C-21 MQF (1-50)

1. _______ serves as the mission execution authority for local training missions.


A. Aircraft Commander
B. Squadron Commander
C. Operations Group Commander
D. Wing Commander

2. C-21 has an augmented crew complement.


A. True
B. False

3. To occupy a pilot's seat with passengers, pilots must have ____________ for the C-21 aircraft.


A. a current AF Form 8
B. completed SIM training
C. an LJ type rating
D. mission ready status

4. In addition to AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 and AMC Supplemental guidance, all crewmembers will have shoulder harnesses (in addition to seat belts) fastened during ______________.


A. taxi
B. takeoff
C. landing
D. all of the above

5. Minimum taxiway width for the C-21 is:


A. 25 feet
B. 30 feet
C. 35 feet
D. 40 feet

6. Airfields will be considered below minimums for takeoff and landing when winds (including gusts) exceed which of the following below:


A. Maximum operating wind

B. Maximum tailwind component

C. Maximum takeoff and landing crosswind component, corrected for RCR

D. All of the above.

7. The maximum operating wind component for takeoff and landing (including gusts) is _____ knots. The maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing (including gusts) is _____ knots.


A. 45 / 10
B. 50 / 10
C. 45 / 15
D. 50 / 15

8. The maximum takeoff and landing crosswind component for any RCR reported 12 or above is _____ knots.


A. 20
B. 22
C. 23
D. 25

9. Minimum runway length for the C-21 is:


A. 5,000 feet or 6,000 feet for touch-and-go's

B. 4,500 feet if operationally necessary provided a qualified IP or EP makes the takeoff or landing during daylight hours.

C. Not less than the computed takeoff or landing distance, adjusted for RCR.

D. All of the above.

10. Minimum runway width for the C-21 is _____ feet.


A. 40
B. 50
C. 70
D. There is no minimum runway width published for the C-21.

11. The only publication required to be carried in paper format by both pilots is the ___________.


A. Pilot's Abbreviated Flight Crew Checklist

B. Flight Manual

C. C-21 Operations procedures

D. Pilot's Fanfold Aircrew Flight Crew Checklist

12. On overwater flights, carry a life raft when the planned cruising altitude exceeds glide distance to _________ using a ratio of approximately 2 miles per 1000 ft (12:1 glide ratio).


A. the nearest runway
B. land
C. any paved road
D. the interstate

13. If approach speed exceeds _______ KIAS, minimums for Category ("D" or "E") will be used. Otherwise, the C-21 is a Category "C" aircraft.


A. 165
B. 140
C. 120
D. 90

14. In RVSM airspace, continuously crosscheck the primary altimeters to ensure they agree _________


A. +/- 75 ft.
B. +/- 150 ft.
C. +/- 200 ft.
D. +/- 250 ft.

15. C-21 aircraft are authorized to transport all Class/Divisions of explosives.


A. True
B. False

16. For the C-21, minimum fuel is ____ pounds and emergency fuel is ____ pounds.


A. 800, 600
B. 600, 400
C. 1000, 800
D. Minimum and emergency fuel numbers are not defined for the C-21.

17. For the C-21, minimum fuel required over destination or alternate is fuel for holding plus approach and landing or ____ pounds, whichever is greater.


A. 600
B. 400
C. 800
D. 1000

18. Before opening the entrance door, ensure the cabin is partially depressurized.


A. True
B. False

19. Maximum operating altitude for the Emergency Escape Breathing Device (EEBD) is ______ feet.


A. 45,000
B. 40,000
C. 25,000
D. 10,000

20. During preflight check of the EEBDs, the color of the litmus paper should be:


A. Blue.
B. Red.
C. Pink.
D. White.

21. Improper hand placement when retarding throttles to idle can result in:


A. Injury due to fingers being caught between finger lifts and throttle quadrant.

B. Finger lift actuation and inadvertent engine shutdown.

C. Inadvertent deployment of thrust reversers.

D. Inadvertent deployment of the spoilers.

22. With FAN sync selected for descent:


A. Left engine N1 oscillation may occur under certain thrust conditions.

B. Left engine N2 oscillation may occur under certain thrust conditions.

C. Right engine N1 oscillation may occur under certain thrust conditions.

D. Right engine N2 oscillation may occur under certain thrust conditions.

23. A flashing DEPLOY light without a steady ARM light indicates:


A. One latch position switch has detected an unlatched condition.

B. Automatic emergency stow has been activated.

C. Warning circuit logic will not allow this indication to occur.

D. The associated thrust reverser is fully deployed following a normal deploy sequence.

24. If fuel contamination is suspected, check the fuel drain valves _______ minutes after refueling operations.


A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30

25. To crossflow fuel from the left wing tank to the right wing tank:


A. CROSSFLOW switch - LH.

B. CROSSFLOW switch - RH.

C. CROSSFLOW switch - OPEN; left STANDBY PUMP- ON; right STANDBY PUMP - OFF.

D. CROSSFLOW switch - OPEN; left STANDBY PUMP - OFF; right STANDBY PUMP - ON.

26. Nose wheel centering depends on proper strut extension. If the nose gear strut does not meet the specified limits, _____________________.


A. the aircraft may dispatch with at least 1.1 inch strut extension

B. it must be serviced by maintenance in accordance with the strut service procedures.

C. dry argon gas may be applied via an approved service cart.

D. nose tire pressure may be increased 25 psi to compensate.

27. Failure to ensure the parking brake handle is in and parking brake light is out prior to aircraft movement may cause:


A. Possible nose wheel steering malfunction.

B. Possible hydraulic system malfunction.

C. Possible anti-skid system malfunction

D. Possible wheel brake failure.

28. Depressing and holding the GEN RESET button longer than __________ may cause damage to the electrical system.


A. 1/2 second
B. 1 second
C. a few seconds
D. momentarily

29. Select the correct statement(s):


A. Resetting a MAIN BUS circuit breaker is not recommended.

B. Resetting a MAIN BUS circuit breaker should be the first action taken with a main DC bus failure.

C. Resetting a MAIN BUS circuit breaker increases the potential of electrical fire.

D. Both A and C above.

30. Ensure external power unit is regulated to _____ and limited to ______ amps minimum, _______ amps maximum. An MD-3A or MD-3B power unit may be used if the current limit is set at the minimum value of ________ amps before applying power.


A. 28 VDC; 400, 1000, 1250
B. 28 VDC; 500, 1100, 1200
C. 30 VDC; 400, 1000, 1250
D. 30 VDC; 500, 1100, 1200

31. To prevent severe battery drain, do not operate the AEROMED electrical system without:


A. At least one generator on-line.
B. Both inverters on-line.
C. An operating GPU connected.
D. Either a or c.

32. The spoilers are used to provide aileron control augmentation in the following airplane configuration:


A. Spoiler switch-EXT or RET; flaps below 25 degrees

B. Spoiler switch-EXT; flaps below 25 degrees

C. Spoiler switch-RET; flaps below 8 degrees

D. Spoiler switch-RET; flaps below 25 degrees

33. The red L or R STALL warning lights will illuminate steady whenever:


A. The pusher has actuated.

B. There is a computer power loss or internal malfunction.

C. The STALL WARNING switches are OFF and the BAT switches are ON.

D. All of the above.

34. The flaps must be lowered to 8 deg or more prior to intercepting the VOR radial inbound to the final approach fix.


A. True
B. False

35. On the Primary Flight Display (PFD), care must be taken to avoid confusing the digital pitch indication with the _________ since they are in close proximity below the aircraft symbol.


A. Radio Altitude indication
B. Selected Altitude Target
C. Airspeed Indicator
D. Heading Selection

36. Use caution when changing altimeter setting with autopilot engaged. Fast or abrupt movement of the altimeter baro set knob can cause:


A. The autopilot to disengage.
B. Damage to the knob assembly.
C. Rapid pitch changes.
D. All of the above.

37. ESIS Navigation data is removed when the menu is active, when aligning attitude, or if aircraft pitch has met or exceeded_________, or roll has met or exceeded +/- 65°.


A. +20° or -20°
B. +30° or -20°
C. +30° or -30°
D. +40° or -30°

38. If pilot's accidentally set different RA/DAs on the PFDs, the overhead "Minimums" call will voice the lower of the two selected.


A. True
B. False

39. With the gear or flaps not in the landing configuration, Mode 3 provides alerts for significant altitude loss after takeoff or a low altitude go-around up to an altitude of:


A. 245' AGL
B. 1000' AGL
C. 1500' AGL
D. As long as the radio altimeter is on.

40. "Too low gear" is annunciated if your gear is not down and the aircraft altitude & airspeed are below:


A. 1000' AGL, 250 KIAS
B. 750' AGL, 150 KIAS
C. 500' AGL, 190 KIAS
D. 245' AGL, 135 KIAS

41. "Too low flaps" is annunciated if your flaps are not down, flap override is not depressed, and the aircraft altitude & airspeed are below:


A. 1000' AGL, 250 KIAS
B. 50' AGL, 130 KIAS
C. 500' AGL, 190 KIAS
D. 245' AGL, 159 KIAS

42. Windshear alert mode is active under which of the following conditions:


A. During takeoff - from rotation until an altitude of 1500' AGL

B. During approach - from an altitude of 1500' AGL down to 10' AGL

C. During missed approach - until an altitude of 1500' AGL is reached

D. All the above

43. To prevent damage to the engine inlet sensor-heating element, nacelle heat operation should be limited to _______ if the engine is not running.


A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 1 minute

44. On the WING TEMP and STAB TEMP indicators, when the pointer is in the red segment,


A. The wing or stab structure is approaching a "too hot" condition and the STAB WING HEAT switch should be placed OFF if the anti-ice system is on.

B. The wing or stab structure is below 35° F (1.7° C) and indicates a system malfunction if the STAB WING HEAT switch is ON.

C. Presence of ice on the wing or stab leading edge has been detected

D. Both b and/or c above.

45. The ALC AI light will illuminate when:


A. there is 0.5 Gallons remaining in the reservoir

B. the reservoir is low

C. the switch is off

D. None of the above

46. Prior to overwater flights, plan flights so that enough oxygen will be available for ________ in the event of pressurization failure.


A. The crew
B. The passengers
C. All occupants
D. All occupants plus a 10% or 20-minute reserve

47. The amber CAB ALT light on the glare shield annunciator panel will illuminate should the cabin altitude exceed _____ feet


A. 8,750 +/- 250
B. 9,500 +/- 250
C. 10,100 +/- 250
D. 14,000 +/- 750

48. With the aircraft sitting statically on the ground, do not perform extended engine operation above _____ with the cabin air switch _____.


A. IDLE; OFF
B. IDLE; ON
C. 60%; ON
D. 80%; ON

49. After start, do not turn on the air conditioner or auxiliary heater unless, with both engines operating, each ammeter reads below ______ amps or, with one engine operating, the ammeter reads below _____ amps.


A. 250; 150
B. 150; 250
C. 320; 150
D. 400; 320

50. Should the Radio Control Unit (RCU) become disabled, the Flight Management System (FMS) may continue to tune COM/NAV frequencies including the ADF.


A. True
B. False