C-21 MQF (51-100)

51. When performing a ground radio check, make certain that all personnel are clear of _____ antenna before transmitting.


A. HF
B. UHF
C. VHF
D. Transponder

52. After issuing a Resolution Advisory (RA), the TCAS system expects a ____ second crew reaction time to an initial RA, and may require an approximately +/- ____ G maneuver to satisfy the advisory.


A. 3, 1
B. 1, 2.5
C. 7, .5
D. 5, .25

53. Proximity intruder traffic is defined as traffic with a relative altitude within ________ feet and within _____ NM range; it is indicated by a solid _______ diamond and associated _______ alphanumerics.


A. +/- 1200; 6; white; white
B. +/- 1200; 6; blue; blue
C. +/- 1200; 6; yellow; yellow
D. +/- 850; 6; red; red

54. All RAs are inhibited below ____ feet descending or _____ feet ascending.


A. 900, 1100
B. 1100, 900
C. 900, 900
D. 1100, 1100

55. If an intruding airplane is climbing or descending at 500 FPM or greater a (an) ________ will appear.


A. Diamond
B. "+" or "-" symbol
C. Arrow
D. Airplane

56. Full-scale deviation with the FMS as the selected NAV source is:


A. +/- 2.0 nm; for Enroute operations

B. +/- 1.0 nm; for Terminal operations

C. +/- 0.3 nm; for Approach operations

D. All of the above

57. RAIM prediction for approaches is ______ required for SBAS FMS certified under TSO C-146C. This applies to both SBAS areas of coverage and non-SBAS areas of coverage.


A. always
B. NOT
C. sometimes
D. somewhat

58. GPS RAIM for non-SBAS coverage can be accomplished by the reception of ____ or more satellites. If only ___ satellites are available but the FMS has a scanning DME input and the DME position is within 0.15 NM of the GPS position, the FMS will accept this in lieu of a ____ satellite RAIM calculation.


A. five, 4, five
B. three, 2, three
C. four, 3, four
D. six, 5, six

59. When refueling the aircraft with one hose, ensure that no more than ________ imbalance from left to right side occurs.


A. 250 gallon
B. 250 pound
C. 125 gallon
D. 125 pound

60. During refueling operations, overflow of the fuselage tank caused by fuselage tank float switch malfunction is evident by fuel dripping from:


A. The wing vent air scoops and/or wheel well overboard drains.

B. The wing forward heat scuppers.

C. The wing aft scuppers.

D. The fuselage fuel vent drain valve.

61. When inspecting the engine inlet, you notice the fan is windmilling. In order to stop the windmilling you should:


A. Grab the fan blades.
B. Put your checklist into the inlet.
C. Press on the fan spinner.
D. Press on the turbine blades.

62. When checking the aileron during the exterior inspection:


A. Check for free motion and balance tab linkage condition.

B. Keep fingers away from in between aileron and balance tab.

C. Check brush seal condition.

D. All of the above.

63. Use of _____________ during ground operations is not recommended because the light intensity is sufficient to cause transient blindness if viewed directly.


A. White strobe lights
B. Navigation lights
C. Red strobe lights
D. Taxi lights

64. For normal operations, jet pump switches should always be in the ON position. However, if either or both switches are noted to be OFF, reset to ON during steady engine operation at ___ N1 or above.


A. 45%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%

65. The trim-in-motion audio clicker will not sound:


A. If the gear has been lowered.

B. During Mach trim or autopilot trim.

C. If the flaps are lowered beyond 3 degrees.

D. Both b and c.

66. For the stall warning system:


A. The action of the nudger verifies operation of the pitch torquer prior to pusher activation.

B. If the shaker is not accompanied by the nudger during the ground test, do not dispatch.

C. If the shaker is not accompanied by the nudger in flight, do not decelerate further.

D. All of the above.

67. The trim-in-motion audio clicker sounds approximately _____ second after initiating pitch trim with the flaps up.


A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 3/4
D. 1

68. On a battery start, ensure ammeter indicates ____ amps or less on ammeter before starting the second engine.


A. 100
B. 175
C. 200
D. 250

69. Illumination of the red CUR LIM light during start indicates ____ 275-amp current limiter(s) has failed. Replace the failed 275-amp current limiter(s) ________.


A. One; after completion of the flight.

B. Both; prior to takeoff.

C. One or both; after completion of the flight.

D. One or both; prior to takeoff.

70. N1 and N2 idle indications at sea level are:


A. 24%-34%; 48%-55%
B. 26%-32%; 55%-62%
C. 28%-32%; 58%-62%
D. 38%-46%; 62%-68%

71. You are checking the fuel control governors and place the fuel computer switch in MAN:


A. If the engine accelerates uncontrolled, set the fuel computer switch ON, allow the engine to stabilize, and continue the mission.

B. If N2 does not respond to throttle movements, set the fuel computer switch OFF then ON to reset the fuel control governor.

C. The FUEL CMPTR light will illuminate and the engine RPM may increase or decrease slightly.

D. All of the above.

72. Extended use of the landing lights on the ground could cause:


A. Heat damage to the lens.

B. Heat damage to the landing gear strut.

C. Spatial disorientation of the passengers and/or crew.

D. Heat damage to the tip tank.

73. Anti-Ice systems should be turned on prior to takeoff into visible moisture & OAT of _____ or below.


A. 50°F
B. 40°F
C. 32°F
D. 0°F

74. If icing conditions exist for takeoff:


A. Conduct a rolling engine run-up for confirmation of normal engine operation.

B. Then icing conditions probably also exist for taxi, and you should have the anti-ice systems energized for taxi.

C. Anti-ice systems should be turned ON prior to setting takeoff power.

D. B and C above.

75. For a takeoff in a strong crosswind or gusty conditions, it may be necessary to wait until _______ before setting the stall warning switches to STALL WARNING.


A. 80 KIAS
B. V1
C. the first indication of airspeed
D. Airborne

76. To preclude damage to the aircraft or the cable, do not takeoff over:


A. Raised approach end cable that is reported as slack or loose.

B. Any recessed arresting gear cable.

C. Any raised departure end cable.

D. Any Navy arresting gear cable.

77. During the takeoff run, N1 should be continuously monitored and adjusted until ____________.


A. 50 KIAS.
B. 60 KIAS.
C. 80 KIAS.
D. V1.

78. The T/R switches must be set to OFF prior to ___________.


A. 185 KIAS
B. 200 KIAS
C. V2 + 30 KIAS
D. 260 KIAS

79. For an obstacle climb, maintain takeoff power, adjust pitch to hold V2+20, retract gear normally and maintain this speed until clear of the obstacle or climb gradient restriction. If an engine fails


A. between V1 and V2, initial target airspeed is V2.

B. above V2, maintain airspeed at which engine was lost.

C. once clear of the obstacle or altitude restriction, reduce power to 795° C ITT, lower the nose, retract flaps at V2+30, and climb normally.

D. All of the above

80. Obstacle Takeoff and Climb Procedure should be used when


A. departing a runway where there is an Obstacle Departure Procedure published for the departing runway.

B. net climb gradient required is within 1% of the net climb capability.

C. when a Special Departure Procedure (SDP) for the runway is planned as the emergency return.

D. All of the above.

81. For a noise abatement climb, follow normal takeoff procedures through rotation and liftoff. During landing gear retraction, reduce thrust setting to approximately 795° C ITT and __________.

A. Maintain V2 + 20 until 1500 feet AGL, accelerate to V2 + 30 KIAS, retract the flaps and climb normally.

B. Maintain V2 + 10 until 1500 feet AGL, accelerate to V2 + 30 KIAS, retract the flaps and climb normally.

C. Maintain V2 + 20 until 1500 feet AGL, accelerate to V2 + 30 KIAS, retract the flaps and climb at V2 + 30 until 3000 feet AGL, then resume climb thrust and accelerate to normal climb schedule.

D. Maintain V2 + 10 until 1500 feet AGL, accelerate to V2 + 30 KIAS, retract the flaps and climb at V2 + 30 until 3000 feet AGL, then resume climb thrust and accelerate to normal climb schedule.

82. When fuel quantity gage indicates _____ pounds or less remaining in either wing tank, prolonged nose up attitude of _____ or more may cause fuel starvation and engine flameout.


A. 400-500; 9°
B. 600; 10°
C. 500-600; 15°
D. 700; 9°

83. Small accumulations of ice on the wing leading edge:


A. Are indicated by illumination of the WING ICE light.

B. Do not affect the reliability of AOA indicator information.

C. Can cause aerodynamic stall prior to activation of the stick shaker and/or pusher.

D. Both b and c.

84. Anti-ice systems should be turned on prior to flight into visible moisture with:


A. Static air temperature less than 0° C.

B. Static air temperature between 10° C and -35° C.

C. Ram air temperature less than 0° C.

D. Ram air temperature between 10° C and -35° C.

85. For normal climb power management, when passing 15,000 feet MSL, set N1 IAW the Maximum Continuous Power - N1 setting. With the engine sync on, note the master engine (_____) ITT and maintain the master engine ITT to the desired altitude, allowing the slave engine (_____) ITT to vary, but neither to exceed ____.


A. left; right; 832° C
B. right; left; 795° C
C. left; right; 795° C
D. right; left; 832° C

86. The minimum maneuvering speeds listed in the flight manual are applicable for banks angles up to ______. For bank angles between ______ increase these airspeeds _________.


A. 10°; 10-30°, 10 KIAS
B. 15°; 15-30°, 10 KIAS
C. 20°; 20-30°, 10 KIAS
D. 30°; 30-45°, 10 KIAS

87. Use a minimum speed of _____ for all maneuvering (bank angles up to 15 degrees) on an instrument approach before extending the gear and flaps.


A. VREF + 40 KIAS
B. VREF + 30 KIAS
C. VREF + 20 KIAS
D. VREF + 10 KIAS

88. Use a minimum speed of ____ for all maneuvering (bank angles up to 15 degrees) with the gear down and the flaps at 20 degrees.


A. VREF
B. VREF + 10 KIAS
C. VREF + 20 KIAS
D. VREF + 30 KIAS

89. If wind conditions encountered while maneuvering for approach and landing contain a gust condition:


A. Add one-half the gust factor to the computed VREF (not to exceed 10 knots).

B. Add the gust factor to the computed VREF (not to exceed 10 knots).

C. Add 150% of the gust factor to the computed VREF (not to exceed reference ground speed).

D. Fly the computed VREF.

90. For circling approaches,


A. Full flaps may be selected prior to beginning the visual maneuver.

B. Use Category D minimums if the maneuvering airspeed exceeds 165 KIAS.

C. Plan so as not to exceed 30° bank during maneuvering.

D. All of the above.

91. Landings at gross weights above _______ pounds are considered an overweight landing and will be entered in the AFTO Form 781 and a Hard or Overweight Landing Inspection will be performed ____________. These actions are required even though the sink rate at touchdown was ____ or less.


A. 15,300; prior to further flight; 360 FPM

B. 18,300; upon return to home station; 600 FPM

C. 18,500; prior to further flight; 360 FPM

D. 15,300; upon return to home station; 600 FPM

92. When making a crosswind landing,


A. Allow the airplane to float with the power off.

B. Fly to touchdown with very little, if any, flare.

C. Upon contacting the runway, delay deploying spoilers.

D. All of the above.

93. If, upon touchdown, one or more ANTI-SKID GEN lights come on,


A. All anti-skid protection is lost.

B. Turn the cooling system on.

C. Anti-skid protection for the associated wheel is inoperative.

D. Use of the emergency braking system will restore anti-skid operation to the associated wheel.

94. During landing with anti-skid operative, do not turn ____________. Initial voltage _____ may cause false signals in the anti-skid system and dump brake pressure for 2 to 3 seconds.


A. RADAR off; spike
B. Cooling system off; spike
C. Landing lights off; spike
D. Cooling system on; drop

95. Single-engine reverse thrust ___________________________.


A. should be used on dry surfaces only.

B. must be used when landing on icy runways.

C. should be used when RCR is less than 9.

D. must be used when landing distance is within 2000 feet of runway available.

96. For thrust reverser operation:


A. Ingestion of moisture can cause rapid increase in N1.

B. Application of maximum reverse thrust above 20 °F can cause N1 in excess of the limit.

C. Single-engine reverse thrust should not be used on other than wet surfaces.

D. All of the above.

97. When performing a touch-and-go landing,


A. Deploy the spoilers until flaps and trim are reset.

B. Do not deploy the thrust reversers.

C. Use nosewheel steering for directional control.

D. All of the above.

98. If there's a possibility of hydroplaning on surface water, slow the airplane to below approximately _____ knots before using wheel brakes.


A. 100
B. 110
C. 120
D. 90

99. For go-around conditions with low fuel, on first steady indication by the LOW FUEL light,


A. Turn both standby pumps on.

B. Increase pitch attitude to maximize fuel to the engines.

C. Reduce climb attitude and thrust to a minimum required.

D. Turn the jet pump switches off to prevent introduction of air into the fuel lines.

100. Approach climb speed is approximately


A. VREF
B. VREF + 5 KIAS
C. VREF + 7 KIAS
D. VREF + 10 KIAS