Review from 2018 in-service test

  1. the second pharyngeal pouch gives rise to?




    • C. palatine tonsils
  2. The highest collagen turnover occurs in the ____ Area of the PDL



    • A. Apical
    • The apical continues to turnover collagen as it continues to produce cementum at the apex
  3. During enamel formation, the _____ enable(s) the ameloblasts to move in a row rather than individually.




    C. desmosomes

    • ** Desmosomes are what makes cells attach to each other, they can move in a row because they are attached.
    • Desmosomes are junctions involved in intercellular adhesion of epithelial cells and hemidesmosomes are junctions involved in adhesion of epithelia to basement membranes.
  4. Cleft lip results from the failure of fusion of the:




    • D. median nasal process and maxillary process
  5. During the ____ phase of bone remodeling, osteoblast precursors deposit a cement line on the bone surface




    D. reversal

    • Bone remodeling happens in 5 steps
    • 1. activation 2. resorption 3. reversal 4. formation and 5. termination

  6. Which papillae of the tongue contain functional taste buds?




    C. circumvallate and fungiform

  7. Oral parakeratinized epithelia lacks stratum




    • B. lucidum
    • The stratum lucidum is a smooth, seemingly translucent layer of the epidermis located just above the stratum granulosum and below the stratum corneum. This thin layer of cells is found only in the thick skin of the palms, soles, and digits.
  8. All are classified as gingival fibers of the periodontium EXCEPT




    • B. horizontal
    • Horizontals do not exist
  9. The articular disk of the TMJ is composed of




    • B. collagenous, fibrous CT
    • The TMJ articular disc is a biconcave structure made up of fibrocartilage tissue; it can be divided into three different functional portions: posterior band, intermediate zone and anterior band.
    • The TMJ is different because it is composed of fibrocartilage and NOT HYALINE CARTILAGE. One of the unique characteristics of fibrocartilage is that it contains both types I and II Collagens, compared to articular hyaline cartilage, which only contains type II Collagen.
  10. The lingual nerve contacts the lingual cortical plate in approximately % of patients.




    • C. 20
    • An anatomic study of the lingual nerve in the third molar region
    • H Behnia, 2000
  11. As the lingual artery approaches the floor of the mouth, it lies ____ to the sublingual gland.




    C. medial
  12. Which ligament limits the excursions of the mandibular condyles



    • A. temporomandibular
  13. Studies of the edentulous anterior maxilla have shown that the nasopalatine canal _____ during ridge resorption




    • C. enlarges
    • Just remember how edentulous people can have implants placed inside when completely edentulous
  14. Tensor veli palatini is innervated by what cranial nerve?




    • C. V
    • The tensor veli palatini nerve contains proprioceptive and motor fibers that provide innervation to the tensor veli palatini muscle. This nerve also passes through the otic ganglion to enter the tensor veli palatini near its origin at the base of the medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone. Innervated by the 5th cranial nerve
  15. The intraorbital nerve is found on avg _____ below the inferior portion of the intraorbital ridge




    • D. 5
  16. one third of all the amino acids present in collagen are




    • C. glycine
    • Glycine makes up most of the amino acids in Collagen
    • Hydroxylysine is EXCLUSIVE TO COLLAGEN
  17. The type of cell junction between epithelial cells that inhibits the passage of even small molecules is called




    • C. tight junction
    • Gap junctions are channels between neighboring cells that allow for the transport of ions, water, and other substances using connexion proteins to form pores. Tight junctions create a watertight seal between two adjacent animal cells using claudin proteins.
  18. In health, junctional epithelial cells are ___ in size when compared to oral epithelial cells



    A. larger
  19. A fibroblast migrates to the wound site by:




    A. continuous reorganization of its actin cytoskeleton

    The protein actin forms filaments that provide cells with mechanical support and driving forces for movement. Actin contributes to biological processes such as sensing environmental forces, internalizing membrane vesicles, moving over surfaces and dividing the cell in two.
  20. At the site of tissue injury, adenosine diphosphate promotes the:




    A. aggregation of the platelets at the damaged sites

    Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) is a platelet agonist that causes platelet shape change and aggregation as well as generation of thromboxane A2, another platelet agonist, through its effects on P2Y1, P2Y12, and P2X1 receptors
  21. At which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate?




    • C. anaphase
  22. Which is not part of the cyclooxygenase pathway?




    • A. leukotrienes
    • The cyclooxygenase (COX) enzyme system is the major pathway catalyzing the conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandins (PGs)
    • Leukotrienes are inflammatory chemicals the body releases after coming in contact with an allergen or allergy trigger. Leukotrienes cause tightening of airway muscles and the production of excess mucus and fluid
  23. Which most likely occurs when the "fibrin linkage" is disrupted during attempted regeneration?




    C. Long junctional epithelium attachment
  24. PepGen P-15 mimics the cell-binding domains of type ____ Collagen.




    B. I
  25. rhPDGF-BB enhances




    B. angiogenesis
  26. In cell-_____ regen medicine, cells are delivered to a defect site with the goal of improving the regeneration process




    B. based
  27. Which biomarker provides insight into associations between atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease and periodontitis?




    • B. CRP
    • Your level of C-reactive protein can be an indicator of how at risk you are for developing cardiovascular problems. This is because the development of atherosclerosis (laying down of cholesterol inside the blood vessel walls) is associated with inflammation within the vessel walls.
  28. In patients diagnosed with periodontitis, the host immune response _____ atheroma formation.



    A. favors

    Atheroma formation/Atherogenesis can be divided into five key steps, which are 1) endothelial dysfunction, 2) formation of lipid layer or fatty streak within the intima, 3) migration of leukocytes and smooth muscle cells into the vessel wall, 4) foam cell formation and 5) degradation of extracellular matrix
  29. According to the 2013 Joint EFP/AAP workshop, which pharmacological agent may not be beneficial in reducing periodontal formation?




    • B. interferon
    • A natural substance that helps the body's immune system fight infection and other diseases, such as cancer. Interferons are made in the body by white blood cells and other cells, but they can also be made in the laboratory to use as treatments for different diseases
  30. The first phase of the action potential is produced by the:




    D. opening of voltage-gated sodium channels
  31. Which neurotransmitter mediates parasympathetic stimulation of salivary glands?




    • D. glutamate
    • Glutamate is a neurotransmitter. Neurotransmitters are “chemical messengers.” Their job is to send messages between nerve cells (neurons) in your brain. In your brain, glutamate is the most abundant excitatory neurotransmitter.
  32. Histatin is primarily secreted by which glands?




    • D. von Ebner's
    • von Ebner glands, also known as serous glands, are minor salivary glands located on both sides of your oral cavity toward the back of your tongue. Part of their role is to secrete lipase and amylase, digestive enzymes that start to break down food as you chew
  33. Interfering with transpeptidase will block which type of cross-linking?




    • B. Peptidoglycan
    • Peptidoglycan or murein is a unique large macromolecule, a polysaccharide, consisting of sugars and amino acids that forms a mesh-like peptidoglycan layer outside the plasma membrane, forms the rigid cell wall characteristic of most bacteria. Penicillin/Abx interfere with transpeptidase and blocks the cross-linking of peptidoglycan causing cell death.
  34. Under the gram-staining method, which microorganism does NOT stain purple?




    • D. Campylobacter
    • A Gram stain is colored purple. When the stain combines with bacteria in a sample, the bacteria will either stay purple or turn pink or red. If the bacteria stays purple, they are Gram-positive. If the bacteria turns pink or red, they are Gram-negative.
    • All other options are gram negative bacteria
  35. Which is True regarding a bacterial capsule?



    • B. It is found on the surfaces of both Gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
    • The capsule—which can be found in both gram negative and gram-positive bacteria—is different from the second lipid membrane – bacterial outer membrane, which contains lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins and is found only in gram-negative bacteria.
  36. Which mechanism allows bacteria to coordinate their gene expression according to population density?




    • B. quorum sensing
    • Quorum sensing is the regulation of gene expression in response to fluctuations in cell-population density. Quorum sensing bacteria produce and release chemical signal molecules called autoinducers that increase in concentration as a function of cell densit
  37. Under the herpesvirus-P.gingivalis-periodontitis axis, which is MOST strongly associated with elevated levels of putative periodontal pathogens?




    • A. cytomegalovirus
    • Herpes viruses have emerged as putative pathogens in various types of periodontal disease. cytomegalovirus (HCMV) and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) seem to play important roles in the etiopathogenesis of several types of periodontitis.
    • Coxsackie is an enterovirus NOT herpes
  38. An immunoglobulin that did not have an Fc portion would result in:



    • C. an inability to activate the complement pathway
    • - The complement system, also known as complement cascade, is a part of the immune system that enhances the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells from an organism, promote inflammation, and attack the pathogen's cell membrane
    • - The Fc portion of immunoglobulin G (IgG) is a horseshoe-shaped homodimer, which interacts with various effector proteins, including Fcγ receptors (FcγRs). These interactions are critically dependent on the pair of N-glycans packed between the two CH2 domains
  39. When a pathogen blocks the specific interaction between a naive B cell and a helper T cell, the naive B cell is unable to differentiate into a(n)?




    A. plasma cell

    • - When a naïve or memory B cell is activated by antigen (with the aid of a helper T cell), it proliferates and differentiates into an antibody-secreting effector cell
    • - Plasmablasts are the rapidly produced and short-lived effector cells of the early antibody response, whereas plasma cells are the long-lived mediators of lasting humoral immunity.
  40. Which bacterial component helps mediate adherence to the host cell surface?




    • A. Fimbria
    • Thin, hairlike appendages, 1 to 20 microns in length and often occurring in large numbers, present on the cells of gram-negative bacteria, particularly Enterobacteriaceae and Neisseria, they are used to attach the cell to its substrate or to other prokaryotes.
  41. Bacteriocins are peptides that bacteria produce to:




    • C. protect themselves from other species
    • Bacteriocins are a kind of ribosomal synthesized antimicrobial peptides produced by bacteria, which can kill or inhibit bacterial strains closely-related or non-related to produced bacteria, but will not harm the bacteria themselves by specific immunity proteins
Author
jesseabreu
ID
360662
Card Set
Review from 2018 in-service test
Description
wrong answers reviewed
Updated