EC135 Tech

  1. What are the material used in the fuselage?
    • 1. Aluminium
    • 2. Composite materials
    • 3. Titanium
    • 4. Acrylic plastic
  2. What are the 3 x main fuselage sections?
    • 1. Cabin
    • 2. Main fuselage
    • 3. Rear structure
  3. Primary function of centre (or control) post?
    House vertical pushrods
  4. In forward flight, the horizontal stab creates a downforce which will pitch the nose…..
    Up
  5. Cabin roof structure is a
    No step zone
  6. The body structure, which Carrie’s flight and landing gear loads is made of what?
    Aluminium alloy
  7. What do the horizontal stab end plates, vert stab and tail bumper do?
    Provide lift IOT counter torque effect produced from the main rotor system
  8. Cargo doors can only be operated from
    Outside of the acft
  9. Cockpit doors can only be place in the spoiler position when?
    On the ground
  10. What does seating cockpit doors to spoiler position allow?
    Increase fwd airspeed with main cabin doors open
  11. According to the FM, when can cockpit doors be jettison?
    After touchdown
  12. All 6 doors are made from
    Composite material
  13. In an emergency, the entire main cabin sliding door can be jettison? true/false?
    False
  14. The gas springs in the cockpit and cargo are used to hold the doors
    Open
  15. Main cabin doors can only be locked in the closed position?
    False?
  16. Maintenance steps must be…?
    Closed IOT prevent damage to the sliding door whilst being opened
  17. 3 x hand operated access panels on each side of the fairing assembly are?
    • Transmission oiler cooler
    • Forward engine
    • Aft engine
  18. What colour will an engine cowling that’s latch left open display?
    Red
  19. The fuel filler neck access door must be opened with a
    Key
  20. Open the external power receptacle with your? It also contains what?
    Hand and contains and ICS port
  21. The landing gear provides mounts for what 3 items?
    • Wire deflectors
    • EMERG float system floats
    • Ground handling wheels
  22. The landing skids are structurally attached to the aluminium cross tubes via
    Shoes with clamping rings
  23. IOT provide additional ground clearance height the acft is fitted with the…?
    Intermediate height landing gear
  24. Skid plates are installed on the landing gear IOT provide a ….?
    Sacrificial wear surface or the landing gear
  25. Ground straps electrically connect the fuselage to the cross tubes and the cross tubes to the…?
    Skids
  26. The purpose of the wire strike protection system (WSPS) is to?
    Provide a measure of protection against collision with horizontally strung wires and cable
  27. Cockpit seats have how many points?
    5
  28. Cabin seats have how many points?
    4
  29. Cabin seats can/can not be adjusted fore/aft and vertically by the crew?
    Can not
  30. Cockpit seats have a _____ shoulder harness inertia reel unlike the cabin.
    Lockable
  31. What are the characteristics of the cockpit seats?
    • 5 point restraint harness
    • Should belts with lockable inertia reel
    • Adjustable lumbar support
  32. What are the characteristics of the off the Martin baker main cabin seats
    • 4 point restraints
    • Rotatable 360 degrees
    • Shoulder belts with lockable inertia reel
  33. Stowage under the seats in the acft is
    Prohibited
  34. Max floor loading is_____kg/m2
    600
  35. What is a common characteristic of the cabin and cockpit seats?
    Crash attenuating
  36. Acft docs must be stored in the_____
    Right door pocket as it taken into account for acft weight and balance
  37. Each tie down is rated to____?
    100kg
  38. What are the three instrument panel sections
    Left, right, centre
  39. Venting lines allow equalisation of_____
    Pressure across the tanks
  40. Thermal expansion of fuel will cause the excess fuel to flow into the
    Expansion tank which can hold 14L
  41. The RH supply tank is how many kgs smaller than the LH?
    4.5kgs
  42. Total fuel in all fuel tanks?
    • Main tank - 474.5
    • LH supply - 49
    • RH supply - 44.5
    • TOTAL - 568
    • Unusable - 7.6
  43. Which supply tank has the foam core and why
    RH to allow it to run out 1 min earlier from fuel starvation
  44. State the crashworthy adaptions of the EC135 fuel system
    • Flexible, impact resistant fuel tanks
    • Flexible hoses for supply and ventilation
    • Suction type fuel feed to the engines
    • Fuel supply shut-off in the case of the engine fire
    • Fuselage structure supporting the tanks
  45. Fuel is provided from the main tank to the two suppl tanks through the use of?
    Transfer pumps
  46. Fuel is supplied under pressure from the supply tanks to the engines during start by the?
    prime pumps
  47. The F PUMP AFT/FWD caution light will appear if the pumped has not pumped any fuel for…?
    3 minutes
  48. Another way to shut off fuel to the engines besides the SIF is to
    Depress the EMERG OFF switch (FIRE) buttons on the warning panel
  49. Once and engine has started the prime pumps will…?
    Do nothing to the engine as the engine will draw the fuel up from the tank on its own
  50. How much fuel remains when the “FUEL” caution on the CAD appears?
    36kgs in system 1 or 32kgs in system 2
  51. How much fuel if LOW FUEL Warning light comes on?
    32 in system 1 or 28 in system 2
  52. How much flight time in LOW FUEL warning light comes on?
    10 mins
  53. How long will the transfer pump ‘run dry’ for before indicating on the CAD
    3 min
  54. If both transfer pumps fail, the only fuel you would have access to would be in the ___ tanks
    Supply
  55. If the CAD lane fails, would you have any remaining indication of fuel quantity
    Yes, the “low fuel 1 // 2” warning and chime still works 32/28kg
  56. If the CAD displays 300kg of fuel but the LOW FUEL warning is on, which is assumed correct?
    LOW FUEL warning has priority always
  57. What 2 indications are available in the cockpit as a warning for the detecting system?
    Visual on warning label and audio (bell)
  58. How many fire detectors are on each engine?
    2
  59. What is the main purpose of the engine fire wall
    Prevent fire from spreading
  60. How many fire bottle(s) are there?
    1
  61. Where are each engines fire detections elements located under?
    • Starter generator
    • Combustion chamber
  62. Pressing the FIRE button will release the fire agent TRUE / FALSE?
    False
  63. How long does it take to inflate the floats?
    4 seconds after buttons pressed
  64. Max permissible speed with floats inflated
    80kts
  65. Where are the floats activated for inflation?
    Collective heads
  66. Max height for float inflation
    5000’
  67. Max airspeed with float switch in ARM?
    Vne
  68. Airspeeds for calm water touchdown speeds
    30kts
  69. Max RoC with floats inflated?
    1500fpm
  70. What additional item is fitted to the skids when hoist and floats fitted?
    Cable deflector on RHS
  71. What is the heel systems purpose?
    Guide crew and pax to the exits
  72. What is in the fire ext?
    HALON
  73. What are the ELT transmitted freqs
    406 and 121.5mhz
  74. Will the ELT transmit a gps signal when removed from the acft?
    Yea
  75. What band must the portable fire ext be in?
    Green
  76. First aid kit loc?
    On the inside of the clamshell doors
  77. Purpose of cockpit camera
    Record video and audio to its internal media storage
  78. With the EMERG EX LT switch to ARM - activates the exit light, HEELS in the case of the power loss, crash landing or
    Ditching
  79. CVFRD will record voice info for how many minutes?
    120
  80. To turn on all the lights in the cabin, the pilot selcts the PAX/CARGO switch to
    PAX/CARGO
  81. Placing the EMERG EXIT HEEL cockpit switch to ON will activate the EXT and HEEL lights excluding…?
    The cabin sliding door HEEL lights
  82. 3 settings for instrument lights?
    Day, night, NVG
  83. Can you adjust the overhead panel brightness?
    No
  84. The HEEL switch when placed to ARM will allow the HEEL system to be activated when…?
    • Total power loss
    • Contact with water
    • Crash landing
  85. What lights are NVG compatible
    • Position lights
    • Anti cols
    • Formation lights
  86. Can you slew the landing light
    No
  87. Can you slew the search light
    Yes
  88. Do both the landing and searchlight have IR operating mode
    No just search light
  89. When is the cyclic lock used
    On the ground only
  90. What is the order of the MHAs/EHAs from right to left
    • Roll - right
    • Collective - centre
    • Pitch - left
  91. Electro-hydraulic actuators (EHAs) are located on what channel?
    Pitch and roll
  92. What does the vibration coupling do?
    Tilt upper guidance unit fore/aft to prevent control inputs caused by flight load induced transmission movement
  93. What components make up the swashplate assembly?
    • Sliding sleeve - collective
    • Cardan ring - gimbal assembly
    • Cardan ring - stationary - cyclic
    • Bearing ring - rotating - output to rotating control rods
  94. Function of swashplate
    Transfer station control to rotating outputs
  95. What does the mast moment indicator do (MMI)?
    Measures and indicates the rotor mast bending moment
  96. By bending and flexing, the main rotor blades flex beam, allows each blade to…..
    • Lead
    • Lag
    • Flap
    • Feather
  97. What sort of main rotor head system does the EC135 have?
    Bearing-less, hinge-less 4 bladed main rotor head
  98. What cable transmits movements from the pilots bell crank to the dual yaw actuators?
    Flex ball cable
  99. How many blades in the Fenstron
    10
  100. What flight control will no longer be boosted if the #2 hyd system fails
    Tail rotor
  101. Both hydraulic pumps are driven by…?
    The transmission via the accessory drive
  102. They hyd sightglass must display at least…. To be serviceable?
    50%
  103. With the hyd test switch to sys 2, what cockpit and flight control indications will you see?
    • Sys 1 caution
    • Nil change to flight control feel
  104. When can you test the hyd system?
    On the ground only
  105. Where no control input is present in a follow up HYD system, which component blocks the pumps pressure from reaching the boost cylinder?
    The control spool
  106. What AFCS control system can provide an input signal into an EHA?
    SAS and autopilot inputs
  107. The pitch, collective and roll hydraulic actuators have how many stages?
    Two stage / dual
  108. What hydraulic system supplies the electro-hydraulic component of the EHAs
    System 1
  109. What type of hydraulic actuator does the collective have and what’s it location in the pack
    Mech-hydraulic Actuator MHA in the centre
  110. How many boost post sons are there in a single EC135 EHA/MHA?
    1
  111. Loss of the #1 hyd system will result in the degradation of the ___ and __ SAS channels
    Pitch and roll
  112. Hyd systems work on the principle that the liquids do not…
    Compress
  113. If the pilot ceases control inputs, the hyd system MHA/EHA pivots around the
    Control input rod
  114. Does the tail rotor Fenestron hyd actuator use the same follow up principle as the MHA/EHA?
    Yes
  115. How many stages in the tail rotor hydraulic actuator
    1
  116. What does the engine provide?
    Tq, bleed air and electrical power
  117. What items does the engine accessory drivetrain drive?
    Alternator, starter/gen, oil pump, fuel pump(and n1 speed)
  118. How many engine chip burns can you do?
    1, if it clears you can do a second IAW checklist
  119. What are the engine oil cooler fans driven by?
    Main transmission
  120. How many oil pumps in the engine?
    • 1 pressure
    • 2 scavenge
  121. Are the IBFA doors usually open or closed?
    Closed to allow filtered air
  122. What happens to the IBF doors in an engine failure?
    Failed engine stays closed or will close and the normal engine remains open or will open to allow greater airflow
  123. Where is the engine fuel pump, what’s it driven by?
    Front face of reduction gearbox and driven by n1 heart tan
  124. If you see a FUEL FILTA CAD what does this mean?
    Fuel filter caution for impending opening of the engine by pass due to clogged filter elements
  125. How many fuel injectors and what are their functions
    • 1 preference - pilot light
    • 9 main injectors
    • 2 start injectors (until 50% n1)
  126. What are the modes the fuel metering unit can be in
    • Auto
    • Manual
    • Mixed
  127. What are the differences in the fuel metering modes?
    • Auto - eecu controlled
    • Manual - controlled manually via the twist grip after eecu failure or manual mode selected
    • Mixed - controlled by both eecu stepper motor and twist grip
  128. Which twist grips control what engine
    • Too - engine 1
    • Bottom - engine 2
  129. What button is pressed on the collective to manually cut off fuel?
    The OFF or STOP MIN FUEL button
  130. What controls the engine starter sequence
    The eecu
  131. What N1% does the ignition system shut off on start
    50%
  132. Other than a FADEC malfunction what 2 other methods take the engine out of auto mode?
    Twist grip moves from neutral or engine mode select switch set to MAN
  133. If the acft has a double generator fail with the FADEC still work?
    Yes,They run off the alternators power by the accessory geartrain
  134. With the engines running, will switching the FADEC Switches off affect the FADECs?
    No, they remain on as they are power by alternators when N1 is greater than 50%.
  135. What happens to fuel flow in Manual mode?
    It freezes at the point it entered the mode, no change to fuel flow during mode changes
  136. What are the primary FADEC functions
    • Fuel supply
    • Auto engine control
    • Auto torque matching
    • Power turbine over speed protection
    • Governs Nr
    • Engine and power monitoring
  137. At what DA will the N2 automatically increase
    4500’ to 9500’ increases from 100.5 to 103.5%
  138. What 2 things are required to return the engine fuel system to auto mode?
    Norm on overhead panel and twist grips neutral
  139. What compensates for Nr droop
    The LVDT connected to the collective and pedals
  140. How do you select Nr HI mode?
    Push button, then confirm on if within parameters via the green light
  141. Nr HI airspeed activation/deactivation parameters
    • On accel over 55KT
    • Off Decel below 50kts
  142. Where does Nr HI receive its airspeed data from?
    ADC2
  143. Depressing the NMS2 switch on the slant panel does what?
    Turns off power to the GTN750
  144. Differences between NMS1 and 2
    • Screen size
    • NMS2 available prior to avionics switch on via batt power
  145. How many flight plans can the GTN store
    99
  146. How many points in each flight plan?
    100
  147. How many DME stations can be tracked simultaneously
    3
  148. How many receivers in the DF system?
    6
  149. Where is the ADF antenna
    Under tail pylon
  150. Below what height is the weather radar inhibited
    50ft AGL
  151. 4 methods to activate the ICS
    • VOX
    • 1st detent on the cyclic trigger
    • ICS/TX toggle on the ACP
    • PTT switch on cabin drop leads
  152. How many ACPs in the ACFT
    4
  153. What radio is available on battery power
    GRN750 VHF2
  154. What freqs do the GTNs operate in
    VHF…. Hence VHF1/2!!!!
  155. What radio is the sat phone connected to?
    GTN750/VHF2
  156. What radios can transmit in UHF
    TAC1/2
  157. What radios can transmit on VHF
    VHF1/2, UHF 1/2
  158. does the IFF have ADBS in/out?
    Only out
  159. What colour is the last 20’ of hoist cable?
    Orange
  160. Hoist cable brake strength?
    3300?
  161. Total length of hoist cable
    90m
  162. Can both pilots and acmn boom the hoist out?
    Yes, both can
  163. Hoist boom out time
    7.5 seconds
  164. Hoist readout display is in…?
    Metres
  165. How do you power on the hoist?
    Set switch the CC-ARM / ON
  166. What caution comes in when the hoist is powered on?
    CA CUT ARM
  167. What can you do with the hoist when the rear hoist button is set to STBY
    • Boom out - yes
    • Raise / lower cable - no
  168. If you lose both Gens can you raise the hoist?
    Yes, on battery
  169. If there’s a single generator failure can you complete a hoist cycle
    Yes, other gen provides 60A, hoist will be slower
  170. Max load that can be raised on the hoist
    550lbs/249kg
  171. Max winch cable angle is….
    • 30 in flight
    • 15 in hover
  172. Hoist cycle definition
    16ft (5.0m)
  173. Maximum speed for hoist
    • 600lb - 150fpm
    • 300lb - 200fpm
  174. Cable length readout
    VEMD
  175. Max hoist speed
    250fpm
  176. Max AoB cargo hook
    30 degrees
  177. Where is the hook electrical release
    Cyclic, too right
  178. Max speed for hook ops
    100kt (spoiler config) or Vne whichever is the lesser
  179. Max hook load
    1300kg
  180. Cargo hook release options
    Electrical, mechanical, manual
  181. Where is the hook mechanical release?
    RHS (pilot) collective
  182. When power is applied to the hook and 5kg is applied what light is displayed on the CAD
    HOOK UNLD
  183. Where does the heating system get its bleed air?
    Engine
  184. What does the HTG OVTP caution indicate
    Heater has overtemped and bleeds shut off
  185. To defog the windscreen set the distribution knob to..?
    Defog
  186. When the PAX/BLW switch is set to ON the PAX blower runs at …?
    100% (enable allows manual control)
  187. the CPDS OVHT caution will appear at ….?
    55 deg
  188. When does the cockpit blower automatically activate
    45 deg, no CAD indication
  189. Circulation air knobs posn?
    • Out = ambient flow
    • In = recirculated air
  190. What drives the aircon compressor
    The main gear box
  191. What’s additional in the air con system?
    Evaporator
  192. What happens to the aircon when ….. switch is actuated
    CABLE CUT - ARM
  193. Max windscreen wiper airspeed
    80KIAS
  194. How king should the ice sensor cool for before conducting the test during the pre flight?
    10 mins
  195. Flight in icing is
    Prohibited
  196. How many oil pumps in the transmission system
    2 in lower gearbox casing
  197. What does a popped oil filter button indicate
    Oil filter pre clogging indicator
  198. Where are the transmission oiler coolers?
    Abeam the main transmission
  199. What draws air into the transmission oil cooler
    Cooler fans driver by the transmission accessory drive
  200. How many chip detectors in the transmission system
    1 fifties in the common suction line for both pumps
  201. Below what RPM can you operate the rotor brake?
    50%
  202. How much time between rotor brake applications
    10 mins
  203. What 2 parameters bring on the ROTOR BRK CAD
    • rotor turning
    • Brake lever engaged
  204. How is the transmission mounted?
    By 4 x ARIS mounts
  205. Whats the purpose of ARIS?
    Anti resonance isolation

    Spring/mass damper to isolate vibrations between the rotor and fuselage
  206. What is the emergency stop above each ARIS for?
    Supports trans if the primary bellows of the ARIS fails
  207. What is the mass/spring dampener?
    Below cockpits feet to compensate for lateral vibes
  208. Purpose of the tail rotor gearbox
    • Drive tail rotor
    • Reduce speed from shaft
    • Divert the direction
  209. Does the tail rotor gearbox have a chip detector?
    Yes
  210. What powers the essential bus bar during AEO
    generators and the battery(as a backup)
  211. What electrical items remain in a power loss
    “Essential” items on their bus
  212. Where does the starter get its power
    Battery and EPU or other generator
  213. What’s the purpose of a busbar
    Receive and distribute power to systems
  214. In normal AEO ops where do the shedding busbars get power from
    Generators through primary busbar
  215. Battery provides …?
    24 VDC
  216. What type of battery is in the acft?
    Nickel cadmium (20 cell)
  217. What does the battery master box do(BMB)
    Controls and monitors operation of the battery
  218. The avionics master connects power to which buses?
    Essential 1 / 2 and shedding 1/2
  219. If a bus tie is opened or a generator fails what busbar is automatically disconnected
    High load
  220. Where are the Gen switches
    Engine switch assembly
  221. Does the battery need to be connected before external power is applied?
    Yes
  222. How many gems have to fail before shedding buses are automatically disconnected
    2
  223. What cockpit switch allows you to reconnect the shedding busses afte they have been disconnected
    Shed bus
  224. DC power is converted to AC by
    An inverter
  225. Where does the inverter get its name and power from
    inverter 2 as it gets it from essential Busbar 2
  226. What is the output(s) of the inverter
    26 and 115VAC @400hz
  227. What components run on AC power
    • AHRS 1
    • Pitch and Roll SAS
    • WX radar
    • Ice detector
  228. High power consumers
    • Air con
    • Winch
  229. CPDS components
    • VEMD
    • CAD
  230. 3 operating modes of CPDS
    • Normal - 3 screens
    • Derivative - 2
    • Backup - 1
  231. What 3 systems make up the AFCS
    3 axis SAS, autopilot and pitch dampener
  232. What two components make up the YAW SAS
    • SEMA 1
    • FOG (fibre optic gyro)
  233. Where does yaw SEMA 1 get its info?
    YAW FOG
  234. how are the 3-axis SAS and pitch dampener deselected
    AP SAD cut bottom on cyclic
  235. 3 major components of the P & R SAS
    • AHRS 1
    • SAS computer
    • P and R EHAs
Author
Bails
ID
357544
Card Set
EC135 Tech
Description
EC 135 tech
Updated