the result of being "paired with" primary reinforcers). Money is a secondary reinforcer that has value only because it enables us to purchase primary reinforcers.

Answer A: This answer does not accurately describe the use of secondary reinforcers; secondary reinforcers can be, and often are, applied on their own, independent of a primary reinforcer.

Answer B: Secondary reinforcers may be applied on a continuous or intermittent schedule.

Answer C: Primary reinforcers have an inherent reinforcing value.

D

Only one of the approaches listed in the answers conceptualizes therapy as involving collaborative empiricism and uses Socratic dialogue as a method for encouraging collaboration between the therapist and client. Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy is referred to as collaborative empiricism because it is founded on a collaborative therapist-client relationship that involves testing hypotheses about the client's beliefs and assumptions. Socratic dialogue is an important aspect of cognitive-behavioral therapy and is used to help the client question and challenge his/her underlying beliefs, obtain disconfirming evidence for those beliefs, and identify alternative beliefs.

Answer A: Kelly's personal construct therapy is a constructivist approach that explains people's beliefs and worldviews by use of "personal constructs"--bipolar dimensions of meaning that begin to develop in infancy and may operate on a conscious or unconscious level.

Answer B: Glasser's reality therapy is based on choice theory, which assumes that people are responsible for the choices they make.

Answer C: Ellis's rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT) conceptualizes emotions and behaviors in terms of a chain of events.

D

Negative reinforcement occurs when the removal of a stimulus following a behavior increases the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated. In this situation, the student's smoking continues because smoking removes (alleviates) anxiety.

Answer A: This is an example of positive reinforcement: The child's misbehavior is continuing because a stimulus is applied (the teacher pays attention to him) whenever he misbehaves.

Answer B: This is an example of positive punishment. The target behavior (smoking) decreases in response to punishment.

Answer C: This is an example of a time-out, which is a form of negative punishment (i.e., removing stimulation or desirable interaction from the environment to decrease the behavior).

B

Implosive therapy uses classical extinction to eliminate an undesirable anxiety response experienced in phobias. It involves having the client repeatedly imagine a feared stimulus (CS) in the absence of the stimulus (US) that initially evoked the fear in order to eliminate the conditioned fear response.

Answer A: Implosive therapy is based on classical conditioning and does not involve operant conditioning (e.g., positive reinforcement).

Answer C: Implosive therapy does not use aversive conditioning or covert sensitization, which is what is described in this response.

Answer D: Implosive therapy does not involve habit reversal training, in which people are taught to engage in a competing, adaptive response when the target behavior occurs in order to eliminate that behavior.

C

Craik and Lockhart's (1972) levels of processing model proposes that the level (depth) of processing of information affects how well that information is retained. They distinguished between shallow and deep processing. According to their theory, shallow processing (processing words on the basis of their phonemic or orthographic characteristics) is less effective than deep processing (processing words at the semantic or meaning-based level).

Answer A: Orthographic processing is a type of shallow processing.

Answer C: Phonemic processing is a type of shallow processing.

Answer D: Perceptual processing includes orthographic and phonemic processing, which are shallow levels of processing.

C

Semantic memory refers to memory for facts, concepts, and other types of information that are independent of time and context. Definitions are stored in semantic memory.

Answer A: Remembering a future appointment is an example of prospective memory, which is usually classified as a separate aspect of long-term memory or as part of episodic memory.

Answer B: Remembering what you did on your last birthday is an example of episodic memory.

Answer D: Remembering how to ride a bicycle is an example of procedural memory.

C

This question is asking which type of stimulus affects the occurrence of an operant response. A discriminative stimulus (SD) is an environmental event or condition that signals that reinforcement (or punishment) is contingent on the performance of a particular response.

Answer A: Conditioned stimulus is a classical conditioning term and not tied to reinforcement.

Answer B: Unconditioned stimulus is also a classical conditioning term.

Answer D: Second-order conditioning is a classical conditioning term in which a neutral stimulus is paired with the conditioned stimulus until it elicits the conditioned response, and it is not dependent on reinforcement but rather on being paired with the conditioned stimulus.

B

The intervention described in this question involves exposing Little Albert to the feared object in vivo (in "real life"). Flooding (which is now more commonly referred to as in vivo exposure with response prevention) involves the extinction of a conditioned response through prolonged exposure to the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus.

Answer A: When using covert sensitization, the target stimulus is paired in imagination with an aversive stimulus. Eventually, the target stimulus elicits the same unpleasant response as the aversive stimulus and will be avoided.

Answer C: Response cost involves removing a specific reinforcer following a behavior to decrease that behavior.

Answer D: Stress inoculation is used to help people deal with stressful events by improving their coping skills.

A

Prospective memory refers to the ability to "remember to remember;" in other words, it refers to the ability to remember to do something in the future.

Answer B: Meta-memory refers to awareness and understanding of one's own memory processes. It includes the ability to know what memory strategies to use for specific tasks.

Answer C: Episodic (or autobiographical) memory is the aspect of long-term memory that is responsible for the storage of personally experienced events.

Answer D: Working memory is the aspect of short-term memory that is used to perform certain mental tasks (e.g., to solve a simple arithmetic problem "in your head").

A

Aversive conditioning involves pairing a stimulus (the US) that produces an aversive response (the UR) with the undesirable stimulus (the CS) so that the undesirable stimulus alone will eventually elicit an aversive response (CR) as opposed to any positive responses that it might originally elicit. In the example given in this question, cocaine would be the CS. The US would be electric shock or other aversive stimulus. The goal would be for cocaine use to result in the client experiencing the same or similar response to that experienced in response to the US.

Answer B: The US is whatever aversive stimulus is used (e.g., electric shock, nausea-inducing medication).

Answer C: Positive reinforcement is an operant conditioning technique used to increase a behavior by presenting a reward after the desired behavior.

Answer D: Negative reinforcement is also an operant conditioning technique used to increase a behavior. When using negative reinforcement, an aversive stimulus is removed following the desirable behavior.

A

Self-monitoring is a self-control technique that involves recording information about the target behavior. Asking a person who frequently overeats to keep a record of the food he eats to obtain information about his eating behavior is an example of self-monitoring.

Answer B: This answer is an example of the Premack Principle, which involves using a high-frequency behavior as a positive reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior in order to increase the low-frequency behavior.

Answer C: This answer is an example of stimulus control, which involves bringing a person's behavior under the control of certain stimuli (cues).

Answer D: This answer is an example of self-instruction, which involves training the individual to give him/herself instructions while performing a task to enhance task performance.

B

Classical conditioning involves pairing a conditioned stimulus (CS) with an unconditioned stimulus (US) so that the CS produces a response (CR) that is similar to the unconditioned response (UR). To extinguish the CR, the CS is repeatedly presented without the US.

Answer A: This is the order of presentation for creating a CS and CR in classical conditioning.

Answer C: This order will not result in learning nor will it extinguish an already established CS.

Answer D: This will not impact the response to the CS whenever it is presented.

A

Of the interventions listed in the responses, only one involves eliminating an undesirable behavior while establishing more desirable behaviors. Differential reinforcement not only uses extinction to eliminate an undesirable behavior but also reinforces the individual for engaging in alternative behaviors.

Answer B: Incorrect. Response cost is a type of negative punishment in which involves removing a reinforcer following a target behavior to reduce or eliminate that behavior.

Answer C: Covert sensitization is a classical conditioning technique used to eliminate undesirable behavior.

Answer D: Stimulus control occurs when the probability of a behavior is greater under certain environmental conditions than others. In treatment, it involves bringing a behavior under the control by focusing on or reducing exposure to specific stimuli or cues.

C

This question is asking for the term that is used to describe reducing the proportion of reinforcement. Thinning is a technique in which a gradual increase in the intermittency of reinforcement is introduced.

Answer A: Fading refers to the gradual removal of a prompt. A prompt is provided before the target behavior to cue that behavior as opposed to after the behavior to reinforce that behavior.

Answer B: Desensitizing involves using deconditioning to help an individual unlearn or reduce the intensity of learned responses.

Answer D: Blocking is a classical conditioning term and occurs when two different conditioned stimuli are paired with the unconditioned stimulus.

C

Extinction is accomplished by consistently withholding all reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior. This technique often produces an initial "extinction burst" (i.e., temporary increase in the target behavior). Consequently, it would be contraindicated when a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated.

Answer A: It would be helpful to be simultaneously reinforcing an alternative behavior, but the absence of an alternative behavior would not rule out the use of extinction.

Answer B: Behaviors that have been reinforced on a continuous schedule are easier to extinguish than those that have been reinforced on an intermittent schedule.

Answer D: It would be useful to have a baseline reading to determine the effects of the extinction procedure, but the absence of a baseline measure would not rule out the use of extinction.

D

Sensory memory provides very brief storage of incoming sensory input. It includes a separate store for each sense, and the duration of sensory memory varies somewhat, depending on the sense. For iconic (visual) memories, the duration is about .5 to 1.0 seconds; for echoic (auditory) memories, the duration is up to 4 or 5 seconds.

Answer A: Research supports the maintenance of images and sounds in sensory memory for less than 5 seconds.

Answer B: The depth of encoding does not impact the duration that information is maintained in sensory memory.

Answer C: This length is much too long for the information to be maintained in sensory memory. The information could be maintained in working memory for this duration.

D

David is exhibiting a cognitive distortion that involves making a judgment based on his emotions. This is the definition of emotional reasoning: concluding that what you feel must be the truth.

Answer A: Polarized (dichotomous) thinking involves seeing things as either "black or white."

Answer B: Demanding expectations is the belief that there are rules or laws that must always be obeyed.

Answer C: Catastrophizing involves believing that an event will have catastrophic consequences when, in fact, it is more likely that the consequences will be minor.

B

Multiple studies have found relaxation training to be as effective as (or even more effective than) EMG biofeedback for tension headaches.

Answer A: Thermal (temperature) feedback has been found to be an effective treatment for migraine headaches but not for tension headaches.

Answer C: Alternate response training is a self-control technique that is used primarily to alleviate anxiety.

Answer D: When using covert sensitization to eliminate undesirable behavior, the target stimulus is paired in imagination with an aversive stimulus so that the target stimulus elicits the same unpleasant response as the aversive stimulus and will therefore be avoided. It has not been studied as a treatment for tension headaches.

A

Knowing that learning theorists consider anxiety to be the result of classical conditioning will help you identify the correct response to this question. The classical conditioning explanation for anxiety is that it is produced by exposure to an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits anxiety or by exposure to a conditioned stimulus that has been paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits anxiety.

Answer B: The term "secondary" is ambiguous in this response and, therefore, this is not the best answer. Additionally, this answer does not also identify unconditioned aversive stimuli as a correct response.

Answer C: A low level of response-contingent reinforcement has been linked to depression, not to phobic anxiety.

Answer D: This answer does not accurately describe the learning theory view of phobic anxiety.

C

Knowing that Raynaud's disease involves a constriction of blood vessels in the extremities will help you identify the correct answer to this question. Thermal (temperature) biofeedback has been found to be an effective treatment for a number of circulatory disorders, including Raynaud's disease.

Answer A: EEG (electroencephalogram) biofeedback provides information about brain activity and has not been found useful for treating Raynaud's disease.

Answer B: GSR (galvanic skin response) biofeedback has been found useful for treating stress, anxiety, ADHD, and stuttering but not Raynaud's disease.

Answer D: Respiration biofeedback provides information on breathing rate and is used to treat anxiety, asthma, and hyperventilation.

D

The specific intermittent schedule of reinforcement used influences how quickly an operant behavior is acquired and how well it is maintained. Note that this question is asking for the schedule that is incorrectly matched with its description. When using a fixed interval schedule, reinforcement is provided after a fixed interval of time as long as the response occurred at least once during that interval. It produces a "scalloped" (not smooth) response pattern characterized by brief pauses in responding following reinforcement and low resistance to extinction.

Answer A: When using a variable ratio schedule, reinforcement is provided after a variable number of responses. This schedule does produce stable rates of responding and responses that are highly resistant to extinction.

Answer B: The use of a variable interval schedule involves providing reinforcement after random or variable time intervals. It does produce stable rates of responding and low to moderate resistance to extinction.

Answer C: The use of a fixed ratio schedule entails consistently providing reinforcement after a fixed number of correct responses. It produces a steady rate of responding with a brief pause following delivery of the reinforcer and it does result in moderately high resistance to extinction.

D

As defined by Aaron Beck, the "goals of cognitive-behavior therapy are to correct faulty information processing and to modify dysfunctional beliefs and assumptions that maintain maladaptive behaviors and emotions" (Comprehensive Handbook of Cognitive Therapy, 1989, p. 28). From the perspective of cognitive-behavior therapy, panic disorder stems from "catastrophic misinterpretations" of bodily sensations and mental experiences. Therefore, the first few sessions of therapy focus on clarifying the nature of the client's symptoms and how they misinterprets them.

Answers A, B, and C: When treating a client with panic disorder, a practitioner of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy would initially help the client see how they misinterprets the meaning of their symptoms.

D

Researchers interested in long-term memory often distinguish between implicit and explicit memory. Recalling information from explicit memory requires conscious awareness and intentional or deliberate effort, whereas recall from implicit memory is automatic (i.e., done without conscious awareness or intentional or deliberate effort).

Answer A: The duration of the memory can vary for both implicit and explicit memory.

Answer B: Both implicit and explicit memory can involve information from multiple sensory systems.

Answer C: Both implicit and explicit memory are types of long-term memory.

C

Bandura and others have compared the effectiveness of different types of modeling for reducing phobias and other anxiety responses. When using participant modeling, the model first engages in the target behavior (or an aspect of it) and then prompts the individual to engage in the same behavior. The research has found that participant modeling is the most effective form of modeling for treating phobias.

Answer A: When using covert modeling, the individual is asked to imagine someone else engaging in the target behavior. It is not as effective as participant modeling.

Answer B: Symbolic modeling involves observing models indirectly, for example in films, videotapes, or books, and it is not as effective as participant modeling.

Answer D: Vicarious (overt) modeling involves observing others successfully perform the target behavior. Vicarious modeling plus guided participation (i.e., participant modeling) is more effective for treating phobias than is vicarious modeling alone.

A

When using classical extinction to eliminate an anxiety response, the individual is exposed to the anxiety-arousing stimulus (which is assumed to be a conditioned stimulus) in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus. Covert sensitization uses counterconditioning to eliminate undesirable self-reinforcing behaviors (e.g., drug use, paraphilias). Of the interventions listed in the answers, only covert sensitization is not based on classical extinction and is not used to eliminate an anxiety response.

Answer B: Graduated exposure involves gradually exposing the individual to anxiety-arousing stimuli beginning with stimuli that produce the least amount of anxiety and then progressing to stimuli that evoke higher levels of anxiety.

Answer C: Flooding, which is also known as in vivo exposure with response prevention, involves exposing the individual to fear-arousing stimuli while preventing him/her from making his/her usual avoidance response.

Answer D: Implosive therapy involves exposing the individual to fear-arousing stimuli in imagination.

A

In the context of punishment, habituation refers to a reduction in the effectiveness of punishment. Gradually increasing the intensity of punishment over time (i.e., beginning with a weak form of punishment and then gradually increasing its intensity) increases the likelihood that habituation will occur.

Answer B: Brief vacations from punishment is a useful approach for reducing habituation.

Answer C: Utilizing different methods of punishment can also reduce habituation.

Answer D: Restricting the use of punishment to only a couple of specific target behaviors can also reduce habituation. For more information on using punishment, see: Lerman, D. C. & Vorndran, C. M. (2002). On the status of knowledge for using punishment: Implications for treating behavioral disorders. Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis, 35, 431-464.

D

The term "paired with" suggests that this study is investigating some form of classical conditioning. (In classical conditioning, presentation of a conditioned stimulus is paired with presentation of an unconditioned stimulus so that the conditioned stimulus produces a response that is similar to the one produced by the unconditioned stimulus.) This question describes the procedure used in higher-order conditioning. In higher-order conditioning, the initial conditioned stimulus (CS) is treated as an unconditioned stimulus (US) and paired with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also produces a conditioned response.

Answer A: In classical conditioning, pseudoconditioning occurs when: (1) the neutral stimulus is accidentally paired with the US and, as a result, produces a response similar to the UR; or (2) repeated presentation of the US increases the likelihood that the individual will respond to a novel stimulus (not just the US or CS) with a response similar to the UR, especially in the same context in which the US was presented.

Answer B: Spontaneous recovery refers to the return of a classically conditioned or operant response following extinction.

Answer C: Two-factor learning (e.g., avoidance conditioning) combines classical and operant conditioning, which is not occurring in the study described in this question.

A

Ellis's rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT) is based on the assumption that behavioral and emotional reactions to events are due to beliefs about those events rather than to the events themselves. Ellis depicts the relationship between antecedent events, beliefs about those events, and reactions to those events in terms of an A-B-C model, where A represents the antecedent event, B represents beliefs about the event, and C represents the behavioral or emotional consequence of the beliefs.

Answer B: Although Ellis's therapy addresses behavior, the "B" in his model represents beliefs about the antecedent event, not behaviors.

Answer C: Ellis believed that irrational beliefs are the result of certain biological tendencies; however, the "B" in his model represents the beliefs, not the biological predispositions.

Answer D: Baseline rates of responding are not represented in REBT.

C

A behavior is "under stimulus control" when it is more likely to occur in the presence of certain stimuli than in the presence of other stimuli because the stimuli signal whether or not reinforcement for the behavior will be provided. Emelina has learned that she will not be reinforced for approaching her father when he is watching a football game but will be reinforced if she approaches him when he is watching other types of TV shows.

Answer A: Stimulus fading refers to the gradual elimination of a discriminative stimulus. In this situation, the discriminative stimulus (type of TV show) is not being gradually eliminated.

Answer B: Shaping is a type of positive reinforcement in which successive approximations to the desired behavior are reinforced until the target behavior is reached.

Answer D: Pseudoconditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus elicits a response due to the accidental pairing of the stimulus with another stimulus that evokes that response or when repeated exposure to a US increases the likelihood that the individual will respond to a neutral stimulus with a response similar to the UR.

A

The keyword method is a mnemonic device that involves forming an image that links two words. For example, to remember that "Ranidae" is the scientific term for common frogs, you might create an image of a frog sitting in the rain under an umbrella.

Answer B: The method of loci may be used to remember a long list of unrelated words. Using this method, a person visually associates items to be remembered with a series of places (loci) already in memory.

Answer C: An acronym is a word that is formed using the first letter of each item in a list. An example of an acronym used to remember the order of mathematical operations is PEMDAS (parentheses, exponents, multiplication, division, addition, subtraction).

Answer D: The keyword method is a mnemonic device that links two words, and it is not useful for mastering spatial relationships.

B

Spontaneous recovery refers to the re-emergence of a conditioned response following extinction trials without additional conditioning trials. According to Pavlov, the spontaneous re-emergence of a conditioned response after it has been extinguished suggests that extinction trials suppress the conditioned response rather than eliminate it.

Answer A: Although this statement is true, this does not explain the occurrence of spontaneous recovery.

Answer C: Punishment is an operant conditioning term and not relevant to Pavlov's theories and assumptions regarding classical conditioning.

Answer D: Tolman proposed that latent learning occurs without manifestation in performance. Reinforcement is not necessary for the learning of the response but may be an important factor in the performance of a response.

D

In classical conditioning, stimulus generalization occurs when the individual responds to stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus (CS) with a conditioned response (CR).

Answer A: Experimental neurosis refers to subjects' uncharacteristic behaviors that may include extreme restlessness, agitation, and unprovoked aggression, which may occur when subjects have difficulty with stimulus discriminations. It was exhibited by dogs in Pavlov's research when they were presented with stimuli very similar to the original CS; the normally docile animals became very agitated.

Answer B: Spontaneous recovery refers to the return of a conditioned response (CR) following the apparent extinction of that response.

Answer C: Response generalization occurs when reinforcement of a target behavior results in an increase in other (similar or related) behavior that was not reinforced.

A

Kohler's research led him to conclude that learning is not just the result of trial-and-error or reinforcement but involves cognitive restructuring, which he referred to as insight learning.

Answer B: Tolman is associated with latent learning. Tolman's research indicated that learning a new behavior (but not necessarily performance of that behavior) occurs without reinforcement.

Answer C: Watson used classical conditioning to establish a phobia in a young child.

Answer D: Thorndike developed the law of effect after observing that cats were more likely to repeat a behavior if they were reinforced for engaging in that behavior.

B

The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon refers to the sense that you know something (e.g., a song or movie title) but are not able to recall it. One theory of the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is that it is due to insufficient cues that facilitate the retrieval of information stored in long-term memory.

Answer A: Trace decay theory predicts that forgetting is due to the passage of time.

Answer C: Retroactive interference occurs when new information interferes with one's ability to recall older memories or previously learned information.

Answer D: Attention deficits may interfere with encoding information but do not explain the "tip-of-the-tongue" phenomenon.

D

In studies investigating the serial position effect, participants are presented with a list of words to remember and asked to recall the words in any order either immediately after reading the list or following a brief delay after reading the list. When participants recall the words immediately after reading the list, more words from the beginning and end of the list are recalled than words from the middle of the list. This is apparently because words at the beginning of the list have been transferred to long-term memory while words at the end of the list are still in short-term memory.

D

This answer describes the procedure known as higher-order conditioning. Higher-order conditioning involves using a conditioned stimulus (CS) as an unconditioned stimulus (US) in order to establish a conditioned response (CR) for a second CS.

Answer A: This describes stimulus generalization.

Answer B: This could be interpreted as response generalization, although the description is too vague to know exactly what is being described.

Answer C: This simply describes classical conditioning in which the CS is paired with two different US's.

C

Ellis described emotions and behaviors in terms of a chain of events -- an external activating event (A), the person's belief about the activating event (B), and the emotional or behavioral consequence of that belief (C). Ellis's A-B-C model is central to the theory and practice of his Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy.

A

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the difference between proactive and retroactive inhibition (interference) and between anterograde and retrograde amnesia. Proactive inhibition (interference) occurs when old (previous) learning interferes with the learning or recall of new (subsequent) information.

Answer B: Retroactive inhibition (interference) occurs when recently learned information interferes with the ability to recall previously learned information.

Answer C: Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to recall events and experiences that occur after the event that produced the amnesia.

Answer D: Retrograde amnesia refers to the inability to recall events and experiences that occurred before the event that produced the amnesia.

D

Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy identified a sense of hopelessness as a proximal cause of depression because in the chain of events leading to depression, it is at the end of the chain, closest to depressive symptoms. They identified it as a sufficient cause because the presence of hopelessness is sufficient to cause depressive symptoms in the absence of any other causal factors.

Answer A: Non-contingent reinforcement (the use of positive reinforcement that is not related to a target behavior) is a powerful method to reduce problematic behavior, and it is not identified as a cause of depression in Abramson and colleagues' theory.

Answer B: These investigators do not identify a depressogenic cognitive style as a cause of depression.

Answer C: Although some research supports a link between an external locus of control and depression, it is not tied to learned helplessness theory of depression nor identified as a cause of depression by these investigators.

B

A key feature of Beck's cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is its collaborative approach. In CBT, the therapist and client work collaboratively to reality test the client's cognitions. This approach is referred to as collaborative empiricism.

Answer A: Cognitive experimentation is a broad term and does not refer specifically to the collaborative approach of CBT.

Answer C: In Ellis's Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT), therapists attempt to dispute and alter the individual's irrational beliefs.

Answer D: Collaborative analysis is not a term utilized by Beck in his practice of CBT.

B

Operant extinction occurs when reinforcement is no longer provided in response to a specific behavior, and as a result, that behavior eventually stops. In this example, the dad is initially reinforcing his son's spitting behavior by yelling at him, which although may typically be thought of as a negative consequence, appears to be functioning as positive reinforcement since it is increasing the frequency of the spitting behavior. By ignoring his son, the dad has removed the reinforcing response, and therefore, the son's spitting will eventually stop.

Answer A: This is an example of positive punishment, which is not as effective at extinguishing a behavior as focusing on reinforcing wanted behaviors.

Answer C: In this example, the boy's mom is using positive reinforcement to reinforce any behaviors other than hitting.

Answer D: This is an example of shaping, or helping the boy learn to put on his coat by reinforcing small steps, or successive approximations, towards the fully-desired behavior.