Life and Health Insurance

  1. A disability income insurance policy was recently issued with a rating. What does this mean?

    a. Policyowner will be charged an additional premium 

    b. Policy will have specific illnesses excluded from coverage 

    c. Policyowner will be charged a reduced premium 

    d. Policy will have a longer waiting period
    Policyowner will be charged an additional premium
  2. Lamont has a point-of-service plan and is seeking to obtain health services outside the network. What will likely be the end result?

    a. Reduction in care given

    b. Higher out-of-pocket costs

    c. Increase in premiums

    d. Denial of specialized services
    Higher out-of-pocket costs
  3. What does the term "field underwriting" refer to in the health insurance industry?

    a. A producer's contact with the applicant 

    b. The interaction of an underwriter with the applicant 

    c. The medical reports issued by the MIB 

    d. An insurer conducting an investigative report
    A producer's contact with the applicant
  4. The disability income policy most likely to have been issued on a substandard basis is

    a. Non-cancelable with a 60-day elimination period 

    b. Conditionally renewable 

    c. Non-cancelable with a health condition exclusion rider 

    d. Guaranteed renewable with an inflation rider
    Non-cancelable with a health condition exclusion rider
  5. A health insurance applicant is notified that a physical examination is required. Which of the following statements is correct?

    a. Physical examinations are performed at the expense of the applicant 

    b. Physical examinations are performed at the expense of the insurer 

    c. All applicants for group health insurance require a physical examination 

    d. All applicants for health insurance do not require a physical examination
    Physical examinations are performed at the expense of the insurer
  6. Tim is in need of surgery. Before being hospitalized, he is referred to an outpatient clinic for diagnostic tests. What is this an example of?

    a. Pre-admission testing 

    b. Capitation 

    c. Mandatory second opinion 

    d. Concurrent review
    Pre-admission testing
  7. Which of the following best describes a point-of-service (POS) plan?

    a. A plan which combines medical health care with long-term care coverage 

    b. A plan which combines indemnity plan features with those of an HMO 

    c. A plan which does not allow treatment with non-network providers 

    d. A plan which operates like a PPO plan without a gatekeeper
    A plan which combines indemnity plan features with those of an HMO
  8. Which statement is true regarding hospital preadmission certification for emergency situations?

    a. Notification is not required for emergency situations 

    b. Insured cannot be admitted without preadmission certification 

    c. Notification is required to be given before insured is admitted to the hospital 

    d. Notification is required to be given after insured is admitted to the hospital
    Notification is required to be given after insured is admitted to the hospital
  9. Kyle is an insured who disregarded an accident and health insurance policy provision that requires him to seek a second surgical opinion. What will the end result be?

    a. He may be reimbursed for the surgical procedure at a reduced benefit level 

    b. He may be reimbursed for the surgical procedure at a higher benefit level 

    c. He will have to start paying higher premiums starting with the next billing cycle 

    d. He will be ineligible to receive any benefits for this procedure
    He may be reimbursed for the surgical procedure at a reduced benefit level
  10. Julie is an employee with a group health plan that contains the Mandatory Second Surgical Opinion provision. What is to be expected with this provision in place?

    a. Mandatory second surgical opinions are required when emergency surgery is needed 

    b. The second surgical opinion must always be accepted by the insured 

    c. Out-of-pocket expenses are higher when a second surgical opinion is obtained as opposed to having only one 

    d. Out-of-pocket expenses are lower when a second surgical opinion is obtained as opposed to having only one
    Out-of-pocket expenses are lower when a second surgical opinion is obtained as opposed to having only one
  11. Which of the following best describes the tax treatment of medical expense policies for the self-employed?

    a. 100% of medical expense plan premiums are tax deductible 

    b. 50% of medical expense plan premiums are tax deductible 

    c. 7.5% of medical expense plan premiums are tax deductible 

    d. 0% of medical expense plan premiums are tax deductible
    100% of medical expense plan premiums are tax deductible
  12. Which of these is NOT a factor during the health insurance underwriting process?

    a. Current residence 

    b. Physical condition 

    c. Occupation 

    d. Former residence
    Former residence
  13. Mary is the sole proprietor of her business and has a family health plan. She would like to deduct the premiums from her taxes. What percentage of her premiums are tax deductible?

    a. 0% 

    b. 50% 

    c. 75% 

    d. 100%
    100%
  14. When a health insurance policy includes a Mandatory Second Surgical Opinion provision, the insured must

    a. cover the cost of the second opinion 

    b. seek a second opinion for all surgeries 

    c. seek a second opinion for specified elective surgeries 

    d. seek a second opinion for emergency surgery
    seek a second opinion for specified elective surgeries
  15. Which of these noncontributory group plans would a claim likely result in the payment of federal income taxes?

     a. Accidental death 

    b. Blanket health 

    c. Major medical 

    d. Disability income
    Disability income
  16. The type of health insurance in which underwriting procedures are the most restrictive is

    a. Accidental 

    b. Individual 

    c. Group 

    d. Employer-paid
    Individual
  17. Which of these is a typical result of a concurrent review?

    a. The deductible amount is increased 

    b. The length of time spent in the hospital is monitored 

    c. The insured's premiums usually increase 

    d. The coinsurance is waived
    The length of time spent in the hospital is monitored
  18. Reductions in coverage are one feature of _______ in Health insurance policies.

    a. optional provisions 

    b. mandatory provisions 

    c. cost containment 

    d. the insuring clause
    cost containment
  19. Which of the following distinguishes field underwriting from home office underwriting?

    a. An agent has no contact with an applicant 

    b. An agent has personal contact with an applicant 

    c. An agent issues the policy for which the applicant applied

    d. There is no difference between field and home office underwriting
    An agent has personal contact with an applicant
  20. A health insurance underwriter will most likely view alcohol abuse as a(n)

    a. decreased exposure to risk 

    b. increased exposure to risk 

    c. condition which cannot be taken into account 

    d. condition which results in an automatic rejection for coverage
    increased exposure to risk
  21. Which of the following is NOT a basic underwriting action for accident and health insurance?

    a. Excluding a particular health condition from coverage 

    b. Removing uniform policy provisions 

    c. Declining applications 

    d. Issuing a policy at standard issue
    Removing uniform policy provisions
  22. What is normally the consequence for NOT obtaining preadmission certification prior to receiving inpatient medical care?

    a. A reduction in benefits 

    b. A delay in the payment of benefits 

    c. A cancellation of coverage 

    d. A taxation of benefits
    A reduction in benefits
  23. An applicant for accident and health insurance has a risk factor that is similar to a majority of the insurer's other applicants. What will be the likely outcome of this applicant?

    a. Issued with a below-standard premium rate

    b. Issued with a standard premium rate 

    c. Issued with an above-standard premium rate 

    d. Declined coverage
    Issued with a standard premium rate
  24. What does a Mandatory Second Surgical Opinion provision provide to an employer-paid health insurance plan?

    a. No pre-existing condition exclusions 

    b. Higher employee retention 

    c. Containment of the employer's premium cost 

    d. Increase in surgical procedures
    Containment of the employer's premium cost
  25. How is a community rating used for underwriting purposes?

    a. Each member of a large group is individually underwritten 

    b. Each individual and group plan in the same geographical area is individually underwritten 

    c. The same rates are charged for individual and group plans in the same risk category 

    d. The same rates are charged for individual and group plans in the same geographical area
    The same rates are charged for individual and group plans in the same geographical area
  26. Health care costs can be better controlled by utilizing preadmission testing. Preadmission testing can reduce the

    a. surgeon's fees 

    b. prescription drug charges 

    c. length of hospitalization 

    d. elimination period
    length of hospitalization
  27. In what situation would disability income insurance premiums be a deductible expense?

    a. Partnership paying for group disability income coverage for the partners 

    b. Corporation paying for group disability income coverage for its employees 

    c. Individual paying for his/her own individual disability policy 

    d. Parent paying for a child's individual disability policy
    Corporation paying for group disability income coverage for its employees
  28. Who must sign a rider attached to a health insurance policy in order for it to be valid?

    a. Producer only 

    b. Insured only 

    c. Insured and producer 

    d. Insurance company underwriter
    Insured and producer
  29. What is a Pap test designed to detect?

    a. Cervical cancer 

    b. Prostate cancer 

    c. Oral cancer 

    d. Breast cancer
    Cervical cancer
  30. Which of the following situations would a medical exam NOT be required for an individual health insurance applicant?

    a. Applicant was recently hospitalized 

    b. Applicant has not had a physical exam in a number of years 

    c. Applicant's family members have a history of cancer 

    d. Applicant has no prior health insurance
    Applicant's family members have a history of cancer
  31. Which of these plans allow a participant to choose either a network or non-network provider at the time when medical care is needed?

    a. HMO 

    b. Medicare Supplement 

    c. Point-of-service 

    d. Limited benefit
    Point-of-service
  32. Which of the following are used by most insurers when determining the premiums for large groups?

    a. Large number rating 

    b. Group rating 

    c. Area rating 

    d. Experience rating
    Experience rating
  33. Which of the following statements regarding hospital pre-admission authorization is NOT true?

    a. No delays for emergency treatment 

    b. It encourages weekend admission 

    c. Non-emergency situations require notification to the insurance company 

    d. Other types of treatment may be encouraged
    It encourages weekend admission
Author
weathermeat
ID
359320
Card Set
Life and Health Insurance
Description
17- Health Insurance Underwriting
Updated