C-21 MQF (151-210)

151. An emergency air bottle charged to the lower end of the green segment (1800 psi) will provide for landing gear extension using the alternate gear extension procedure and approximately ____ brake applications.


A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12

152. When landing with a flat tire,


A. If the nose tire is flat, hold the nose gear off the runway until elevator control is lost.

B. Should one main tire fail and there is suspected or reported damage to the aircraft, consider stopping straight ahead.

C. Make all turns with as small a radius as possible.

D. Both a and b.

153. If STEER LOCK is engaged, which of the following steps will disengage steering?


A. Depress and hold the control wheel master switch.

B. Depress and release the control wheel master switch.

C. Depress and hold the STEER LOCK switch.

D. Depress and release the STEER LOCK switch.

154. Which of the following statements are true regarding a rejected takeoff?


A. Single-engine reverse thrust should be used on dry surfaces only.

B. If rejected takeoff was made at a speed of less than 40 knots, one subsequent takeoff attempt may be made without any waiting period.

C. If rejected takeoff was made at a speed greater than 80 knots, and with the airplane at or above the maximum landing brake energy weight, maintenance action is required.

D. All of the above.

155. If hot brakes are confirmed or suspected,


A. Stop the aircraft away from congested areas.

B. Chock the main wheels.

C. Set the parking brake.

D. All of the above.

156. When executing an overspeed recovery, do not apply elevator force until the bank angle is reduced to less than _____ degrees.


A. 45
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120

157. You have lowered the landing gear as part of an overspeed recovery. Which of the following is/are true?


A. Major damage to the landing gear doors may be experienced when the gear is lowered at very high speed.

B. Do not retract the landing gear until a safe airspeed is attained.

C. After landing, a thorough inspection of the landing gear and doors for condition must be made.

D. All of the above.

158. If you must ditch the aircraft,


A. For calm seas, plan to land downwind.

B. For moderate swells, plan to land parallel to swells.

C. For high swells, plan to land into the wind, attempting to land on downwind side of the swell.

D. Have the passengers inflate life vests while inside the aircraft.

159. Regardless of which crewmember operates the fuel panel, the pilot monitoring (PM) is responsible for ensuring proper fuel system management.


A. True
B. False

160. What is the maximum overspeed limit for the engine fan (N1) or turbine (N2)?


A. 103%
B. 105%
C. 107%
D. 109%

161. Maximum continuous ITT limit is:


A. 760° C
B. 795° C
C. 832° C
D. 860° C

162. Select the correct operating limitations for the oxygen pressure:


A. Green arc: 1250-1500; Yellow arc: 0-500; Red line: 1750

B. Green arc: 1250-1500; Yellow arc: 0-250; Red line: 1750

C. Green arc: 1500-1800; Yellow arc: 0-300; Red line: 2000

D. Green arc: 1550-1850; Yellow arc: 0-300; Red line: 2000

163. Select the correct operating limitations for the hydraulic pressure:


A. Green arc: 1550-1850; Yellow arc: 0-300; Red line: 2000

B. Green arc: 1250-1550; Yellow arc: 0-500; Red line: 1750

C. Green arc: 1250-1500; Yellow arc: 0-500; Red line: 1750

D. Green arc: 1550-1850; Yellow arc: 0-500; Red line: 2000

164. Minimum speed with full reverse thrust is _____ knots.


A. 10
B. 45
C. 60
D. 80

165. The maximum reverse thrust power setting is ____. Application of maximum reverse thrust at ambient temperatures below ____ can cause Fan Speeds (N1) in excess of the limit.


A. 60% Turbine Speed (N2), 0° F
B. 65% Fan Speed (N1), 10° F
C. 70% Turbine Speed (N2), 32° F
D. 75% Fan Speed (N1), 20° F

166. Reverse thrust is time limited to ______ maximum for each deployment.


A. 10 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds

167. The maximum speeds for the flaps extended 8, 20 and 40 degrees are:


A. 200 KIAS; 180 KIAS; 160 KIAS
B. 260 KIAS; 200 KIAS; 185 KIAS
C. 200 KIAS; 185 KIAS; 150 KIAS
D. 200 KIAS; 200 KIAS; 150 KIAS

168. Turbulent air penetration speed is _____ KIAS or _____ MI, whichever is less.


A. 250; 0.73
B. 280; 0.74
C. 325; 0.77
D. 350; 0.81

169. Bank angles in a level coordinated turn are limited to _____ degrees (flaps up) and _____ degrees (flaps down).


A. 85; 70
B. 80; 70
C. 70; 60
D. 60; 45

170. When reconfiguring aircraft to or from the maximum cargo configuration with fuselage fuel on board, it is required that ____ pounds of ballast be placed on the crew seats to prevent airplane tip back.


A. 150
B. 175
C. 200
D. 250

171. When loading/unloading baggage compartment with fuselage fuel on board, under certain conditions it is possible for the aircraft to tip back. It is recommended that ____ pounds of ballast be placed on the crew seats.


A. 180
B. 200
C. 225
D. 250

172. When refueling the aircraft,


A. Lack of anti-icing additive may cause fuel filter icing and subsequent engine flame out.

B. Fuels having the required anti-icing additive blended at the refinery need no additional treatment.

C. Any approved or emergency fuel not containing the required anti-icing additive must have it blended during refueling.

D. All of the above.

173. A minimum of _____ pounds fuel in each wing tank is required for takeoff and intentional go-around.


A. 500
B. 600
C. 760
D. 925

174. The maximum tip tank fuel for forward transfer is _____ pounds in each tip tank.


A. 500
B. 600
C. 760
D. 925

175. The maximum tip tank fuel for landing is _____ pounds in each tip tank.


A. 500
B. 600
C. 760
D. 925

176. During flight with the autopilot engaged, wing fuel balance must be maintained within _____ pounds.


A. 100
B. 200
C. 400
D. 500

177. Maximum pressure altitude for takeoff and landing is:


A. 7,000 feet
B. 8,000 feet
C. 9,500 feet
D. 10,000 feet

178. When confronted with a contaminated runway:


A. Do not use Runway Condition Readings (RCR) in conjunction with Contaminated Runway Data.

B. Compute RCR first, then apply the Contaminated Runway Data.

C. Land firm and apply maximum reverse thrust and braking.

D. None of the above.

179. The maximum demonstrated crosswind velocity for the use of thrust reversers is _____ knots.


A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30

180. The engine synchronizer must be off for:


A. Takeoff and landing.

B. Takeoff, landing, and single-engine operations.

C. Takeoff, single-engine operations, and operation with a fuel computer inoperative.

D. Takeoff, landing, single-engine operation, and operation with a fuel computer inoperative.

181. The maximum ground speed for use of the nose wheel steering is _____ knots.


A. 80
B. 60
C. 45
D. 10

182. Ground speed for using the nose wheel steering shall be limited to 10 knots with any two of the following three ANTI-SKID GEN lights illuminated:


A. L and R outboard and L inboard
B. L and R inboard and R outboard
C. L and R outboard and R inboard
D. L outboard and L and R inboard

183. Passenger oxygen masks are intended:


A. For use during an emergency descent to an altitude not requiring supplemental oxygen.

B. To be a supplemental supply of oxygen for passengers at altitude after decompression.

C. To protect passengers from smoke inhalation.

D. None of the above.

184. System limitations for the autopilot/flight director:


A. The minimum altitude for use of the autopilot is 200 feet AGL.

B. Autopilot must be disengaged before switching static sources.

C. For autopilot coupled VOR/TACAN approaches, the flaps must be lowered to 8° or more.

D. All of the above.

185. Which trim system(s) require a preflight check before every flight?


A. Pitch
B. Pitch and yaw
C. Yaw and roll
D. Pitch, yaw, and roll

186. Both FMSs must be powered on and operational to fly RNAV (GPS) approaches with ___ minima.
Additionally, the FMS must be configured for synchronized operations.


A. LNAV
B. LNAV/VNAV
C. LPV
D. All RNAV Approaches

187. Which of the following statements concerning the yaw damper is true:

A. Both yaw dampers must be operational for flight and both must be engaged for all flight conditions except takeoff and trimming the rudder.

B. Both yaw dampers must be operational for flight with one engaged at all times while airborne, except during takeoff and while trimming rudder. For landing, one yaw damper must be ON except as permitted during flaps up or partial flap scenarios.

C. One must be operational for flight and ON during all flight conditions except takeoff, and trimming the rudder.

D. One yaw damper must be operational for flight and engaged during all flight conditions.

188. The autopilot may be coupled to the FMS in the NAV Mode when conducting an approach using only GPS1 and/or GPS2 with SAASM selected on.


A. True
B. False

189. According to the Minimum Equipment List (MEL), a one-time flight with an inoperative Engine Bleed Air Shutoff Valve may be made:


A. at or below 25,000 ft MSL

B. with an Instructor Pilot on board

C. while not operated in known or forecast icing conditions

D. both A and C

190. Whenever the flaps are extended beyond _____ °, trim response will be approximately twice as fast as when the flaps are in the clean (full up) position.


A. 3
B. 13
C. 20
D. 25

191. As aircraft speed decreases, flight controls become more effective. Single engine approaches may be flown slower than minimum approach speed to improve handling.


A. True
B. False

192. At altitudes above approximately _____ feet, the aircraft may stall without any indication from the stall warning system unless the flaps are _____.


A. 18,000; up
B. 18,000; down
C. 22,500; up
D. 22,500; down

193. Which of the following is/are true?


A. It is advisable to climb over areas of high altitude turbulence rather than fly around it.

B. If severe turbulence is penetrated with the autopilot on, use altitude hold with the soft mode engaged.

C. Flight into thunderstorm activity or known severe turbulence is not recommended and should be avoided if at all possible.

D. All of the above.

194. If flight path control becomes marginal at low altitudes, initiate the recommended windshear recovery technique without delay. The first two steps should be accomplished simultaneously. They are:


A. Aggressively apply necessary thrust (not less than go-around thrust) and adjust pitch toward an initial target attitude of 15 degrees.

B. Advance thrust levers as required (not to exceed go-around thrust) and check that flaps are set to 20 degrees.

C. Aggressively apply necessary thrust (not less than go-around thrust) and check that flaps are set to 20 degrees.

D. Advance thrust levers (not to exceed go-around thrust), and do not change configuration until terrain contact is no longer a factor.

195. When using anti-ice systems at high altitude, the cabin altitude may exceed ____ feet unless engine speed is increased to compensate for the additional bleed air extraction.


A. 5,000
B. 7,200
C. 8,000
D. 9,500

196. Which of the following are true regarding the use of type II or IV anti-icing fluid?


A. On the ground, stab/wing heat should only be turned ON just prior to setting takeoff power if type II or IV fluid is applied to the wing and/or horizontal stabilizer leading edges.

B. Do not apply type II or IV fluid to the radome.

C. Do not use type II or IV fluid in areas forward of the external windshield defog nozzles.

D. All of the above.

197. If the engines are running when spraying of de-icing fluid is in progress:


A. Cabin Air may be ON or OFF.
B. Cabin Air must be ON.
C. Cabin Air must be OFF.
D. De-icing is not permitted with the engines running.

198. If anti-ice systems are required for takeoff, the systems should be energized:


A. Prior to taking the runway.
B. Prior to setting takeoff power.
C. After an indication of airspeed.
D. Prior to entering the weather.

199. The minimum RCR for takeoff and landing is _____ or braking action ______.


A. 5; moderate
B. 5; poor
C. 6; moderate
D. 6; poor

200. Exceeding idle power with oil temperature below ___°C is not recommended. However, if ambient temperature prevents attainment of ___°C, idle power may be exceeded as required to further warm the oil to normal operating limits prior to take-off.


A. 0
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50

201. During engine starts in cold conditions,


A. If N1 does not rise with N2 or stops during the start attempt, abort start attempt.

B. ITT may rise rapidly and appear likely to exceed the start limit; continue the start.

C. Exceeding idle power with oil temperature below 30° C is not recommended.

D. Both a and c.

202. In hot weather and desert conditions, reflective objects on the glareshield may reflect sufficient heat to cause:


A. Glareshield deformation.
B. Avionic damage.
C. Aircraft fire.
D. Windshield distortion.

203. Hydroplaning reduces the effectiveness of _____ and consequently the ability of the pilot to cope with crosswinds.


A. Flight controls.
B. Thrust reversers.
C. Spoilers.
D. Nose wheel steering.

204. Net Climb Gradient is defined as the gross climb gradient reduced by ___% during the takeoff phase and ___% enroute.


A. 0.8, 1.1
B. 2.0, 1.0
C. 3.3, 1.1
D. 2.5, 1.0

205. Minimum Control Speed, Air is defined as the minimum flight speed at which the airplane is controllable when one engine becomes inoperable with __° of bank towards the operable engine with takeoff rated thrust:


A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 15

206. During takeoff, __ may decrease slightly from the initial static reading. Therefore, __ should be continuously monitored and adjusted until reaching 80 KIAS.


A. ITT
B. N1
C. N2
D. oil pressure

207. Contaminated runway takeoff performance data is based on:


A. No tailwind component.
B. Flaps - 8 degrees.
C. Anti-skid - OFF.
D. All of the above.

208. For second segment obstacle clearance climb, maintain _________ until reaching obstacle clearance altitude.


A. flaps at takeoff setting
B. takeoff power
C. V2
D. all of the above

209. Normal climb schedule is:


A. 250 KIAS or .70 MI whichever is less

B. 250 KIAS to .70 MI to 170 KIAS

C. 250 KIAS to .75 MI

D. 200 KIAS or .70 MI whichever is less

210. The landing distances on the LANDING DISTANCE chart require:


A. Reverse thrust.

B. Holding the nose wheel off the runway in the landing attitude until loss of elevator control.

C. Spoiler extension when airspeed decreases below 100 KIAS.

D. Pulling the control column as far aft as possible without lifting the nose wheel.