EPPP - Abnormal Psychology - Domain Quiz

C

Primary barriers to smoking cessation include fear of failure, fear of withdrawal symptoms, and fear of gaining weight. Weight gain during the first few months post-cessation is common, and some withdrawal symptoms include irritability, anger, anxiety, impaired concentration, depressed mood, and insomnia.

A

The symptoms in this question are suggestive of only one of several eating disorders in the DSM-5. The essential feature of Pica is the persistent eating of non-nutritive substances (e.g., paint, dirt, insects).

Answer B: Bulimia involves episodic binge eating followed by induced vomiting, the use of laxatives or diuretics, and/or excessive exercising.

Answer C: Rumination disorder involves repeated regurgitation and rechewing of food.

Answer D: Anorexia may involve the eating of non-nutritive substances but with the intention of weight control.

C

The girl's symptoms are suggestive of mania which, in adolescents, is sometimes preceded by a history of behavioral problems. The girl's symptoms and sudden onset are most suggestive of Bipolar Disorder.

Answer A: For a diagnosis of ADHD, there would have to be some evidence of hyperactivity-impulsivity and/or inattention in at least two settings.

Answer B: A diagnosis of Conduct Disorder requires a persistent pattern of antisocial behavior. Although the question mentions that the girl has had "behavioral problems," there is not sufficient evidence to conclude that they meet the criteria for this diagnosis.

Answer D: A diagnosis of Bipolar II disorder requires a history of both major depressive and hypomanic episodes.

B

The man's primary symptoms are grandiosity and lack of empathy. These are core features of Narcissistic Personality Disorder.

Answer A: A diagnosis of Histrionic Personality Disorder requires a pattern of excessive emotionality and attention-seeking.

Answer C: A diagnosis of Schizotypal Personality Disorder requires the presence of pervasive social and interpersonal deficits and eccentricities in cognition, perception, and behavior.

Answer D: A diagnosis of Delusional Disorder is made in the presence of one or more non-bizarre delusions with unimpaired functioning apart from the impact of the delusions.

B

The therapeutic effects of antipsychotic drugs are augmented when they are combined with family therapy. One target of family therapy is high expressed emotion by family members, which has been linked to an increased risk for relapse.

Answer A: Research results have demonstrated that family therapy is more effective than individual therapy as an intervention for schizophrenia.

Answer C: The results of milieu therapy with psychotic patients have been highly inconsistent.

Answer D: A combined treatment is more effective than pharmacotherapy alone for preventing relapse.

A

A delusion of the erotomanic type involves a false belief that another person, usually of higher status, is in love with the individual. Of the situations described, this answer comes closest to an erotomanic delusion.

A

According to the DSM-5, the long-term outcomes for Conduct Disorder vary but, for most individuals, the diagnosis remits by adulthood. This is the best answer since there is evidence that an early onset of symptoms places a child at the greatest risk for a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder in adulthood.

Answer B: Adolescent onset is less associated with antisocial behavior in adulthood.

Answer C:  Long-term outcomes for Conduct Disorder vary but, for most individuals, the diagnosis remits by adulthood. 

Answer D: Conduct Disorder does not have unique genetic influences.

D

Studies in both the United States and England have found that members of certain minority groups (especially groups devalued by the dominant culture) are more likely to receive a diagnosis of Schizophrenia. Research suggests that the discrepancy in rates of Schizophrenia is due to misdiagnosis, rather than to actual differences in the prevalence of the disorder. A contributing factor to misdiagnosis may be that African Americans have a higher incidence of hallucinations and delusions that may be associated with other disorders such as mania, depression, and alcohol abuse.

A

Narcolepsy involves frequent intense periods of irresistible sleep. Narcolepsy sleep attacks may include cataplexy, which is a sudden loss of muscle tone.

Answer B: Tardive dyskinesia is caused by long-term use of neuroleptic drugs, which are used to treat psychiatric conditions.

Answer C: Ataxia is a degenerative disease of the nervous system.

Answer D:  Stiff-person syndrome (SPS) is a rare acquired neurological disorder characterized by progressive muscle rigidity.

C

Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) involves severe recurrent temper outbursts. This diagnosis CANNOT coexist with Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD), Intermittent Explosive Disorder, or Bipolar Disorder, though it can coexist with others, including Major Depressive Disorder, Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder, Conduct Disorder, or Substance Use Disorders. Thus, individuals whose symptoms meet the criteria for both DMDD and ODD should only be given the diagnosis of DMDD.

A

Within multiple studies, the majority of research participants have reported a reduction in symptoms of gender dysphoria following sex reassignment surgery.

A

The motivation underlying the production of symptoms in Malingering is to obtain an external reward (e.g., to obtain a drug or avoid a specific activity). In Factitious Disorder, symptoms are produced or faked even in the absence of an external reward for doing so.

C

A genetic contribution to Schizophrenia is supported by research showing that, as genetic similarity increases, concordance rates increase. The reported concordance rates for Schizophrenia vary somewhat from study to study, but most report a rate between 45-50% for identical twins. For the exam, you want to memorize the concordance rates for Schizophrenia presented in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials.

A

The symptoms presented in this question are most suggestive of Stimulant Withdrawal.

Answer B: According to the DSM-5, phencyclidine use has not been associated with an established withdrawal syndrome.

Answer C: Tobacco Withdrawal involves a dysphoric mood, increased appetite, and insomnia; however, its other characteristic symptoms are irritability, anxiety, impaired concentration, and restlessness.

Answer D: Opioid Withdrawal also involves a dysphoric mood; however, additional symptoms include nausea and vomiting, muscle aches, diarrhea, and fever.

D

A diagnosis of delirium requires a disturbance in attention and awareness plus a disturbance in cognition (e.g., memory deficit, disorientation, perceptual abnormality).

Answer A: A loss of energy is characteristic of depression and is not a diagnostic criterion for delirium.

Answer B: Memory impairment is characteristic of all three disorders.

Answer C: Deficits in executive cognitive functioning are characteristic of dementia.

C

Most diagnoses in the DSM-5 have a polythetic criterion set, which means that an individual is required to exhibit only a subset of the diagnostic criteria for a specific diagnosis to be assigned the diagnosis. An assumption underlying the use of polythetic criteria sets in the DSM-5 is that people with the same disorder are heterogeneous, presenting with different constellations of symptoms. In other words, while individuals with the same diagnosis share some symptoms, they may differ regarding others.

A

Moffitt (1993) distinguishes between two types of Conduct Disorder: life-course-persistent and adolescent-limited. Moffitt describes the adolescent-limited type of Conduct Disorder as a temporary form of antisocial behavior that reflects a "maturity gap" between the adolescent's biological maturity and his or her social maturity.

Answer B: Patterson (1992) uses a coercive family interaction model to explain aggressive behaviors in children.

Answer C: Moffitt attributes the life-course-persistent type of Conduct Disorder to neurological impairment, a difficult temperament, and an adverse social environment.

Answer D: Elkind (1984) attributes certain adolescent behaviors (e.g., the belief that one is unique and not subject to natural laws that govern others) to adolescent egocentrism.

C

Note that this question is asking about a perceptual disturbance, not a thought disorder. An illusion is a misperception or misinterpretation of an actual external stimulus. Illusions are characteristic of several disorders including Delirium and Alcohol Withdrawal.

Answer A: Magical thinking occurs when a person believes that his or her thoughts, words, or actions will affect a specific outcome in a way that defies laws of cause and effect.

Answer B: An idea of reference is the belief that events, objects, or other people have a special or unusual significance for oneself.

Answer D: A hallucination, like an illusion, is a perceptual disturbance. However, it involves a sensory perception without the presence of an actual stimulus.

A

The information presented in the question suggests that Edgar's symptoms are the result of two specific stressors: his father's rejection and the loss of his friend/lover. Adjustment Disorder is diagnosed when a person's symptoms are a reaction to an identifiable psychosocial stressor, when symptoms have persisted for no more than six months since the termination of the stressor or its consequences, and when the symptoms are interfering with the person's occupational and/or social functioning or the distress is out of proportion to the severity or intensity of the stressor.

Answer B: In adults, a diagnosis of Persistent Depressive Disorder requires a duration of symptoms of at least two years.

Answer C: Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) involves the development of specific symptoms (e.g., re-experiencing of the trauma, avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma, and increased arousal) following exposure to a trauma that involves experiencing or witnessing threatened or actual death, severe injury, or sexual violence. Edgar's situation and symptoms are not characteristic of PTSD.

Answer D: The symptoms of Acute Stress Disorder are similar to those of PTSD but are of shorter duration. Thus, this diagnosis is inconsistent with Edgar's symptoms.

A

A person is experiencing a delusion of reference when he/she believes that events, objects, or other people in the immediate environment have unusual or particular significance for him or her.

Answer B: This is a persecutory delusion.

Answer C: This is an example of a delusion of being controlled.

Answer D: This is an example of magical thinking.

A

Alzheimer's disease involves a relatively predictable progression of symptoms, with impairment of recent memory (anterograde amnesia) often being one of the first signs reported by relatives or clinical observers of patients with this diagnosis.

Answer B: Confabulation is associated with Korsakoff's syndrome and other memory disorders caused by damage to certain areas of the brain. It occurs when an individual makes false statements to fill in gaps in memory, and it is not an early sign of Alzheimer's disease.

Answer C: Fluent aphasia is characteristic of the middle stage of Alzheimer's disease.

Answer D: Retrograde amnesia is a middle-stage symptom of Alzheimer's disease.

A

The symptoms listed in the question are characteristic of Sedative, Hypnotic, or Anxiolytic Intoxication.

Answer B: Intoxication due to amphetamine or other stimulant use is generally characterized by hypervigilance, psychomotor agitation, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, and nausea and vomiting.

Answer C: Cannabis Intoxication may involve anxiety, impaired judgment, social withdrawal, tachycardia, and increased appetite.

Answer D: Opioid Intoxication shares some symptoms with Sedative Intoxication; however, it is also characterized by initial euphoria followed by apathy, dysphoria, and psychomotor retardation or agitation.

C

Expressed emotion refers to the attitudes and behaviors that family members express toward a patient who has been diagnosed with Schizophrenia (or other disorder). The family's expressed emotion is an important factor during the recovery process for patients with symptoms of Schizophrenia. A high degree of negative expressed emotion (which involves hostility and criticism or emotional over-involvement) is associated with an increased risk for relapse.

D

Multicomponent cognitive-behavioral therapy is usually the preferred empirically supported treatment for GAD. Of the answers given, this is the only one that includes both behavioral and cognitive techniques.

Answer A: Pharmacotherapy may be used in combination with CBT; however, EMDR is typically used to treat PTSD, not GAD.

Answer B: Exposure therapy may be useful but is not as useful as a treatment that combines cognitive and behavioral techniques -- i.e., that combines exposure with cognitive strategies and other behavioral strategies.

Answer C: Covert sensitization is used to eliminate self-reinforcing behaviors such as substance abuse, gambling, and paraphilias and is not used to treat generalized anxiety.

D

Behavioral interventions, antidepressants, and antidiuretics are the most common treatments for enuresis. Of the treatments listed, the night alarm (also known as the urine alarm and the bell-and-pad) has been identified as the most effective treatment for nocturnal enuresis.

Answer A: Night-lifting involves waking the child periodically throughout the night, walking him/her to the bathroom to urinate, and then walking the child back to the bed. It is considered by some experts to be punishing for both the child and the parent, and research results do not support its use over the night alarm.

Answer B: Although some investigators report that EEG (brainwave) biofeedback is useful for treating enuresis, there is more consistent evidence for the effectiveness of the night alarm.

Answer C: Bladder strengthening exercises are used to treat enuresis but usually in conjunction with the night alarm or other treatments.

D

Maria's symptoms are most suggestive of Major Depressive Disorder and because her episodes began during the fall for the last few years, the specifier "with seasonal pattern" applies.

Answer A: Maria has not described symptoms of mania and therefore she does not meet the criteria for Bipolar I Disorder, which requires a manic episode.

Answer B: While she has exceeded the minimum two-year duration for a diagnosis of Cyclothymic Disorder, this diagnosis also requires hypomanic symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a hypomanic episode. Maria has not described hypomanic symptoms, so she does not meet the criteria for this disorder.

Answer C: While Maria described some of the atypical features criteria, "seasonal pattern" is a better specifier as it applies to recurrent Major Depressive Disorder. Whereas "atypical features" are applied to a recent episode or persistent depressive disorder.

C

Otitis media is an infection of the middle ear. It can cause hearing loss and speech and language problems and has been linked to reading and other learning disorders.

C

Mania and hypomania both involve an abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, However, a manic episode (but not a hypomanic episode) involves impairment in functioning, requires hospitalization to avoid danger to self or others, or includes psychotic symptoms.

Answer A: A manic episode lasts at least one week while a hypomanic episode lasts at least four days.

Answer B: A "fluctuating course" does not distinguish mania from hypomania.

Answer D: Delusions and hallucinations may be present during a manic episode but not during a hypomanic episode.

B

Alzheimer's disease is a degenerative disease with symptoms that become progressively worse over time. The symptoms described in this response are characteristic during the 2nd through 10th years.

Answer A: These symptoms are more common during the first one to three years of the disorder.

Answer C: These are late-stage symptoms (8 to 12 years).

Answer D: Impaired intellectual functioning and incontinence are later symptoms and seizures are not necessarily associated with this disorder.

B

The diagnosis of ADHD requires the presence of symptoms of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity in at least two settings. Talking to Alan's teacher would determine if he exhibits signs of this disorder at school.

Answer A: This would be useful for confirming a diagnosis of a learning disorder.

Answer C: The use of drugs as a diagnostic tool is not an empirically supported strategy. Because stimulants can have adverse side effects, they should be prescribed with caution. Furthermore, they have similar effects on individuals who do not report symptoms of ADHD and, therefore, a positive response would not necessarily confirm the diagnosis.

Answer D: A family history would not be as useful for confirming the diagnosis as talking to Alan's teacher.

A

The first step in the treatment of Anorexia is always to help the individual gain weight to avoid or reduce medical complications. This initial phase may require hospitalization. Cognitive-behavioral therapy is then used to facilitate modification of beliefs about weight and food, including the value of being thin and the consequences of eating.

Answer B: This is not entirely inconsistent with a cognitive approach but is not the best answer since most cognitive therapists would not "challenge" a client's beliefs, especially at the outset of therapy. Instead, the emphasis is on fostering doubt rather than challenging or refuting the client's beliefs. A cognitive therapist fosters doubt using Socratic questioning.

Answer C: This approach is not consistent with cognitive therapy.

Answer D: This approach is not characteristic of cognitive therapy.

A

Although Lee's history and symptoms are suggestive of Brief Psychotic Disorder, you would want to rule out other explanations, including the possibility that his symptoms are due to an alcohol- or drug-induced psychotic disorder. Note that this question is asking you to identify the information that would rule out (not confirm) a diagnosis of Brief Psychotic Disorder.

Answers B: An inability to speak coherently is a symptom of Brief Psychotic Disorder. Thus, this symptom would not be useful for ruling out the diagnosis.

Answer C: Delusions are symptoms of Brief Psychotic Disorder and would not be useful for ruling it out as the appropriate diagnosis.

Answer D: Catatonic behavior is a symptom of Brief Psychotic Disorder and would not be useful for ruling it out as the appropriate diagnosis.

A

A dissociative fugue is characterized by apparently purposeful travel or wandering that is associated with an inability to recall one's past. In the DSM-5, dissociative fugue is a specifier for Dissociative Amnesia.

Answer B: This potential trigger for memory loss would not help confirm the experience of a dissociative fugue.

Answer C: This description of detachment and a dream-like state is more consistent with derealization, and this symptom would not help confirm the experience of a dissociative fugue.

Answer D: While this information may improve your conceptualization of the man's experience, this symptom is not directly related to the DSM-5 description of the dissociative fugue specifier.

A

For a DSM-5 diagnosis of Panic Disorder, the individual must have experienced two or more unexpected panic attacks.

D

Although single-session PD has been utilized for the prevention of PTSD following exposure to a traumatic event, the research has generally not supported its use for this purpose. Systematic reviews have led to the conclusion that single-session psychological debriefing is not effective for reducing the risk for PTSD when used alone and, for some individuals, may have negative effects. As a result, researchers have recommended that PD be used cautiously and as part of a comprehensive treatment program.

B

As its name implies, the diagnosis of Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder requires evidence of cerebrovascular disease - i.e., the symptoms must be consistent with a vascular etiology, and evidence of a cerebrovascular disease must be present on a physical exam, neuroimaging, etc.

Answer A: Evidence of an endocrine disorder is not required for this diagnosis.

Answer C: A disturbance in attention and awareness is characteristic of Delirium.

Answer D: Although delusions may occur, they are not required for the diagnosis.

A

The gender ratio for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is related to age. In adults, the gender ratio for this disorder is about equal. However, in children, it is more common in boys than in girls because the average age of onset is earlier for males than for females.

B

According to the dopamine hypothesis, Schizophrenia is due to excessive dopamine or oversensitivity to dopamine. Consequently, drugs that reduce the effects of dopamine will decrease the symptoms of this disorder. The traditional antipsychotic drugs exert beneficial effects by blocking the effects of dopamine.

Answer A: This is the opposite of what is true.

Answer C: Drugs that reduce the effects of dopamine will decrease the symptoms of Schizophrenia. 

Answer D: The traditional antipsychotics tend to have a greater impact on the positive symptoms than on the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia.

D

The woman's belief is considered a delusion of reference. The DSM-5 does not provide a specific subtype of Delusional Disorder for delusions of reference. Therefore, a person who expresses this kind of delusion would be assigned the unspecified subtype.

Answer A: An erotomanic delusion is a belief that another person, usually of higher status, is in love with the individual.

Answer B: A grandiose delusion reflects an inflated sense of worth, power, knowledge, etc.

Answer C: Persecutory delusions involve a belief that one is being attacked, harassed, persecuted, etc.

D

Melatonin is a hormone released by the pineal gland and it is involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms. Seasonal Affective Disorder seems to have some relation to circadian rhythms, and there is evidence that higher-than-normal levels of melatonin play a role in the production of the symptoms of this syndrome. Note that, in the DSM-5, this condition is indicated as a specifier for Major Depressive Disorder: "with seasonal pattern".

B

As with many disorders, a multimodal approach is generally most effective for Conduct Disorder and ordinarily includes parent management training and/or other family intervention.

Answer A: Interpersonal and social rhythm therapy would not be recommended for an individual diagnosed with Conduct Disorder. 

Answer C: Stress inoculation is not likely to be recommended as a treatment for Conduct Disorder. 

Answer D: Pharmacotherapy is not a treatment recommendation for a diagnosis of Conduct Disorder.

A

A hallucination is a sensory perception that seems real but occurs without external stimulation of the relevant sensory organ. The person experiencing a hallucination may or may not be aware that the perceived stimulus is not real.

C

To determine the appropriate diagnosis for this man additional information would be needed; however, of the conditions listed, Alzheimer's disease is most consistent with his symptoms and age.

Answer A: Korsakoff's syndrome is associated with chronic alcoholism, which is not suggested by the information presented in the question.

Answer B: Pseudodementia is a term used to describe Major Depressive Disorder that has prominent cognitive symptoms. This man's symptoms (especially his lack of awareness of his deficits) are not characteristic of Major Depressive Disorder.

Answer D: The man's impairments are more severe than what would be expected for his age.

D

Grandiosity involves an exaggerated sense of self-importance. It is characteristic of three of the four disorders listed in the answers to this question. Schizoid Personality Disorder is characterized by restricted emotional experience and expression. Although people with this disorder may seem self-absorbed, they do not exhibit grandiosity.

Answer A: Mania often involves a sense of grandiosity.

Answer B: Grandiosity is characteristic of Narcissistic Personality Disorder.

Answer C: When Schizoaffective Disorder includes manic episodes, grandiosity may be a symptom.

B

Dissociative Amnesia is characterized by an inability to recall important personal information that is often related to a traumatic event.

Answer A: Short-term memory is usually not affected in Dissociative Amnesia.

Answer C: For a diagnosis of Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss is most often related to a traumatic event and does not usually entail widespread retrograde and anterograde amnesia.

Answer D: A period of unconsciousness is not characteristic of this disorder.

C

Note that this question is asking about the treatment of compulsions, not obsessions. Exposure with response prevention is the treatment of choice for compulsions. It is often combined with CBT, relaxation training, and/or pharmacotherapy.

Answer A: Thought stopping is useful for obsessions but is less useful than exposure with response prevention for compulsive behavior.

Answer B: Exposure and satiation are sometimes used with thought stopping to reduce obsessions.

Answer D: Overcorrection is not used in the treatment of OCD.

D

Paraphilias involve intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors related to unusual objects, activities, or situations. Note that in the DSM-5, paraphilias are referred to as Paraphilic Disorders. The information in the question accurately describes Frotteuristic Disorder.

Answer A: Voyeuristic Disorder involves sexual arousal from observing an unsuspecting person who is naked or engaging in sexual activity.

Answer B: Pedophilic Disorder involves sexual urges, fantasies, or behaviors surrounding sexual activity with a prepubescent child.

Answer C: Fetishistic Disorder is characterized by intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving the use of nonliving objects (e.g., shoes, gloves).

D

Negative symptoms include restrictions in range and intensity of emotional expression (affective flattening), restrictions in fluency and productivity of thought and speech (alogia), and restrictions in the initiation of goal-directed behavior (avolition).

B

Affective instability is a characteristic shared by all three disorders. Knowing that the three Personality Disorders listed in the question all involve dramatic, emotional, and/or erratic behaviors would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major characteristics of Personality Disorders. Additionally, it is important to note that individuals may be diagnosed with one personality disorder while presenting with traits of another that do not meet full diagnostic criteria.

Answer A: Impulsivity is characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder only.

Answer C: This is characteristic of Borderline Personality Disorder only.

Answer D: This describes Narcissistic Personality Disorder but not the other two disorders. However, those who are diagnosed with Borderline and/or Histrionic Personality Disorders may also present with Narcissistic traits.

D

Cataplexy is a symptom of Narcolepsy. In most cases, an episode of cataplexy is triggered by anger, surprise, laughter, or other strong emotion.

Answer A: Cataplexy occurs alone or at the onset of a sleep attack.

Answer B: This answer describes catalepsy (waxy flexibility), not cataplexy.

Answer C: The opposite is true. Full consciousness is preserved during an episode of cataplexy.

A

The name of one of the disorders - Acute Stress Disorder - may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The symptoms of Acute Stress Disorder must have a duration no longer than one month. When symptoms last for more than one month and meet the criteria for PTSD, the diagnosis is updated to PTSD.

B

Longitudinal research has shown that the symptoms of Borderline Personality Disorder are ordinarily most severe during early adulthood, although most individuals with this disorder continue to have some degree of impairment throughout their lives.

C

Antisocial Personality Disorder is characterized by failure to conform to social norms, lying, lack of regard for others, irresponsibility, and/or an absence of remorse. Cruelty to animals is one symptom of Conduct Disorder, which is a precursor to Antisocial Personality Disorder.

Answer A: Stuttering has not been identified as a predictor of antisocial behavior.

Answer B: While impulsivity may be a symptom of Antisocial Personality Disorder, it is not a diagnostic precursor of Antisocial Personality Disorder.

Answer D: Social isolation has not been linked to a high risk for Antisocial Personality Disorder.

A

Tobacco Withdrawal is one of the Substance-Induced Disorders you are likely to encounter on the licensing exam. It is characterized by the symptoms listed in this answer, and the rapid onset of these symptoms is thought to be a primary reason that regular smokers find it so difficult to stop smoking.

Answer B: These are symptoms of Alcohol Withdrawal.

Answer C: These are symptoms of Inhalant Intoxication.

Answer D: These are symptoms of Stimulant Intoxication.

B

Several techniques are used to track the progression of Alzheimer's disease, and the best answer to this question would be "all of the above". Unfortunately, in this question, this choice is not an option. However, since the core features of Alzheimer's disease are disturbances in memory and other cognitive functions, the best way to follow its progression is with repeated measurement of cognitive abilities. Note that many of the newer techniques for assessing patients with this disorder incorporate other modes of assessment in addition to cognitive tests (e.g., interviews with family members, direct observations of the patient's behavior).

B

Sleep terror episodes are characterized by an abrupt awakening from sleep that usually begins with a panicky scream or cry. Sleep terror is a type of Non-REM Sleep Arousal Disorder specifier.

Answer A: Sleep terrors usually begin during stage 3 or 4 of Non-REM sleep.

Answer C: The individual usually does not have a detailed memory of a dream upon awakening and may have amnesia for the episode or dream.

Answer D: Awakening from sleep with rhythmic, stereotyped motor activity is not characteristic of sleep terrors.

B

Although the specific diagnoses that commonly co-occur with a learning disorder are relatively limited in number, the rates of these diagnoses are higher than the rates in the general population. For example, the prevalence rate for ADHD is 3 to 5% in the general population but between 20 and 30% for children with a learning disorder. Other common co-diagnoses include Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Conduct Disorder, and Major Depressive Disorder.

C

ECT was originally used as a treatment for Schizophrenia; however, it is now used primarily as a treatment for severely depressed individuals who have not responded to other forms of treatment. Although its effects are still not understood, ECT continues to be used to treat depression, especially severe forms involving suicidal preoccupation and vegetative symptoms. Some studies suggest that ECT is more effective in these cases than are antidepressant drugs.

C

The gender ratio for Major Depressive Disorder is related to age: In adolescents and adults, the disorder is more common in females than in males, but in prepubertal children, the rates are about equal for boys and girls.

C

Bulimia Nervosa involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by behaviors aimed at preventing weight gain - e.g., purging, excessive exercise, and/or the use of laxatives. The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for the disorder include binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behavior for at least three months.

D

Brittany's behavior is characterized by instability - which, unfortunately, is characteristic of three of the four disorders listed. Therefore, you must consider her other symptoms to identify the most likely diagnosis. Brittany's symptoms are most consistent with the diagnostic criteria for Borderline Personality Disorder, which is characterized by instability in self-image, interpersonal relationships, and affect. Additional symptoms may include irritability and/or intense anger and marked impulsivity in at least two areas, such as substance abuse and sexual behaviors.

Answer A: Schizoid Personality Disorder may have been the easiest to eliminate since it is characterized by a restricted range of emotional expression.

Answer B: Brittany is not exhibiting the key features of Narcissistic Personality Disorder - i.e., a pattern of grandiosity, lack of empathy, and need for admiration.

Answer C: Histrionic Personality Disorder is characterized by a pattern of excessive emotionality and attention-seeking.

D

Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD) is one of the diagnoses that "sounds like" what it is -- i.e., it involves oppositional behaviors. Stealing from friends and family members is more indicative of Conduct Disorder.

Answer A: Arguing with authority figures is a symptom of ODD.

Answer B: Blaming others for one's mistakes is another symptom of ODD.

Answer C: Angry/Irritable Mood is an ODD symptom category.

A

Dreamlike imagery at the onset of sleep is a normal phenomenon in many people and is also associated with sleep deprivation, Narcolepsy, and several other conditions. The description presented in this question accurately describes hypnagogic hallucinations.

Answer B: Hypnopompic hallucinations occur just after awakening.

Answer C: Release hallucinations are best described as flashes of white or colored lights that originate from the retina or occipital cortex.

Answer D:  Hallucinations caused by spontaneous activation of sensory cortical areas have been primarily described in epilepsy.

A

Research results indicate that antidepressant medications that block the reuptake of serotonin are effective for temporary relief of OCD symptoms. Since the discontinuation of these drugs typically results in the return of symptoms, they are typically used in combination with other interventions.

C

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the common associated features of Tourette's Disorder, which are described in the Abnormal Psychology chapter of the written study materials. According to the DSM-5, OCD and ADHD are the most frequent co-existing disorders in individuals with a diagnosis of Tourette's.

Answer A: Orthopedic problems are not commonly associated with Tourette's Disorder.

Answer B: Although academic performance is often impaired, learning disorders are less common than obsessive-compulsive symptoms in individuals with Tourette's.

Answer D: Low IQ is not commonly associated with Tourette's.

D

You are likely to encounter a question about Korsakoff's syndrome on the licensing exam. It is associated with long-term alcohol use and is correlated with thiamine deficiency. Korsakoff's syndrome is included in the DSM-5 as Alcohol-Induced Major Neurocognitive Disorder and it involves disorientation, memory loss, and confabulation.

D

You may have guessed accurately because the correct term sounds like its meaning. The description in this question defines echolalia, which is a symptom of autism and several other disorders.

Answer A: Alogia refers to impoverished speech.

Answer B: Aphonia is an inability to produce speech sounds due to damage to the larynx or mouth.

Answer C: Echopraxia involves meaningless imitation of the movements of another person.

A

Avoidant Personality Disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and oversensitivity to negative evaluations. People who are diagnosed with Avoidant Personality Disorder tend to desire intimate relationships but avoid them because they fear rejection, humiliation, etc.

Answer B: Excessive self-preoccupation is more characteristic of Narcissistic Personality Disorder.

Answer C: A lack of interest in social relationships is characteristic of Schizoid Personality Disorder.

Answer D: Suspiciousness and paranoia are not characteristic of Avoidant Personality Disorder.

B

Depersonalization is characterized by a feeling of detachment or estrangement from oneself or feeling like an observer of one's thoughts, feelings, etc.

Answer A: Disorientation refers to confusion about time of day, date, place, etc.

Answer C: Delusions are false, but firmly sustained beliefs, based on incorrect inferences about external reality.

Answer D: A dissociative fugue involves sudden, unexpected travel away from home with an inability to recall some or all of one's past.

B

Although the reported concordance rates for Schizophrenia vary somewhat from study to study, 10% is most often reported in the literature for biological siblings.

D

Perceptual distortions (depersonalization and derealization) are potential symptoms of a panic attack.

B

Of the disorders listed, only one is associated with the complications listed in this question. Pica involves a persistent consumption of a nonnutritive substance. Lead poisoning can result when the substance is paint; toxoplasmosis or toxocara may occur when the substance is feces or dirt.

D

The symptoms presented in this question are characteristic of Histrionic Personality Disorder. Histrionic Personality Disorder involves the dramatic, overemotional, over-sexualized, attention-seeking behaviors described in this question.

Answer A: Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder involves a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency.

Answer B: Narcissistic Personality Disorder involves a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy.

Answer C: Schizoid Personality Disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression.

A

The essential features of Schizophreniform Disorder and Schizophrenia are very similar, and the key distinguishing factor is the duration of symptoms. When the duration of symptoms is between one and six months, a diagnosis of Schizophreniform Disorder is appropriate.

Answer B: This describes Schizoaffective Disorder.

Answer C: This is often characteristic of Brief Psychotic Disorder.

Answer D: The interference of symptoms with social or occupational functioning is required for a diagnosis of Schizophrenia but not for a diagnosis of Schizophreniform Disorder.

A

John's symptoms (e.g., hopelessness, sadness, loss of appetite) are most suggestive of Major Depressive Disorder. Furthermore, the presence of delusions and hallucinations that are congruent with his mood is best captured by the specifier: "with mood-congruent psychotic features."

Answer B: The atypical features specifier is appropriate when the individual experiences mood reactivity, increased appetite and weight gain, hypersomnia, and leaden paralysis.

Answer C: Schizophrenia is diagnosed when psychotic symptoms are present without prominent affective symptoms.

Answer D: A diagnosis of Schizoaffective Disorder requires a period of at least two weeks when psychotic symptoms were present in the absence of mood symptoms.

D

Based on empirical evidence, a multimodal intervention that combines nicotine replacement therapy, multicomponent behavior therapy, and support and assistance from a clinician has been the most successful approach for smoking cessation.

C

Edward's symptoms suggest a restricted range of emotional expression and detachment from social relationships.

Answer A: A person with Avoidant Personality Disorder avoids social relationships due to a fear of being embarrassed or humiliated.

Answer B: Schizotypal Personality Disorder involves interpersonal deficits, cognitive or perceptual distortions, and behavioral eccentricities.

Answer D: Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder involves a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control.

A

GAD is characterized by excessive anxiety and worry about multiple events and activities. In contrast to individuals with nonpathological anxiety, those with symptoms of GAD are more likely to report that they cannot control their worrying.

Answer B: People with a diagnosis of GAD are more likely to experience somatic symptoms.

Answer C: People who are diagnosed with GAD ordinarily do not experience their anxiety as ego-syntonic but, instead, experience their worrying as distressing.

Answer D: People who meet the criteria for GAD often "self-medicate" to reduce their symptoms, and comorbid substance-related disorders are common.

D

Culture may influence the experience and manifestation of depression and other mental disorders. "Nervios" is a common idiom of distress for Latinos and may be indicative of depression or another diagnosis. It is manifested primarily in terms of somatic complaints such as headaches, sleep problems, and nervousness.

Answer A: Individuals from Middle Eastern cultures may describe depression as a "problem of the heart".

Answer B: These terms may be used by members of Chinese and other Asian cultures to describe depression.

Answer C: These symptoms are not typical manifestations of depression for Latinx.

B

Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is characterized by a persistent preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. The symptoms described in this answer are consistent with a diagnosis of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder.

Answer A: These symptoms are characteristic of Dependent Personality Disorder.

Answer C: These are symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD), not Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder.

Answer D: These symptoms are characteristic of Avoidant Personality Disorder.

B

The DSM-5 requires that symptoms develop within three months of the onset of the stressor and that symptoms do not persist for more than six months after the stressor or its consequences have ended.

C

Habit reversal combines three strategies: awareness training, regulated breathing, and social support. This intervention is used to treat stuttering, tics, and nervous habits.

Answer A: Habit reversal training is not typically used to treat alcohol addiction.

Answer B: Pica is not typically treated with habit reversal training.

Answer D: Habit reversal training is not generally used to treat paraphilias.

C

Orgasmic reconditioning was developed based on the assumption that orgasm reinforces sexual fantasies, and it is used to replace the stimuli that produce an organism. It is one of the techniques used to treat Paraphilic Disorders and involves having the individual replace an unacceptable sexual fantasy with a more acceptable one while masturbating.

C

Marlatt and Gordon's (1985) model emphasizes the impact of cognitive and situational factors on relapse. Their Relapse Prevention Therapy (RPT) describes addiction as an "overlearned habit pattern" and proposes that the risk for relapse is reduced when a person views a lapse as the result of specific, external, and controllable factors, versus internal, stable, and global factors.

B

A diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD) requires a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others. For this diagnosis, the DSM-5 requires the presence of at least three of seven characteristic behaviors. One of the seven is a lack of remorse.

Answer A: Inflated sense of self is listed as an associated feature in the DSM-5, not a diagnostic feature.

Answer C: Lack of empathy is another associated feature of APD.

Answer D: Superficial charm is also a common associated feature

A

The term diagnostic overshadowing was initially used to describe the tendency of health professionals to attribute all behavioral, emotional, and social problems of individuals with an Intellectual Disability to that diagnosis. The study described in this answer would address the effects of having one diagnosis on the likelihood that other diagnoses would be considered and, therefore, would be useful for investigating diagnostic overshadowing.

Answers B, C, and D: The term diagnostic overshadowing refers to the act of health professionals attributing all behavior, emotional, and social problems of individuals to the diagnosis they have been given to the exclusion of other influential factors. Thus, these responses are incorrect. In fact, research has shown that diagnostic overshadowing is not related to a professional's theoretical orientation, expertise, or experience and that it applies to other conditions, diagnoses, and situations.

C

In vivo exposure with response prevention is the treatment of choice for Agoraphobia.

Answer A: Counterconditioning is an element of systematic desensitization, which has not been identified as an effective treatment for Agoraphobia.

Answer B: Although relaxation might be a useful adjunct to in vivo exposure, it is not considered the most effective treatment when used alone.

Answer D: Cognitive restructuring is not regarded as a particularly effective treatment for Agoraphobia.

A

Conduct Disorder involves a pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others, and major age-appropriate social norms or rules, are violated. Lying and running away are characteristics of Conduct Disorder. Behaviors associated with Oppositional Defiant Disorder are less severe and include negativism, defiance, and hostility.

Answer B: Temper outbursts (and irritability) are more explicitly associated with Oppositional Defiant Disorder and are not directly included in the criteria for Conduct Disorder.

Answer C: The use of drugs does not help distinguish between the two disorders.

Answer D: This information would not assist with differentiating the diagnoses, as the onset of both disorders may occur before age 12.

C

Croen et al. (2001) studied individual and family characteristics of children with a mild or severe Intellectual Disability and found low birth weight to be the strongest predictor of Intellectual Disability, with an unknown etiology.

C

Results from a meta-analysis by Faraone and colleagues demonstrated that 15% of children who are diagnosed with ADHD continue to meet full diagnostic criteria as young adults, and up to 60% meet the criteria for ADHD in partial remission.

D

When using the DSM-5, other specified disorder is coded when the clinician wants to indicate the reason that the client's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis - e.g., other specified bipolar disorder, short-duration manic episodes.

Answer A: A diagnosis deferral does not have a corresponding code in the DSM-5.

Answer B: The term "Not Otherwise Specified" (NOS) was used in the DSM-IV and is no longer a diagnostic code in the DSM-5.

Answer C: When using the DSM-5, the unspecified disorder is coded to indicate diagnostic uncertainty when the clinician does not want to specify the reason that the client's symptoms do not meet the criteria for a specific diagnosis.

B

As its name suggests, Schizoaffective Disorder is characterized by concurrent psychotic and mood symptoms. However, for the diagnosis, the individual must have experienced a period of at least two weeks of psychotic symptoms without prominent mood symptoms.

A

Some brain imagining studies have linked hypofrontality (decreased activity in the prefrontal cortex) to the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia.

Answer B: Hallucinations and delusions are positive symptoms and have not been linked to hypofrontality.

Answer C: A high level of expressed emotion by family members has been linked to an increased risk for relapse for patients with Schizophrenia.

Answer D: Hypofrontality has not been linked to concerns about digestion, elimination, or other somatic processes.

A

Approximately 40 to 60% of outpatients who meet the criteria for a major depressive episode demonstrate EEG abnormalities during sleep, including decreased REM latency (i.e., an earlier onset of REM sleep).

Answer B: People who are diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder often experience decreased slow-wave sleep.

Answer C: People with Major Depressive disorder often present with increased duration of REM sleep early in the sleep period.

Answer D: A diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder has been correlated with increased REM density.

A

Lithium is ordinarily the first-line pharmacological treatment for Bipolar I Disorder. However, an anticonvulsant (e.g., carbamazepine, valproic acid, gabapentin) is often prescribed when an individual is intolerant to Lithium or has non-responsive symptoms.

Answer B: Propranolol is a beta-blocker that is used to treat hypertension and to alleviate the physical symptoms of anxiety.

Answer C: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that is used to treat anxiety, alcohol withdrawal, and chronic insomnia.

Answer D: Donepezil is a cholinesterase inhibitor that is used to treat cognitive impairment in individuals with mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease.

D

For a diagnosis of Separation Anxiety Disorder, the DSM-5 requires a duration of symptoms of at least four weeks for children and adolescents or typically six months or more for adults.

B

Reactive Attachment Disorder involves a consistent pattern of inhibited and emotionally withdrawn behavior toward adult caregivers. A child with this diagnosis has experienced a pattern of extremes of insufficient care as evidenced by neglect, repeated changes in primary caregivers, or rearing in unusual settings that interfere with attachment.

B

A DSM-5 diagnosis of Illness Anxiety Disorder requires a preoccupation with having a serious illness, an absence of somatic symptoms or the presence of mild somatic symptoms, a high level of anxiety about health, and either performance of excessive health-related behaviors or maladaptive avoidance of medical care.

Answer A: Somatic Symptom Disorder involves the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress or a significant disruption in daily life accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

Answer C: Hypochondriasis is not a DSM-5 diagnosis.

Answer D: Factitious Disorder involves a falsification or induction of symptoms that are associated with an identified deception, and the behavior occurs in the absence of obvious external rewards.

B

The DSM-5 requires the presence of characteristic symptoms for a minimum duration of approximately six months for all Sexual Dysfunction diagnoses except Substance/Medication-Induced Sexual Dysfunction.

D

A definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease requires an autopsy or brain biopsy that confirms the presence of neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the medial temporal structures (i.e., entorhinal cortex, hippocampus, and amygdala). Neurofibrillary tangles are most dense in the hippocampus, which plays an important role in memory consolidation.

C

The DSM-5 provides specifiers for Bulimia Nervosa for the course (in partial remission or full remission) and severity (mild, moderate, severe, or extreme) based on an average number of weekly episodes of inappropriate compensatory behavior.

Answer A: For a diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa the duration of symptoms must be at least three months; however, the severity level specifiers refer to symptom frequency rather than duration.

Answer B: Anorexia Nervosa severity level is diagnosed based on current body mass index.

Answer D: Severity level is based on episodes of compensatory behaviors, not binge eating.

A

Lovaas's method for teaching nonverbal children to talk combined modeling, shaping, and discrimination training. Modeling and shaping were used to gradually teach a child to say a word or simple sentence, and discrimination training was then used to teach the child when to use the word or sentence.

Answer B: Higher-order conditioning is an extension of classical conditioning in which a conditioned stimulus is treated as an unconditioned stimulus and paired with a new neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus eventually becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits the conditioned response when presented alone.

Answer C: Overcorrection is an operant technique that is used to eliminate undesirable behavior. It involves having the individual correct the consequences of the undesirable behavior (restitution) and/or practice corrective behaviors (positive practice).

Answer D: Self-instructional training is a cognitive-behavioral technique in which the individual learns to modify maladaptive thoughts and behaviors by using covert self-statements.

C

The DSM-5 distinguishes between four levels of severity for Intellectual Disability (mild, moderate, severe, and profound). Severity is based on the individual's functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains.

C

Lewinsohn's theory of depression is based on the principles of operant conditioning. In this model, depression is attributed to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement for social and other behaviors, which results in the extinction of behaviors. Additionally, this leads to pessimism, low self-worth, social isolation, and other features of depression that reduce the likelihood of positive reinforcement.

Answer A: Perfectionism has been linked to a dysphoric mood, but Lewinsohn did not consider perfectionism to be a cause of depression.

Answer B: Beck identified a depressive cognitive triad consisting of negative beliefs about oneself, the world, and the future.

Answer D: In his original learned helplessness model, Seligman proposed that depression is caused by the tendency to attribute negative events to global, stable, and internal factors.

B

The diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder cannot be assigned for the first time before the individual is six years of age or after he/she is 18 years of age, and the age of onset must be before age 10.

D

The CDC (2018) has reported the highest rates of suicide among Non-Hispanic Native Americans/Alaskan Native males, followed by White Non-Hispanic males.

A

The DSM-5 diagnosis of Agoraphobia requires that the individual experience marked fear or anxiety in at least two of the following situations: using public transportation, being in open spaces, being in enclosed spaces, standing in line or being part of a crowd, and being outside the home alone. Additionally, the individual must fear or avoid these situations due to a concern that escape might be difficult or help will be unavailable in the event one develops panic-like, incapacitating, or embarrassing symptoms.

Answer B: Concern about panic attacks or their consequences is a feature of Panic Disorder and is not required for a diagnosis of Agoraphobia.

Answer C: When a person's fear of a situation is due to a concern about something other than an inability to escape or obtain help in case of panic-like symptoms, the likely diagnosis is Specific Phobia, situational type.

Answer D: Unexpected panic attacks are required for a diagnosis of Panic Disorder.

D

GAD is highly comorbid with other psychiatric disorders, with studies reporting comorbidity rates ranging from about 80 to 90%.

C

Exposure with response prevention (ERP) is an empirically supported and first-line treatment for OCD.

Answer A: Interpersonal therapy was originally developed as a treatment for depression. Although it is now used to treat other disorders as well, it is not the preferred treatment for OCD.

Answer B: Mentalization-based therapy (MBT) is a form of psychodynamic therapy that was developed as a treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder.

Answer D: Panic control therapy is a form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that, as its name suggests, is used to treat Panic Disorder and is not considered a first-line treatment for OCD.

C

Body Dysmorphic Disorder involves a preoccupation with a defect or flaw in appearance that appears minor or is unobservable to others. The person performs repetitive behaviors or mental acts related to the defect or flaw (e.g., mirror checking, excessive grooming), and the preoccupation causes clinically significant distress or impaired functioning.

Answer A: People with Illness Anxiety Disorder are preoccupied with having or acquiring a serious illness. Although Janice is overly concerned about her skin, she does not seem to be concerned that the flaws she perceives are signs of a serious illness.

Answer B: People with Somatic Symptom Disorder have one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress or a significant disruption in daily life and are accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors that are related to the symptoms. A person diagnosed with Somatic Symptom Disorder is concerned that an illness underlies his/her somatic symptoms, while a person with Body Dysmorphic Disorder is concerned about a flaw or defect in appearance.

Answer D: Adjustment Disorder involves the development of emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to one or more identifiable psychosocial stressors. The question description does not include information that suggests that Janice's symptoms developed after exposure to a stressor.

C

The specifier "with delayed expression" is applied to the diagnosis of PTSD when the individual does not meet full diagnostic criteria until at least six months after the traumatic event.

B

In the DSM-5 dissociative fugue is a specifier for Dissociative Amnesia.

A

Sleep hygiene education focuses on diet, substance use, exercise, and other health practices, as well as light, temperature, noise, and other environmental factors that may interfere with sleep. Clinicians typically combine sleep hygiene education with other interventions such as stimulus control, relaxation training, and cognitive strategies that address attitudes and beliefs that are contributing to sleep problems.

D

Recurrent legal problems are not a symptom of a Substance Use Disorder in the DSM-5.

Answer A: Persistent desire or unsuccessful efforts to cut down on substance use is one of the 11 symptoms of a Substance Use Disorder.

Answer B: A strong desire (craving) for the substance is another of the 11 possible symptoms of a Substance Use Disorder.

Answer C: Tolerance for the substance is a DSM-5 criterion for a Substance Use Disorder.

B

Children with a learning disorder often have a co-diagnosis of ADHD, ODD, and/or a mood disorder. Research results have demonstrated that the most common co-diagnosis is ADHD, with approximately 20 to 30% of children with a learning disorder also receiving a diagnosis of ADHD.

C

Ella is expressing excessive worry about multiple situations. Generalized Anxiety Disorder involves excessive worry or anxiety about several events or activities that the person finds difficult to control. Children with this disorder are often perfectionistic, filled with self-doubt, and typically exhibit physical signs of anxiety (e.g., headaches, stomachaches).

Answer A: A diagnosis of Separation Anxiety Disorder requires evidence of excessive anxiety concerning separation from those to whom the child is attached. This evidence is not provided in the question description.

Answer B: The description does not indicate the essential features of Agoraphobia: that the child has a fear of being in places where escape might be difficult or embarrassing, or where help might not be available if panic-like symptoms develop.

Answer D: Specific Phobia is characterized by a marked and persistent fear of a specific object or situation. Ella's fears are broader than this and, therefore, Generalized Anxiety Disorder is a better diagnosis.

C

There are some age-related differences in the symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder. Children diagnosed with GAD most commonly worry about school and sports performance or natural disasters and other catastrophic events.

Answer A: Worry about family relationships is more common among adults with GAD.

Answer B: Illness and injury are also more common sources of worry among adults with symptoms of this disorder.

Answer D: Ghosts and other supernatural beings have not been identified as a common cause of worry for children with a diagnosis of GAD.

D

CBT is an empirically supported treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder, and it consists of several components including psychoeducation, relaxation training, cognitive restructuring, exposure, and relapse prevention.

Answer A: EMDR is an intervention that is typically implemented to treat symptoms of Post-traumatic Stress Disorder.

Answer B: Systematic desensitization was developed by Wople in the 1950s and this intervention is most often utilized to treat specific phobias.

Answer C: Meichenbaum's (1993) Stress Inoculation Training (SIT) is a cognitive-behavioral intervention, which has been used to treat symptoms of anxiety, PTSD, aggression, and pain. However, CBT is a better response as it is more general (encompassing various interventions) and it has been empirically validated as a treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder.

A

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the diagnostic criteria for both Bipolar Disorders. The diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder requires the presence or history of at least one major depressive episode and one hypomanic episode.

A

Only one of the listed conditions is a consequence of an electrolyte imbalance. Electrolyte imbalances caused by vomiting and the use of laxatives and diuretics can have serious consequences, including, in extreme cases, cardiac arrhythmia and arrest.