53. If an International flight diverts and does not clear customs what does the flight (1 point) need to continue to its destination?
A permit to proceed.
54. What does the TEST acronym consist of when giving the Emergency Preparation?
☑ T – Type of Emergency
☑ E – Evacuation anticipated (yes/no)
☑ T – Time remaining until landing
☑ S – Signals to brace, evacuate or remain seated (review as appropriate)
55. What is the purpose of the flight attendant emergency whistle (EW)?
To indicate a Threat Level 2, 3, or 4 situation
56. When are manual engine starts recommended?
After aborting a start because of an engine stall, EGT overlimit, or low starter air pressure.
57. In flight, BOTH flight directors should be either ON or OFF.
True
58. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the announcement of FMA changes?
Workload permitting and unless specified otherwise e.g. (CAT II/III task sharing), all FMA changes (as indicated by a white box) will be announced by the PF below FL 180. At or above FL 180, the Vertical and Lateral Mode Changes (i.e., second and third columns of the FMA) will be announced by the PF.
59. During preflight and prior to the application of electrical power, you notice the (1 point) battery voltage is below 25.5 volts, how should you recharge the batteries?
Ensure external power is supplied to the aircraft and select the BAT 1 and 2 pbs to the AUTO position.
60. On the preflight check, if engine oil quantity is not displayed on the ENG SD page, how should you check the oil quantity on NEO aircraft?
Set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw on the overhead maintenance panel to ON in order to display the oil quantity on the ENG SD page.
After the check of the engine oil quantity, set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw to OFF.
61. When is a full ADIRU alignment required?
Before the first flight of the day
when there is a crew change
prior to all international flights (including Alaska)
prior to flights in Class 2 airspace.
62. When is a fast ADIRU alignment required?
Any time the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position exceeds 5 NM.
63. During refueling, what might happen if the FUEL MODE SEL pb-sw is left in the MAN position on the ground and the CTR TK L XFR pb-sw and CTR TK R XFR pb-sw are not in the off position?
The center tank fuel transfer will not stop when the wing tanks become full and a fuel spillage may occur.
64. Just prior to pushback, if the NW STRG DISC is not displayed on the ECAM, but the ground crew confirms that the steering selector bypass pin is in the towing position, what must the flight crew do?
Make a logbook entry. Contact MCC through the responsible dispatcher.
65. If a heading is assigned by ATC prior to takeoff, what HDG should be preset on the FCU to disarm NAV mode?
Runway HDG
66. No turns in HDG mode will be commenced below ____ ft AFE (VMC) or ____ ft AFE (IMC); unless otherwise required by the departure procedure?
400 ft
1,000 ft
67. How could you quickly determine if you can take shortcuts off your filed route if you are dispatched via method 2?
Reference the "Terrain Analysis Common Aircraft Weights" on the back of the Normal Checklist.
68. What altitude should be set on the FCU for a “Visual Approach” utilizing a published procedure as backup reference?
The published missed approach altitude for the approach being used.
69. What altitude should be set on the FCU for a “Visual Approach” with no procedure backup as a reference?
1,500 feet AFE
70. Why is entering 0.3 on the PROG page of the MCDU for RNAV approaches required?
To ensure that the FMS stays in 0.3 for the missed approach rather than defaulting back to RNP 1.0.
71. Why is deselecting navaids in the MCDU for a RNAV RNP approach required?
In the event of GPS loss, IRS only navigation may be more accurate than DME/DME position updating in the short term.
72. Which of the following statements are TRUE if speedbrakes are used above 315 knots/M .75 with the AP engaged?
Rate of retraction of the speedbrakes are slow, the total time for retraction from full extension is approximately 25 seconds.
73. During the flare on landing, The PM will monitor the pitch attitude on the PFD and call "Pitch” whenever approaching/or reaching what pitch attitudes?
(Select ALL answers that apply)
A319 or 320: 10° pitch attitude
A321: 7.5° pitch attitude
74. When should the after landing checklist be called for?
After clearing the runway and the aircraft is safely established on a taxiway, but not before taxi/runway crossing restrictions are clearly understood by both crewmembers.
75. After landing, how long should we wait before starting the APU?
2 minutes after stowing the Thrust Reversers.
76. After taxi-in and during parking, you attempt to shut down an engine (you move the ENG MASTER 1 or 2 to OFF). However, the engine does not shut down. What should you do?
Switch the affected master lever ON, then OFF. If the engine still fails to shut down, press the affected ENG FIRE pushbutton.
77. After parking the aircraft, you notice a maintenance status message (Class 2 message). A logbook write-up is required for the class 2 message that disappeared.
True
78. Which of the following statements should be followed when performing the Securing Checklist?
(Select ALL answers that apply)
☑ After having switched off the ADIRS, wait at least 10 seconds before switching off the electrical supply to ensure that the ADIRS memorize the last data.
☑ Wait at least 5 minutes after BLOCK IN to accomplish the securing procedure to allow the FMGC/AOC to complete the DONE PHASE and enter the PREFLIGHT PHASE.
79. In flight prior to manipulation, both the Pilot Flying (PF) and Pilot Monitoring (PF) must confirm.
(Select ALL answers that apply)
☑ Engine master switches, IR selector, All guarded controls.
☑ Thrust Levers (During an ECAM or QRH procedure)
80. In most situations, list the basic sequence that should be followed by the flight crew during an abnormal/emergency situation.
However, this sequence may not cover all operational situations. Therefore, the flight crew should exercise their judgement and adapt the sequence of actions to the real conditions.
81. For an abnormal procedure during approach, perform the normal checklist first, then the ECAM/ABNORMAL procedure or checklist.
True or False?
False
82. For an abnormal procedure during takeoff, perform the AFTER TAKEOFF checklist first, then the ECAM/ABNORMAL procedure or checklist. (Not applicable to Engine Fire, Oil Lo Press, Eng. Overlimit, Engine Failure, and Engine Stall)
