C-21 MQF (101-150)

101. If performing a go-around from a flaps 8° or flaps UP approach:


A. Perform a normal go-around, setting flaps to 20° as power is applied.

B. Do not change flap position.

C. Climb out at approach climb speed (approximately VREF +7).

D. Do not use more than 90% N1.

102. Which of the following is true regarding balked landings?


A. Increase airspeed to at least landing climb speed (VREF).

B. Ensure the aircraft is safely climbing away from the ground prior to resetting the flaps from DN to 20°.

C. Lateral stability will be improved with the yaw damper engaged.

D. All of the above.

103. After landing, idle the engine for ______ minutes prior to throttle cutoff.


A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5

104. If the crossflow valve is not closed prior to setting the battery switches to OFF:


A. The airplane may tip over.

B. The normally-closed valve will automatically close with loss of electrical power.

C. Fuel will flow to the fuselage tank.

D. Both a and c.

105. For normal fuselage fuel transfer to the wings:


A. The system will automatically cease transfer operations if a fuel imbalance is detected.

B. Do not energize fuselage fuel transfer when wing and tip tanks are full.

C. If the crossflow valve fails to open, the transfer pump will still transfer fuel to the wings.

D. All of the above.

106. For fuel crossflow (wing-to-wing fuel transfer):


A. Failure to monitor fuel during fuel crossflow can result in a gross imbalance.

B. One jet pump may be inoperative.

C. Engine starvation cannot occur during crossflow operations.

D. All of the above.

107. A pitot pressure malfunction will affect:


A. Airspeed and Mach indications.

B. Airspeed, Mach, and altitude indications.

C. Mach, altitude, and vertical speed indications.

D. Airspeed, Mach, and vertical speed indications.

108. A static pressure malfunction will affect:


A. Airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed indications.

B. Airspeed, Mach, and altitude indications.

C. Altitude, Mach, and vertical speed indications.

D. Airspeed, Mach, altitude, and vertical speed indications.

109. The overspeed warning horn will sound and stick puller will actuate if:


A. The pilot's airspeed indicator needle is above VMO/MMO "barber pole" pointer.

B. Either the pilot's or copilot's airspeed indicator needle is above VMO/MMO "barber pole" pointer.

C. The #1 air data computer senses airspeed above 300 KIAS above 8,000 feet.

D. Both b and c.

110. You don the crew oxygen masks for smoke or fumes in the aircraft,


A. Leave crew masks on until smoke and fumes are eliminated.

B. The mask regulators should initially be in the EMER position.

C. It may be necessary to select NORMAL on the mask regulator if the mask does not seal properly.

D. All of the above.

111. If pressurization loss is due to structural failure,


A. Limit speeds as much as possible in the descent.

B. Limit maneuvering loads as much as possible in the descent.

C. Descend as rapidly as possible.

D. Both a and b.

112. With both the left and right bleed air valves in the emergency pressurization mode which systems are still available?


A. Windshield and stabilizer-wing anti-ice.

B. Windshield and nacelle heat.

C. Nacelle heat and windshield/radome alcohol anti-ice.

D. Nacelle heat, stabilizer-wing and alcohol anti-ice.

113. Passenger oxygen masks will automatically fall from their storage compartments if the cabin altitude reaches __________ feet and the passenger mask knob is in AUTO and the passenger oxygen knob is in NORM.


A. 8,750 +/- 250
B. 9,500 +/- 250
C. 10,100 +/- 250
D. 14,000 +/- 750

114. If the DOOR light illuminates in flight:


A. Door failure may be indicated by loud noise, pressurization leak, or rumble emanating from door area.

B. Increasing the cabin altitude to 10,000 feet will reduce the differential pressure while avoiding actuation of the emergency pressurization system.

C. Approach the door with caution.

D. All of the above.

115. Failure of both 275-amp current limiters is indicated when:


A. Both AC voltmeters indicate 0 amps.

B. The DC voltmeter indicates 28 volts or greater.

C. The DC voltmeter indicates 0 volts.

D. The DC voltmeter indicates battery voltage (25 volts or less).

116. If a DC essential bus failure occurs, which systems may lose anti-ice protection?


A. Pitot-static probes and stall warning vanes.

B. Total temperature sensor.

C. Pitot-static probes, stall warning vanes, total temperature sensor, and windshield.

D. Pitot-static probes, stall warning vanes, and total temperature sensor.

117. The Start-Generator switch must be set to _____ for the respective Generator Reset Button to be effective.


A. START
B. OFF
C. GEN
D. The button is effective in any switch position.

118. Fully charged batteries should power the minimum electrical equipment for night flight for approximately _______.


A. 30 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 3 hours and 45 minutes

119. Which of the following statements is/are true?


A. Allow approximately one minute before resetting AC circuit breakers.

B. Magnetic-type circuit breakers do not require a cooling period.

C. DC circuit breakers can be reset immediately.

D. Both a and c.

120. When evacuating the aircraft,


A. Look out for emergency vehicles.

B. Assemble all persons safely away from the aircraft.

C. Assemble all persons safely away from access lanes used by emergency vehicles.

D. All of the above.

121. Which of the following statements are true for an engine failure during takeoff above V1 speed?


A. Directional control is improved if the nose wheel is kept on the runway until VR

B. After rotation, the pilot should initially accelerate to V2 + 20

C. When clear of obstacles, accelerate to V2+30 and retract flaps

D. Both A and C

122. Time to jettison fuel from tip tanks is approximately:


A. 40 minutes.
B. 30 minutes.
C. 12 minutes.
D. 5 minutes.

123. Which of the following statements is true regarding bird ingestion into an engine?


A. The Fire T-Handle should be pulled for any bird ingestion

B. If bird ingestion is suspected, land as soon as practical for inspection.

C. If suspected bird ingestion is accompanied by abnormal engine indications, operate the engine normally until failure

D. Serious engine damage will always be accompanied by abnormal indications on engine instruments

124. You have placed the throttle in CUTOFF as part of the Engine Failure/Shutdown In Flight checklist and the engine windmills.


A. The engine fuel and hydraulic pumps will no longer operate.

B. Prolonged operation without fluid available to the engine fuel and hydraulic pumps may cause damage.

C. The Fire T-Handle should not be pulled if a fuel or hydraulic leak is suspected.

D. Both B and C.

125. Which item should be placed to OFF position during actual single engine operations?


A. Air Conditioning switch
B. Recognition light
C. Cabin Air
D. All of the above.

126. Starter-assist airstarts may be used at any N2 below ______. Starter-assist airstarts must be used when stabilized N2 is below _____.


A. 55%; 10%
B. 25%; 15%
C. 45%; 15%
D. 50%; 10%

127. Do not attempt an airstart:


A. With an indication of N1 rotation.

B. Following an engine failure which was accompanied by indications of internal engine damage or fire.

C. With the fuel computer MAN or OFF below 20,000 feet.

D. All of the above.

128. No more than _____ consecutive starter-assist airstarts should be attempted to prevent severe battery drain and generator burnout.


A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

129. You are making a starter-assist airstart with the fuel computer MAN or OFF.


A. Fuel computer OFF airstarts are preferred over fuel computer MAN airstarts.

B. If the engine accelerates above 80% N1 with throttle in IDLE, abort start.

C. The starter will disengage at 45% N2.

D. If light off has not occurred within 10 seconds after throttle is placed in IDLE, activate SPR switch and release at 300°-400° ITT.

130. During single-engine go-arounds,


A. Disengage the yaw damper to help stabilize aircraft yawing and rolling motions.

B. Flight controls become more effective in countering yaw and roll as aircraft speed decreases to approach or landing airspeed.

C. Improper rudder input in conjunction with overly aggressive single-engine power application may cause loss of aircraft control.

D. All of the above.

131. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding single-engine go-arounds?


A. Improper rudder input in conjunction with overly aggressive single engine power application may cause loss of aircraft control

B. Do not disengage the yaw damper prior to stabilizing aircraft yawing and rolling motions

C. Under all conditions, the flaps must remain at 20 degrees until clear of obstacles and accelerated to VREF + 30

D. Depressing the GO-AROUND button in the left throttle handle will disengage the autopilot and select flight director go-around.

132. Pulling the Fire T-handle:


A. Stops the flow of fuel and hydraulic fluid to the engine and arms the engine fire extinguisher systems.

B. Shuts off bleed air from the engine and arms the engine fire extinguisher systems.

C. Stops the flow of fuel and hydraulic fluid to the engine and shuts off bleed air from the engine.

D. Stops the flow of fuel and hydraulic fluid to the engine, shuts off bleed air from the engine, and arms the engine fire extinguisher systems.

133. After placing the Fuel Computer switch to MAN on an overspeeding engine:


A. If the engine does not respond, place the affected engine's Fuel Computer Switch to OFF

B. Engine acceleration is much slower than with the fuel computer ON

C. If the engine responds, continue with the critical action checklist

D. Expect a 1000 PPH fuel flow increase

134. If oil temperature is normal and oil pressure is 36 to 38 psi or 46 to 48 psi


A. Monitor and continue operation

B. Investigate at earliest possible maintenance

C. Land as soon as conditions permit

D. Shutdown the engine

135. Use of the standby pump as the primary pump on an engine with an inoperative fuel computer will:


A. Lead to pneumatic icing.

B. Prevent fuel control pneumatic circuit icing by recirculating fuel within the fuel control.

C. Lead to a fuel imbalance.

D. Will decrease the fuel pressure available to the engine.

136. During a pitch axis malfunction,


A. Extending the spoilers will cause a significant nose-up pitching moment.

B. On any speed excursion beyond MMO, the elevator control must be abruptly pulsed to prevent encountering excessive aileron activity and airframe buffet.

C. The control wheel master switch deactivates the pusher and may compound the problem if the malfunction was encountered near stall.

D. All of the above.

137. Beyond MMO, a _____ g pullup may be sufficient to excite aileron activity and the g level must be limited to that required to maintain lateral control.


A. 2.5
B. 1.5
C. 1.0
D. 2

138. With the Mach Trim system inoperative; flight above ______ is permitted when the autopilot is engaged.


A. 0.81 MI
B. 0.77 MI
C. 0.74 MI
D. 0.73 MI

139. When conducting a check for structural damage (controllability check),


A. Control and configuration changes should be made gradually.

B. The speed must never be decreased to the point at which half flight control deflection is required to maintain aircraft control.

C. Due to the design of the flap system, split flap conditions are not possible.

D. All of the above.

140. If the LOW FUEL light illuminates in flight:


A. Ignore it if you are close to your destination.

B. The fuel level in either wing tank is approximately 400-500 pounds.

C. Accomplish the Low Fuel Light Illuminated Checklist.

D. Both B and C above.

141. A jet pump is inoperative. The engine-driven fuel pump will suction feed sufficient fuel to supply the engine at altitudes of _________ feet or below.


A. 15,000
B. 20,000
C. 25,000
D. 30,000

142. If the aircraft was loaded with additional fuselage fuel in excess of the Maximum Zero Wing and Tip Fuel Weight (______), this additional fuel must be transferred prior to reaching a total wing fuel quantity of _____. If unable to transfer this additional fuel, do not exceed ______.


A. 13,500 pounds; 2250 pounds; 325 KIAS

B. 14,000 pounds; 1200 pounds; 350 KIAS

C. 15,300 pounds; 2250 pounds; 300 KIAS

D. 18,300 pounds; 3250 pounds; 250 KIAS

143. You have opened the fuselage valve due to normal fuel transfer system failure. Approximately ____ pounds of fuselage fuel will be unusable.


A. 125
B. 162
C. 500
D. 600

144. If it is desired to jettison from one tip only:


A. Pull the FUEL JTSN circuit breaker on the side to be jettisoned prior to setting the fuel jettison switch ON.

B. Pull the FUEL JTSN circuit breaker on the side to be jettisoned after setting the fuel jettison switch ON.

C. Pull the opposite FUEL JTSN circuit breaker prior to setting the fuel jettison switch ON.

D. Pull the opposite FUEL JTSN circuit breaker after setting the fuel jettison switch ON.

145. You failed to obtain a locked DN indication after gear extension. Hydraulic pressure is in the green arc and you elect to recycle the gear.


A. Gear retraction and extension must be observed closely for abnormal operation.

B. If abnormalities are detected during recycling, do not continue to operate the gear with the normal system.

C. It is not recommended to recycle gear more than three times.

D. All of the above.

146. If a cocked nose gear is suspected or confirmed:


A. Do not recycle the gear if nose gear indicates unsafe.

B. Directional control is easily maintained during landing roll.

C. Do not use flight controls to maintain directional control.

D. All of the above.

147. After successfully performing an alternate gear extension due to a hydraulic system malfunction,


A. The landing gear may be retracted if hydraulic system pressure is restored.

B. All three red UNSAFE lights will be illuminated.

C. The emergency gear handle must be returned to the up position or air pressure for emergency braking will not be available in the event there is a leak in the air line.

D. The emergency gear handle will automatically return to the up position, confirming the gear are down and locked.

148. With anti-skid inoperative, _______ brake pressure may skid the tires and cause tire blow-out.


A. light.
B. modulating.
C. moderate.
D. heavy.

149. With anti-skid failure:


A. Apply heavy toe-brake pressures.

B. Cautiously apply modulating toe-brake pressures as necessary.

C. Use the emergency brake.

D. Do not use the brakes at all with the anti-skid failure.

150. When using emergency braking,


A. The Emergency Brake handle must be pushed down approximately 2 inches before braking action begins.

B. Large movements of the Emergency Brake handle will produce improved feel and reduce the probability of tire skid.

C. Anti-skid protection and nose wheel steering are not available.

D. All of the above.