Facultative GNRs other than Enterobacteriaceae 7.7

  1. what are the four genus under the family vibrionaceae?
    • Vibrio
    • Aeromonas
    • Plesiomonas
  2. all vibrionaceae organisms have what oxidase result?
  3. all vibrionaceae organisims move by what type of motility?
    ploar flagellation
  4. true or false
    Vibrionaceae organisms do not produce gas
  5. what does TCBS stand for?
    tiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose
  6. TCBS is used for what family of organisms?
  7. Vibrionaceae organisms are what type of oxygen users?
    facultative anaerobe
  8. what is the cytochrome oxidase result for Vibrionaceae organisms?
  9. what is the indole result for Vibrionaceae?
  10. what is the result of dextrose fermentation for Vibrionaceae?
  11. what is the habitat for Vibrio species?
    • sea water
    • brackish
  12. what is the habitat for Aeromonas species?
    • fesh water
    • salt water
    • brackish water
  13. what is the habitat for Plesiomonas species?
    fresh water
  14. this is the most common cause of gastroenteritis from contaminated water or seafood?
    Vibrio cholerae
  15. true or false
    Vibrio cholerae can be transmitted by contact exposure with mucosa or open skin?
  16. Rice water stool is associated with what type of cholera caused by V. cholerae?
    asian cholera
  17. what are the three signs and symptoms associated with asian cholera?
    • watery stools
    • mucus flecks
    • Cholera toxin causes hypersecretion in GI tract
  18. what is the toxin in V. cholerae that causes hypersecretion in the GI tract?
    cholera toxin (CT)
  19. V. cholerae is: (Pick one)
    (A) Haplophilic
    (B) Haplophobic
    (A) haplophilic
  20. what is the organism that is divided into serogroups based on somatic "O" antigens?
    V. cholerae
  21. all epidemic strains of ___________ were assigned originally to serotype "O" subgroup 1 (O1).
    V. cholerae
  22. what is the appearance of V. cholerae on the TCBS?
  23. the yellow appearance of V. cholerae on the TCBS is caused by what?
  24. what is the result for V. cholerae in O1 antisera?
  25. what is the V. cholerae result for string test(0.5 bile salt)?
  26. what is the reagent used in the string test?
    0.5 bile salt
  27. what is the V. cholerae for lactose and arginine?
  28. what is the V. cholerae result for sucrose, lysine, and ornithine?
  29. what is the test that differentiates classical and El Tor V. cholerae?
    • VP
    • Classical (=)
    • El Tor (+)
  30. what are the two V. cholerae serotypes that produce cholera toxin?
    • O130
    • O1
  31. what are two clinical significances of V. parahaemolyticus?
    • wound infections
    • septicemia
  32. this Vibrio species can be contracted through contaminated seafood, raw fish, and shellfish.
    V. parahaemolyticus
  33. what is the treatment of V. parahaemolyticus?
  34. what is the TCBS result for V. parahaemolyticus?
    (=) green
  35. what is the O1 antisera result for V. parahaemolyticus?
  36. which Vibrionaceae species can cause meningitis, pneumonia, conjunctivitis, and endocarditis?
    Aeromonas hydrophila
  37. humans and animals are carriers of what water loving bacteria?
    A. hydrophilia
  38. what are the three means of transmission of A. hydrophila?
    • ingestion
    • skin exposure
    • inoculation
  39. A. hydrophila exhibits what type of hemolysis on a BAP?
    beta hemolytic
  40. what result on TSI differentiates A. hydrophila and P. shigelloides?
    • A. hydrophila: Gas(+)
    • P. shigelloides: Gas(=)
  41. what is the lactose result on Aeromonas hydrophila?
  42. what is the sucrose result on A. hydrophila?
  43. what is LDC and ADC results on A. hydrophila?
  44. what is the ornithine result for A. hydrophila?
  45. what is the result of A. hydrophila on TCBS?
    no growth
  46. Plesiomonas shigelloides can cause what two disease states in immunocompromised patients and infants?
    • gastroenteritis
    • septicemia
  47. what are the two means of transmission of Plesiomonas shigelloides?
    • ingestion of contaminated H2O
    • reptiles
  48. what is the habitat of P. shgelloides?
    Fresh warm water
  49. P. shigelloides exhibits what type of hemolysis on a BAP?
  50. what are the lactose and sucrose results of P. shigelloides?
  51. what are the ldysine and arginine results of P. shigelloides?
  52. what is the ornithine result for P. shigelloides?
  53. what is the TCBS result for P. shigelloides?
  54. Vibrionaceae have what type of appearance on gram stain?
    Gram negative curved or straight rods
  55. what is the test used to ID gram negative bacilli?
    API NE
  56. Laboratory isolation of this genus is different depending on the relative location and incidence of infection?
  57. Where is there few positive cultures of Vibrio?
    american midwest
  58. in what areas should a tech incorporate TCBS?
  59. true or false
    routine use of TCBS is recommended in endemic areas
  60. what should be used for laboratory isolation of Plesiomonas and Aeromonas?
    routine enteric media
  61. if Vibrio is suspected what three medias should be used?
    • BAP
    • MAC
    • TCBS
  62. what media is used for isolation and enrichment of Vibrio?
    alkaline peptone water (pH 8.4)
  63. what is the pH for alkaline peptone water?
  64. what media should be used when subculturing from alkaline peptone water?
    TCBS agar
  65. how do sucrose fermenters appear on the TCBS?
  66. what are the pH indicators in the TCBS?
    • bromthymol blue
    • thymol blue
  67. what is the pH of TCBS?
  68. what is the media that is selective for Vibrio?
  69. BAP can be made selectivew for Aeromonas with the addition of what?
  70. this can improve recovery of Aeromonas from stool.
  71. what are the two medias that have a high recovery rate for Aeromonas?
    • MAC
    • XLD
  72. this organism can be recovered using Sheep Blood Agar without ampicillin or enteric media.
  73. what should be used fo there is a delay in plating Vibrio?
    Cary-Blair semi solid transport media
  74. Vibrio spp is sensitve to what three things?
    • Drying
    • exposure to sunlight
    • Acid pH
  75. APW should be used for _______ numbers of vibrio.
  76. true or false
    BAP is adequate for growth of vibrio spp.
  77. true or false
    TCBS can be inoculated heavily
  78. _______ grows well on BHI and BAP even without added salt.
  79. what is the test used to differntiate Vibrionaceae from Enterobacteriaceae.
  80. what test is used to differentiate pseudomonas from aeromonas?
    • Indole
    • Aeromonas (+)
  81. What five tests differentiate Aeromonas from plesiomonas spp?
    • Aeromonas:
    • beta hemolytic
    • DNAse (+)
    • VP (+)
    • ODC (=)
    • Mannitol (+)
  82. what is the catalase result for all Pasteurellaceae species?
  83. in pasteurellaceae acid is produced by utilizing what three sugars?
    • glucose
    • fructose
    • sucrose
  84. what is the starch or salicin hydrolysis result for Pasteurellaceae?
  85. Pasteurellaceae organisms are susceptible to what three antibiotics?
    • penicillin
    • cephalosporin
    • tetracyclines
  86. true or false
    Pasteurellaceae does not reduce nitrate to nitrite
  87. Pasteurellaceae organisms exhibit what type of motility?
    non motile
  88. what is the appearance of Pasteurellaceae on a gram stain?
    Gram negative coccobacili or rods
  89. Pasteurellaceae may stain bipolar in what two stains?
    • wright
    • giemsa
  90. what family of gram negative rods resembles a closed safety pin?
  91. pasteurellaceae organisms are what type of oxygen users?
    facultative anaerobe
  92. most Pasteurellaceae organisms will not grow on what media?
  93. Pasturella multocida is mostly isolade from _______ exposure.
  94. what organism is commonly isolated from cat bites or scratches, dog bites, or other domestic or wild animals.
    Pasteurella multocida
  95. what are the four clinical significances of P. multocida?
    • soft tissue infections
    • Bacteremia
    • Respiratory tract infections
    • Infections due to past and current animal exposure
  96. this organism grows well on BAP and CHOC but does not grow on the MAC.
    P. multocida
  97. P. multocida is inhibited by what class of media?
  98. this is a translucent, smooth convex, and butyraceous gamma hemolytic organism that is 1-2mm and has a disticnt musty or mushroom odor.
    P. multocida
  99. this organism is normal vaginal flora.
    Gardnerella vaginalis
  100. what are the three clinical significances of G. vaginalis?
    • non-specific vaginosis
    • Bacteremia including neonates
    • postpartum endometriosis
  101. This organism appears as gramn variable pleomorphic rods.
    G. vaginalis
  102. G. vaginalis exhibits what type of motility?
  103. these are diagnostic of G. vaginalis.
    Clue cells
  104. these are epithelial cells covered by small gram negative rods.
    Clue cells
  105. what is the odor of G. vaginalis with KOH?
  106. which organism was formerly under genus Haemophilus but now has no specific taxonomic grouping?
    G. vaginalis
  107. G. vaginalis forms what size colonies on BAP?
  108. G. vaginalis grows well on what media?
  109. G. vaginalis exhibits what type of hemolysis on the HBIT agar (Human Blood)?
    beta hemolytic
  110. how should G. vaginalis be incubated?
    35oC for 48hrs in 5% CO2
  111. what is the result for hippurate and starch hydrolysis on G. vaginalis?
  112. what are the five confirmatory biochemical testings and their results for P. multocida?
    • Lactose: =
    • Maltose: =
    • TSI A/A: no gas
    • Urease: =
    • ODC: +
  113. commonly isolated pathogenic campylobacter species have what catalase result?
  114. what is the only Camplyobacter organism that yields a + hippurate hydrolysis test?
    C. jejuni
  115. what is the incubation temperature for C. fetus?
  116. what are the incubation temperatures for C. jejuni and C. coli?
  117. what two organisms are susceptible to Naladixic acid (30ug)?
    • C. jejuni
    • C. coli
  118. what two organisms are resistant to Naladixic acid (30ug)?
    • C. fetus
    • C. lari
  119. what is the quantity of naladixic acid used for campylobacter susceptibility testing?
  120. what are the three organisms that are resistant to Cephalotin (30ug)?
    • C. jejuni
    • C. coli
    • C. lari
  121. what is the organism that is susceptible to Cephalotin (30ug)?
    C. fetus
  122. what quantity of Cephalotin used for Campylobacter testing?
  123. what genus of organisms has confluent growth around streak line?
  124. what is the pale staining gram negative organism that needs extended safranin counterstain time?
  125. for campylobacter safranin counterstain time should be extened to how many minutes?
    10 minutes
  126. how much basic fuchsin should be added per liter of safranin for the staining of campylobacter?
  127. this is a pleomorphic, slender, spirally curved rod that forms an 'S', long spirals, or classic gull wing shape?
  128. what type of oxygen user is campylobacter?
    obigate microaerophilic
  129. what is the incubation atmosphere for campylobacter?
    • 5% O2
    • 10% CO2
    • 85% Nitrogen
  130. for what organism is increased CO2 not recomended, and gas pouches are commercially available?
  131. Campylobacter exhibits what type of motility in phase contrast or dark field microscopy?
    darting/tumbling motility
  132. Campylobacter exhibits darting/tumbling motility in what type of microscopy?
    • phase contrast
    • dark field
  133. the number of cases of gastroenteritis due to what organism surpassed salmonella and shigella.
    C. jejuni
  134. what are four signs and symptoms of C. jejuni gastroenteritis?
    • crampy abdominal pain
    • fever
    • chills
    • bloody diarrhea
  135. many patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) are infected with this bacteria prior to onset of neurological symptoms.
    C. jejuni
  136. C. jejuni may cause occasional _________.
  137. what ubiquitous organism can be contracted from raw milk, partially cooked poultry, or contaminated water?
    C. jejuni
  138. C. jejuni infections are self-limiting and reslove in _____ days.
  139. whar oraly antibiotic is perscribed for severe C. jejuni cases?
  140. this is an infrequent human pathogen that is seen in systemic illness in patients with chronic hepatic, renal, or neoplastic disease.
    C. fetus
  141. procitis and proctocolitis in homoseual men is seen in what bacteria?
    C. fetus
  142. what organism is seen in premature labor, neonatal sepsis, spetic abortion, and heart valve endocarditis?
    C. fetus
  143. what is the organism that is closely related to C. jejuni and causes diarrhea?
    C. coli
  144. C. coli accounts for what percent of campylobacter enteritis in humans?
  145. which campylobacter species cause UTIs very rarely?
    C. coli
  146. if Hippurate hydrolysis test is not performed how are Campylobacter reported?
    C. jejuni/C. coli
  147. Definitive Campylobacter species ID depends on determination of ________ characteristics.
  148. what are the two selective medias used for Campylobacter?
    • Campy-BAP
    • Campy-Thio
  149. true or false
    CO2 incubator is not recommended for Campylobacter species
  150. What is the best medium for Campylobacter?
    Charcoal-Based Selective medium (CSM)
  151. high temperature suppresses growth of what in campylobacter?
    normal competing flora
  152. at what intervals should Campylobacter be examined?
    • 24
    • 48
    • 72hrs
  153. what may grow as break through organisms and be confused with campylobacter?
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  154. this organism produces pyocyanin pigment and fruit-juice odor.
    P. aeruginosa
  155. what is the factor that includes hemin found in Hgb?
    X factor
  156. what is the factor that contains Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD; coenzyme I)?
    V factor
  157. what is the identification test that bypasses problems with X factor test for Haemophilus?
    ALA Porphyrin
  158. what is the easiest technique for serotyping Haemophilus?
    slide agglutination
  159. what is the most common, most virulent serotype for Haemophilus?
    Serotype b
  160. what ar ethe recovered serotypes for Haemophilus?
    • A
    • c
    • d
    • e
    • f
  161. biochemical methods of Haemophilus ID is based on acid from what five carbohydrate utilizations?
    • Sucrose
    • Fructose
    • Ribose
    • Xylose
    • Mannose
  162. these are nonmotile, small, pale staining GNR or coccobacilli that are occasionally pleomorphic slender filaments seen on direct smears.
  163. what is the fastidious organism who's name means blood loving?
  164. what bacteria requires a vaccine for children due to neonatal sepsis with meningitis?
    Haemophilus influenzae
  165. what strain of Haemophilus is encapsulated?
    H. influenzae
  166. what is the encapsulated bacteria that causes epiglottitis, cellulitis with bacteremia, septic arthritis, and pneumonia?
    H influenzae
  167. Non encapsulated strains of H. influenzae will cause what four conditions?
    • Respiratory infections
    • Otitis media
    • Sinusitis
    • Bronchitis
  168. what is the biogroup of H. influenzae that causes purulent conjunctivitis and brazilian purpuric fever?
  169. when were ampicillin resistant strains of H. influenzae confirmed?
  170. H influenzae is resistant to what antibiotic?
  171. what percent of H. influenzae produce Beta-lactamase?
  172. what are the following results for H. influenzae?
    X factor
    V factor
    • X factor: +
    • V factor: +
    • Lactose: =
    • Mannose: =
  173. this organism is less common than H. influenzae but causes a wide variety of infections.
    H. parainfluenzae
  174. what are the following results for H. parainfluenzae?
    X factor
    V factor
    • X factor: =
    • V factor: +
    • Lactose: =
    • Mannose: =
  175. what is the sexually transmitted bacteria that causes a painful ulcerative genital lesion known as a chancroid, enlarged inguinal lymph nodes and satellite infection?
    H. ducreyi
  176. what are the two specimens that H. ducreyi is isolated from?
    • swab from genital ulcers
    • aspirates from buboes
  177. on which Haemophilus organism will you perform a direct gram stain smear?
    H. ducreyi
  178. what is the appearance of H. ducreyi on a gram stain?
    • school-of-fish
    • Railroad tracks
  179. what are the following results for H. ducreyi?
    X factor
    V factor
    • X factor: +
    • V factor: =
    • Lactose: =
    • Mannose: =
  180. this bacteria is a member of the HACEK family and is a rare cause of slow, progressive, subacute endocarditits.
    H. aphrophilus
  181. what are the following results for H. aphrophilus?
    X factor
    V factor
    • X factor: =
    • V factor: =
    • Lactose: +
    • Mannose: +
  182. what bacteria can causes host tissue damage such as peptic ulcer disease, gastritis, and high risk of gastric carcinoma?
    Helicobacter pylori
  183. what are the following results of Helicobacter pylori?
    • H/H: (=)
    • Catalase: +
    • Urease: +
  184. what is the biochemical identification of Haemophils based on?
    growth requrements for X and V factors
  185. what is the media used for initial cultivation of Haemophilus?
    Chocolate agar
  186. what is the temperature used to lyse sheeps RBC's by gentle heat?
  187. what genus of GNR has no hemolytic determination?
  188. TSA and MH are used for which genus of facultative GNRs?
  189. what genus of facultative GNR should be suspended in saline to reduce carryover of growth factors when mat streaking to TSA or MH?
  190. how far apart should X and V factor disks be placed on Haemophilus?
    1 to 2 cm apart
  191. how should Haemophilus be incubated?
    • 35oC
    • 3-5% ambient air
    • 18-24 hours
  192. what two organisms are differentiated from other organisms based on growth on chocolate or blood and gram stain morphology?
    • Haemophilus
    • Pasteurella
  193. pasteurella and Haemophilus will not grow on what media?
  194. Pasteurella nd Haemophilus both grow well on what media?
Card Set
Facultative GNRs other than Enterobacteriaceae 7.7
Microbiology unit 7.7, Facultative Gram Negative Rods other than Enterobacteriaceae