A&VE - Comprehensive

  1. By what means is electric power measured?
    Wattmeter
  2. Which two main categories is the maintenance of electrical and electronic equipment divided into?
    Preventive and Corrective
  3. Transistors, however, are capable of operating in excess of how many hours at maximum rating without failure?
    30,000
  4. Which label has black letters on a white background that is placed over readily accessible (usually exterior) adjustments to prevent tampering by the user when such tampering could affect the calibration?
    Calibration-void if seal is broken
  5. What can be used to graphically display the back-and-forward resistance characteristics of a crystal diode?
    Oscilloscope
  6. Which system is used by all branches of the military to identify equipment by a system of standardized nomenclatures?
    JETDS
  7. Which IMA policies purpose is to streamline the procedure and cut down delays in returning your equipment to you calibrated and ready to use?
    No reject
  8. To prevent damage to electrical measuring instruments, you should observe the precautions relating to three hazards: mechanical shock, exposure to magnetic fields, and what else?
    Excessive current flow
  9. What are used as filters for the passage or rejection of specific frequencies?
    Tuned circuits
  10. Which calibrated resonant circuits are used to measure frequency?
    Wavemeters
  11. Which type of device sweeps over a band of frequencies to determine what frequencies are being produced by a specific circuit under test and the amplitude of each frequency component?
    Spectrum Analyzer
  12. Which type of meters operate from their own power sources?
    Self-excited
  13. Most DC instruments use meters based on some form of which type of meter movement?
    D’Arsonval
  14. Most meggers you will use are rated at how many volts?
    500
  15. External shunts are generally used where currents greater than how many amperes must be measured?
    50
  16. When an electrodynamometer is used as a voltmeter, no problems in construction are encountered because the current required is not more than what?
    0.1 amperes
  17. What are used to measure frequencies already in existence?
    Frequency counters
  18. When using the multimeter as a current-indicating instrument, never connect the test leads directly across a voltage. Always connect the instrument in what way with the load?
    Series
  19. Which condition exists when the insertion of a meter into a circuit changes the operation of that circuit?
    Meter-loading
  20. What is used to show the shape of a video pulse appearing at a selected equipment test point?
    Oscilloscope
  21. Which two instruments are most often used to check continuity, or to measure the resistance of a circuit or circuit component?
    Ohmmeter and Megger
  22. The differential voltmeter is a solid-state instrument that provides the capability of making dc voltage measurements from +/− 10 microvolts to +/− how many volts?
    1,100
  23. Resistance, capacitance, and inductance can be measured with precise accuracy by using what?
    Alternating-Current bridges
  24. Some logic probes have a feature that detects and displays high-speed transient pulses as small as how many nanoseconds wide?
    10
  25. Which measurement charts, usually found in equipment technical manuals, contain the normal operating voltages found in the various stages of the equipment?
    Point-to-point voltage
  26. Which capacitor property is important because it is an indication of the various losses of a capacitor?
    Power factor
  27. Which label has black letters and a red background and is attached to an instrument that fails to meet the acceptance criteria during calibration and cannot be adequately repaired?
    Rejected-Refer to attached tag
  28. Which year was the Electronic Test Equipment Classification Board established to control the increased use of undesirable electronic test equipment (ETE) in fleet and shore activities?
    1973
  29. Which type of work is done to correct, reduce, or counteract wear, failure, and damage to equipment?
    Maintenance
  30. Which type of bridge is used for precise measurement of resistance?
    Wheatstone
  31. What are the two types of bolometers?
    Barretter and Thermistor
  32. Which type of circuit offers a low impedance to currents of the particular frequency to which the circuit is tuned and a relatively high impedance to currents of all other frequencies?
    Series-tuned
  33. Which term refers to the initial operating conditions of the equipment on installation or after overhaul when it is operating according to design?
    Baseline
  34. Which command manages general purpose electronic test equipment?
    SPAWARSYSCOM
  35. What is the product of the potential in volts and the current in ampere?
    Watt
  36. A thermistor bridge circuit includes other thermistor elements, referred to as what?
    Compensating thermistors
  37. Which type of frequency meters are used to measure the frequency of the unknown signal by matching the unknown signal with a locally generated signal of the same frequency obtained from a calibrated, precision oscillator?
    Heterodyne
  38. What has the responsibility for evaluating requests to purchase nonstandard GPETE and for recommending its approval or disapproval to NAVSEA?
    NESEA
  39. Which two basic elements does the SCLSIS program have?
    Validation and Inventory updating
  40. Which type of instrument allows you to view rotating or reciprocating objects intermittently and produces the optical effect of a slowing down or stopping motion?
    Stroboscope
  41. Which type of instrument measures the rate at which a shaft is turning?
    Tachometer
  42. Which type of wavemeter is the type most commonly used?
    Cavity
  43. Who oversees the MEASURE program and establishes policy and guidelines?
    CNO
  44. Which type of loading device undergoes changes of resistance as changes in dissipated power occur?
    Bolometer
  45. The rotating frequency (speed in revolutions per minute) of armatures in electric motors and engine-driven generators, as well as the blade speed in turbines, is measured with devices called tachometers, stroboscopes, and what else?
    Strobotacs
  46. What can be used to measure capacitance, inductance, and resistance for precise accuracy?
    AC Bridges
  47. What are the two common types of portable tachometers?
    Centrifugal and Chronometric
  48. Which type of electronic flash device is the flash duration is very short (a few millionths of a second)?
    Strobotac
  49. What is commonly used for the analysis of waveforms generated by electronic equipment?
    Cathode-Ray Oscilloscope
  50. Which principle do most common meters (voltmeters, ammeters, and ohmmeters) operate on?
    Electromagnetic
  51. Power measurements for af circuits are usually indicated in terms of decibels (dB) or decibels referenced to what?
    1 milliwatt (dBm)
  52. Which type of meter is used to measure very low currents, such as those in bridge circuits?
    Galvanometer
  53. Which physically large, low-resistance conductor connected in parallel with meter terminals and is used to carry the majority of the load current?
    Shunt
  54. Which type of unit expresses the logarithmic ratio between the input and the output of any given component, circuit, or system?
    Bel
  55. What is the instrument called if the shunt is of such a value that the meter is calibrated in milliamperes?
    Milliammeter
  56. Which type of alloy are shunt strips usually made of?
    Manganin
  57. Which type of device is the simplest type of frequency meter?
    Vibrating-reed
  58. Which device compares an unknown voltage with a known internal reference voltage and to indicate the difference in their values?
    Differential voltmeter
  59. Deflection sensitivity for a given CRT might typically be how many millimeters per volt?
    0.2
  60. What indicates the potential difference between two points in a circuit?
    Voltmeter
  61. In addition to the necessary power supply, a typical rf signal generator contains three other main sections: an oscillator circuit, modulator, and what else?
    Output control circuit
  62. Which high-speed electronic counter has an accurate, crystal-controlled time base?
    Electronic frequency counter
  63. What is the angle the outgoing electron beam makes with the CRT center line axis between the plates called?
    Angle of deflection
  64. Tube failures account for over what percent of the failures in electron-tube equipments?
    90
  65. Transistors are easily damaged by high current; therefore, resistance measurements must not be taken with an ohmmeter that provides a maximum current output in excess of what?
    1 milliampere
  66. Which devices are used in signal generators to regulate the voltage of the output signal?
    Attenuators
  67. What can the multimeter function as to measure current flow?
    Ammeter
  68. What test equipment is used to sweep over a band of frequencies to determine what frequencies are being produced by a specific circuit under test, and then the amplitude of each frequency component?
    Spectrum analyzer
  69. When you are using ammeters, a primary rule of safety is that such current-measuring instruments must always be connected what way with a circuit?
    In-Series
  70. Which type of meter is widely used to measure resistance and to check the continuity of electrical circuits and devices?
    Ohmmeter
  71. What is widely used for measuring insulation resistance, such as that between a wire and the outer surface of its insulation, and the insulation resistance of cables and insulators?
    Megger
  72. Which condition is indicated by the simultaneous flashing of the display readouts on the electronic digital multimeter?
    Overload
  73. When voltmeters are used, a primary rule of safety is that such voltage-measuring instruments must always be connected in which way with a circuit?
    Parallel
  74. What is a calibrated scale (made of clear plastic) of amplitude versus time that is placed on the face of the CRT?
    Graticule
  75. The maximum current range of electrodynamic wattmeters is normally restricted to approximately how many amperes?
    20
  76. Which devices are required for the D’Arsonval-type meter movement to enable it to be used for measuring ac voltages and currents?
    Rectifying
  77. Which rugged, field-type tester was designed to test transistors and semiconductor diodes?
    AN/USM-206A
  78. How many impedance ranges can be selected on the Tracker 2000?
    4
  79. Which device is used to check for shorts?
    Ohmmeter
  80. Good-quality, portable wattmeters usually have an accuracy of 0.2 to what percent?
    0.25
  81. What are used to test and align all types of transmitters and receivers?
    Signal generators
  82. What is an integrated circuit-testing device?
    Logic probe
  83. If the standing wave ratio is greater than what, then the transmission line efficiency has decreased and troubleshooting is necessary?
    1.5 to 1
  84. Which section is considered to be the heart of the Tracker 2000?
    Signal
  85. What refers to the length of time the phosphor glows after the electron beam is removed?
    Persistence
  86. What produce signals that include the audio range and extend into the rf range?
    Video signal generators
  87. What allows you to view two independent signal sources as a dual display on a single CRT?
    Dual-trace operation
  88. What is used to examine the frequency spectrum of radar transmissions, local oscillators, test sets, and any other equipment operating within its testable frequency range?
    Spectrum analyzer
  89. HP 8640B signal generator covers the frequency range of 500 kilohertz to 512 megahertz, and can be extended to what by using adapters?
    1,024 MHz
  90. What produces a constant amplitude, low distortion sine wave test signal?
    Oscillator
  91. What assures proper impedance matching between the probe and oscilloscope?
    Impedance equalizer
  92. Which type of test equipment has the capability, without modification, to generate, modify, or measure a range of parameters of electronic functions required to test two or more equipments or systems of basically different design?
    GPETE
  93. What was specifically designed to generate, modify, or measure a range of parameters of electronic functions of a specific or peculiar nature required to test a single system or equipment?
    SPETE
  94. Which program was designed to keep track of all installed and portable equipment in the fleet?
    SCLSIS
  95. Which label has black lettering on a white background that comes in two sizes and is the most commonly used label in the METCAL program?
    Calibrated
  96. Which label has red lettering on a white background and is used when you must know the actual measurement values to use the instrument?
    Calibrated – Refer to report
  97. What is the checking, adjusting, or systematically aligning a test instrument to a known standard known as?
    Calibration
  98. You can convert any figure expressed in bels to decibels by multiplying that figure by what?
    10
  99. Which labels or tags are used when some unusual or special condition in the calibration should be drawn to your attention and have black letters on a yellow background?
    Special calibration
  100. Which label has black lettering and a white background and is affixed when the calibration is performed by the user?
    User calibration
  101. Which label has green lettering and a white background and is used in the event that an individual instrument due for recalibration will not be used for some time in the future?
    Inactive-calibrate before use
  102. Which data processing system was designed to provide a standardized system for the recall and scheduling of test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment (TMDE) into calibration facilities?
    Measure
  103. What cannot be used to negate the requirement for guards, roving patrols, or constant surveillance, unless used in conjunction with another access control or IDS technology?
    CCTV
  104. A CCTV system consists of how many basic units?
    3
  105. The CCTV picture-producing unit is commonly referred to as which type of unit?
    Receiver/monitor
  106. What is the heart of the CCTV system?
    Control unit
  107. What system is designed to assess, view areas, or detect an intrusion?
    CCTV
  108. What is a system designed to provide real-time programming of command events, news, and information that can directly impact the lives of Sailors and their families?
    SITE-CCTV
  109. The SITE 400 System alignment consists of the adjustment of the timing of the video sources to the Production Switcher, and the adjustment of which output levels of the system?
    RF
  110. What is the VHF TV Modulator, Output video modulation performance standard?
    87.5%
  111. What should the level of audio carrier be (+/- 1 dB) when performing the VHF TV Modulator, Output check?
    20 dB
  112. Which system is the integrated electronic system that encompasses the ACS, interior and exterior IDS, CCTV systems for assessment of alarm conditions, the DTM, alarm reporting systems for monitor, control, and display, and the policies, procedures, and response times that ensure that all elements of the ESS work effectively?
    ESS
  113. How many steps are involved with the RF Amplifier, Output Power Level Adjustment?
    4
  114. How many steps are involved with the VHF TV Modulator, Output check?
    9
  115. The SITE 400 System is made up of how many components?
    6
  116. CCTV cameras typically record objects and people in elevation. Vertical illuminance should average how many footcandles at 5 feet above the ground?
    0.2 to 0.5
  117. The SITE 400 System has the capability of simultaneously transmitting on seven VHF TV channels and how many FM radio channels?
    4
  118. The CCTV TV and radio signals are sent to the receivers via the Ship's RF Distribution System, which is also referred to as which Distribution System?
    Circuit 14TV
  119. Which type of system is the SITE 400 System?
    CCTV
  120. The SITE 400 receives satellite signals from which satellite system?
    AL-7204-DTS
  121. The AL-7204-DTS satellite system is capable of receiving either Direct Satellite System (DSS) signals in the Ku band or the TV-DTS signal in which band?
    C
  122. Which type of Integrated Receiver Decoders (IRD) is a Commercial model that is capable of receiving video, mono and stereo audio, and also provides a data connection to the computer system?
    IRD4
  123. Which ship's power source is present at the wire-plug mold strips and within the various equipment of the SITE 400 System?
    115 Vac
  124. Which series contains information on electrical shock?
    OPNAVINST 5100.19
  125. Press the SITE 400 Waveform Monitor/Vector Scope MAG (Magnification)/ H-V pushbuttons once for which type of magnification of displayed waveform?
    X10
  126. How many times should the SITE 400 Waveform Monitor/Vector Scope MEMORY pushbutton be pressed to recall front panel settings?
    4
  127. What determines which antenna has the best signal, with the least blockage, and applies that signal to the receivers?
    CCU
  128. At least how many personnel are required to move and replace the Uninterrupted Power Supply and the Triple Color Monitor units?
    2
  129. Which A/B/C input pushbutton is pressed on the SITE 400 Waveform Monitor/Vector Scope to select the production switcher PGM bus source?
    A
  130. Which A/B/C input pushbutton is pressed on the SITE 400 Waveform Monitor/Vector Scope to select the routing switcher TEST EQPT output source?
    B
  131. The audio tones for the test tape is obtained from which output of the Routing Switcher?
    TEST EQUP
  132. Which type of Electronic Security System (ESS) has a separate ACS and IDS system as well as a CCTV system communicating to a Dispatch Center through a DTM?
    Complex
  133. Which test tape is used to test and align VCR’s?
    Hi8
  134. Vehicle speed must be kept below how many mph to ensure adequate performance of CCTV Under Vehicle Search Systems (UVSS)?
    15
  135. Which Universal Video Analyzer generates the video to make the test tapes?
    VA62A
  136. How many probable causes are there if the SITE 400 system RF Modulators are not receiving selected media?
    1
  137. Do not replace equipment within the SITE 400 System racks with which switch turned on?
    Ship's Main Power
  138. How many items are listed by the Unique Unit Identifier (UUI) label?
    3
  139. Defense Media Center (DMC) is the main source of procurement for all radio and television audio-visual equipment. Which form should be used to submit requisitions?
    DD Form 1348
  140. What is the “Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss” form number?
    DD-200
  141. Hi8 VCR’s require cleaning and Degaussing after every how many hours of operation?
    500
  142. The transfer of media through the SITE 400 System is performed electronically with a Routing Switcher. The Routing Switcher routes the media on which basis?
    Point-to-point
  143. DSS Signals are only available when the ship is in range of the commercial satellites (approximately how many miles off the US coast), and with a subscription?
    50-100
  144. Which SITE 400 Waveform Monitor/Vector Scope control determines sharpness of trace image displayed on CRT?
    Focus
  145. Which SITE 400 Waveform Monitor/Vector Scope VFM (Waveform) position control controls horizontal display axis position (vertical line) of waveform display?
    V (outer ring)
  146. Which A/B/C input pushbutton is pressed on the SITE 400 Waveform Monitor/Vector Scope to select the Production Switcher Clean Feed output source?
    C
  147. How many steps are involved with making a Hi8 Test Tape?
    11
  148. NAVMEDIACEN ELST will send e-mail to the ship with reminders when defective equipment has not been received. These reminders will be e-mailed at 30, 60, and 90 days if the broken unit has not been received. If after these 3 reminders the equipment still has not been returned, your ship’s Captain will receive notification at how many days from the NAVMEDIACEN about the situation?
    120
  149. What should be completed for equipment that is designated as lost, stolen, or inadvertently sent to DRMO?
    Report of Survey
  150. Follow up for status on equipment from NAVMEDIACEN ELST if there has been no reply by which day?
    3rd
  151. How many steps are involved with cleaning the SITE 400 System?
    6
  152. Hi8 VCR’s require cleaning and lubrication after every how many hours of operation?
    1,000
  153. Which SITE 400 Waveform Monitor/Vector Scope VFM (Waveform) position control controls vertical display axis position (horizontal line) of waveform display?
    H (inner ring)
  154. How many types of controls/indicators are there on the SITE 400 Waveform Monitor/Vector Scope?
    18
  155. The use of test tapes will provide an aid in checking and aligning of the VCRs. How many test tapes should be made?
    2
  156. The major test equipment used to isolate a problem in the B/W and Color monitors is which Universal Video Analyzer?
    VA62A
  157. How many probable causes are there if the TVs connected to Ship's RF Distribution System do not receive TV programs from Ship's Antenna Feed or Ship's Cable Feed (depending on which is connected)?
    3
  158. Voltage measurements on the Unit Under Test (UUT) are made using which type of device?
    Digital Multimeter
  159. Request for Direct Exchanges (DX’s) shall be sent in list or which other format?
    MILSTRIP
  160. Which color is the Unique Unit Identifier (UUI) label placed in front of serial tracked equipment?
    White
  161. What should be contacted for technical assistance in case of a major system or equipment failure?
    FSD
  162. Which maintenance level is preferred for cleaning VCR tape heads?
    Depot
  163. How many types of controls/indicators are there on the SITE 400 B/W Monitors?
    5
  164. Which type of maintenance consists of cleaning the SITE 400 System equipment and performing schedule maintenance on specified items of the system?
    Periodic
  165. Hi8 VCR’s require head cleaning after how many hours of use?
    24-50
  166. How many probable causes are there if the TVs connected to Ship's RF Distribution System do not receive TV programs from selected channels of SITE 400 System?
    2
  167. What is the main source of procurement for all radio and television audio-visual equipment?
    DMC
Author
Coreyk58
ID
359010
Card Set
A&VE - Comprehensive
Description
Updated