Sharad Medicine

  1. 1. In tumor lysis syndrome” all the following are seen except:
    a. Hyperuricemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hyperphosphatemia d. Hypercalcemia
  2. 2. Hypercalcemia is seen in all except:
    a. Sarcoidosis b. Tumor lysis syndrome c. Multiple myeloma d. Primary hyperparathyroidism
  3. 3. Not seen in tumor lysis syndrome:
    a. Hyperphosphatemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hyperuricemia d. Hypocalcemia
  4. 4. Drug not used in prevention of rejection after transplantation :
    a. Flucytosine b. Mycophenolate mofetil c. Rapamycin d. Azathioprine
  5. 5. Not a clinical feature of normal pressure hydrocephalus:
    a. Urinary incontinence b. Gait disturbance c. Aphasia d. Dementia
  6. 6. Triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus is:
    • a. Gait disorder, urinary incontinence and lower cranial nerve palsy
    • b. Gait disorder, urinary incontinence and dementia
    • c. Ataxia, aphasia and gait disorder
    • d. D. Tremor, aphasia and dementia
  7. 7. Which of the following is not used in acute asthma:
    a. Ipratropium bromide b. Salbitamol c. Steroids d. Montelukast
  8. 8. Acute lung injury not include which of the following:
    a. Cardiopulmonary bypass b. Aspiration c. toxic gas injury d. Lung contusion
  9. 9. Pseudofractures are seen in:
    a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Osteoporosis c. Osteomalacia d. Hypoparathyroidism
  10. 10. A 25 year old girl presents with fever and weakness. There is splenomegaly of 3 cm below the costal margin. Hemoglobin is 8 mg/dl, TLC is 3000/mm, platelet count is 80,000/mm. least likely diagnosis is:
    a. Aplastic anemia b. Megaloblastic anemia c. Anemia of chronic disease d. ALL
  11. 11. In a young patient with aplastic anemia, the treatment of choice is:
    a. ATG b. Bone marrow transplantation c. Danazol d. G-CSF
  12. 12. Investigation of choice for invasive amebiasis of:
    a. Indirect hemagglutination b. ELISA c. Counterimmunodiffusion assays d. Microscopy
  13. 13. Acute breathlessness is an important feature of :
    a. Pericarditis b. CHF c. Pneumonia d. Pulmonary embolism
  14. 14. Most common symptom of pulmonary embolism is:
    a. Chest pain b. Dyspnea c. Hemoptysis d. Cough
  15. 15. Most common sign of pulmonary embolism is:
    a. Sweating b. Tachypnea c. Tachycardia d. Cyanosis
  16. 16. Dose of digoxin is not altered in:
    a. Hypomagnesemia b. Renal failure c. Hepatotxity d. Hypokalemia
  17. 17. False regarding digitalis is:
    a. Lipid soluble b. Actively metabolized in liver c. Oral absorption d. Renal excretion
  18. 18. Dose of digoxin is not reduced in which of the following condition:
    a. Liver disease b. Renal disease c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypoxia
  19. 19. ECG finding in hypercalcemia is:
    a. Prolonged PR interval b. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia c. Short QT interval d. Bundle branch blocks
  20. 20. QT interval is shortened in:
    a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypokalemia d. Hypocalcemia
  21. 21. Shortest QT interval is seen in:
    a. Hypocalcemia b. Hyperrcalcemia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyperkalemia
  22. 22. False regarding Reye’s syndrome is:
    a. Deep jaundice is present b. Disease may be precipitated by salicylates d. It frequently complicates viral infection
  23. 23. Not a myeloproliferative disease:
    a. Essential thrombocytosis b. CML c. AML d. Polycythemia vera
  24. 24. Not an important feature of polycythemia vera:
    a. Bone marrow hyperplasia b. Leukocyte alkaline phosphate increased c. Splenomegaly d. Erythropoietin level increased
  25. 25. In polycythemia vera all the following are seen except:
    a. Thrombocytosis b. Increased B 12 binding capacity c. High erythropoietin level d. Increased vitamin B12 binding capacity
  26. 26. Not seen in polycythemia vera:
    a. Ocular congestion b. Increased RBC count c. Increased erythropoietin level d. Increased vitamin B12 binding capacity
  27. 27. Not seen in polycythemia rubra vera:
    a. Increased platelets b. Leukocytosis c. Decreased LAP score d. Increased vitamin B12 binding capacity
  28. 28. Paradoxicla pulse is seen in:
    a. Severe AR+As b. Severe AR c. LVF d. Cardiac tamponade
  29. 29. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in:
    a. Adhesive pericarditis b. Rheumatic pericarditis c. Uremic pericarditis d. Constrictive pericarditis
  30. 30. Pulsus paradoxus is found in all except:
    a. IPPV b. COPD c. Constructive pericarditis d. Pericardial tamponade
  31. 31. Pulsus paradoxus is not seen in:
    a. Cardiac tamponade b. Severe ronchial asthama c. Pregnancy d. Constructive pericarditis
  32. 32. Pulses bisferiencs can occur in:
    a. Has alternate high and low volume pulse b. Has bifid anacrotic wave c. Severe AR with good LV function d. AS with AR
  33. 33. Not seen in acute severe asthma is:
    a. Pulsus paradoxus b. Hypercapnia c. Acidosis d. Cyanosis
  34. 34. Bilateral facial nerve palsy is not seen in:
    a. Melkersson-rosenthal syndrome b. Ramsay Hunt syndrome c. Guillain-Barre syndrome d. Sarcoidosis
  35. 35. Bilateral facial paralysis is not seen in:
    a. Ramsay Hunt syndrome b. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome c. Heerfordt’s syndrome d. Guillain-Barre syndrome
  36. 36. Melkersson-rosenthal syndrome consists of all except:
    a. Deafness b. Labial edema c. Plication of the tongue d. Recurrent facial paralysis
  37. 37. Bilateral LMN facial palsy is not seen in:
    a. Transverese myelitis b. Bilateral acoustic neuroma c. Guillain-Barre syndrome d. Sarcoidosis
  38. 38. Not a common cause of carpal tunnel syndrome:
    a. Hypertension b. Hypothyroidism c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Pregnancy
  39. 39. In which of the following, highly “selective” proteinuria is seen:
    a. Focal sclerosis b. Membranous glomerulonephritis c. Medssangial proliferative gllomerulonephritis d. minimal change disease
  40. 40. Triad of glomerulonephritis , pulmonary hemorrhage and antibody to basement membrane is seen in:
  41. a. Diabetic nephropathy b. mixed connective tissue disease c. systemic necrotizing vasculitis d. Goodpasture’s syndrome
  42. 41. Tic douloureux is synonymous with:
    a. Trigeminal neuralgia b. Temporal lobe epilepsy c. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia d. Todd’s paralysis
  43. 42. Trigeminal neuralgia is treated with;
    a. Indomethacin b. Chlorpromazine c. Phenobarbitone d. Carbamazepine
  44. 43. Increased serum iron and normal total iron binding capacity are seen in:
    a. Anemia of chronic disease b. iron deficiency anemia c. Sideroblastic anemia d. Thalassemia
  45. 44. Metal causing sideroblastic anemia is:
    a. Selenium b. Cu c. Hg d. Lead
  46. 45. Intraceelular iron level is not decreased in:
    a. Anemia due to gastric ulcer b. sideroblastic Anemia due to gastric ulcer b. sideroblastic Anemia due to gastric ulcer b. sideroblastic anemia c. anemia due to chronic infection d. Hookworm anemia
  47. 46. Microcytic hypochromic anemia is not seen in:
    a. Fanconi’s anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Lead poisoning d. Thalassemia major
  48. 47. Propranolol is contraindicated in:
    a. Hypertension b. CHF c. Angina pectoris d. Thyrotoxicosis
  49. 48. Drug used in angina that can cause CCF is:
    a. Verapamil b. Sorbitrate c. Propranolol d. Nifedipine
  50. 49. Preoperative propranolol is not indicated in:
    a. Hyperthyroidism b. Migraine c. CHF d. Prolong QT syndrome
  51. 50. All are seen in subacute thyroiditis except:
    a. Increased radioiodine uptake b. Pain c. Raised ESR d. Raised T4 level
  52. 51. All are true about de quervain’s thyroiditis except:
    a. Raised ESR b. Subsides spontaneously c. autoimmune etiology d. Pain and swelling of the thyroid occurs
  53. 52. Nephrotic syndrome, which is not cured after eradicating malaria, is caused by;
    a. Plasmodium vivax b. Plasmoium ovale c. Plasmodium falciparum d. Plasmodium malariae
  54. 53. Which of the following is a feature of falciparum malaria:
    a. Black water fever b. Algid malaria c. Cerebral malaria d. All of the above
  55. 54. All are the features of cerebral malaria except:
    a. Absent abdominal reflex b. Extensor planter reflex c. Retinal hemorrhage d. Focla neurological deficit
  56. 55. Which species commonly causes cerebral malaria:
    a. Plasmodium ovale b. Plasmodium malariae c. plasmodium falciparum d. Plasmodium vivax
  57. 56. Genetically transmitted diseases which protect against malaria are all except:
    a. Sickle cell anemia b. G6PD deficiency c. Absence of Duffy blood group d. Hereditary spherocytosis
  58. 57. Radical cure of plasmodium vivax is by;
    a. Chloroquine b. Quinine c. Primaquine d. Tetracycline
  59. 58. Primaquine has no role in infection with:
    a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Palsmodium vivax c. Palsmodium malariae d. Plasmodium ovale
  60. 59. Malaria affects the following organs except:
    a. Brain b. Liver c. Heart d. kidney
  61. 60. Types of malaria not seen in india:
    a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Plasmodium vivax c. Plasmodium malariae d. Plasmodium ovale
  62. 61. In cerebral malaria the drug of choice is:
    a. Tetracycline b. Primaquine c. Chloroquine d. Quinine
  63. 62. Nephroclacinosis is common in:
    a. Type I renal tubular acidosis b. Type II renal tubular acidosis c. Type III renal tubular acidosis d. Type IV renal Tubular acidosis
  64. 63. Hyperkalemia is characteristic of which type of RTA:
    a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV
  65. 64. Pseudotumor cerebri is not caused by:
    a. Hypervitaminosis A b. Oral contraceptives c. Tetracycline d. Gentamicin
  66. 65. Not a feature of psudotumor cerebri:
    a. Normal sized ventricles on CT scan b. Increased protein content in CSF c. absence of localizing neurological deficit d. Papilledema
  67. 66. In syringomyelia thesensation that is lost is:
    a. Touch b. Pain and temperature c. Pressure d. Two-point discrimination
  68. 67. Painless burn of hand is seen in;
    a. Systemic lupus erythematous b. Cord compression c. Thalamic syndrome d. Syringomyelia
  69. 68. Dissociated sensory loss is seen with:
    a. Tabes dorsalis b. Syringomyelia c. Cauda equina syndrome d. motor neuron disease
  70. 69. Dissociated anesthesia is seen in:
    a. Fredrick’s ataxia b. Tabes dorsalis c. Syringomyelia d. motor neuron disease
  71. 70. Dissociated sensory loss and balaclava helmet sensory loss is seen in:
    a. Syringomyelia b. Extradural spinal tumor c. Intradural extramedullary tumors d. none of the above
  72. 71. Systemic lupus erythematousus is not caused by which of the following drug:
    a. Methotrexate b. phenytoin c. Isoniazoid d. Hydralazine
  73. 72. Subarachnoid space ends at:
    a. S4 b. S2 c. L2 d. L1
  74. 73. Indiabetes joint commonly involved is:
    a. Foot b. Hip c. Knee d. shoulder
  75. 74. Charcot’s joint in diabetes affects:
    a. Tarsal b. Hip c. knee d. Shoulder
  76. 75. Not seen in botulism :
    a. Ptosis b. diploma c. Diarrhea d. Vomiting
  77. 76. Not a clinical feature Of botulism:
    a. Descending paralysis b. Bulbar palsy c. Diarrhea d. Nausea and vomiting
  78. 77. Not a clinical manifestation of botulism:
    a. Diplopia b. Diarrhea c. Urinary retention d. no fever
  79. 78. Southern blot method is for analysis of:
    a. Carbohydrates b. proteins c. RNA d. DNA
  80. 79. RNA fragments are sequenced by:
    a. Southern blot b. northern blot c. Eastern blot d. Western blot
  81. 80. Pin point pupils, loss of consciousness and hyperpyrexia is seen in:
    a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Pontine hemorrhage c. Cerebral infarction d. Thalamic syndrome
  82. 81. A patient pupils, loss of consciousness and hyperpyrexia is seen in:
    a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Pontine hemorrhage c. Cerebral infarction d. Thalamic syndrome
  83. 82. Important role of rennin is in:
    a. Malignant hypertension b. Renovascular hypertension c. Essential hypertension d. Coronary heart disease
  84. 83. Horner’s syndrome manifests as:
    a. Miosis and ptosis b. Mydriasis c. Ptosis and sweating d. Sweating
  85. 84. Not a characteristic feature of Horner’s syndrome:
    a. Partial ptosis of the eyelid b. anhydrosis c. Exophthalmos d. miosis
  86. 85. False regarding hemolytic anemia is:
    a. Hemosiderinuria b. Increased haptoglobin c. Raised unconjugated bilirubin d. Raised LDH
  87. 86. Not a clinical feature of hemolytic anemia:
    a. Reticulocytosis b. Raised level of haptoglobin c. Hemosiderinuria d. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
  88. 87. False regarding hemolytic anemia is:
    a. Hemoglobinuria b. Hemosiderinuria c. Raised unconjugated bilirubin d. Increased haptoglobin
  89. 88. Not seen in hemolytic anemia:
    a. Increased haptoglobin b. Spherocytosis c. Reticulocytosis d. Hemosiderinuria
  90. 89. Painless effusion in joints of congenital syphilis is known as:
    a. Synovitis b. Clutton’s joint c. Charcot’s joint d. Barton’s joint
  91. 90. Beriberi disease is due to deficiency of:
    a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin A d. Vitamin D
  92. 91. Palmar erythema is seen in :
    a. Respiratory failure b. ARF c. CHF d. Hepatic failure
  93. 92. The treatment of choice for chronic partial and tonic clonic seizures is:
    a. Trimethadione b… Phenytoin c. Diazepam d. Ethosuximide
  94. 93. Drug not used in maintenance therapy of epilepsy is:
    a. Trimethadione b. phenytoin c. Diazepam d. Ethosuximide
  95. 94. Drug useful in both absence seizures (petit Mal) and generalized , tonic –clonic seizures (Grand mal) is:
    a. Carbamazepine b. Phenytoin c. Sodium valproate d. All of the above
  96. 95. Which antiepileptic drug acts by potentiating the action of GABA:
    a. Phenobarbitone b. Phenytoin c. Valproic acid d. Carbamazepine
  97. 96. Meningitis is caused by:
    aa. Neisseria meningitidis b. Haempphilus influenza c. Streptococcus pneumonia d. All of the above
  98. 97. Secondary hyperparathyroidism is caused by:
    a. Solitary adenoma b. Wermer’s syndrome c. Cardiac failure d. CRF
  99. 98. Basal Ganglion tremors are:
    a. Flapping tremor b. Resting tremor c. Intension tremor d. Action tremor
  100. 99. Cannon waves are seen in ;
    a. AF b. Pulmonary stenosis c. Complete heart block d. Sinus bradycardia
  101. 100. Cannon ‘a’ waves are seen in:
    a. AF bb. Pulmonary stenosis c. Coomplete heart block d. Sinus bradycardia
  102. 101. All are seen with hyperkalemia except;
    a. High T wave b. Prolonged PR interval c. Depressed ST segment d.. Prolonged QT interval
  103. 102. First change in ECG seen in hyperkalemia is:
    a. Absent P waves b. Increased QRS interval c. Tall tented T waves d. Increased PQ interval
  104. 103. ‘Sinewave’ [attern in ECG is seen in:
    a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypernatremia
  105. 104. In Hyperkalemia , ECG change shows:
    a. U wave b. Tall T wave c. Decreased PR interval d. Short ST segment
  106. 105. Following are causes of pseudohyperkalemia except:
    a. Thrombocytosis b. Hemolysis c.. Leukocytosis d. Eosinophilia
  107. 106. Not a treatment of hyperkalemia:
    a. Sodium bicarbonate b. Calcium gluconate c. Insulin d. Steroid
  108. 107. Risus sardonicus is seen in:
    a. Leprosy b. Tetanus c. Strychnine poisoning d. TMJ ankylosis
  109. 108. An intelligent dwarf child with square fingers and palms and backache has:
    a. Nutritional dwarfism b. Hypothyroidism c. Marion dwarf d. Achondroplasia
  110. 109. Achondroplasia is inherited as:
    a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X-linked dominant d. X-linked recessive
  111. 110. A 6 months old infant has multiple fractures with trivial trauma. The diagnosis is:
    a. Rickets b. Osteogenesis imperfects c. Achondroplasia d. Battered baby syndrome
  112. 111. Multiple fractures in children with joint laxity and deafness are seen in:
    a. Osteomalacia b. Osteochondromatosis c. Osteogenesis imperfect d. Ehlers –Danlos syndrome
  113. 112. Not a feature of osteogenensis imperfect:
    a. Blue sclera b. Cataract c. multiple fractures d. Hearing loss
  114. 113. Oculocutaneous albinism is:
    a. X-linked recessive b. X-Linked dominant c. Autosomal recessive d. Autosomal dominant
  115. 114. MEdiastinal shift occurs in:
    a. Pneumothorax b. Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis c. Bronchitis emphysema d. Lobar pneumonia
  116. 115. Streptokinase therapy in myocardial infarction is most effective when given within:
    a. <2 hours b. >24 hours c. 4-6 hours d. 2-4 hours
  117. 116. Drug of choice for pain in myocardial infarction is:
    a. Morphine b. Diazepam c. Fortwin d. NSAID
  118. 117. Not used in treatment of MI:
    a. Pentazocine b. Vasodilators c. Platelet function inhibitors d. Fibrinolytic agent
  119. 118. Duchenne pseudomuscular dystrophy is inherited as:
    • a. Autosomal recessive b. X-linked dominant c. X-linked recessive d. Autosomal dominant
    • 119. False regarding duchenne muscular dystrophy:
    • a. Congenital hypotonia b. Respiratory failure in 2nd decade of life c. Cardiomyopathy d. X-linked recessive
  120. 120. Most characteristic feature of Duchenne muscular dystrophy is:
    a. Early involvement of respiratory muscle b. Wasting of distal muscle c. Association with sensory deficit d. Pseudohypertrophy of muscle
  121. 121. Creatine phosphokinase (CPK) is increased in:
    a. Hepatocellular carcinoma b. Renal cell carcinoma c. Cirrhos d. pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy
  122. 122. Muscle not involved in Duchenne muscular dystrophy:
    a. Infraspinatus b. branchioradiatis c. Gastrocnemius d. Vastus medialis
  123. 123. Hypercalcemia is not seen in:
    a. Sarcoidosis b. Milk alkali syndrome c. squamous cell carcinoma of lung d. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
  124. 124. Not a feature of primary hyperldosteronism:
    a. Increase in Na+ retention b. Increase intravascular volume c. Edema d. hypertension
  125. 125. In conn’s syndrome, all the following are seen except:
    a. Hypokalemia b. Hypernatremia c. Hypertension d. Edema
  126. 126. False regarding conn’s syndrome:
    a. Generalized edema b. Raised blood pressure c. low rennin levels d. Hypokalemia
  127. 127. Excess aldosterone is not associated with:
    a. Hypertension b. Water retention c. hyperkalemia d. Hypikalemia
  128. 128. A 25 year old man presents with hypertension. His serum sodium is 145mEq/L , potassium is 1.3 mEq/L and serum creatinine is 1.2 mg. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Renal parenchymal disease b. Cushing syndrome c. Conn’s syndrome d. pheochromocytoma
  129. 129. Cushing’s syndrome is commonly caused by:
    a. Adrenal carcinoma b. Ectopic adrenal tissue c. Adrenal hyperplasia d. Adrenal adenoma
  130. 130. Pernicious anemia is due to deficiency of:
    a. Pyridoxine b. folic acid c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin D
  131. 131. False regarding pernicious anemia:
    a. Parenteral vitamin B12 is therapeutic b. Premature graying of hair c. Hyperchlorhydria d. Autommune disease
  132. 132. In which of the following condition increased gastrin levels with decreased HCI level is seen:
    a. Stomach carcinoma b. Atrophic gastritis c. Pernicious anemia d. Zollinger –Ellison syndrome
  133. 133. Decreased protein content in pleural effusion is seen in:
    a. Bacterial pneumonia b. Malignancy c. Tuberculosis d. Cirrhosis
  134. 134. In which of the following conditions does hyperglycemia occur:
    a. Addison’s disease b. Uremia c. Acromegaly d. Starvation
  135. 135. In antiphospholipid antibody syndrome all the following are seen except:
    a. Recurrent fetal loss b. Neurological symptoms c. Thrombocytosis d. Prolonged aPTT
  136. 136. A young lady with spontaneous abortions has a history of joint pains and fever. She currently presents with thrombosis of her leg vein. Her aPTT is prolonged. The diagnosis is most likely to be:
    a. Inherited protein C and S deficit b. Factor XII deficiency c. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome d. Increased antithrombin III levels
  137. 137. Medullary cystic disease of the kidney is best diagnosed by:
    a. Ultrasound b. Nuclear scan c. Urography d. Biopsy
  138. 138. A patient presents with hypertension and dizziness. The X-ray shows anterior rib nothcing. The diagnosis is most likely to be:
    a. Pheochromocytoma b. Coarctation of the aorta c. Neurofibromatosis d. Marfan syndrome
  139. 139. Renal vein thrombosis ismost likely in which of the following conditions:
    • a. Membranous glomerulonephritis b. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
    • c.Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis d. Minimal change disease
  140. 140. Renal osteodystrophy differs from nutritional and metabolic rickets due to the presence of:
    a. Hyperphosphatemia b. hypercalcemia c. Hypophosphatemia d. Hypocalcemia
  141. 141. A 10 years old child presents with anemia and recurrent fractures. The X-ray shows diffuse hyperdensity of bone. The diagnosis is most likely to be:
    a. Osteogenesis imperfect b. Osteopetrosis c. Osteochondroma d. Hyperparathyroidism
  142. 142. While inserting a central venous catheter, a patient develops respiratory distress. The most likely cause is:
    a. Hemothorax b. Pneumothorax c. Pleural effusion d. Hypovolemia
  143. 143. While undergoing central venous catheterization through internal jugular vein, the patient suddenly developed respiratory distress and hypoxemia. Most likely cause is:
    a. Septicemia b. Carotid artery injury c. Tamponade d. Pneumothorax
  144. 144. The systeme international d’ unites (SI) unit for blood pressure is:
    a. T or r b. mm hg c. pa d. cm H2 O
  145. 145. Which of the following is not seen in atrial myxoma:
    a. Fever b. Increased ESR c. hypertension d/ Embolic phenomenon
  146. 146. Lentigines and blue nevus are associated with which of the following cardiac lesion :
    • a. Cardiomyopathy b. Pericarditis c. Atrial myxoma d. Cardiac arrhythmia
    • 147. Prolonged fever is seen in:
    • a. liposarcoma b. Neurofibromatosis c. Exostosis d. Atrial myxoma
  147. 148. False regarding atrial myxoma is:
    a. no sex preference b. Stimulates mitral stenosis c. Occur at right atrium d. Most common site is left atrium
  148. 149. True regarding cardiac myxoma is:
    a. Common in females b. distant metastasis is seen c. Rarely reoccurs after excision d. Most common site is left atrium
  149. 150. which is not true of sporadic myxoma:
    a. Diagnosed by 2D echocardiography b. Female preponderance c. Occur at all ages d. Most common type of primary cardiac tumor
  150. 151. Left atrial myxoma is best diagnosed by:
    a. ECG b. Cardiac catheterization c. Echocardiogram d. Chest X-ray
  151. 152. The most common intracavitary benign cardiac tumor is:
    a. Leiomyoma b. Myxoma c. Neuroma d. Sarcoid
  152. 153. A patient with nephrotic syndrome with longstanding corticosteroid therapy may develop all of the following except:
    a. hyperglycemia b. Hypertrophy of muscle c. neuropsychiatric symptoms d. Suppression of the pituitary adrenal axis
  153. 154. Roth’s spots are seen in the :
    a. Pharynx b. Heart c. Fundus d. Palms
  154. 155. Roth’s spots are seen in:
    a. Subacute bacteria endocarditis b. Rheumatic fever c. Thrombocytopenic purpura d. Malaria
  155. 156. not a clinical feature of SABE :
    a. Osler’s node b. Janeway lesion c. Erythema nodosum d. Roth’s spot
  156. 157. osler’s nodes are seen in:
    a. Finger or toe pads in infective endocarditis b. DIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis c. DIP joints in rheumatoid osteoarthritis d. PIP joints in rheumatoid osteoarthritis
  157. 158. Isolated hematuria is not seen in:
    a. Hereditary nephritis b. Thin basement membrane disease c. Lead nephropathy d. Burger’s disease
  158. 159. In a patient with raised IgA levels the most common finding is:
    a. Proteinuria b. GI bleed c. Hematuria d. Hypertension
  159. 160.Not commonly seen in hemochrmatosis:
    • a. Hypogonadism b. Neuropathy c. Cirrhosis d. Diabetes
    • 161. A diabetic patient presents with arthritis, Skin hyperpigmentation and hypogonadism. Most probably he has:
    • a. Syatemic lupus erythematosus b. Wilson’s disease c. Hemochromatosis d. Rheumatoid arthritis
  160. 162. Macula ceruleae is seen in:
    a. Phthirus pubis b. Pediculosis humains corporis c. Pediculosis capitis d. Pediculosis canis
  161. 163. Organ least involved in primary hemochromatosis is:
    a. Heart b. testes c. Pancreas d. Pituitary
  162. 164. Most common type of lung carcinoma is:
    a. Anaplastic b. Small cell c. Adenocarcinoma d. Squamous cell
  163. 165. Decreased serum iron and total iron binding capacity is seen in:
    a. Sideroblastic anemia b. Thalassemia c. Anemia of chronic disease d. Iron deficiency
  164. 166. A 7 years old anemic child has decreased serum iron level and low serum iron binding capacity. The anemia is:
    a. Sideroblastic b. Beta thalassemia c. Iron deficiency d. Chronic infection
  165. 167. best treatment for hairy cell leukemia is:
    a. pentostatin b. Slenectomy c. Corticosteriod d. Alkylating agent
  166. 168. Treatment of choice in hairy cell leukemia is:
    a. α interferon b. splenectomy c. Cyclophosphamide d. Chlorambucil
  167. 169. not used in the treatment of hairy cell leukemia:
    a. Interferon α b. Splenectomy c. Steroids d. Pentostatin
  168. 170. Not present in cardiac tamponade:
    a. Depression of ST segment b. Paradoxical pulse c. Increased vein pressure d. Shock
  169. 171. Finding in cardiac tamponade is:
    a. 3rd heart sound b. Pericardial knock c. Positive Kussmaul sign d. Prominent X, absent Y wave inJVP
  170. 172. Long Q interval is not seen in:
    a. Intracranial bleed b. Hypothermia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypokalemia
  171. 173. Hypokalemia causes:
    a. GI bleeding b. Intestinal colic c. Muscle weakness d. Hypertonia
  172. 174. Not seen in hypokalemia:
    a. Muscular weakness b. Fatigue c. Increased peristalsis d. abdominal distention
  173. 175. Blue-green pus is seen in infection of:
    a. klebsiella b. streptococcus c. staphylococcus d. Pseudomonas
  174. 176. Which of the following is true regarding human plague:
    a. Penicillin is the drug of choice b. Streptomycin is the drug of choice c. Bubo rarely recedes without incision and drainage
  175. 177. Incubation period of plague is… days:
    a. 16-21 b. 10-15 c. 7-10 d. 2-7
  176. 178. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in :
    a. physiological jaundice b. Choledocholithiasis c. Extravascular hemolysis d. Intravascular hemolysis
  177. 179. not seen in scurvy in adults:
    a. Hemarthrosis b. Purpura b. Scurvy rosary d. Perifollicular hyperkeratosis
  178. 180. Not a clinical manifestation of scurvy in children:
    a. Retrobulbar hemorrhage b. Intracerebral hemorrhage c. Perifollicular hemorrhage d. Hemorrhage into the periosteum of long bone
  179. 181. Clubbing and hemoptysis is seen in:
    a. Pneumonia b. empyema c. Crohn’s disease d. Bronchiectasis
  180. 182. False regarding Zollinger –Ellison syndrome is:
    a. Ca++ provocative test is best b. Serum gastrin level is high c. Associated with MEN I d. Usually multiple ulcers
  181. 183. Not seen in asthma:
    a. Paradoxical pulse b. pCO2= 40 mmHg c. Accessory muscle becomes active d. expiratory rhonchi only
  182. 184. Definite diagnosis of bronchial asthama is made by:
    a. Decreased FEV1 /FVC ratio on spirometry b. Relief of symptoms after bronchodilators c. Reversibe responsiveness of bronchial musculature d. Methacholine challenge
  183. 185. Most common presentation of unilateral renal artery stenosis is:
    a. Polycythemia b. peripheral edema c. Hypertension d. Uremia
  184. 186. In tension pneumothorax, drainage tube is inserted through:
    a. 6th ICS in axillary line b. 2nd ICS in axillary line c. 2nd ICS in midclavicular line d. 6th ICS in midclavicular line
  185. 187. Recurrent hematuria in a deaf-mute is seen in:
    a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Renal cyst c. Fanconi anemia d. Alport’s syndrome
  186. 188. True regarding classic Alport’s syndrome is:
    a. Hematuria b. Autosomal recessive c. Conductive deafness d. All of the above
  187. 189. Initial sign of Alport’s syndrome is:
    a. Sensorineurial high frequency deafness b. Oliguria c. proteinuria d. Microscopic hematuria
  188. 190.Characteristic initial manifestation of Alport’s syndrome is:
    a. Nephrotic syndrome b. hypertension c. Deafness d. microscope hematuria
  189. 191. best investigation for hyperthyroidism is:
    a. ELISHA b. T4 c. T3 d. Serum TSH
  190. 192. Most diagnostic test for primary hypothyroidism is:
    a. Ca++ b. TSH c. T3 d. T4
  191. 193. In hypothyroidism, treatment response is monitored by:
    a. TSH b. Ft4 c. T4 d. T3
  192. 194. In subclavian steal syndrome the blood flow in vertebral artery is:
    a. Reversed b. Increased c. Diminished d. Absent
  193. 195. Polyuria with low fixed specific gravity is seen in:
    a. Competitive water drinking b. CRF c. Diabetes insipidus d. Diabetes mellitus
  194. 196. Bone marrow leukocytosis is not seen in:
    a. Aplastic anemia b. Gaucher’s disease c. Kala azar d. All of the above
  195. 197. In a case of kala azar aldehyde test becomes positive after positive after:
    a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 8 weeks d. 12 weeks
  196. 198. Most common cause of intracerebral bleeding is:
    a. Tumor b. Trauma c. Hypertension d. Rupture of aneurysm
  197. 199. the most common site of cerebral hemorrhage in hypertension is:
    a. Pons b. Cerebrum c. putamen d. Thalamus
  198. 200. Specific diagnostic investigation in DIC is:
    • a. Thrombocytopenia and schistocytes b. fibrin degradation product assay
    • c. Raised PTT and PT d. Increased bleeding time
  199. 201. Diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation is best confirmed by:
    a. Defective platelet function b. prolongation of prothrombin time c. Fibrin degradation products in serum d. Fragmented red cells in the PBS
  200. 202. Not a laboratory findings of DIC:
    a. Low FDP b. High aPTT c. High PT d. thrombocytopenia
  201. 203. not a feature of DIC:
    a. Thrombocytopenia b. normal aPTT c. prolonged PT d. Hypofibrinogenemia
  202. 204.False regarding DIC:
    a. hypofibrinogenemia b. Increased PT and aPTT c. Thrombocytosis d. Increase in fibrin degradation products
  203. 205. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is not seen in:
    a. Post partum hemorrhage b. Accidental hemorrhage c. Amniotic fund embolism d. diabetes mellitus
  204. 206. Not included in the treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation :
    a. ε- aminocarproic acid(EACA) b. Fresh frozen plasma c. Heparin d. Platelet transfusion
  205. 207. Fanconi syndrome Is associated with:
    a. Fructose intolerance b. Hypophosphatemia c. Generalized aminoaciduria d. all of the above
  206. 208. Regarding Fanconi syndrome all are correct except:
    • a. Usually presents by 6 months, but may present later b. Linear growth is impaired
    • c. polyuria and polydipsia are the features d. none of the above
  207. 209. Drug not used in thyrotoxic crisis is:
    a. Corticosteroids b. Iodine c. Carbimazole d. Propranolol
  208. 210. Most important drug used in acute MI with multiple ectopic:
    a. Streptokinase b. β-adrenoceptor blocking agents c. Procainamide d. Digoxin
  209. 211. Most of the death in myocardial infarction results in the… day:
    a. First b. Second c. Fifth d. Seventh
  210. 212. ATT used in patients of renal failure is:
    a. Pyrazinamide b. Isoniaxid c. Rifampicin d. Ethambutol
  211. 213. In acute respiratory failure, most frequent abnormality seen in ECG is:
    a. Right ventricular hypertrophy b. Ventricular arrhythmia c. AV block d. Acute ventricular arrhythmia
  212. 214.Psychiatric manifestations are common in:
    a. Hepatic porphyria b. porphyria cutanea tarda c. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria d. Acute intermittent porphyria
  213. 215. Not a feature of acute intermittent porphyria:
    a. heamturia b. Abdominal pain c. Leukocytosis d. Fever
  214. 216.Not a clinical feature of SLE:
    a. Psychosis b. Coombs’ positive hemolytic anemia c. sterility d. Recurrent abortion
  215. 217. Bronchiectasis, eosinophilia and asthma are seen in:
    a. Aspergillosis b. histoplasmosis c. Nocardiosis d. mucormycosis
  216. 218. In which of the following condition, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergilosis is seen:
    a. Tubercular cavity b. bronchitis c. Bronchiectasis d. bronchus carcinoma
  217. 219. False regarding allergic aspergillosis is :
    a. Plueral effusion b. Pulmonary infiltrates c. Central bronchiectasis d. Asthma
  218. 220. False regarding allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillisis is:
    • a. eosinophilia b. asthma c. Pleural effusion d. Central bronchiectasis
    • 221.Megaloblastic anemia is not caused by:
    • a. Folic acid deficiency b. Lead poisoning c. Vitamin B12 deficiency d. orotic aciduria
  219. 222. In pre-excitation syndrome ECG shows:
    a. Q waves b. Delta waves c. long Pr interval d. Tall T waves
  220. 223. Drug of choice in WPW syndrome with atrial fibrillation is:
    a. Procainamide b. Disopyramide c. Adenosine d. Verapamil
  221. 224. The best treatment for Wolf-parkinson white syndrome is;
    a. Carotid massage b. IV verapamil c. Cardioversion d. Surgical excision of the tract
  222. 225.Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is due to:
    a. Acquired hemoglobin defect b. Complement mediated RBC lysis c. Autoimmune disorder d. Congenital membrane defect
  223. 226. Troglitazone is the drug used in the treatment of:
    a. Type 2 diabetes mellitus b. Petit mal epilepsy c. Hyperlipidemia d. Candidiasis
  224. 227.Not an important feature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria:
    a. High leukocyte alkaline phosphatase b. Hemosiderinuria c. Hypocellular marrow d. Pancytopenia
  225. 228. not a feature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is;
    a. high leukocyte alkaline phosphate (LAP) b. Thrombocytopenia c. Hemosiderinuria d. Venous thrombosis
  226. 229. Folic acid deficiency in megaloblastic anemia is due to:
    a. Methylcobalamin is cofactor b. Inhibit purine synthesis c. Intrinsic factor deficiency d. Folate trap mechanism
  227. 230. not a clinical feature of Henoch-Schonlenin purpura:
    a. Thrombocytopenia b. increased serum IgA c. Glomerulonephiritis d. Arthralgia
  228. 231. False regarding Henoch-Schonlenin purpura:
    a. Nehritis b. Arthritis c. Centrifugal rash d. Thrombocytopenia
  229. 232. not a feature of Henoch-Schonlenin purpura:
    a. Renal failure may cause death b. IgA deposition in medangium c. Hematuria d. Thrombocytopenia
  230. 233. Not a characteristic feature of Henoch-Schonlein purpura:
    a. Abdominal pain b. Arthralgia c. Thrombocytopenia d. Glomerulonephritis
  231. 234. Important feature of Henoch-Schonlein purpura is:
    a. Aneurysm of branching point b. Absent radial pulse c. Membranous glomerulonephritis d. Raised IgA
  232. 235. Thrombocytopenia is seen in all except:
    • a. Thrombocytopenic purpura b. Immunogenic thrombocytopenia c. Henoch- Schonlein purpura d. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
    • 236. Not a clinical feature of pancreatic cholera:
    • a. Metabolic acidosis b. hypocalcemia c. Hypochlorhydria d. Hypokalemia
  233. 237. Single drug used in prophylaxis of tuberculosis is:
    a. Pyrazinamide b. Isoniazed c. Rifampicin d. Ethambutol
  234. 238. not a cause of hypokalemia:
    a. K+ sparing diuretic b. Licorice ingestion c. liddle’s syndrome d. Bartler’s syndrome
  235. 239. all the following are features of Bartler’s syndrome except:
    a. Hypokalemia b. Hypertension c. Alkalosis d. Increased rennin and aldosterone
  236. 240. Sensory involvement is not seen in:
    a. Wilson’s disease b. Acute intermittent porphyria c. Guillain-Barre syndrome d. Infectious mononucleosis
  237. 241.All are seen in Wilson’s disease except:
    a. positive Babinski sign b. Rigidity c. Spasticity d. Sensory symptoms
  238. 242.Not a feature of Wilson’s disease :
    a. Sensor changes b. Spasticity c. Rigidity d. Intension tremors
  239. 243. Not a feature of Wilson’s disease:
    a. Features of chronic active hepatitis b. Mental changes c. Increased ceruloplasmin d. Increased copper content in liver
  240. 244. All of the following are true about Wilson’s disease except:
    a. Increase liver copper b. Increased serum ceruloplasmin level c. Chronic active hepatitis d. Hemolysis
  241. 245.Wilson’s disease is due to deposition of:
    a. Arsenic b. copper c. Iron d. Zinc
  242. 246. not seen in Wilson’s disease :
    a. Chorea b. Dysphagia c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Dysarthria
  243. 247. All are the features of Wilson’s disease except:
    a. Manic depressive psychosis b. Chorea c. Testicular atrophy d. Dusarthria
  244. 248. not a recognized feature of Wilson’s disease:
    • a. Histopathological features of chronic active hepatitis b. Increased copper content of liver
    • c. Increased serum ceruloplasmin levels d. psychological disturbance
  245. 249. Characteristics of wilson’s disease include:
    a. kayser-Fleisher ring in the cornea b. Ceruloplasmin deficiency c. Psychiatric symptoms preceding neurological symptoms d. all of the above
  246. 250. The term “crossed aphasia” means:
    a. Right hemispherical lesion in right handed person b. right hemispherical lesion in left handed person c. Left hemispherical lesion in left handed person d. Left hemispherical lesion in right handed person
  247. 251.Glucagonoma is characterized by which of the following skin disorders:
    a. necrolyitc migratory erythema b. Erythema chronicum migrans c.. Erythema gyratum repens d. Acrodermatitis enteropathica
  248. 252. hypophosphatemia is not caused by:
    a. Dlucocorticoid administration b. Salicylate poisoning c. diabetic ketoacidosis d. Familial hypophosphatemia
  249. 253.REticulocyte count is not increased in which of the following :
    a. Hemorrhage b. Hemolytic anemia c. Myeloid metaplasia d. Treated iron deficiency anemia
  250. 254. True regarding anton syndrome is:
    a. Cortical blindness b. Patient denies that he is blind c. Both d. none
  251. 255. In giardiasis, malabsorption is due to:
    a. Hypogammaglobulinemia b. Lactose intolerance c. bacterial overgrowth d. Adherence of trophozoites
  252. 256. All of the following are effective in giardiasis except:
    a. Furazolidone b. Metronidazole c. Tinidazole d. Cotrimoxazole
  253. 257. All are seen in hepatorenal syndrome except:
    a. normal renal biopsy b. Low Na+ in urine c. Normal urinary sediments d. Normal GFR
  254. 258.Most common congenital heart disease (CHD) is:
    a. ASD b. VSD c. TOF d. PDA
  255. 259. A patent ductus is necessary for survival for all the following conditions except:
    a. Underdeveloped aortic arch b. TGV c. Left ventricular hypoplasia d. Truncus arteriosus
  256. 260. All are false regarding VSD except:
    a. Pulmonary oligemia in CXR b. small hoe closes spontaneously c. Defect is usually in muscular part d. Endocarditis is the most common complication
  257. 261.Cardiac manifestation of Williams’ syndrome is:
    a. Coarctation of aorta b. Endocardial cushin defect c. PDA d. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
  258. 262. False regarding thymoma:
    a.Hypergammagobulinemia b. Superior mediastinal compression syndrome c. Pure red cell aplasia d. Myasthenia gravis
  259. 263. In thymoma, all are seen except:
    a. Red cell aplasia b. Hypoalbuminemia c. Hypogammaglobulinemia d. Myasthenia gravis
  260. 264. not associated with thymoma:
    a. myasthenia gravis b. Pure red cell aplasia c. Hypergammaglobulinemia d. Pemphigus
  261. 265. Thymoma is not associated with:
    a. myasthenia gravis b. hypergammaglobulinemia c. Isaac’s syndrome d. Pure red cell aplasia
  262. 266. Thymoma is associated with:
    a. Esophageal stricture b. Hypergammaglobulinemia c. Scleroderma d. Myasthenia gravis
  263. 267.Thymoma is not associated with:
    a. Isaac’s syndrome b. Hypergamaglobulinemia c. Pure red cell aplasia d. Myasthenia gravis
  264. 268. not a clinical feature of tabes dorsalis is:
    a. Hyper-reflexia b. Bladder incontinence c. Argyll Robertson pupil d. Ataxia
  265. 269. False regarding tabes dorsalis is:
    a. Posterior column involvement b. Hyper-reflexia c. Urinary bladder incontinence d. Ataxia
  266. 270. False regarding tabes dorsalis is:
    a. bilateral Argyll Robertson pupil b. Hyper-reflexia c. Bladder disturbance d. Romberg’s sign
  267. 271. Not a clinical feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:
    a. Digoxin is useful b. Irregular thickness of septum c. Dynamic obstruction d. Double apical impulse
  268. 272. False regarding hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is :
    a. Treatment by digoxin b. Irregular thickness of septum c. Sub-aortic narrowing d. Asymmetricla septal hypertrophy
  269. 273. False regarding hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy:
    a. Asymmetrical septal hypertrophy b. Forward flow obstruction d. Anterior motion of mitral valve
  270. 274. False regarding hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is:
    • a. Digoxin is the treatment of choice b. Hallmark of obstructive HCMP is a systolic murmur
    • c. Symptoms are not related to the presence of severity of an outflow gradient d. Most common compliant is dyspnea
  271. 275.False regarding renal tubular acidosis is:
    a. hypokalemia b. Increased anion gap c. Acidosis d. Defective bicarbonate reabsorption
  272. 276. False regarding renal tubular acidosis is:
    a. High urinary pH b. Hyperchloremia c. Bicarbonaturia d. Increased anion gap
  273. 277. False regarding renal tubular acidosis:
    a. HCO3 increase in urine b. Urine pH more than 6 c. Hyperchloremic acidosis d. Reduced anion gap
  274. 278.Anion gap is not increased in:
    a. Diabetic ketoacidosis b. Salicylates c. Renal tubular acidosis d. Starvation
  275. 279. Widened anion gap is not seen in:
    a. Diabetic ketoacidosis b. lactic acidosis c. diarrhea d. Acute renal failure
  276. 280. normal anion gap in humans is (in mmol/L):
    a. 5-6 b. 10-12 c. 20-30 d. 14-20
  277. 281. The major contribution to anion gap is from:
    a. Proteins b. Lactic acid c. Sulphate d. Phosphates
  278. 282. Raised anion gap in blood is seen in all the following except:
    a. Diabetic ketoacidosis b. Renal failure c. Chronic respiratory failure d. Antifreeze ingestion
  279. 283. Antifreeze poisoning results in:
    • a. Mixed acidosis and alkalosis b. metabolic alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap d.
    • metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
  280. 284. A patient has drunken antifreeze of car. Metabolic finding will be:
    a. Raised anion gap acidosis b. hypercalcemia c. Normal gap alkalosis d. normal gap acidosis
  281. 285. CSF finding in aseptic meningitis is:
    a. neutrophilia b. CSF is clear to opalescent d. Oligoclonal IgG bands d. Protein and sugar are usually normal
  282. 286. not aCSF finding in tubercular meningitis:
    a. High red cell count b. Lo chloride c. Raised protein d. Low sugar
  283. 287.Not a characteristic CSF change in acute pyogenic meningitis:
    a. Reduction of C reactive protein b. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes c. Marked fall in sugar content d. Rise in protein content
  284. 288. In pyogenic meningitis the CSF finding is:
    • a. Increased chloride and increased glucose b. Inceased protein and increased glucose
    • c. Less glucose and more protein d. CSF contains no organism
  285. 289. The most common cause of Addison’s disease is:
    a. Autoimmune etiology b. Tuberculosis c. Metastatic carcinoma d. Meningococcal septicemia
  286. 290. Feature of Addison’ s disease is:
    a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypernatremia c. Decreased serum bicarbonates
  287. 291. Characteristic feature of Addison’s disease is:
    a. Hypernatremia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypoglycemia d. Hypertension
  288. 292. most common presentation of primary hyperparathyroidism is:
    a. Myopathy b. Asymptomatic hypocalcemia c. Asymptomatic hypercalcemia d. Nephrolithiasis
  289. 293. False regarding menetrier’s disease is:
    a. Hypergastrinemia b. Protein losing gastropathy c. Foveolar hypertrophy d. Most common symptom is epigastric pain
  290. 294. Not a presenting feature of Menentrier’s disease :
    a. Anorexia b. Constipation c. Edema d. Weight loss
  291. 295. Fatal familial insomnia is associated with:
    a. Vascular disease b. Neoplastic disease c. Degenerative disease d. Prion disease
  292. 296. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by:
    a. Riluzole used for treatment b. Prion c. JC virus d. Nonspongiform change
  293. 297. Kuru is caused by:
    a. Chlamydia b. Virus c. Protozoan d. Prion
  294. 298. Most common malignancy seen in AIDS patients is:
    a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Colon carcinoma c. Lymphoma d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
  295. 299. All are HIV associated malignancies except:
    a. Kaposi’s sarcoma b. Lung carcinoma c. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma d. Anogenital carcinoma
  296. 300. s Drug of choice in acute migraine is:
    a. Pizotifen b. Methysergide c. Clonidine d. Ergotamine
  297. 301. Drug not used in migraine :
    a. Ergotamine b. Propranolol c. Verapamil d. Flunarizine
  298. 302. Drug of choice for acute attack of migraine is:
    a. Sumatriptan b. Amitriptyline c. Methysergide d. Caffeine
  299. 303. Drug of choice is acute migraine not responding to aspirin is:
    a. Ibuprofen b. Zolmitriptan c. Sumatriptan d. Ergotamine
  300. 304.Severe migraine is treated with:
    a. Sodium valproate b. Amitriptyline c. Propranolol d. Ergotamine
  301. 305.Most common site of pyogenic liver abscess is:
    a. Quardrate lobe b. Caudate lobe c. right side d. None of the above
  302. 306.s X-linked recessive disorder is:
    a. Sickle cell anemia b. Cystic fibrosis c. Hypophosphatemia rickets d. G6PD deficiency
  303. 307. G6PD deficiency is genetically :
    a. X-linked b. Autosomal recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Polygenic
  304. 308. Not an X-linked disease:
    a. Color blindness b. G6PD deficiency c. Hemophilia A d. β-thalassemia
  305. 309.s Drug of choice for tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is:
    • a. Chlorquine b. Montelukast c. Salbitamol d. Diethylcarbamazine
    • 310. Not a feature of TPE:
    • a. Bilateral chest mottling b. Wheezing c. Wuchereria bancrofti infestation d. Eosinophilia >3000
  306. 311. Ranson criterion isused in:
    a. Gallstone ileus b. Acute appendicitis c Acute choledicitis c. Acute cholecystitis d. Acute pancreatitis
  307. 312. Not included in the Ranson criteria for the prognosis of acute pancreatitis:
    a. Serum amylase>350 IU b. AST >250 IU/L c. Age >55Years d. WBC >16,000 cells/mm
  308. 313.Not a prognostic marker is acute pancreatitis:
    a. Hypocalcemia b. Increased LDH c. Leukocytosis d. Decreased serum lipase
  309. 314. Acute pancreatitis cannot occur in:
    a. Hyppocalcemia b. Alcoholism c. Hereditary pancreatitis d. Hypercalcemia
  310. 315. Not a cause of acute pancreatitis:
    a. Hyperclacemia b. Hemochromatosis c. Gallstone d. Alcohol
  311. 316. Causes of pancreatitis are all the following except:
    a. Cystic fibrosis b. Chronic alcoholism c. Hypocalcemia d. CBD stone
  312. 317.Organism which causes pancreatitis:
    a. Measles b. Mumps c. Influenza d. Herpes
  313. 318. All are false regarding Klinefelter’s syndrome except:
    a. Subnormal intelligence b. Subluxation of lens c. Cataract d. Short stature
  314. 319. Not a clinical feature of Klinefelter’s syndrome:
    a. Oligospermia b. Gynecomastia c. diabetes mellitus d. 47 XXY
  315. 320. In klinefelter’s syndomre , the chromosomal pattern is:
    a. XXY b. XXX c. XO d. Any of the above
  316. 321. Translocation from 8 to 14 is seen in:
    a. Retinoblastoma b. Ewing’s sarcoma c. Burkitt’s lymphoma d. All
  317. 322. Neisseria infection is characteristic of deficiency of;
    a. C2 b. C4 c. C5 d. C3
  318. 323. Severe cyanosis with left axis deviation is seen in:
    a. Tetralogy of fallot b. Malpositioning of heart c. Ebstein’s anomaly d. Tricuspid atresia
  319. 324. Cyanosis with left ventricular hypertrophy is caused by:
    a. TGV b. Eisemenger complex c. Tricuspid atresia d . Tetralogy of Fallot
  320. 325. ‘possibility’ of right axis deviation is found in all except:
    a. Tetralogy of fallot b. Tricuspid atresia c. Ventricular septal defect d. Atrial septal defect
  321. 326. False regarding tricuspid atresia is:
    • a. Decreased pulmonary blood supply is seen inn PA view of CXR:
    • b. Decreased pulmonary blood supply is seen in PA view of CXR b. Right ventricular hypoplasia
    • c. Fixed split S2 d. Left axis deviation
  322. 327. Major criteria for AIDS does not includes:
    a. Weight loss>10% b. Persistent diarrhea c. Persistent cough d. Persistent fever
  323. 328. Diameter of normal mitral valve orifice is:
    a. 6-8 cm b. 4-6cm c. 1 cm d. 2-4 cm
  324. 329. Left ventricular dysfunction is seen in:
    a. Aortic regurgitation b. Aortic stenosis c. Mitral regurgitation d. mitral stenosis
  325. 330.Left ventricular hypertrophy is not seen in:
    a. MS b. AS c. Aortic incompetence d. Essential hypertension
  326. 331.s Lung carcinoma with worst prognosis is:
    a. Large cell carcinoma b. Small cell carcinoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Epidermoid
  327. 332.False regarding Gaucher’s disease is:
    a. Hepatomegaly b. Autosomal dominant inheritance c. no neurological symptoms in adult form d. β-glucosidase deficiency
  328. 333. False regarding Kawassaki’s disease is:
    a. Generally benign and self limiting b. Coronary artery aneurysm c. Occurs >5 years of age d. Fever
  329. 334. Not a characteristic feature of Kawasaki’s disease :
    a. Desquamation of skin of finger and toes b. Cervical lymphadenopathy c. Thrombocytopenia d. Conjunctival effusion
  330. 335. Not a feature of Kawasaki’s disease:
    a. Desquamation of skin of finger and toes b. Coronary artery aneurysm c. thrombocytopenia d. Conjunctival effusion
  331. 336. Kawasaki’s disease is treated with:
    a. .Chemotherapy b. IV glucocorticoids c. Oral glucocorticoids d. Immunotherapy
  332. 337.Sudden pain in thyroid nodule indicates:
    a. Malignant change b. Hemorrhage c. Infarction d. Necrosis
  333. 338.Kussmaul’s breathing is due to presence of:
    a. Bicarbonate b. H+ ions(acidosis) c. Chloride ions d. k+ ions
  334. 339.Kussmaul’s breathing is seen in:
    a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Respiratory acidosis
  335. 340. Initial treatment of shy-drager syndrome is:
    a. β-blockers b. Prazosin c. Fludrocortisone d. None of the above
  336. 341. Cardiomyopathy is seen in;
    a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Holt-Oram syndrome c. Friedreich’s ataxia d. Refsum’s disease
  337. 342. Most common cardiac anomaly in Friedreich’s ataxia is:
    a. Cardiomyopathy b. Conduction defect c. Mitral stenosis d. Patent ductus arteriosus
  338. 343. Bilateral absent ankle jerk with extensor planter reflex is seen in:
    a. Ataxia telangiectasia b. Syringomyelia c. Upper motor neuron lesion d. Friedreich’s ataxia
  339. 344.Tutubation is characteristic of lesion in:
    a. Basal ganglia b. Motor cortex c. Cerebellum d. ARAS
  340. 345.Hallmark of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is:
    a. Short QT interval b. Prolonged QT interval c. Short PR interval d. Prolonged PR interval
  341. 346. Torsades de pointes are seen in:
    a. Metabolic acidosis b. Hypomagnesemia/hypokalemia c. Hypermagnesemia d. Metabolic alkalosis
  342. 347. In Torsades de points are seen in:
    a. Short QT interval b. Short QRS interval c. Prolonged QT interval d. Prolonged QRS interval
  343. 348. Not a blood borne disease:
    a. Hepatitis E b. Hepatitis D c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis B
  344. 349. False regarding hepatitis E is:
    a. No carrier state b. High mortality in pregnant women c. May produce chronic hepatic disease d. Fecal-oral transmission
  345. 350.Most common route of spread in hepatitis E is:
    a. IV injection b. Intercourse c. Fecal oral d. Blood transfusion
  346. 351. Most dangerous hepatitis in pregnancy is:
    a. Hepatitis E b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis A d. Hepatitis B
  347. 352.True regarding hepatitis E is:
    • a. Seen in post-transfusion cases b. Increases mortality in pregnancy
    • c. Alpha interferon given for carries d. Associated with hepatitis B
  348. 353. Dane particle pertains to:
    a. HAV b. HNAB c. HBV d. None
  349. 354. Best means of giving hepatitis B vaccine is:
    a. Subcutaneous b. Intradermal c. Intramuscular gluteal d. Intramuscular deltoid
  350. 355. Incubation period of hepatitis B is:
    a. 4 weeks to 6 months b. 6 days to 6 weeks c. 6 months to 6 years d. >6 years
  351. 356. Korsakoff’s psychosis is due to involvement of:
    a. Nondominant cerebral hemispheres b. Dominant hemispheres c. Both A and B d. Either of temporal lobe
  352. 357. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in all the following except:
    a. Crigler-Najjar syndrome b. Dubin-Johnson syndrome c. Breast milk jaundice d. Gilbert’s syndrome
  353. 358. Most severe hyperbilirubinemia occurs in:
    a. Dubin-Johnson syndrome b. Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I c. Crigler- Najjar syndrome type II d. Gilbert’s syndrome
  354. 359. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in:
    a. Hemophilia b. Huntington’s chorea c. Hunter’s syndrome d. Hurler’s syndrome
  355. 360. Disorder genetically transmitted by single autosomal dominant gene is:
    a. Huntington’s disease b. CJD c. PKU d. Catatonic schizophrenia
  356. 361. Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign is seen in:
    a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Hypoparathyroidism c. Hyperthyroidism d. Hypothyroidism
  357. 362.HLA matching is not necessary in which of the following organ transplantation:
    a. Liver b. Bone marrow c. pancreas d. Kidney
  358. 363. Lyme disease is caused by:
    a. Borrelia burgdorferi b. Borrelia falciparum c. Borrelia turicatae d. borrelia recurrentis
  359. 364. All the following diseases are transmitted by flea bites except:
    a. Plague b. Murine typhus c. Chiggerosis d. Lyme disease
  360. 365. In temporal lobe epilepsy treatment is:
    a. Ethosuximide b. Carbamazepine c. Clobazam d. Valporic acid
  361. 366.Chronic Inflammatory bowel disease is associated with which of the following:
    a. Primary sclerosing cholangitis b. Cholangiosarcoma c. Fibrosis d. Chronic hepatitis
  362. 367. Ulcerative colitis is not accompanied by:
    a. Interstitial nephritis b. Pyoderma gangrenosum c. Iridis d. Arthritis
  363. 368. In diabetes mellitus ‘hypoglycemia unawareness’ is due to :
    a. necrobiosis lipoidica b. Insulin resistance c. Diabetic neuropathy d. Switch over insulin to oral drugs
  364. 369. hypoglycemia unawareness in diabetes mellitus is because of:
    a. Lipodystrophy b. Insulin resistance c. Autonomic neuropathy d. switch over insulin to oral hypoglycemic drugs
  365. 370. Insulin resistance is due to:
    • a. IgD b. IgA c. IgG d. IgM
    • 371. Weight loss is seen in:
    • a. Hypothyridism b. Insulin secreting tumor c. Pheochromocytoma d. Cushing syndrome
  366. 372.Not a characteristic feature of Turner’s syndrome :
    a. polycystic kidney b. Short neck c. Coarctation of aorta d. Ovarian dysgenesis
  367. 373. 45, Chromosomal anomaly, short stature and genital infantilism are seen in:
    a. Gonadal agenesis b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. Down’s syndrome d. Turner’s syndrome
  368. 374.HbA 1 is :
    • a. A result of enzymatic degradation of glucose b. Indicative of level of glucose in diabetic patient
    • c. Mutant of hemoglobin d. Absent in normal people
  369. 375. Significance of glycosylated hemoglobin is:
    a. Useful in fetal damage b. Indicates abnormal hemoglobin c. Long-term measurement of blood sugar d. Useful in fetal lung maturity
  370. 376. Glycosylated hemoglobin which indicates good control of diabetes is:
    a. 8% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%
  371. 377. Increased cardiac silhouette is not seen in:
    a. CHF b. Pericardial effusion c. Multi-valvular rheumatic heart disease d. Uncomplicated tetralogy of Fallot
  372. 378. Boot shaped heart with pulmonary oligemia is seen in:
    a. TGA b. TOF c. ASD d. PDA
  373. 379. Drug essential in sheehan’s syndrome is:
    a. gonadotropins b. Cortisone c. Thyroxin d. Estrogen
  374. 380.Poor prognostic factor in scleroderma is:
    a. Telangiectasia b. Dysphagia c. Renal involvement d. Cutaneous calcification
  375. 381. Virus implicated in hepatocellular carcinoma is:
    a. HCV b. HEV c. HDV d . HAV
  376. 382.Most common predisposing factor for hepatocellular carcinoma in india is:
    a. Mixed micronodular cirrhosis b. Hepatitis B c. non A, Non B hepatitis d. Alcoholic cirrhosis
  377. 383. Small intestine biopsy is diagnostic in:
    a. Whipple’s disease b. Tropical sprue c. Hirschsprung’s disease d. Amyloidosis
  378. 384. Electrical alternans in ECG Is seen in:
    a. Dilated cardiomyopathy b. Pericardial effusion c. Hypertrophiuc cardiomyopathy d. Hypertension
  379. 385. Electrical alternans is seen in:
    a. COPD b. Left atrial myxoma c. Restrictive cardiomyopathy d. Cardiac tamponade
  380. 386. Most common age of presentation of gastric ulcer is:
    a. 6th decade of life b. 3rd decade of life c. 4th decade of life d. 5th decade of life
  381. 387. Most common cardiac manifestation of sarcoidosis is:
    a. PAT b. Atrial fibrillation c. Heart block d. Cor pulmonale
  382. 388.Romberg’s sign indicates dysfunction of:
    a. Cerebellum b. Sensory cortex c. Lateral spinothalamic tracs d. Anteiror column
  383. 389. HLA B-27 is not associated with:
    a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Psoriatic arthritis c. Reiter’s syndrome d. Ankylosing spondylitis
  384. 390. HLA B -27 is not associated with:
    a. Psoriatic arthritis b. Behcet’s syndrome c. Ankylosing spondylitis d. Reiter’s disease
  385. 391. Ankylosing spondyltis is associated with:
    a. HLA B-27 b. HLA DR-4 c. HLA B-8 d. HLA A -3
  386. 392. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with:
    a. DR -2 b. DR-3 c. DR-4 d. DR-5 e. HLA B-27
  387. 393. Palatal myoclonus is seen in:
    a. Guillain-Barre syndrome b. Cerebellar infarction c. Multiple sclerosis d. Epilepsy
  388. 394. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopthy is caused by:
    a. HHV-8 b. Parvovirus c. JC virus d. Hanta virus
  389. 395.Malarial relapse is due to:
    A Trophozoites b. Merozoites c. Hypnozoites d. Sporozoites
  390. 396. Not seen in Dressler’s syndrome:
    a. Usually in 1st or subsequent week after infarction b. Ventricular tachycardia c. Fever d. Pericarditis
  391. 397. Herpes –Zoster most commonly affects:
    a. Spinal cord medulla b. Dorsal root ganglia c. Sympathetic ganglia d. Anterior horn cells
  392. 398. Zoster recurrence occurs after infection with:
    a. Smallpox b. HSV 1 c. Varicella d. HSV 2
  393. 399. Sezary syndrome is:
    a. Locke’s disease b. merck’s disease c. T-cell lymphoma d. B-cell lymphoma
  394. 400. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is:
    a. Rectosigmoid junction tear b. Duodenojejunal junction tear c. Gastroesophageal junction tear d. Gastroduodenal junction tear
  395. 401. In phenothiazines induced dystonia the drug of choice is:
    • a. Metoclopramide b. Diphenhydramine c. Pimoxide d. Trifluoperazine
    • 402. Metabolic alkalosis is not seen in:
    • a. Cushing disease b. Ureterosigmoidostomy c. Prolonged vomiting d. Thiazide diuretic
  396. 403. Toxoplasmosis in pregnancy Is treated with:
    a. Nifurtimox b. Pyrimethamine c. spiramycin d. Suramin
  397. 404. Drug of choice for ocular toxoplasmosis is:
    a. Riboflavin b. Ganciclovir c. Tetracycline d. Pyrimethamine
  398. 405. In what percentage of patients with anorexia nervosa, amenorrhea is present:
    a. 100% b. 50% c. 25% d. 80%
  399. 406. Not a feature of anorexia nervosa:
    a. Avoidance of high caloric foods b. Amenorrhea is rare c. loss of weight at time of presentation d. Predominantly seen in females
  400. 407. Drug of choice in anorexia nervosa is:
    a. FLuoxetine b. Phenytoin c. Haloperidol d. Cyproheptadine
  401. 408. Sturge-Weber syndrome is associated with:
    a. Hemangiosarcoma b. Lymphagioma c. Cavernous hemangioma d. Port-wine stain
  402. 409. False regarding Sturge-Weber syndrome is:
    a. Focal seizure on same side b. Capillary hemangioma c. Sensory motor paralysis d. Cerebral cortex atrophy
  403. 410. All of the following are anterior mediastinal masses except:
    a. Thymomas b. Teratoma c. Thyroid masses d. Gastroenteric cysts
  404. 411. Most common anterior mediastinum tumor is:
    a. Vascular cyst b. Neurogenic tumor c. Thymoma d. Lymphoma
  405. 412. Not an anterior mediastinal tumor:
    a.Teratoma b. Lymphoma c. Neurofibroama d. Thymoma
  406. 413. Not a middle mediastinal mass:
    a. Pleuropericardial cyst b. Gastroenteric cyst c. Bronchogenic cyst d. Vascular masses
  407. 414. Most common lesion of middle mediastinum is:
    a. Neurogneic tumor b. Aneurysm c. Congenital cyst d. Germ cell tumor
  408. 415. Most common tumor of posterior mediastinum:
    a. Teratoma b. Neurogenic c. Lymphoma d. Thymoma
  409. 416. Most common tumor of posterior mediastinum is:
    a. Cyst b. Lymphoma c. Neurofibroma d. Thymoma
  410. 417.Inherited disorder of metabolism is:
    a. Patau’s syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Maple syrup urine disease d. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
  411. 418. not associated with microcytic hypochromic anemia:
    a. liver disease b. Thalassemia c. Pyridoxine deficiency d. ARF
  412. 419. Most common cause of death in acute poliomyelitis is:
    a. Intercostal muscle paralysis b. Respiratory failure c. Convulsions d. cardiac arrest
  413. 420. Most common presentation of craniopharyngioma is:
    a. Cardiac disturbance b. Endocrinal disturbance c. Visual complaints d. Nausea and vomiting
  414. 421. Most common clinical feature of craniopharyngioma is:
    a. Headache b. Convulsions c. Field defect d. Optic atrophy
  415. 422. Not a clinical feature of Eaton-Lambert syndrome:
    a. Associated with lung carcinoma b. Female predominant c. Affect pelvic muscle first d. Proximal muscle weakness
  416. 423. Nephrocalcinosis is seen in all except:
    a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Vitamin D intoxication c. Medullary sponge kidney d. Cystic disease of kidney
  417. 424. False regarding hemolytic uremic syndrome is:
    a. Positive coombs test b. Thrombocytopenia c. Hypofibrinogenemia d. Uremia
  418. 425. Not seen in hemolytic uremic syndrome
    a. Coombs test positive b. Burr cells c. Thrombocytopenia d. Uremia
  419. 426.Not a feature of hemolytic uremic syndrome:
    a. Purpura b. Thrombocytopenia c. Liver cell abnormality d. Encephalopathy
  420. 427. Not a feature of hemolytic uremic syndrome:
    a. Segmented RBCs in Peripheral blood smear b. Thrombocytosis c.. Hematuria d. Uremia
  421. 428. Characteristic finding in peripheral blood smear of a patient of hemolytic uremic syndrome is:
    a. Burr cells with fragmented RBCs b. Punctate basophilia c. ANisopoikilocytosis d. Burr cells
  422. 429. Minimum Pericardial fluid is best detected by:
    a. Echocardiography b. ECG c. CT d. CXR
  423. 430. Most common site for amebiasis is :
    a. Hepatic flexure b. Cecum c. Sigmoid colon d. Transverse colon
  424. 431. Most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is:
    a. Ectopic ACTH b. Latrogneic steroids c. Pituitary adenoma d. Motor neuron disease
  425. 432.Fasciculations are seen in:
    a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. Polymyositis c. Poliomyelitis d. Motor neuron disease
  426. 433. Motor neuron disease is characterized by:
    a. Sensory loss b. rigidity c. Fasciculation d. focal seizure
  427. 434. all are paraneoplastic syndrome except:
    • a. Cerebellar degeneration b. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis d.
    • opsoclonus myoclonus
  428. 435. In cryptococcal meningitis the drug of choice is:
    a. Zidovudine b. Clotrimazole c. Amphotericin B d. Pentostatin
  429. 436.Whihc of the following is not a feature of digitalis toxicity :
    a. Xanthopsia b. Parozysmal atrial tachycardia c. ST depression d. Nausea
  430. 437. Not used in treatment of digitalis toxicity:
    a. Lignocaine b. Fab paricle c. Atropine d. Peritoneal dialysis
  431. 438.Treatment of digoxin overdose does not include:
    a. Hemodialysis b. Phenytoin c. Potassium d. Lignocaine
  432. 439. Lignocaine is not used in:
    a. Digoxin toxicity b. AF c. Local anesthetics d. Ventricular tachycardia
  433. 440. Not a disease modifying antirheumatoid drug (DMARD):
    a. Bal b. Gold c. Penicillamine d. Chloroquine
  434. 441. Gold salt can be used in:
    a. Behcet’s syndrome b. Osteoarthritis c. Early progressive rheumatoid arthritis d. Ankylosing spondylitis
  435. 442.Not a disease modifying antirheumatic drug:
    a. Glucocorticoids b. Sulfasalazine c. Methotrexate d. Antimalarials
  436. 443. In rheumatoid arthritis gold and penicillamine are used because:
    • a. Not modifying drugs b. Decreasing severity and progression of disease on long-term use
    • c. Useful in acute arthritis d. They bring about immediate relief
  437. 444. A patient has polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty and pigmentation, most likely
    • diagnosis is:
    • a. Systemic lupus erythematous b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. McCune –Albright syndrome d. Tuberous sclerosis
  438. 445.A patient has seizures with mental retardation and sebaceous adenoma. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Down syndrome b. Toxoplasmosis c. Tuberous sclerosis d. Hypothyroid
  439. 446. Not seen in tuberous sclerosis:
    a. Renal cortical cyst b. Heart and lung rhabdomyosarcoma c. Adenoma sebaceum d. Iris nodules
  440. 447. Aspirin sensitive asthma is associated with:
    a. Extrinsic asthma b. Nasal polyp c. Associated with urticaria d. Obesity
  441. 448. In prinzmetal’s angina, the drug of choice is:
    a. Verapamil b. Propranolol c. Diltiazem d. Nitrates
  442. 449. drug not much useful in prinzmetal’s angina is:
    a. Calcium channel blocker b. Propanolol c. Nifedipine d. Nitroglycerin
  443. 450.s Hyperparathyroidism is most commonly caused by:
    a. Ectopic PTH production b. adrenal hyperplasia c. Solitary adenoma d. Multiple parathyroidism adenoma
  444. 451.Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism, :
    a. Werner’s syndrome b. Multiple adenoma c. Chief cell hyperplasia d. Solitary adenoma
  445. 452. Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is:
    a. parathyroid carcinoma b. Parathyroid adenoma c. Chronic renal disease d. Hyperplasia of parathyroid glands
  446. 453. Retinopathy in diabetes mellitus depends upon:
    a. Duration of disease b. Age of patient c. Blood sugar level d. Severity of disease
  447. 454. Tumor metastasis spread through CSF is:
    a. Craniopharyngioma b. Glioblastoma c. Medulloblastoma d. Ependymoma
  448. 455. Brain tumor associated with CSF invasion is:
    a. Oligodendroglioma b. Glioblastoma c. Medulloblastoma d. Ependymoma
  449. 456. Craniospinal irradiation is useful in which of the following conditions:
    a. Astrocytoma b. Oligodendroglioma c. Medulloblastoma d. Oncocytoma
  450. 457. Sickle cell anemia Is due to:
    a. Point mutation b. Translocation c. Trisomy d. Monosomy
  451. 458. Most common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia is;
    a. Salmonella b. Staphylococci c. Pseudomonas d. Escherichia coli
  452. 459. most common tumor to metastasize in heart is:
    a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. Renal cell carcinoma c. Bronchogenic carcinoma d. Malignant melanoma
  453. 460. In SABE diagnosis is made by:
    a. Anti streptolysin b. ASLO titer c. Anti DNAase d. Serial blood culture
  454. 461. In anemia of chronic disease there is:
    • a. Raised serum iron b. Low serum ferritin c. Low TIBC d. Low HBA
    • 462.Prominent ‘V’ wave in JVP suggests:
    • a. Mitral stenosis b. Pulmonary hypertension c. Tricuspid regurgitation d. Pulmonary stenosis
  455. 463. Bromocriptine is used to treat:
    a. Myxedema b. parkinsonism c. Medullary carcinoma thyroid d. Obesity
  456. 464.Bromocriptine is not useful in:
    a. Infertility b. endogenous depression c. Acromegaly d. Parkinsonism
  457. 465. Osteitis fibrosa cystica is seen in:
    a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypothroidism c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Hypoparathyroidism
  458. 466. Acute aortic regurgitation is not seen in:
    a. Trauma b. Acute myocardial infarction c. Infective endocarditis d. Aortic dissection
  459. 467.s A 25 year old basket ball player has height of 188cm and arm span 197 am weight 76kg and blood pressure 140/60mmHg . Auscultation revels long diastolic murmurs at 3rd ICS. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Coarctation of aorta b. Ebstein’s anomaly c. Aortic stenosis d. Aortic regurgitation
  460. 468. Aortic regurgitation is not seen in:
    a. Acute MI b. Infective endocarditis c. Rheumatic heart disease d. Marfan’s syndrome
  461. 469. Aortic regurgitation is not seen in:
    a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Bacterial endocarditis c. Acute myocardial infarction d. Marfan’s syndrome
  462. 470. A 60 year old man presented with soft tissue tumor, vertebral collapse, bony pain and rib erosion. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Diabetic nephropathy b. Malignant hypertension c. Diabetic neuropathy d. Multiple myeloma
  463. 471. In multiple myeloma best indicator of prognosis is:
    a. Serum alkaline phosphate b. Number of plasma cells in marrow c. Serum β microglobulin d. Serum level of CA++
  464. 472. best marker for prognosis of multiple myeloma is:
    a. β1 microglobulin b. β2 microglobulin c. Serum Ca++ d. Bone marrow plasma cells
  465. 473. Serum alkaline phosphate is not raised in:
    a. Hyperparathyroidism b. osteomalaica c. Paget’s disease d. Multiple myeloma
  466. 474. False regarding multiple myeloma is:
    a. Increased alkaline phosphatase b. Casts c. Increased uric acid d. Multiple myeloma
  467. 475. In which of the following condition Ý glutamyl transpeeptidase is elevated:
    a. Secondaries in liver b. Alcoholic liver disease c. Viral disease d. Liver disease
  468. 476. Specific enzyme elevated in alcoholism is:
    • a. Gamma glutamyl transferase b. Alkaline phosphate c. AST d. ALT
    • 477. Alcoholism enzyme elevated in alcoholism is:
    • a. GGT b. Macrocytosis c. SGOT d. SGPT
  469. 478. Angina pectoris and syncope are most likely to be associated with:
    a. Tricuspid stenosis b. Aortic regurgitation c. Mitral stenosis d. Aortic stenosis
  470. 479. Recurrent chest pain and syncope is commonly seen in:
    a. Mitral stenosis b. Aortic regurgitation c. MVP d. Aortic stenosis
  471. 480. Sudden death is common in:
    a. patent ductus arteriosus b. Aortic stenosis c. Mitral stenosis d. Arterial VSD
  472. 481.Not a feature of Behchet’s syndrome:
    a. Common in youngsters b. Seen only in tropics c. Multisystem
  473. 482. In Behcet’s syndrome:
    • a. There is a strong association with HLAB-5 b. There may be recurrent deep venous thrombosis
    • c. The skin may be hyperatice to minor injury d. All of the above
  474. 483. which of the following is a feature o behcet’s syndrome:
    • a. A strong association with HLAB-5 b. Recurrent deep venous thrombosis
    • c. skin may be hyperactive d. All of the above
  475. 484. Hemiplegia is commonly associated with infarction of area of distribution in… artery:
    a. Anterior communicating artery b. posterior cerebral artery c. Middle cerebral artery d. Anterior cerebral artery
  476. 485. Normal portal venous pressure is:
    a. 20-26 b. 22-25 c. 8-12 d. 3-5
  477. 486. Characteristic feature of frontal lobe tumor is:
    a. Antisocial behavior b. Distractibility c. Abnormal gait d. Aphasia
  478. 487. Frontal lobe lesion causes:
    a. Side determination b. Visual defect c. Urinary incontinence d. Personality change
  479. 488. most common manifestation of osteoporosis is:
    a. loss of weight b. Bowing of legs c. Backache d. Compression fracture of spine
  480. 489. In thyrotoxicosis β blockers do not control:
    a. Oxygen consumption b. Tachycardia c. Anxiety d. Tremors
  481. 490. Marker of acute hepatitis B is:
    a. HBeAg b. HBcAG c. HBsAg d. IgM anti HBc
  482. 491. Acute infection of hepatitis B virus is characterized by:
    a. anti HBeAg b. IgM anti-HBC +HBsAg c. Anti HBsAg d. HBsAg
  483. 492. A donor for blood transfusion is screned for hepatitis B. All are safe except:
    a. anti HBeeAg positive b. HBsAg + IgM anti- HBc positive c. anti HBsAg + HBeAg d. anti HbsAg positive
  484. 493.Hepatitis B infectivity is indicated by:
    a. HbeAg _anti HBsAg b. HBsAg +HbeAg c. Anti HBcAG + Anti HbeAg d. HbeAg +Anti HBcAg
  485. 494. ‘a’ wave inJVP is absent in:
    a. Sick sinus syndrome b. Tricuspid atresia c. Atrial fibrillation d. Mitral stenosis
  486. 495. not a feature of Marfan’s syndrome:
    a. high arched foot b. High palate c. Arachnodactyly d. short stature
  487. 496.not a clinical feature of Marfan’s syndrome:
    a. Aortic regurgitation b. Genu valgum c. Ectopia lentis d. Hyperelasticity of joints
  488. 497. Gas gangrene is most commonly due to:
    a. clostridium tetani b. Clostridium welchii c. Clostridium difficile d. Clostridium botulinum
  489. 498.Food poisoning is caused by all except:
    a. Bacillus anthrax b. Shigella c. Escherichia coli d. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  490. 499. Food poisoning with incubation period of less than 6 hours and which is not fatal is:
    a. Salmonella b. Shigella c. Vibrio cholera d. bacillus
  491. 500. dose of mercaptopurine requires reduction with:
    a. Allopurinol b. Thiazide c. Spironolactone d. Methotrexate
  492. 501. Most common enzyme deficiency is:
    a. G6PD b. glucose 1, 6 diphosphatase c. Hexokinase d. Glucose -6-Phosphatase
  493. 502.Hemophilia is associated with all except:
    a. Males more commonly affected b. Increased PT c. Increased aPTT d. X-linked recessive
  494. 503. Not a feature of hemophilia :
    a. Decreased factor VIII level b. Bleeding into tissue and joints c. Increased aPTT d. Increased PT
  495. 504. Not a characteristic feature of hemophilia A:
    a. Prolonged prothrombin VIII level b. Prolonged into thromboplastin time c. Low factor VIII level d. Bleeding into soft tissue, muscle and joints
  496. 505. Least likely cause of a prolonged bleeding time is:
    a. Scurvy b. Hemophilia A c. Von Willebrand’s disease d. Thrombocytopenia
  497. 506.s A patient presented with ecchymoses and petechiae all over body with increased bleeding time and normal clotting time. All of the following points to the diagnosis except:
    a. Decreased platelet in blood b. Bleeding into the joints and muscle c. Hypersplenism d. Increased megakaryocytes in marrow
  498. 507. Acute bronchiotitis is most commonly caused by:
    a. Mycoplasma b . Parainfluenza type III c. RSV d. Adenovirus
  499. 508. For diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever, the essential feature is;
    a. Erythema marginatum b. One major and two minor Jones’ criteria c. Recent sore throat infection d. Prior history f rheumatic fever
  500. 509. Most common cause of mediastinitis is:
    a. idiopathic b. drugs c. Esophageal rupture d. Tracheal rupture
  501. 510. Not a malignant tumor:
    a. Ependymoma b. Hemangioblastoma c. Astrocytoma d. Glioma
  502. 511. Coarctation of aorta is not associated with:
    a. PDA b. Renal artery stenosis c. Turner syndrome d. Bicuspid aortic valve
  503. 512. Not a feature of coarctation of aorta:
    a. Right ventricular failure b. Infective endocarditis c. Bicuspid aortic valve d. Cerebral aneurysm
  504. 513. In mitral stenosis:
    a. QRS are widened b. Left axis deviation c. Left ventricular hypertrophy d. Right ventricular hypertrophy
  505. 514. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and noncaseating granuloma is seen in:
    a. Stein leventhal syndrome b. Systemic lupus erythmatosus c. Sarcoidosis d. Scleroderma
  506. 515. Spinal segment in knee jerk is:
    a. L1 b. L3 c. L4 d. B and C
  507. 516. Adult polycystic kidney is:
    a. X-linked dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. X-linked recessive
  508. 517. In adult polycystic kidney, all are true except:
    a. Cysts are seen in the liver, lung and the pancreas b. Hematuria occurs c. Hypertension is rare d. Autosomal dominant transmission is seen
  509. 518.Not a manifestation of polycystic kidney:
    a. Hematuria b. Renal failure c. Acute retention d. Renal hypertension
  510. 519. False regarding clozapine is:
    a. Extrapyramidal side effect b. agranulocytosis c. Precipitates seizure d. Used in schizophrenia
  511. 520. Most common cause of amebic lung abscess is:
    a. Hematogenous spread from gut b. Hematogenous spread from liver c. Direct spread from liver d. Aspiration
  512. 521. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is not seen in:
    a. Mycoplasma pneumonia b. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma c. α methyldopa therapy d. Systemic lupus erythmatous
  513. 522. Cold antibodies are seen in all except:
    a. Syphilis b. Mycoplasma c. infectious mononucleosis d. Lymphoma
  514. 523.Donath-Landsteiner antibody is seen in which of the following conditions:
    a. PNH b. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria c. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia d. Systemic lupus erythmatosus
  515. 524. Hyperprolactinemia is caused by all except:
    a. Metoclopramide b. bromocriptine c. Methyldopa d. phenothiazines
  516. 525. Budd-Chiari syndrome is due to:
    a. IVC obstruction . Congenital portal hypertension c. Acute portal hypertension d. hepatic vein obstruction
  517. 526. Most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is:
    a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Valve in hepatic vein
  518. 527. Budd- chiari syndrome is not caused by:
    a. Oral contraceptive b. PNH c. dilantin d. Polycythemia
  519. 528. False regarding Budd-Chiari syndrome:
    a. Seen in hypercoagulable states b. Ascites is minimal c. liver transplantation may be required d. It is due to obstruction of hepatic venous outflow secondary to spontaneous thrombosis of hepatic veins
  520. 529. Drug not used in anthrax is:
    a. Tetracycline b. Erythromycin c. Gentamicin d. Ciprofloxacin e. Penicilllin
  521. 530. Drug of choice for anthrax is:
    a. Erythromycn b. streptomycin c. Penicillin d. Tetracycline
  522. 531. Cysticercosis in brain is caused by:
    a. Schistosoma mansoni b. Echinococcus c. Taenia solium d. Taenia saginata
  523. 532. Graham steel murmur is heard in:
    a. aortic incompetence b. Aortic stenosis c. pulmonary incompetence d. Tricuspid stenosis
  524. 533. Austin flint murmur is seen in:
    a. Mitral regurgitation b. Aortic regurgitation c. Tricuspid stenosis d. Pulmonary regurgitation
  525. 534. Murmur in Eisenmenger’s complex is:
    a. Graham steel murmur b. Austin flint murmur c. Carey –Coombs murmur d. none
  526. 535. Not included in treatment of Helicobacter pylori:
    • a. Cisapride b. Omeprazole c. Clarithromycin d. Metronidazole
    • 536. drug not effective against Helicobacter pylori is:
    • a. Erythromycin b. amoxicillin c. Metronidazole d. Colloidal bismuth
  527. 537. Which of the following drug is not used to eradicate Helicobacter pylori:
    a. Bismuth b. Ranitidine c. Tetracycline d. metronidazole
  528. 538.s Not used for diagonosing Helocobacter pylori is:
    a. SAFA test b. Gastric biopsy c. Rapid urease test d. Urea breath test
  529. 539. Correct statement regarding regarding Helicobacter pylori is:
    • a. It invades the gastric mucosa b. serology differentiates between active and remote infection
    • c. Indirect transmission d. Rapid urease test of gastric biopsy is diagnostic
  530. 540. Regimen used for eradication of Helicobacter pylori gastritis is:
    • a. Metronidazole + bismuth +ranitidine b. Amoxycilllin +Omeprazole + clarithromycin
    • c. CLarithromycin + ranitidine + metronidazole d. Ampicillin+ omeprazole + tinidazole
  531. 541.Not caused by Helicobacter pylori:
    a. Fundal gastritis b. Gastric lymphoma c. Gastric ulcer d. Duodenal ulcer
  532. 542. Drug not used in management of acute attack of asthma is:
    a. Sodium cromoglycate b. Inhaled salbutamol c. Injection hydrocortisone d. Subcutaneous adrenaline
  533. 543.All of the following are useful for treating acute bronchial asthma in children except:
    a. 100% oxygen b. IV hydrocortisone c. Nebulization with salbutamol liquid d. Sodium cromoglycate inhalation
  534. 544. Smoking is not associated with malignancies of:
    a. pancreas b. Kidney c. Liver d. Bladder
  535. 545. Smoking predisposes to all except:
    a. Lymphoma b. carcinoma pancreas c. Larynx carcinoma d. Bladder carcinoma
  536. 546. Upper motor neuron lesion cause:
    a. Localized muscle atrophy b. Rigidity c. Fasciculation d. Weakness and spasticity
  537. 547. Myotonic dystrophy gene iscoded at chromosome:
    a. 24 b. 21 c. 19 d. 20S
  538. 548. Not seen in Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome:
    a. Polydactyly b. Obesity c. Retinal detachment d. Retinitis pigmentosa e. hypogonadism
  539. 549.s Dethylcarbamazine citrate acts on:
    a. Adult filarial parasite b. Microfilariae and kills them c. Does not allow multiplication of adult forms d. Paralyze adult worms
  540. 550. Hand-foot and mouth disease is caused by:
    • a. Coxsackievirus A 16 b. CMV c. enterovirus d. Arbovirus
    • 551. Hand-foot syndrome is seen in:
    • a. sickle cell disease b. Thalassemia major c. ALL d. Fanconi’s anemia
  541. 552. Not a bactericidal drug:
    a. Penicillins b. Cephalosporine c. Sulfonamides d. Quinolones
  542. 553.IgA induced vasculitis is seen in:
    a. Glomerulonephritis b. Henoch-Scholein purpura c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
  543. 554. Digitalis is contraindicated in cardiac failure caused by following:
    a. Valvular heart disease b. Myocardial infarction c. Thyrotoxicosis d. anemia
  544. 555. True regarding right ventricular infarction:
    a. Volume expanders b. Digoxin c. Diuretics d . Pacing
  545. 556.s Acute right ventricular infarct is treated with:
    a. IV fluids b. Diuretics c. Vasodilators d. Digoxin
  546. 557. Ascarbose used in diabetes mellitus acts by:
    • a. Increasing secretion of insulin b. Increases sensitive of tissue to insulin
    • c. Reduces blood glucose levels d. Reduces absorption of glucose from the gut wall
  547. 558. Prosopagnosia is:
    a. Inability to speak b. Inability to read c. Inability to identify faces d. Inability to write
  548. 559. Hepatic encephalopathy is not precipitated by:
    a. Superimposed acute liver disease b. GI bleeding c. barbiturates d. Hyperkalemia
  549. 560. Acute hepatocellular feature is most likely to be precipitated by:
    a. Oral lactulose b. Upper GI bleeding c. Large carbohydrate meal d. Large IV albumin infusion
  550. 561. most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
    a . Trauma b. Berry aneurysm c. AV malformation d. Hypertension
  551. 562. A 25 year old man develops sudden headache with loss of consciousness. CSF is blood stained most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Encephalopathy b. Embolic stroke c. Thrombotic CVA d. Ruptured cerebral aneurysm
  552. 563. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is caused by:
    a. Dural sinuses b. Venae comitantes of corpus striatum c. Rupture of vertebral artery aneurysm d . Rupture of circle of willis aneurysm
  553. 564. LVH is seen in:
    a. Carcinoid syndrome b. Aortic regurgitation c. ASD with fossa ovalis d. pure mitral stenosis
  554. 565. Primaquine causes hemolysis in:
    • a. G6PD deficiency b. Malaria c. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency d. NADP deficiency
    • 566. Splenectomy is most useful in:
    • a. Sickle cell anemia b. Henoch-Schonlein purpura c. Hereditary spherocytosis d. Thrombocytopenia
  555. 567. In PSVT the drug of choice is:
    a. Adenosine b. lignocaine c. Quinidine d. Amiodarone
  556. 568. Hypoglycemia is seen in:
    a. Acromegaly b. Cushing’s syndrome c. Hypothyroidism d. Hypopituitarism
  557. 569. False regarding chronic bronchitis is:
    a. Hemoptysis b. >2 consecutive years c. Productive cough d. Cough for 3 months
  558. 570. nasal allergy is most often due to:
    a. Automobile dust b. Pollen grains c. animal dust d. House dust
  559. 571. loud s3 is a feature of :
    a. Severe MR b. Mitral stenosis c. ASD d. Old age
  560. 572. Most common cause of organic amnestic syndrome is:
    a. Vitmain deficiency b. Hypoxia c. Alzheimer’s disease d.. Concussion
  561. 573. Chemical transmitter in REM sleep is:
    a. Acetylcholine b. Serotonin c. GABA d. Dopamine
  562. 574. Leigonnaires’ disease causes:
    a. Acute respiratory infection b. Congenital malformations c. neoplastic disease d. urinary tract infection
  563. 575. Pontiac fever is caused by:
    a. Marburg virus b. Legionella c. Tuberculosis bacilli d. Sindbis virus
  564. 576.A 28 year old lady presented with diarrhea, confusion and high grade fever and headache with bilateral pneumonitis. The causative agent is:
    a. Pseudomonas b. Streptococcus pneumonia c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Legionella
  565. 577.In hepatic encephalopathy the antibiotic which retards NH3 formation and absorption is:
    a. Ceftriaxone b. Chloramphenicol c. Cefixime d. neomycin
  566. 578. Drug not used in hepatic encephalopathy is:
    a. Phenobarbitone b. Lactulose c. Mannito d. Metronidazole
  567. 579.A patient presents with hyperpigmented lesion on mucosa of lip and oral cavity. She has melena and her elder sister also has similar complains. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Familial polyposis coli b. Gardener’s syndrome c. Villous adenoma d. peutz-Jeghers syndrome
  568. 580. A female patient presents with pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa and colonic polyps. Her sister also has the same history. The diagnosis is:
    • a. Peutz-jeghers syndrome b. Carcinoid c. Melanoma d. Villous adenoma
    • 581.s Drug used in prophylaxis ofmeningococcal meningitis is:
    • a. Penicillin b. Ampicillin c. Rifampicin d. Erythromycin
  569. 582.s Drug not used in prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis:
    a. Penicillin b. Ofloxacin c. Rifampicin d. Ceftriaxone
  570. 583.Palpable purpura is seen in all except:
    a. ITP b. Henoch-Schonlein purpura c. Polyarteritis nodesa d. Acute meningococcemia
  571. 584. Palpable purpura is seen in all except:
    a. Drug induced vasculitis b. henoch-Schonlein purpura c. Essential mixed cryglobulinemia d. Giant cell arteritis
  572. 585. Non pappable purpura is seen in:
    a. Temporal arteritis b. Drug Induced vasculitis c. Cryglobulinemia d. henoch-Schonlein purpura
  573. 586. A 35 year old man has carcinoma bronchus with decreased pulmonary functions. Which of the following drug shoud not be given to him:
    a. Vinblastine b. Mithramycin c. bleomycin d. Adriamycin
  574. 587. Hepatitis C is associated with :
    a. scleroderma b. Cryglobulinemia c. anti LKM antibodies d. Polyarteritis nodosa
  575. 588. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in:
    a. Hemophilia b. bloom’s syndrome c. Retinoblastoma d. Ataxia telangiectasia
  576. 589. A 28 year old male comes with history of exposure 3 weeks back, having cervical lymphadenopathy. Hepatsplenomegaly. The early diagnosis of HIV is done bby:
    a. Lymph node biopsy b. ELISHA c. p24 antigen d. Western blot
  577. 590. A 65 year old female meena gives the history of severe unilateral headache on the right side and complains of blindness since 2 days. On examination there Is a thick cord like structure on the lateral side of the head. The ESR is 80 mm/hr in the first hour. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Temporal arteritis b. Migraine c. Cluster headache d. Sinusitis
  578. 591. False regarding temporal arteritis is:
    a. Sudden blindness is a complication b. low ESR c . Anemia d. Polymyalgia rheumatic
  579. 592.A HIV positive patient has intractable seizures and cerebral calcification. Most likely organism is:
    a. Isospora belli b. Neurocysticercosis c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Cryptococcus neoformans
  580. 593.An 8 year old child suffering fro recurrent attacks of polyuria since childhood presents to the pediatric OPD. On examination , the child has short stature, vitals and BP is normal . serum creatinine is 6 mg% HCO3-- 16mEq. Na+ 134, K+ 4.2 on USG bilateral small kidneys are seen. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Polycystic kidney disease b. Medullary cystic kidney disease c. Nephronophthisis d. Reflux nephropathy
  581. 594. Right sided infective endocarditis cannot occur in:
    a. Puerperal sepsis b. ASD c. Tetralogy of Fallot d. IV drug abusers
  582. 595. Infective endocarditis is least likely to occur in:
    a. MVP b. Small VSD c. TOF d. ASD
  583. 596. Mycosis fungoides is best treated by:
    a. Iv doxorubicin (Adriamycin ) b. Surgery c. 5GU cream d.. Electron beam therapy
  584. 597. Dopamine is preferred in shock because:
    a. Rapid action b. Renal vasodilatation c. Cardiac stimulation d. Potent vasoconstriction
  585. 598. The most frequent cause of peripheral cyanosis is:
    • a. Interatrial septal defect b. Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis c. Slowed circulation through skin d.
    • Methemoglobinemia
  586. 599. Cyanosis is not seen in patient with severe anemia because:
    a. RBCs are defective b. Capillary dilation occurs c. Hypoxia is rare d. Minimum 5gm hemoglobin is required
  587. 600. Cyanosis is not caused by:
    a. Cirrhosis with portal hypertension b. Carboxyhemoglobinemia c. sulfhemoglobinemia d. Methemoglobinemia
  588. 601. About central cyanosis true is:
    a. Hb< 5 gm/dl b. Hb<2 gm/dl c. Methemoglobin less than 2.5 gm/dl d. Sulfhemoglobin more than 0.5 gm/dl
  589. 602. A 20 year old girl with UTI on treatment develops blue lips and nails with normal vitals:
    a. Cardiac right to left shunt b. Sickle cell disease c. Sideroblastic anemia d. Methemoglobinemia
  590. 603.All of the following are true about primary CNS lymphoma except:
    a. Causes focal signs b. Most are of T-cell origin c. Multicentric location d. Associated with latent Epstein-Barr virus infection
  591. 604. Drug of choice for acute gout is:
    a. Probenicid b. Allopurinol c. Sulphonamide d. Indomethacin
  592. 605. The treatment of choice for intestinal and extraintestinal amebiasis is:
    a. Diloxanide furoate b. Chloroquine c. Metronidazole d. Tetracycline
  593. 606. All the following are used in the treatment of hypertension emergencies except:
    a. Prazosin b. Nitroglycerin c. Sodium nitroprusside d. Nifedipine
  594. 607. The histological finding in acute rheumatic fever which would best aid in diagnosis is:
    a. Increased vascularity of myocardial valves b. Osler’s nodule c. Aschoff bodies d. Vegetations over mitral valve
  595. 608. All the following are seen in nephrotic syndrome except:
    a. Albuminuria b. Hypoalbuminemia c. Edema d. Hypocomplementemia
  596. 609. Which of the following is/are true about nephrotic syndrome:
    a. Hematuria b. Azotemia c. proteinuria d. All of the above
  597. 610. Nephrotic syndrome is not associated with:
    a. Hypertension b. Massive proteinuria c. Marked edema d. Hypoproteinemia
  598. 611. A 2-year old boy developed generalized pitting edema in 7 days and significant decreased in urinary output. His blood pressure is 104/70 mmHg , urine examination shows hyaline cast +; proteinuria +++; no WBC and RBC. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Increase in blood volume b. increase in blood urea c. selective proteinuria d. low serum complement level
  599. 612. not seen in nephrotic syndrome:
    a. hypoalbuminemia b. Increased α2 globulin c. Hyperlipidemia d. Hypercalcemias
  600. 613. In nephrotic syndrome, levels of all serum proteins decrease except:
    a. Transferrin b. Albumin c. Ceruloplasmin d. Fibrinogen
  601. 614. A young child had nephrotic syndrome and was started on steroids. He was responding to steroid
    • therapy . f a biopsy were to be dine, what would the light microscopy have shown:
    • a. Endothelial thickening b. Split basement membrane c. Loss of foot processes d. No abnormality
  602. 615. In nephrotic syndrome due to minimal change disease, the pathology is:
    a. Loss of foot process and loss of the fixed negative charge in the glomerular filtration barrier for protein b. Loss of foot processes only c. Deposition of antigen antibody complex d. Destruction of glomerulus alone
  603. 616.Neurotransmitter involved in nigrostriatal pathway is:
    a. Serotonin b. dopamine c. Cholinergic d. Adrenergic
  604. 617.The pathology in parkinsonism lies in:
    a. Substantia nigra b. Hippocampus c. Red nucleus d. Hypothalamus
  605. 618. Which of the following complication of diabetes cannot be prevented by strict control of blood sugar:
    a. Nerve conduction velocity b. amyotrophy c. Fluorescein leak d. Microalbuminuria
  606. 619. False regarding CRF:
    a. Decreased half-life of insulin b. Serum vitamin D is increased c. Hypocalcemia d. Hyperphosphatemia
  607. 620. Not common in alcoholism:
    a. Polycythemia b. Dementia c. polyneuritis d. Hypomagnesemia
  608. 621.False regarding cholera is:
    a. Infectivity b. Denudation of jejuna mucosa c. Watery stool d. Stool HCO3 is twice plasma HCO3
  609. 622. Diagnostic of thiamine deficiency is:
    a. FIGLU test b. Microcytic anemia c. low RbC transketolase d. Low RBC acetylcholine
  610. 623. Not seen in Brown-Sequard’s syndrome :
    a. Ipsilateral loss of joint sense b. Contralateral loss of pain sense c. Ipsilateral monoplegia d. Ipsilaterla loss of temperature
  611. 624. Not used in treatment of hypercalcemia :
    a. Riluzole b. Risedronate c. Plicamycin d. Gallium nitrates
  612. 625. Not used in the treatment of hypercalcemia:
    a. Biphosphonate b. Penicillamine c. Mithramycin d. Steroid
  613. 626. Not a treatment of hypercalcemia :
    a. Ketoconazole b. Frusemide c. Plicamycin d. Oral phosphate
  614. 627. Not a feature of magnesium deficiency :
    a. Delirium b. Raised serum calcium c. Convulsions d. Athetoid tetany
  615. 628. Dawn phenomenon is:
    a. Postprandial coma b. Breakfast hypoglycemia c. Early morning hyperglycemia d. Early morning hypoglycemia
  616. 629. Colchicine is not used in;
    a. Adrenal adenoma b. Amyloidosis c. Familial mediaterranean fever d. Cirrhosis of fever
  617. 630. Shrinking lung syndrome is seen in:
    a. Dermatomyositis b. Polymyositis c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Systemic sclerosis
  618. 631. lesion of caudate nucleus is produces:
    a. Athetosis b. Chorea c. hemiballismus d. All of the above
  619. 632. Semi-Purposive movements in a boy are generally seen in:
    a. Encephalitis b. brain abscess c. Rheumatic fever d. systemic lupus erythematosus
  620. 633. Hypersensitive pneumonitis is associated with which of the following:
    a. Raised serum precipitins b. Hilar lymphadenopahty c. Increased eosinophils d. Raised IgE
  621. 634.s Site of action of blocking immunoglobulin in myasthenia gravis is:
    a. motor end plate b. presynaptic vesicles c. Absent deep reflexes d. Cell body
  622. 635. Not a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis:
    a. sometimes spontaneous regression b. Proximal muscle involvement c. Absent deep reflexes d. Fatigue with exertion
  623. 636. Not an indication for thymectomy in myasthenia gravis:
    a. thymic hyperplasia b. Thymoma c. Young female d. Males> 66 years
  624. 637.Characteristic feature of idiopathic hypoparathyroidism is:
    a. Candidiasis b. Subcutaneous calcification c. Nephrocalcinosis d. bilateral cataract
  625. 638. Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed by using:
    a. Gallamine b. Endrophonium c. Succinylcholine d. Atropine
  626. 639. Best diagnostic acid to myasthenia gravis is:
    a. History b. EMG c. Chest X-ray d. Response to IV edrophonium
  627. 640. In pneumocystis carinii pneumonia the treatment of choice is:
    a. Zidovudine b. Ciprofloxacin c. Cotrimoxazole d. Pentamidine
  628. 641. In severe pneumocystis cell carinii pneumonia , the drug of choice is:
    a. Penicillin b. Cefoperazone c. Cefotaxime d. Trimethopeim + sulphamethoxazole
  629. 642. In hypokalemia the ECG finding is:
    a. RSR pattern b. Tall T-wave c. ST depression d. Prominent U-wave
  630. 643. HBsAg carrier status is associated with all except:
    a. Infectious mononucleosis b. down syndrome c. Chronic renal failure d. Polyarthritis nodosa
  631. 644. Most common complication of prosthetic valve is:
    a. Embolism b. Subacute bacterial endocarditis c. Rejection d. Infarction
  632. 645. In drug addicts endocarditis is common due to:
    a. Pseudomonas b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Streptococcus viridians d. Group D streptococcus
  633. 646. Prosthetic valve endocarditis is most commonly caused by:
    a. Coxiella burnetii b. Candida c. Streptococcus epidermidis d. Staphylococcus aureus
  634. 647.In IV drug users, most common heart valve involved is:
    a. Tricuspid valve b. Pulmonary valve c. Mitral valve d. Aortic valve
  635. 648. Bronchial asthma is associated with raised levels of:
    a. Thromboxane b. Leukotriene c. PgI2 d. PGE8
  636. 649. Asymmetrical radial pulse is seen in which of the following:
    a. Takayasu’s disease b. Aortic regurgitation c. Coarctation of aorta d. Dissecting aneurysm of aorta
  637. 650. Vaccine not recommended in symptomatic patient of HIV is:
    a. DPT b. Hib conjugate c. BCG d. Measles
  638. 651. In HIV patient the most common form of tuberculosis is seen in:
    a. Genitourinary tract b. Intestine c. Lungs d. Lymph nodes
  639. 652. PUO in a farmer dealing with goat’s milk is likely due to:
    a. Bacillus anthracis b. Histoplasma c. Brucella d. Mycobacterium
  640. 653. Not seen in CRF:
    a. Metabolic acidosis b. Increased Mg++ c. increased phosphate d. Decreased sodium
  641. 654. Which of the following changes of chronic renal failure is not improved by dialysis:
    a. Volume expansion and contraction b. hypernatremia and hyponatremia c. Hyperkalemia and hypokalemia d. Decreased high-density lipoprotein level
  642. 655. Bleeding time is prolonged in:
    a. Hemolytic telangiectasia b. henoch-Schonlein purpura c. von Willebrand’s disease d. Hemophilia
  643. 656.False regarding von Willebrand’s disease :
    a. Impaired clot aggregation on glass surface b. Ristocetin cofactor assay c. Factor VIII deficiency d. Increased bleeding time
  644. 657. Most common mode of inheritance of von Willebrand’s disease is:
    a. Co-dominant b. X-linked recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Autosomal recessive
  645. 658. Murmur of idiopathic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is increased by all except;
    a. Valsalva maneuver b. Exercise c. Digoxin d. Squatting
  646. 659. Murmur of HOCM is decreased in:
    a. Amyl nitrate inhalation b. Valsalva maneuver c. Standing position d. Supine position
  647. 660.100% HLA association is seen with:
    a. Narcolepsy b. Schizophrenia c. Myasthenia gravis d. Multiple sclerosis
  648. 661. Histocompatibility complex associated with narcolepsy is:
    a. B4 b. DR 4 c. DR2 d. DR3
  649. 662. In immunocompromised patients the intestinal parasitic disease is:
    a. Trichuriasis b. Hookworm c. Strongyloidiasis d. ascaiasis
  650. 663. Anterior uveitis is seen in:
    a. Pauci articular JRA b. Polyarticular JRA c. Still’s disease d. Rheumatoid arthritis
  651. 664. Kussmaul’s sign is not seen in:
    a. Left ventricular failure b. Right ventricular failure c. Cardiac tamponade d. constrictive pericarditis
  652. 665.Not included in the triad of Huntington’s disease:
    a. Early onset of memory loss b. Cog wheel rigidity c. Cognitive symptoms d. Chorea
  653. 666. a 40 year old patient has 2 episodes of headache daily for last 2-3 weeks, and no previous history of similar disease. Headache wakes him from sleep and remains for one hours associated with lacrimation, and nasal abnormality. Most likely diagnosis is:
    • a. Brain tumor b. Cluster headache c. Tension headache d. Migraine
    • 667. Drug of choice to prevent cluster headache is:
    • a. Lithium b. Aspirin c. Phenytoin d. Methysergide
  654. 668. A young patient presents with jaundice, his bilirubin is 21mg%; direct is 9.6 mg% , alkaline phosphate is 84 KA units . most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Obstructive jaundice b. Chronic active hepatitis c. Viral hepatitis d. hemolytic jaundice
  655. 669.A young male with gallbladder stone, has serum bilirubin 2.5, hemoglobin 6 gm% urine shows urobilinogen positive . most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Protoporphyria b. Hepatocellular jaundice c. Obstructive jaundice d. hemolytic jaundice
  656. 670.s not seen in steele-Richardson –Olszewski syndrome:
    a. Convulsions b. Gaze palsy progressive supranuclear c. Dementia d. none of the above
  657. 671.A 45 year old man has history of dementia, ataxia, and difficulty in downward gaze. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Progressive supranuclear palsy b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Parkinson’s disease d. normal pressure hydrocephalus
  658. 672. A 60 year old man has repeated fall and develops rigidity and ophthalmoplegia. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Parkinsonism b. Huntigton’s chorea c. Shy-Drager syndrome d. Supranuclear palsy
  659. 673.Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s dementia is:
    a. Turner syndrome b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 18 d. patau syndrome
  660. 674. Alzheimer’s disease typically affects:
    a. nucleus basalis of meynert b. Amygdala c. Parietal cortex d. Basal ganglion
  661. 675. A 48 year old obese patient with random blood sugar 400mg% , urine sugar and ketones positive. Most appropriate drug in this scenario is:
    a. Insulin b. Metformin c. Glibenclamide d. Troglitazone
  662. 676. Not seen in hemoglobin electrophoresis in sickle cell anemia:
    a. Hb S b. Hb F c. Hb A d. B and C
  663. 677. a 50 year old chronic smoker presented with history of hemoptysis. He was having truncal obesity and hypertension , an elevated ACTH level which was not suppressible with high dose dexamethasone. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Ectopic ACTH producing lung cancer b. Pituitary tumor c. Adrenal adenoma d. Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
  664. 678. hypercalcemia is common in:
    a. Large cell carcinoma b. Oat cell carcinoma c. adenocarcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
  665. 679. Hypercalcemia occurs in which type of lung cancer:
    • a. Oat cell b. Giant cell c. Squamous cell d. Alveolar cell
    • 680.s A 26 year old man presented with hemoglobin 6gm% , WBC 2000/cu mm, normal differential count except for having 6% blast cells, platelet count is 80000. Examination revealed spleen is moderately enlarged most likely diagnosis is:
    • a. Hemolysis b. ITP c. leukemia d. Aplastic anemia
  666. 681. Most common type of ASD is:
    a. Ostium primum b. Sinus venous type c. Endocardal cushion defect d. ostium secundum
  667. 682. False regarding ASD is:
    a. Pulmonary hypertension b. Right ventricular hypertrophy c. Left atrial hypertrophy d. Right atrial hypertrophy
  668. 683. Not a clinical feature of ostium secundum type ASD;
    • a. mid diastolic along the left sterna border b. Wide and fixed splitting of 2nd heart sound
    • c. Surgery is advised even in asymptomatic patients d. frequent occurrence of congestive cardiac failure in childhood
  669. 684. Wide splitting of S2 is seen in:
    a. Cardiomyopathy b. VSD c. PDA d. ASD
  670. 685. Reversed splitting of S2 is seen in all except:
    a. Left bundle branch block b. Systemic hypertension c. Aortic stenosis d. Atrial septal defect
  671. 686. Most common fungal infection seen in febrile neutropenic patient is:
    a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Mucormycosis c. Aspergillus niger d. Candida Spp
  672. 687.Treatment of choice of a patient of CLL with systemic symptoms is:
    a. No treatment required b. Chlorambucil c. Radiotherapy d. Doxorubicin
  673. 688. Leukemia associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia is:
    a. All b. CML c. CLL d. AML
  674. 689. Amylase is increased in pleural effusion in following condition:
    a. Pancreatic disease b. Esophageal rupture c. Both d. None
  675. 690. which of the following is false regarding neurocysticerosis:
    • a. Calcification on X-ray skull b. Meningoencephalitic variety is most common
    • c. Convulsions d. Mimics cerebral tumor
  676. 691. neurocysticercosis is diagnosed by:
    a. Pneumoencephalography b. EEG c. Angiography d. CT scan
  677. 692. True regarding neurocysticerosis is:
    a. Steroids are used in management of hydrocephalus b. usually presents with 6th nerve palsy and hemiparesis c. Albendazole is more effective than praziquantel d. usually present with seizure resistant to antiepileptic drugs
  678. 693.Not used in the treatment of cysticercosis:
    a. Niclosamide b. Flubendazole c. Praziquantell d. Albendazole
  679. 694. Not caused by hypervitaminosis A:
    a. Hypotension b. Bony swelling c. Loss of hair d. Anorexia
  680. 695.Mononeuritis multiplex is seen in:
    a. Bronchus carcinoma b. Guillain-BArre syndrome c. leprosy d. Syphilis
  681. 696. Mononeuritis multiplex is a feature of:
    a. Polyarteritis nodosa b. Hypersensitive vasculitis c. leprosy d. all of the above
  682. 697.Episodic muscle weakness does not occur in:
    a. Eaton lambert’s syndrome b. Hyperglycemia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypocalcemia
  683. 698. Episodic generalized weakness is not caused by:
    a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypernatremia c. Hypermagnessemia d. hypercalcemia
  684. 699. Flapping tremors are seen in all except:
    a. Thyrotoxicosis b. uremia c. liver failure d. CO2 narcosis
  685. 700.Asterixis (Flapping tremor) is seen in:
    a. Thyrotoxicosis b. β2 stimulant therapy c. Parkinsonism d. CO2 narcosis
  686. 701. Flapping tremor is not seen in:
    a. Thyrotoxicosis b. Uremic patient c. CO2 necrosis d. Wilson disease
  687. 702. In hyperprolactinemia the investigation of choice is:
    a. Steroid assay b. Prolactin estimation c. LH estimation d. TRH estimation
  688. 703. Best diagnostic test for bronchiectasis is:
    a. CXR b. Broncography c. Bronchoscopy d. CT scan
  689. 704. Hyperkalemia does not occur in:
    a. Cushing ‘s syndrome b. ARF c. 21-hydroxylase deficiency d. Pentamidine
  690. 705.Rhinocerebral mucormycosis canoccur in all except:
    a. Organ transplantation b. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus c. CRF d. Deferoxamine therapy
  691. 706.which of the following does not change with age:
    a. Hematocrit b. Glucose tolerance test c. GFR d. FEV1
  692. 707. Idiopathic orthostatic hypotension is also known as:
    a. Shy-drager syndrome b. Von Hippel-Lindau disease c. Kugelberg –Welander disease d. Louis-Bar syndrome
  693. 708. which of the following is true about maladie de Roger:
    a. Small VSD b. Harsh pan-systolic murmur c. Most defect close spontaneously d. all of the above
  694. 709. white patch in the throat may be due to:
    a. Candida b. smoker’s leukoplakia c. nicotinic stomatitis d. All of the above
  695. 710. Turner’s sign is seen in:
    a. Myocarditis b. Cholecystitis c. Pancreatitis d. Pleural effusion
  696. 711.Hemoptysis is seen in:
    a. Aortic stenosis b. Pulmonary stenosis c. Mitral stenosis d. Tricuspid stenosis
  697. 712. Reticulocytosis is not seen in:
    a. anemia in CRF b. Hereditary spherocytosis c. following acute bleeding d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
  698. 713. Which of the following drugs cause diarrhea:
    a. Morphine b. Atropine c. Magnesium sulphate d. Gaunethidine
  699. 714. In methemoglobinemia:
    • a. Methane is present in hemoglobin b. Methane is present in the beta globulin chain
    • c. oxidized hemoglobin contains ferrous iron d. oxidized hemoglobin contains ferric iron
  700. 715. Isolated 3rd nerve palsy is seen in:
    a. Frontal lobe tumor b. Weber’s syndrome c. Diabetes mellitus d. Lateral medullary syndrome
  701. 716. which carcinoma of lung responds best to chemotherapy:
    a. Squamous cell type b. Oat cell type c. Clara cell type d. Small cell type
  702. 717. Mee’s lines in the nails are characteristic of which poisoning:
    a. Lead b. Arsenic c. Mercury d. Nicotine
  703. 718. Myocardial rupture as a result of myocardial infarction occurs usually during the:
    a. 1st week b. 2nd week c. 3rd week d. 5th week
  704. 719. A patient of inferior wall infarction develops shock on 3rd day. Most common cause is:
    a. right ventricular infarction b. Ventricuar aneurysm c. Cardiac rupture d. Atrial fibrillarion
  705. 720.s Chemoprophylaxis is used in all except:
    a. Malaria b. typhoid c. meningococcal meningitis d. pertussis
  706. 721. hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in:
    a. CML b. alcoholism c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Myelodysplasia
  707. 722. Not a feature of rheumatic heart disease in our country:
    • a. School going population is most often affected b. Aortic valve is most commonly affected
    • c. Affects younger age group d. CHF and cardiomegaly is seen in most of the cases
  708. 723. In rheumatic fever, earliest valvular lesion is:
    a. AR b. AS c. MR d. MS
  709. 724.Themost common heart valve abnormality in acute MI is:
    a. MR b. AR c.. MS d. AS
  710. 725. Routine screening for Down syndrome is done If maternal age is above:
    a. 45 years b. 35 years c. 40 years d. 30 years
  711. 726. True regarding Barrett’s esophague is:
    a. Asymptomatic b. Dilated tortures esophague c. premalignant d. Squamous metaplasia of esophagus
  712. 727. Adenocarcinoma is commonly found in:
    a. Chronic smoking b. Plummer-vinson syndrome c. barrett’s esophagus d. Achalasia cardia
  713. 728. Barrett’s esophagus may lead to:
    a. Stricture formation b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Reflux esophagitis d. Achalasia cardia
  714. 729. In nonsmokers the most common type of bronchogenic carcinoma is:
    a. Large cell b. Small cell c. Squamous cell d. Adenocarcinoma
  715. 730. Recovery of myocardium after myocardial infarction occurs in about ….. weeks:
    a. 12 b. 8 c. 6 d. 2
  716. 731. Hyperbaric oxygen is used in:
    a. Anemia b. Anerobic infection c. CO poisoning d. Ventilatory failure
  717. 732. not associated with EBV:
    a. Burkitt’s lymphoma b. Bell’s palsy c. Guillain –Barre syndrome d. Hepatitis
  718. 733.In Noonan’s syndrome the cardiac anomaly is:
    a. coarctation of aorta b. Pulmonary stenosis c. ASD d. VSD
  719. 734. False regarding fibrolamellar carcinoma of liver is:
    a. Common in females b. Nests of cell with fibrous stroma c. worse prognosis d. difuse involvement of liver
  720. 735. False regarding fibrolamellar carcinoma of liver:
    a. Younger age of onset b. alpha fetoproteins are >1000 units/ml c. Better prognosis than hepatocellular carcinoma d. more common in women
  721. 736. Best prognosis is of:
    a. Angiosarcoma of liver b. hepatoblastoma c. Fibrolamellar carcinoma of liver d. Hepatocellular carcinoma of liver
  722. 737. True regarding rabies is:
    a. Local wound care is of no use b. Vaccine is given intramuscularly c. HDVC is live attenuated d. fluorescent antibody is the treatment of choice
  723. 738. The characteristic feature of rabies is:
    a. Brainstem encephalitis b. Peripheral neuropathy c. Patchy meningitis d. Ventriculitis
  724. 739. Human bite infection is commonly caused by:
    a. Staphylococcus b. Anaerobic bacilli c. Anaerobic streptococci d. Spirochete
  725. 740. False regarding thoracic outlet syndrome:
    • a. Resection of 1strib is the treatment b. physiotherapy and position relieves the symptoms
    • c. Most common radial nerve involvement d. neurological signs and symptoms are common
  726. 741. Zenker’s diverticulum presents with:
    a. Found I stomach b. Dysphagia c. dysphonia d. Reflux esophagitis
  727. 742. macrocytic anemia is seen in all except:
    a. Thiamine deficiency b. copper deficiency c. orotic aciduria d. liver disease
  728. 743. False regarding hepatocellular carcinoma is:
    • a. Aflatoxins are the etiological agent b. Fibrolamellar type has best prognosis
    • c. marker’s are increased d. Uncommon among Asians
  729. 744. Aflatoxin may cause:
    a. Botulism b. Cholangiocarcinoma c. Lathyrism d. Hepatoma
  730. 745. In rheumatoid arthritis (RA) characteristic joint involvement is:
    a. Hip joint b. Metacarpophalangeal joint c. Knee joint d. Spine
  731. 746. In rheumatoid arthritis, part of spine involved is:
    a. Sacral b. lumbar c. Cervical d. Thoracic
  732. 747. All are caused by lupus anticoagulant except:
    a. Valvular heart disease b. Increased prothrombin time c. Arterial thrombosis d. Recurrent abortion
  733. 748. leukocyte alkaline phosphatase is not increased in:
    a. Polycythemia vera b. CML c. Myelofibrosis d. None of the above
  734. 749. Not a manifestation of insulinoma :
    a. Psychological alteration b. Visual disturbance c. Weight loss d. Fasting hypoglycemia
  735. 750. Not a characteristic feature of insulinoma:
    a. Weight loss b. Fasting hypoglycemia c. Majority are solitary tumors d. Majority are benign tumors
  736. 751. In acute myocardial infarction, earliest finding of ECG is:
    a. Prominent U wave b. Widened QRS complex c. ST depression d. ST elevation
  737. 752. Most common cause of lactic acidosis during the treatment of diabetes is:
    a. Oral hypoglycemics b. phenformin c. Diet restriction d. Insulin
  738. 753. piecemeal necrosis on liver biopsy is seen in:
    a. Chronic active hepatitis b. Indian childhood cirrhosis c. alcoholic hepatitis d. Primary alcoholic airrhosis
  739. 754. Most common malignant change seen in renal transplant is:
    a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Cervix carcinoma c. Skin and lip carcinoma d. lymphoma
  740. 755. In ulcerative colitis the drug of choice is:
    a. Aminosalicylic acid b. Sulfasalazine c. Prednisolone d. Salazopyrin
  741. 756. heberden’s nodes are seen in:
    • a. Proximal interphalangeal joint of RA b. proximal interphalangeal joint of osteoarthritis
    • c. distal interphalangeal joint of osteathritis d. Proximal distal interphalangeal joint of RA
  742. 757. Paradoxical breathing is characteristic of:
    a. Pneumonia b. pneumothorax c. Atelectasis d. Diaphragmatic paralysis
  743. 758. False regarding diaphragmatic paralysis :
    • a. Diaphragmatic pacing is useful if any nerve is intact b. Causes normocapnic failure
    • c. Sniff test is positive in unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis d. none
  744. 759. In which of the following condition, paradoxical respiration is seen:
    a. Severe asthma b. Bulbar polio c. Diaphragmatic palsy d. Multiple fracture of rib
  745. 760. Hirsutism is caused by all of the following drugs except:
    a. pneobarbitone b. phenytoin c. Minoxidil d. Cyclosporine
  746. 761. brain tumor associated with CNS invasion is:
    a. Oligodendroglioma b. Glioblastoma multiforme c. Medulloblastoma d. Ependymoma
  747. 762. Not a cause of osteoporosis:
    a. osteogenesis imperfect b. Hypophosphatasia c. Hypogonadism d. hypoparathyroidism
  748. 763. osteoporosis is not seen in:
    a. Cushing’s disease b. Hyperthyroidism c. Hypoparathyroidism d. hyperparathyroidism
  749. 764. Osteoporosis is not seen in:
    a. Steroid therapy b. hypoparathyroidism c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Thyroitoxicosis
  750. 765. osteoporosis is not seen in :
    a. Thyrotoxicosis b. hypoparathyroidism c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Chronic heparin administration
  751. 766. osteoporosis is not seen in:
    a. Steroid therapy b. hypoparathyroidism c. Scurvy d. Old age
  752. 767. Not a cause of osteoporosis:
    a. Scurvy b. methotrexate c. osteogenesis imperfect d. heparin administration
  753. 768. Familial hypercholesterolemia is because of :
    • a. Dysbetalipproteinemia b. Familial apoprotein c II deficiency c. lipoprotein deficiency d. Mutation in gene for LDL receptors
    • 769. Tendon xanthomas are seen in :
  754. a. Familial lipothomas lipase deficiency b. Familial hypertriglyceridemia
    c. Dysbetalipoproteinemia d. Familial hypercholesterolemia
  755. 770.Zinc deficiency causes:
    a. hypogonadism b. Diarrhea c. Alopecia d. All of the above
  756. 771.Not a manifestation of Zinc deficiency:
    a. hypogonadism b. Cardiomyopathy c. Growth retardation d. alopecia
  757. 772. Blood culture is indicated in all except:
    a. malaria b. Septicemia c. SABE d. enteric fever
  758. 773.Not seen in hyponatremia:
    a. periodic muscle paralysis b. Convulsions c. Raised ICT d. Headache
  759. 774. Earliest indicator of sodium loss is:
    a. Orthostatic hypertension b. Arrhythmia c. Altered sensorium d. Reduced skin turgidity
  760. 775. In rheumatoid arthritis, common type of anemia is:
    a. Macrocytic hypochromic b. Hypochromic normocytic c. Hyperchrmic, normocytic d. NMnormocytic, normochromic
  761. 776. Not a complication of rheumatoid arthritis:
    a. Polycythemia b. Splenic infarct c. endocarditis d. Pericarditis
  762. 777. Most common site of iatrogenic rupture of esophagus is:
    a. Abdominal b. Thoracic region above aortic arch c. Thoracic region below aortic arch d. Cervical esophagus
  763. 778.Spontaneous rupture of spleen is seen in:
    a. Hereditary spherocytosis b. infectious monocleosis c. Polycythemai rubra vera d. CML
  764. 779. Not a characteristic feature of plummer-Vinson syndroma:
    a. Dysphagia b. Common in elderly male c. Esophageal webs d. Premalignant
  765. 780. Inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is not seen in:
    a. Head injury b. small cell c. Acute encephalitis d. Chromophobe adenoma
  766. 781. SIADH is associated with which of the following :
    a. Small cell carcinoma of lung b. Squamous cell carcinoma of lung c. Adneocercinoma of lung d. Large cell carcinoma of lung
  767. 782. SIADH occurs in all except:
    • a. Migraine b. Chronic meningitis c. Guillain- Barre syndrome
    • 783. Lateral medullary syndrome is caused by thrombosis of:
    • a. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery b. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
    • c. Superior cerebellar artery d. Posterior communicating branch of middle cerebral artery
  768. 784. Not a feature of Wallenberg’s syndrome:
    • a. Ipsilateral involvement of lower cranial nerve b. Ipslateral involvement of sympathetic tract
    • c. ipsilateral loss of taste d. Ipslateral loss of pain and temperature
  769. 785. Not a characteristic feature of lateral medullary syndrome:
    a. Crossed hemi-anesthesia b. Horner’s syndrome is rare c. Dysphagia d. Numbness
  770. 786. not a feature of lateral medullary syndrome:
    a. Impairment of pain over contralateral half of the body b. Impairment of sensation over ipslateral face c. Falling to the side opposite to the lesion d. Ipslateral Horner’s syndrome
  771. 787. Tumor common in AIDS is:
    a. Uterus carcinoma b. Urinary bladder carcinoma c. B-cell lymphoma d. Lung carcinoma
  772. 788. In patients of AIDS least common tumor is:
    a. Primary CNS lymphoma b. Astrocytoma c. Burkitt’s lymphoma d. kaposi’s sarcoma
  773. 789. In which of the following condition, concentric hypertrophy of left ventricle is seen:
    a. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy b. Mitral stenosis c. Mitral regurgitation d. Essential hypertension
  774. 790. the following conditions predispose to leukemia:
    a. Blood syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Fanconi anemia d. All of the above
  775. 791. AML is seen with increased frequency in all except :
    a. Fanconi anemia b. Bloom syndrome c. Fragile X syndrome d. Down syndrome
  776. 792. Galactorrhea is not seen with the use of:
    a. Reserpine b. Phenothiazines c. Bromocriptine d. Metoclopramide
  777. 793. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is;
    a. Aphasia b. Dysarthria c. Stuttering d. Echolalia
  778. 794. lesion in inferior frontal gyrus causes:
    a. Motor aphasia b. Incomprehension of spoken language c. Incomprehension of written language d. Defect in articulation
  779. 795. Most common type of aphasia in AD is seen in:
    a. Trans cortical motor b. Trans cortical sensory c. anomic aphasia d. Broca’s aphasia
  780. 796.Recurrent giardiasis is common in:
    a. C1 esterase inhibitors deficiency b. DiGeorge syndrome c. C8 deficiency d. Common variable immunodeficiency
  781. 797. Viral meningitis is most commonly caused by:
    a. Echovirus b. Coxsaroviruses c. Poliovirus d. enteroviruses
  782. 798.s Sjogren’s syndrome is not associated with:
    a. Primary biliary cirrhosis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Chronic active hepatitis d. Mid line granuloma
  783. 799. Alkaline phosphatase is not increased in:
    a. Paget’s disease b. Hypophosphatasia c. Osteomalacia d. Hyperparathyroidism
  784. 800. Alkaline phosphatase is raised in:
    a. Osteoporosis b. CRF c. Primary hyperparathyroidism d. Multiple myeloma
  785. 801.s Pure motor neuropathy does not occur in:
    a. Gaillain-Barre syndrome b. Porphyria c. Dapsone intoxication d. Lead intoxication
  786. 802. In primary idiopathic polymyositis, which of the following group of muscles are never involved :
    a. Ocular muscle b. Extensor neck muscle c. pharyngeal muscles d. Proximal limb girdle
  787. 803. In polymyositis which of the following muscle is not involved:
    a. Muscle of pharynx b. Muscles of trunk c. neck muscle d. Ocular muscle
  788. 804. In polymyositis, which of the following muscle is not involved:
    a. Thigh b. Girdle c. Ocular d. Neck
  789. 805. 4th heart sound is heard in all except:
    a. Ventricular aneurysm b. MR c. Cardiomyopathy d. Hypertension
  790. 806. In 1998, Noble prize for research in medicine was given for:
    a. NO b. Super oxide c. N2O d. H2O2
  791. 807.Not associated with hypercoagulable state:
    a. Weber Christian disease b. Protein S deficiency c. Protein C deficiency d. antiphospholipid antibody
  792. 808. A patient of AIDS with pneumocystis carinii infection is treated with aerosol pentamidine. He may develop all of the following except:
    a. Extra- thoracic infection b. Cavitation c. Pneumothorax d. Lower lobe infection
  793. 809. An HIV patient with perihilar infiltrates and without pleural effusion in the X-ray is most likely to have:
    a. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia b. Kaposi’s sarcoma c. Tuberculosis d. Lymphoma
  794. 810. Non –synchronized DC shock is given in:
    a. Ventricular fibrillation b. Ventricular tachycardia c. Atrial fibrillation d. Atrial flutter
  795. 811. Vaccine prescribed to a child with nephrotic syndrome is:
    a. bordetella pertussis b. Hepatitis B virus c. Pneumococcal d. Haemophilus influenza
  796. 812. Pneumococcal vaccine is not indicated in:
    • a. Diabetes mellitus b. Cystic fibrosis c. Renal failure d. Sickle cell anemia
    • 813. A patient presents with history of low grade fever 10 days back, which decreased with some antipyretics. Now he is again having fever and peripheral smear examination showed gametocytes of plasmodium falciparum. Which of the following drugs will you give for him:
    • a. Artemether b. Quinine c. Ciprofloxacin d. Primaquine d. Cephalosporins
  797. 814. A 50 year old asymptomatic man on routine investigation was found to have 3 times increased alkaline phosphatase with normal serum calcium and phosphorus. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Metastasis form primary carcinoma b. Primary hyperparathyroidism c. Paget’s disease of bone d. Osteoporosis
  798. 815.Interferon is not used in:
    a. Myelomonocytic leukemia b. chronic hepatitis B c. CML d. hairy cell leukemia
  799. 816. Interferon is not used in:
    a. Polymyositis b. Hepatitis C c. CML d. Hairy cell leukemia
  800. 817. Insulin resistance is not seen in:
    a. Excess growth hormone b. obesity c. Lipodystrophy d. Addison’s disease
  801. 818. Gonadectomy is done in:
    a. Mixed gonadla dysgenesis b. klinefelter syndrome c. Kallmann syndrome d. Down syndrome
  802. 819. Complication of sickle cell anemia is:
    a. Splenomegaly b. Predispose to bladder tumor c. Urolithiasis d. Priapism
  803. 820. Clubbing is not seen in:
    a. Cyanotic heart disease b. Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis c. Primary biliary cirrhosis d. chronic bronchitis
  804. 821. Clubbing is not seen in:
    a. Mesothelioma b. Left to right shunt c. Empyema d. Cirrhosis
  805. 822. Garderner’s syndrome has all of the following except :
    a. Skull osteomas b. Polyposis coli c. Dental defect d. Xanthomas
  806. 823. False regarding Gardener’s syndrome is:
    a. Dental abnormality b. osteoma c. CNS tumor d. Desmoid tumor
  807. 824. Not a cause of CNS vasculitis:
    a. PAN b. Behcet’s disease c. Whipple’s disease d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
  808. 825. Which of the following is the single recessive gene inherited disease:
    a. parkinsonism b. Schizophrenia c. Tuberous sclerosis d. Wilson’s disease
  809. 826. Bronchial adenoma commonly presents as:
    a. Chest pain b. Dyspnea c. Recurrent hemoptysis d. Wheezing
  810. 827. most common trosomy among the following is:
    a. Trisomy 5 b. trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 21 d. Trisomy 13
  811. 828. In cerebral aneurysm rupture which of the following nerve is involved:
    a. Oculomotor b. VII c. VIII d. Trochlear
  812. 829. All of the following metastatic tumors compress spinal cord except:
    a. Meningioma b. breast carcinoma c. Lymphoma d. Lung carcinoma
  813. 830. Nosocomial pneumonia is caused by which of the following organism:
    a. Mycoplasma b. Gram negative cocci c. Gram positive bacilli d. Gram negative bacilli
  814. 831. Not apredisposing factor of Alzheimer’s disease:
    a. Smoking b. Head injury c. Low education level d. down syndrome
  815. 832. False regarding subacute combined degeneration:
    a. Brisk ankle reflexes b. Corticospinal involvement c. posterior column involvement d. Due to vitamin B12 deficiency
  816. 833. Pyramidal tract involvement with absent ankle jerk is seen in:
    a. Fredrick’s ataxia b. Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord c. Lathyrism d. Tabes dorsalis
  817. 834. blood of patient is anti HBsAg (HBsAb) positive but all other tests are negative. This may be due to:
    a. chronic active hepatitis b. Carrier state c. Vaccine given d. Acute infection
  818. 835. Most important prognostic factor in an infarct case is:
    a. Ejection fraction b. CPK c. Ventricular tachycardia d. Left main coronary artery obstruction
  819. 836. Not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome:
    a. Acromegaly b. Hypertension c. Myxedema d. pregnancy
  820. 837. not a cause of tunnel syndrome:
    a. hypertension b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Hypothyroidism d. Pregnancy
  821. 838. A 60 year old man, who is a known case of liver cirrhosis, presents with increased levels of AFP, hepatomegaly 3cm below costal margin. USG showed lesions involving the right lobe of liver. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Metastasis b. hepatic adenoma c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. focal nodular hyperplasia
  822. 839. Which among the following resembles calcivirus:
    a. HAV b. HBV c. HCV d. HEV
  823. 840. A patient with a bee-sting developed itching and subcutaneous edema, which progressed to involve the face. There was laryngeal edema with difficulty in breathing . the immune mechanism implicated in the causation of these manifestations is:
    a. Immune compleses b. IgE antibodies c. IgG antibodies d. Cytootoxic T cells
  824. 841. joint least commonly involved inankylosing spondylitis is:
    a. lesser femoral trochanter b. Spine c. Wrist and hand d. Sacroiliac joint
  825. 842. Eosinophilia is seen in all except:
    a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. Glucocorticoids c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. NSAID therapy
  826. 843. eosinophilia is not caused by:
    a. Babesiosis b. Paragonimus c. Filariasis d. Ascariasis
  827. 844. bilateral parotid gland enlargement is not seen in:
    a. sjogren’s syndrome b. Systemic lupus erythematosus c. Chronic pancreatitis d. sarcoidosis
  828. 845.To qualify as a solitary pulmonary nodule in chest X-ray size should not exceed:
    a. 3 cm b. 8 cm c. 9 cm d. 6 cm
  829. 846. The investigation of choice for a solitary pulmonary nodule is:
    a. CT b. MRI c. FNAC guided by imaging d. USG
  830. 847. Risk of transmission of HIV following single needle stick injury is:
    a. 100% b. 90% c. 0.3% d. 50%
  831. 848. A doctor, while drawing blood for an HIV positive patient felt a needle stick injury. The prophylaxis
    • is to be given is:
    • a. AZT + lamivudine for 4 weeks b. AZT + lamivudine + indinavir for 4 weeks
    • c. AZT + lamivudine + nevirapine for 4 weeks d. AZT + stavudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks
  832. 849. About medullary sponge kidney false is:
    a. Autosomal dominant b. Nephrocalcinosis c. Normal serum calcium d. nephrotic syndrome
  833. 850. Left sided pleural effusion is seen in:
    a. Pancreatitis b. CHF c. Both d. None
  834. 851. hypocomplementemia is found in:
    a. poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis b. MCD c. Both d. None
  835. 852. Rubella in fetus is diagnosed by:
    a. IgG antibody in mother b. IgM antibody in mother c. IgA antibody in fetus d. IgM antibody in fetus
  836. 853. A pregnant lady is detected to be HBsAg positive at 22 weeks of pregnancy . the treatment of the baby includes:
    • a. HBv vaccination b. HBV vaccination +HBV immonuglobulin
    • c. Immunoglobulin alone d. Immunoglobulins followed by vaccine after 1 month if HBsAg negative
  837. 854. Danazol s given in the treatment of:
    a. Cyclical mastalgia b. Non-cyclical mastalgia c. Mastitis d. fibrocystic breast disease
  838. 855. A newborn baby is affected from encephalitis with skin lesion. The agent is likely to be:
    • a. HSV -1 b. HSV-2 c. Japanese encephalitis B d. Meningococci
    • 856. Not seen in goodpasture’s syndrome:
    • a. Diffuse alveolar involvement b. Anti-GBM antibody c. Hemorrhage d. Crecentric glomerulonephritis
  839. 857.Apart from heredity spherocytosis, spherocytes are seen in:
    a. Immune hemolytic anemia b. PNH c. Thalassemia d. Iron deficiency
  840. 858. Rheumatoid factor is:
    a. IgE against Fc of IgG b. IgM against Fc of IgG c. IgG against Fc of IgM d.. IgA against Fc of IgM
  841. 859. Rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis is important because:
    a. RA factor is associated with bad prognosis b. Absent RA factor rules out the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis c. it is very common in childhood rheumatoid arthritis d. It correlates with disease activity very well
  842. 860. Not a cause of cor pulmonale:
    a. Chronic bronchitis b. Emphysema c. Lung abscess d. Chronic asthma
  843. 861. In herpes simplex encephalitis the CT and EEG findings are confined to which of the following lobe:
    a. Occipital b. Temporal c. Frontal d. Parietal
  844. 862. Most common cause of spontaneous pneumothorax is:
    a. Rupture of sub-pleural bleb b. Tuberculosis c. Trauma d. Asthama
  845. 863. Spontaneous pneumothorax is not common in:
    a. Radiation pneumonitis b. Cryptogenic fibroshing alveolitis c. Histiocytosis d. Lymphangioleimyomatosis
  846. 864.Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is often associated with:
    a. Smoking b. Female sex c. Exercise d. Short stature
  847. 865. Spontaneous pneumothorax is not seen in:
    • a. Positive and pressure ventilation b. Bronchopulmonary aspergillous
    • c. Eosinophilic granuloma d. MArfan’s syndrome
  848. 866. Pneumothorax is not a feature of:
    a. Bronchopulmonary aspergilosis b. assisted ventilation c. Eosinophilic granuloma d. Marfan’s syndrome
  849. 867. Following infection associated with AIDS can cause retinal involvement except
    a. Varicella-Zoster virus b. HSV c. HPV d. CMV
  850. 868.Fase regarding hypokalemic periodic paralysis is:
    a. Sodium channel defect b. Affects proximal limb muscles more c. Decreased serum K+ level d. Autosomal dominant
  851. 869. Thrombin time is prolonged in which of the following :
    • a. ITP b. Factor II deficiency c. Dysfibrinogenemia d. Von Willebrnad’s disease
    • 870. Serum CPK levels are low in myopathy associated with which of the following:
    • a. Hypoparathyroidism b. Hyperparathyroidism c. Hypothyroidism d. Hyperthyroidism
  852. 871. Example of single gene disorder is:
    a. Hypertension b. Diabetes mellitus c. Glycogen storage disease d. Marfan’s syndrome
  853. 872. Dominant trait express in:
    a. Males only b. Both homozygous and heterozygous states c. Heteroxygous state d. Homozygous state
  854. 873. Waddling gait is most frequently seen in:
    a. Cushing disease b. Common peroneal nerve injury c. Bilateral dislocation of hip d. Myopathy
  855. 874. Decreased melanin pigmentation is seen in:
    a. Whipple’s disease b. PKU c. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia d. None of the above
  856. 875. Fait in parkinsonism is:
    a. Dancing gait b. High stepping gait c. Festinate gait d. Ataxic gait
  857. 876.The defect in thrombasthenia is In :
    a. Platelet contraction b. ADP secretion c. Platelet aggregation d. Platelet adhesion
  858. 877. Edema is a feature of:
    a. Vitamin B12, deficiency b. Protein deficiency c. Cushing syndrome d. Hyperthyroidism
  859. 878. Not included in the differential diagnosis of chylous ascites:
    a. CHF b. Tuberculosis c Filariasis d. Nephrotic syndrome
  860. 879. pleural calcification is commonly seen in:
    a. Bronchogenic carcinoma b. Hyperparathyroidism c. Asbestosis d. Silicosis
  861. 880. Investigation of choice to diagnose epilepsy is:
    a. EEG b. Angiogram c. CT scan d. MRI
  862. 881. Not an indication for bone marrow transplant:
    a. Myelofibrosis b. hypoplastic anemia c. CML d. Thalassemia major
  863. 882. Bone marrow transplant is the indicated in:
    a. Aplastic anemia b. Myelodysplastic syndrome c. Acute leukemia d. All of the above
  864. 883. Senile plaques in brain are a feature of:
    a. Multiple sclerosis b. Parkinsonism c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Motor neuron disease
  865. 884. Downbeat nystagmus is characteristic of:
    a. Cerebellar lesions b. Labyrinthine lesions c. Posterior fossa lesions d. Vestibular lesions
  866. 885.Caplan’s syndrome is seen in:
    • a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Pulmonary edema c. COPD d. Hypercalcemia
    • 886. Rheumatoid arthritis associated with pneumoconiosis is known as:
    • a. Middle lobe syndrome b. Black lung syndrome c. Caplan’s syndrome d. Hamman-Rich syndrome
  867. 887.Generalized lymphadenopathy is seen in all except :
    a. CLL b. Tertiary syphilis c. ALL d. Infectious mononucleosis
  868. 888. Oral anti-diabetic drug of choice in renal failure is:
    a. Metformin b. Glipizide c. TOlbutamine d. Chlorpropamide
  869. 889. Mode of action of atrial natriuretic peptide is:
    • a. Increasing blood volume b. decreasing cardiac output c. Increasing venous pressure d. Increasing
    • rennin secretion
  870. 890. Atrial natriuretic peptide acts by:
    a. Increasing rennin secretion b. Increasing venous pressure c. Inhibiting sodium reasorption in distal tubules d. Increasing blood volume
  871. 891. Absolute indication for hemodialysis is:
    a. Hyperkalemia >6.5 mEq/L b. Percarditis c. GI bleeding d. convulsion
  872. 892. Uncinate fits are seen in tumors of…. Lobe:
    a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Frontal
  873. 893.best treatment modality for CML is:
    a. Radiotherapy b. Allogeneic bone marrow transplantation c. Hydroxyurea d. Interferon
  874. 894. Blast crisis in CML is not indicated by:
    a. Bleeding tendencies b. sudden enlargement of spleen c. High fever d. Lymphadenopahty
  875. 895. In CML the drug of choice is:
    a. Hydroxyurea b. 5FU c. Busulphan d. Clorambucil
  876. 896. Increased C peptide is seen in:
    a. Hepatoma b. Insulinoma c. Glucogonoma d. Gastrinoma
  877. 897. Anterior uveitis and parotid enlargement is seen in:
    a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Sjogren’s syndrome c. lupus erythematosus d. Sarcoidosis
  878. 898.Pellagra like dermatitis is seen in:
    a. Lymphoma b. Systemic lupus erythematosis c. Dermatomyositis d. Carcinoid syndrome
  879. 899.Part of heart most commonly affected in carcinoid syndrome is:
    • a. Inflow tract of right ventricle b. Outflow tract of right ventricle
    • c. Outflow tract of left ventricle d. Inflow tract of left ventricle
  880. 900. not a recognized feature of carcinoid syndrome :
    • a. Increased urinary excretion of venillylmandeic acid b. Skin changes of pellagra
    • c. Bronchospam d. flushing
    • 901. “ Giant cell’ pneumonia is seen in:
    • a. Epstein-Barr virus b. Cytomegalovirus c. measles d. Vericella
  881. 902. Myoclonic jerk is typically seen in:
    a. Trycyclic antidepressant poisoning b. BSE c. SSPE d. Steele-Richardson syndrome
  882. 903. Not seen in histiocytosis X:
    • a. LAngerhans’ cells are pathognomic b. Letterer-Siwe disease
    • c. Hand-Schhuller-Christian disease d. Eosinophilic granuloma
  883. 904. The histologic hallmark of langerhans cels granulomatosis is:
    a. Dendritic cell processes b. Giant mitochondria c. birbeck granules d. Eosinophilic granules
  884. 905. Macrocytic anemia is seen in all except:
    a. Thalassemia b. Acute blood loss c. Alcoholism d. Aplastic anemia
  885. 906. Carey-Coombs murmur s found in:
    a. TAPVC b. Tetralogy of Fallot c. TR d. Acute rheumatic fever
  886. 907. Most common cause of death in adults due to PDA is:
    a. Rupture of the ductus b. Aneurysmal dilatation c. Infective endocarditis d. Cardiac failure
  887. 908. Most common cause of chronic recurrent diarrhea in HIV patient is:
    a. Campylobacter b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Cryptosporidium d. Giardia lamblia
  888. 909. Not used to treat raised ICT:
    a. Tetracycline b. Repeated lumber tapping c. Corticosteroids d. Diuretics
  889. 910.Msot common cause of dementia in people more than 65 years of age is:
    a. Turner syndrome b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Huntington’s chorea
  890. 911. Holiday heart syndrome is commonly associated with:
    a. PAT b. Ventricular premature complexes c. Atrial premature complexes d. Atrial fibrillation
  891. 912. which is not true regarding alcoholic cardiomyopathy:
    a. Low cardiac output b. Ventricular arrhythmias c. Systemic vasodilation d. Atrial fibrillation
  892. 913.Extradural hemorrhage is due to rupture of which of the following artery:
    a. Middle meningeal b. Anterior meningeal c. posterior meningeal d. Middle cerebral
  893. 914. In hemoptysis, blood usually comes from:
    a. Pulmonary arteries b. pulmonary veins c. bronchial arteries d. bronchial veins
  894. 915. Not seen in emphysema:
    • a. Damage to alveoli b. Rhonchi c. Decreased vital capacity d. Hyperinflation
    • 916. Best method for decreasing blood cholesterol level is:
    • a. High fiber diet with low cholesterol b. Unsaturated fatty acid with high fiber diet and low cholesterol diet c. High fiber diet with saturated fatty acids and low cholesterol diet d. Low fiber diet with restricted dietary cholesterol
  895. 917. diabetes mellitus is not seen in:
    a. Myotonic dystrophy b. Ataxia telangiectasia c. Noonan syndrome d. Acromegaly
  896. 918. Lasegue’s sign is seen in:
    a. Sciatica b. Myasthenia gravis c. Intracranial lesions d. Transaction of spinal cord
  897. 919.Neuropathic joint is not seen in:
    a. Fredrick’s ataxia b. Syringomyelia c. Tabes dorsalis d. Diabetes mellitus
  898. 920. Neuropathic joints are not seen in:
    a. Tabes dorsalis b. Leprosy c. diabetes mellitus d. Myopathy
  899. 921. True regarding Korsakoff’s psychosis is:
    a. Anterograde amnesia b. Delirium c. Coarse tremor d. Disorientation
  900. 922. Botulinum toxin is used in the treatment of:
    a. Trigeminal neuralgia b. Torticollis c. Focal dystonia d. amytrophic lateral sclerosis
  901. 923. Pneumocytosis carinii pneumonia is:
    a. Interstitial b. hemorrhagic c. Eosinophilic d. Alveolar pneumonia
  902. 924.Not seen in diphtheria:
    a. Polyneuropathy b. Endotoxemia c. Cardiomyopathy d. Pseudomembrane formation
  903. 925. Wenckebach’s phenomenon is defined as:
    • a. Shortened ST interval b. Irregular heart rate and premature ventricular beats
    • c. Slurred QRS complex d. Progressive lengthening of PR interval till a beat is dropped
  904. 926. False regarding klebsiella pneumonia:
    • a. It is also known as Friedlander’s pneumonia b. ampicillin the drug of choice
    • c. bulging fissure sign d. Upper lobe involvement
  905. 927. which of the following is false regarding Klebsiella pneumonia:
    a. Chocolate colored sputum b. Seen in alcoholics c. Seen in older age group d. Penicillin is the drug of choice
  906. 928. Bulging fissure sign in X-ray is seen in infection with:
    a. Loeffler’s bacillus b. klebsiela pneumonia c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Haemophilus influenza
  907. 929. which of the following drug causes diarrhea:
    a. Methyldopa b. Purgatives c. Cocaine d. all of the above
  908. 930. True regarding sickle cell anemia is:
    • a. In β chain valine is present in place of glutamic acid as 6th amino acid
    • b. In β chain glutamic acid is present in place valine of as 6th amino acid
    • c. In α chain valine is present in place of glutamic acid as 6th amino acid
    • d. In α chain glumatic acid is present in place of valine as 6th amino acid
  909. 931. Not a good risk factor in multiple myeloma:
    a. IgG spike < 5 gm/dl b. Hematocrit >40% c. Hypocalcemia d. Azotemia
  910. 932. Pigment gallstones are not seen in:
    a. Hemolytic anemia b. TPN c. Clonorchis infestation d. Alcoholic cirrhosis
  911. 933. In congenital erythropoietic porphyria the enzyme deficient is:
    a. UPG decarboxylase b. PBG deaminase c. Uroporphyrinogen III synthase d. Ferrochelatase
  912. 934. False regarding congenitall erythropoietic porphyria:
    a. Autosomal recessive b. BMT is the treatment of choice c. Due to deficiency of URO synthase d. Hypertrichosis of face and extremities are common
  913. 935. Differential cyanosis is seen in:
    a. Tetralogy of Fallot b. TGA c. PDA d. TAPVC
  914. 936. Pituitary tumor which is most responsive to medical therapy is:
    a. Thyrotropin secreting tumors b. Prolactinoma c. ACTH secreting tumor d. Growth hormone secreting tumor
  915. 937. HTLV-I is associated with:
    a. Huntington’s chorea b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma c. AIDS d. Tropical spastic paraparesis
  916. 938. SLE like syndrome is not caused by:
    a. Levamisole b. Oral contraceptives c. D-Penicillamine d. Methyldopa
  917. 939.SLE like syndrome may be caused by:
    Practolol b. Metoprolol c. Alprenolol d. Timolol
  918. 940. Not seen in Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia:
    a. IgM spike on SPE b. Hyperviscosity c. Hypercalcemia d. Positive coombs’ test
  919. 941. Erythema chronicum migrane is seen in:
    a. Glucagonoma b. Lyme disease c. diabetes mellitus d. Bronchus carcinoma
  920. 942. All of the following drugs precipitate hypertensive crisis in pheochromocytoma except:
    a. Opiates b.. Saralasin c. Phenoxybenzamine d. Methyldopa
  921. 943.Drug of choice for very high circulatory catecholamine in pheochromocytoma is:
    a. Propanolol b. Doxazosin c. Prazosin d. Phenoxybenzamine
  922. 944. Drug not used alone in pheochromocytoma is:
    a. Metyrosine b. Atenolol c. Calcium channel blockers d. Sodium nitroprusside
  923. 945. Lupus pernio is characteristic of:
    a. Amyloidosis b. Coccidioidomycosis c. Sarcoidosis d. Histoplasmosis
  924. 946.Not a characteristic lab finding of Wegener’s granulomatosis:
    a. reduced levels of hemoglobin b. Reduced levels of complement c. Elevated levels of IgA d. elevated ESR
  925. 947. Extraparenchymal restrictive lung disease does not occur in:
    a. Congenital hyphoscoliosis b. Emphysema c. Myasthenia gravis d. obesity
  926. 948.hand-foot syndrome is seen with the use of:
    a. Bleomycin b. Adriamycin c. Busulphan d. 5 FU
  927. 949. Human liver transplant was pioneered by;
    a. Halstead b. Christian barnard c. Starzl d. Alexis carrel
  928. 950.Gottron’s papule is seen in:
    a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Systemic sclerosis c. Dermatomyositis d. Dermatitis herpetiformis
  929. 951. penicillamine is not used in…… poisoning:
    a. Lead b. copper c. Arsenic d. Mercury
  930. 952.D-penicillamine is useful in all except :
    a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Mercury poisoning c. Wilson’s disease d. Hemochromatosis
  931. 953. D-penicillamine is used in treating:
    a. Systemic sclerosis b. Systmeic lupus erythematosus c. Systemic infection d. DLE
  932. 954.Wrist drop, punctuate basophilia and encephalopathy occur in:
    a. Lead poisoning b. Arsenic poisoning c. Iron poisoning d. Copper poisoning
  933. 955. A boy presents with ascending paralysis followed by increasing respiratory muscle involvement . CSF examination shows albuminocytologic dissociation. Which of the following is the best treatment:
    a. Prednisolone IV b. Immunoglobulins IV c. Corticosteroids d. Oral prednisolone
  934. 956.Not used in the treatment of Guillain-Barre syndrome:
    a. IV gamma globulin b. IV methyl prednisolone c. Plasmapheresis d. Ventilatory support
  935. 957. lesion of the Meyer’s loop of the optic radiation causes:
    a. Bitemporal heminopia b. Superior quardrantic heminipia c. Central scotoma d . Homonymous hemianopia
  936. 958. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to deficiency of:
    a. Thiamine b. riboflavin c. Pyridoxine d. niacin
  937. 959. Not a feature of Wernicke’s encephalopathy:
    • a. Dementia b. global confusion c. Ophthalmoplegia d. Ataxia
    • 960. An alcoholic patient presented with complaints of confusion. He was administered IV glucose and suddenly developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The treatment is:
    • a. IV vitamin B1 b. IV 5% dextrose c. IV 50% dextrose d. IV normal saline
  938. 961.ABG of a patient reveals PH 7.2 HCO3_36 mmol/L; pcO2 mmHg. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Repository alkalosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis d. Repository acidosis
  939. 962. Blood examination of a patient with head injury reveals PH 7.2 PaCO2 65 mmHg and bicarbonate 30. He has:
    a. Metabolic alkalosis b. metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Respiratory acidosis
  940. 963. Respiratory alkalosis is seen in:
    a. morphine poisoning b. ethanol poisoning c. Salicylate poisoning d. Barbiturate poisoning
  941. 964. Respiratory acidosis is caused by:
    a. Morphine b. Asthma c. Emphysema d. All of the above
  942. 965. Cataract, mental retardation and short 4th metacarpal are the feature of:
    a. Hypothyroidism b. Pseudohypoparathyroidism c. Hyperthyroidism d. Hyperparathyroidism
  943. 966.C-reactive protein is raised in:
    a. Infections b. Inflammatory arthritis c. Autoimmune disorders d. All of the above
  944. 967.C-reactive Protein is significantly increased in all the following except:
    a. Rheumatic fever b Rheumatoid arthritis c. Systemic vasculitis d. Systemic sclerosis
  945. 968. Most common mendelian disorder among the following is:
    a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X-linked dominant d. X-linked recessive
  946. 969. Which of the following is the most common cause of female pseudohermaphroditism:
    a. PCOD b. CAH c. Ovarian agenesis d. Turner syndrome
  947. 970. Which of the following is the scale used in comparing the grade of pain:
    a. mcGill’s pain chart b. Visual Analogue scale c. numerical charts d. CHEOPES
  948. 971. ST depression is seen in all the following except:
    a. Coronary vasospasm b. Acute MI c. Ventricular aneurysm d. LBBB
  949. 972. The shape of RBC is maintained by:
    a. Spectrin b. Ankyrin c. Fibrin d. Alpha glycoprotein
  950. 973. Vitamin E deficiency is associated with:
    a. pseudotumor cerebri b. Hyperkeratosis c. Ataxia d. Cholestasis
  951. 974. Acute leukemia phase is seen in all except :
    a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. CLL c. CML d. PNH
  952. 975. Antihypertensive drug which should not be given to a truck driver is:
    a. propanolol b. aldomet c. Clonidine d. Hydralazine
  953. 976. not seen in SIADH:
    a. Hyperuricemia b. Concentrated urine c. Lethargy d. hyponatremia
  954. 977. Reactive arthritis is commonly caused by:
    a. shigella sonnei b. Shigella flexneri c. Shigella boydii d. Shigella dysenteriae
  955. 978. Virus most commonly causing aplastic crisis in hemolytic anemia is:
    a. HTLV b. Parvovirus c. HIV d. Herpes virus
  956. 979.s Dementia in a patient of CRF with chronic hemodialysis is due to:
    a. hypertensive encephalopathy b. Hypokalemia c. Uremia d. Aluminum toxicity
  957. 980. Calcification of basal ganglion is least likely in:
    a. Hypoparathyroidism b. Pseudohypparathyroidism c. Idiopathic d. Berry’s aneurysm
  958. 981. In morphine poisoning , type of respiration is:
    a. Diaphragmatic b. slow c. Deep rapid d. Rapid shallow
  959. 982. Kala azar is transmitted by:
    a. Droplet infection b. Sandflies c. anopheles d. Black fly
  960. 983. not a clinical manifestation of kala azar:
    a. Dysphagia and chest pain b. pancytopenia c. Fever and cough d. splenomegaly
  961. 984. If kala azar is not responding to the primary treatment , then which of the following should be used:
    a. Splenectomy b. Ketoconazole c. Amphetericin B d. Double dose of antimony
  962. 985. Drug not used in treatment of kala azar:
    a. Pentamidine b. Amphotericin c. clindamycin d. Sodium stibogluconate
  963. 986. A continuous machinery murmur is heard in:
    a. PDA b. VSD c. ASD d. TOF
  964. 987. Curschmann’s spirals in sputum are seen in:
    a. Tuberculosis b. Asthma c. Bronchitis d. Bronchiectasis
  965. 988.Enzyme deficient in diabetes mellitus is:
    a. Glucokinase b. Hexokinase c. Phosphorylase d. pyrophosphate dehydrogenase
  966. 989. Which of the following enzyme is deficient in MODY type 2:
    a. GLucokinase b. Hexokinase c. Phosphorylase d. Pyrophosphate dehydrogenase
  967. 990. Which antitubercular drug is used in a patient of renal failure:
    • a. Isoniazid b. Rifampicin c. Ethambutol d Pyrazinamide
    • 991.Which one of the following therapies would be safe in a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis having markedly abnormal liver function:
    • a. Streptomycin + isoniazid b. Streptomycin+ Ethambutol c. Ethambutol + isoniazid d. Rifampicin + isoniazid
  968. 992. Deposition in alkaptonuria is not seen in:
    a. pinna b. Eye c. Nose d. Cartilage
  969. 993.Drug not causing cholestatic liver injury is:
    a. Ciprofloxacin b. Erythromycin estolate c. Clavulanic acid/ amoxicillin d. Chlorpromazine
  970. 994. Drug very effective in renal involvement in scleroderma is:
    a.Nifedipine b. Captopril c. D-penicillamine d. Prednisolone
  971. 995. Treatment of choice of pseudomembranous colitis is:
    a. Amikacin b. Bacitracin c. Vancomycin d. Ampicillin
  972. 996. Not used in the treatment of pseudomembranous colitis:
    a. Vancomycin b. Cholestyramine c. Ampicillin d. Metronidazole
  973. 997.Idiopathic ulcerative colitis most commonly involves:
    a. Cecum and ascending colon b. Colon and rectum c. cecum and decending colon d. rectum
  974. 998. Heparin’ s major mode of action is;
    a. Inhibits synthesis of thrombin b. inhibits factor VII synthesis c. Not easily controlled d. Activities plasmin
  975. 999. Efficiency of anticoagulant heparin is best monitored by:
    a. Clotting time b. FDP c. PT d. APTT
  976. 1000. Late systolic murmur is seen in which of the following condition:
    a. Large VSD b. Small VSD c. MVP d. Tricuspid valve endocarditis
  977. 1001. Most common cause of osteomyelitis in drug addicts is:
    a. Haemophilus influenza b. Escherichia coli c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Salmonella
  978. 1002.True regarding Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is:
    • a. Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase deficiency b. Myoadenylate deaminase deficiency
    • c. Partial HPRT deficiency d. Total HPRT deficiency
  979. 1003. Most specific for systemic lupus erythematosus is:
    a. Antinuclear antibody b. Anti-Sm c. Anti-Ro d. Anti-RNA
  980. 1004. Most common cause of hemobilia except:
    a. Hepatoma b. liver hemangioma c. Liver trauma d. Portal infection
  981. 1005. All of the following suggest hemobilia except:
    • a. Lower GI bleeding b. Upper abdominal trauma c. Jaundice d. Intermittent colicky abdominal pain
    • 1006.Spastic paraplegia is seen in all except:
    • a. Lead poisoning b. Motor neuron disease c. Cervical spondylosis d. Lathyrism
  982. 1007. Not a recognized tumor marker:
    AFP b. Acid phosphate c. β hCG d. neuron-specific enolase
  983. 1008. Acanthosis is not associated with:
    a. GI malignancy b. Gout c. Cushing’s syndrome d. Diabetes mellitus
  984. 1009. Water bottle configuration of the heart on chest X-ray is seen in:
    a. Hypothyroidism b. Carcinoid syndrome c. Beriberi d. Obesity
  985. 1010. Radiation nephritis is characterized by all except:
    a. Mild hypertension b. Massive proteinuria c. Rapidly developing azotemia d. Anemia
  986. 1011. Carbamazepine toxicity is precipitated by:
    a. Valporic acid b. Erythromycin c. Theophylline d. Vitamin K
  987. 1012. Monday chest tightness is a symptom classifically seen in:
    a. bagassosis b. silicosis c. Berylliosis d. Byssinosis
  988. 1013. normal mean Reid index is:
    a. 0.22 b. 0.35 c. 0.44 d. 0.66
  989. 1014. Which of the following is not a feature of Addison’s disease:
    a. Hypertension b. Weight loss c. Pigmentation of skin d. Weakness
  990. 1015.Drugs causing metabolic acidosis are all except:
    a. Metformin b. Spironlactone c. Phenformin d. Albendazole
  991. 1016. Digoxin toxicity is not accentuated by;
    a. Hepatic dysfunction b. Hypokalemia c. Renal disease d. Wuinidine
  992. 1017. Which of the following is not a feature of Felty’s syndrome :
    a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Splenomegaly c. Neutropenia d. Osteoarthritis
  993. 1018. In aortic regurgitation, the left ventricle is:
    a. Hypertrophic b. Dilated c. small d. Atrophic
  994. 1019. The human parathormone:
    a. Increases bone reabsorption b. Lowers serum calcium c. Increases renal tubular reabsorption of phosphate d. Causes reabsorption of calcium in the kidney
  995. 1020. True about Huntington’s disease is:
    a. Autosomal dominant b. usually onset is in childhood c. Associates with rheumatic fever d. Disappears with rest and sedation
  996. 1021. Broad cast in the urine are typically seen in:
    a. Acute glomerulonephritis b. Acute renal failure c. chronic renal failure d. nephrotic syndrome
  997. 1022. RBC casts in urine are seen in:
    a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Renal amyloidosis c. CRF d. Acute nephritis
  998. 1023. Prophylactic dose of tetanus immune globulin is:
    a. 250 international units b. 500 international units c. 1000 international units d. 1500 international units
  999. 1024.The treatment of acute cardiac tamponade is:
    a. emergency paracentesis b. Emergency thoracotomy c. IV digitalis d. Wait and watch
  1000. 1025. Amyl nitrate is used in the poisoning of:
    a. Carbon monoxide b. Cyanide c. Salicylates d. Morphine
  1001. 1026. Zieve’s syndrome is seen in:
    a. Protal cirrhosis b. Hepatocellular carcinoma c. Hereditary spherocytosis d. Chronic alcoholism
  1002. 1027.Relatively specific test for pheochromocytoma is:
    a. Ultrasound b. Estimation of urinary metanephrines c. Estimation of urinary vanilylmandelic acid d. Phentolamine test
  1003. 1028.Bloody mucoid diarrhea is not seen in infection with:
    a. Shigella spp b. Vibrio cholera c. Salmonella spp d. Campylobacter jejuni
  1004. 1029. ASO titers are useful in the diagnosis of:
    a. Acute rheumatoid arthritis b. Acute rheumatic fever c. Ankylosing spondylitis d. Osteoarthritis
  1005. 1030.In the jones criteria for rheumatic heart disease the major criteria are all except :
    a. Carditis b. Fever c. Erythema marginatum d. Subacutaneous nodule
  1006. 1031. The major criteria for rheumatic fever are the following except :
    a. Carditis b. Fever c. Erythema marginatum d. ESR above 20 mm/hour
  1007. 1032.Migrating polyarthritis is characteristically seen in:
    a. Syphilitic arthritis b. rheumatoid arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Rheumatic fever
  1008. 1033. Which of the following is false regarding rheumatic nodules:
    a. Found over extensor surface b. Tender on palpation c. Coincides with subsidence of rheumatic process d. Pea size nodules
  1009. 1034. which of the following is not a feature of classical migraine:
    a. Hallucinations b. No aura c. Fortification spectrum d. Scotomas
  1010. 1035. Differential diagnosis of mitral stenosis includes:
    a. left atrial myxoma b. Ebstein’s anomaly c. Aortico pulmonary window d. All of the above
  1011. 1036.Differential diagnosis of aortic stenosis includes all except :
    a. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy b. Congestive cardiomyopathy c. Left atrial myxoma d. Heart block
  1012. 1037. Convulsions are commonly precipitated in chronic renal failure by:
    a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypomagnessemia
  1013. 1038. In adults jaundice in clinically detachtable in the sclera when the serum bilirubin concentration exceeds:
    a. 1 mg% b. 2 mg% c. 5mg% d. 7mg%
  1014. 1039. Hamman-Rich syndrome is treated with:
    a. Vitamin B6 b. Vitamin B12 c. Isoniazid d. Steroids
  1015. 1040.Which of the following is the best diagnostic method of confirming tuberculous peritonitis:
    a. Culture of peritoneal fluid b. Mantoux c. Peritoneal biopsy d. upper GI contrast films
  1016. 1041. Important toxicity of ethambutol is:
    a. Jaundice b. Epigastric pain c. Retrobular neuritis d. Skin rash
  1017. 1042. Optic neuritis is a side effect of:
    a. Rifampicin b. Pyrazinamide c. Ethambutol d. PAS
  1018. 1043. Metyrapone inhibits:
    a. 11b-hydroxylase b. 21B hydroxylase c. both d. none
  1019. 1044. Which of the following drugs commonly cause aplastic anemia:
    a. Prednisolone b. Penicillin c. Minocycline d. Chloramphenicol
  1020. 1045.Renal papillary necrosis can be caused by;
    a. Phenacetin b. Sulphonamides c. Gentamicin d. penicillin
  1021. 1046. Which of the following is a form of dyskinesia:
    a. Torsion dystonia b. Tics c. Chorea d. all of the above
  1022. 1047. Determination of FLGLU in urine demonstrates deficiency of:
    a. Iron b. Vitamin B12 c. Folic acid d. Pyridoxine
  1023. 1048. niacin deficiency causes:
    a. Dementia b. Diarrhea c. Dermatitis d. All of the above
  1024. 1049. Normal TIBC is….. microgram/dl:
    a. 50-100 b. 150-250 c. 100-150 d. 300-350
  1025. 1050. Iron is transported by:
    a. Ferritin b. Apotransferrin c. Transferrin d. Apoferritin
  1026. 1051. In a patient with internuclear opthlmoplegia, the lesion is most likely to be at the level of the :
    • a. median longitudinal fasciculus b. Third nerve nucleus c. Reticular activation system d. Lateral lemniscus
    • 1052.A patient has history of recurrent hemoptysis, truncal obesity and cushingoid habitus and has increased ACTH not suppressible by dexamethasone suppression test. Which of the following is most likely to be the diagnosis:
    • a. Adrenal adenoma b. Pituitary tumor c. Ectopic ACTH secreting tumor d. Latrogenic cushing’s syndrome
  1027. 1053. True regarding adult polygenic kidney disease I and II respectively is;
    • a. Chromosome 16 and 5 b. Chromosome 16 and 4 c. chromosome 11 and 5 d. chromosome 21 and
    • 18
  1028. 1054. Anosmia is seen in:
    a. Kallmann’s syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. patau syndrome
  1029. 1055.Kartagener’s syndrome all are seen except;
    a. Cystic fibrosis b. Dextrocardia c. Sinusitis d. All
  1030. 1056. In kartagener’s syndrome all are seen except:
    a. cystic fibrosis b. Dextrocardia c. Sinusitis d. Absence of cilia
  1031. 1057. ultrastructural abnormalities reported in immotile cilia syndrome are:
    a. Dynein deficiency b. Absence of radial spokes c. Absence of central microtubule d. all of the above
  1032. 1058.Which of the following is seen in ITP:
    • a. Thrombocytosis b. Increased prothrombin time c. Increased bleeding time d. Increased clotting
    • time
  1033. 1059. Treatment of acute gout includes all except:
    a. NSAID b. Colchicine c. allopurinol d. all of the above
  1034. 1060. postural tremors are seen in all except :
    a. Benign essential familial tremor b. Heavy metal poisoning c. lithium toxicity d. Spinocerebellar degeneration
  1035. 1061.Which of the following is not a feature of hypothyroidism:
    a. Myxedema b. Carpal tunnel syndrome c. Menorrhagia d. Increased appetite
  1036. 1062. Pulsus paradoxus is not seen in:
    a. Cardiac tamponade b. Chronic obstructive airways disease c. Chronic constrictive pericarditis d. Intermittent positive pressure ventilation
  1037. 1063. Chronicity is least common in:
    • a. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis b. Membranous glomerulonephritis
    • c. Minimal change glomerulonephritis d. Focal glomerulonephritis
  1038. 1064. Wermer’s syndrome 9 multiple endocrine neoplasia type) is characterized by all of the following except:
    • a. Tumors of anterior pituitary b. Tumors of parathyroid c. Pancreatic adenomas d. pheochromocytoma
    • 1065. Treatment of choice in Taenia saginata and TAenia solium infestation is:
    • a. metronidazole b. niclosamide c. Praziquantel d. Albendazole
  1039. 1066. Which of the following is not a feature of mumps:
    a. Caused by paramyxovirus b. Aseptic meningitis c. Orchitis d. Incubation period is less than 2 weeks
  1040. 1067. Most common complication of mumps in adults is;
    a. otitis media b. Orchitis c. Myocarditis d. encephalitis
  1041. 1068. Which is true regarding von Willebrand’s disease:
    a. prolonged bleeding time b. Rare inherited bleeding disorder c. Autosomal recessive disease d. all of the above
  1042. 1069.Carbamazepine is the drug of choice in:
    a. Absence attacks b. Complex partial seizures c. myoclonus d. Infantile spasm
  1043. 1070. When carbamazepine is administered one should avoid:
    a. Sulphamethoxazole b. Amoxycillin c. Ceftriaxone d. Erythromycin
  1044. 1071.Which of the following is a highly emetic drug:
    a. Cisplatin b. methotrexate c. Vincristine d. 5 Fluorouracil
  1045. 1072. Which of the following is seen in infectious mononucleosis:
    a. lymphocytosis b. thrombocytopenia c. Increased serum transaminase d. all of the above
  1046. 1073. pernicious anemia is due to:
    a. Iron deficiency b. Atrophic gastritis c. low folic acid d. None
  1047. 1074.Which of the following drug causes acute pancreatitis:
    a. Valproic acid b. furosemide c. 6-Mercaptopurine d. all of the above
  1048. 1075.Staphylococcus aureus commonly inhabits:
    a. Nasopharynx b. Throat c. Ear d. Skin
  1049. 1076.Daily requirement of Vitamin K in adult male is:
    a. 20 to 50 microgram b. 10 to 20 microgram c. 45 to 80 microgram d. more than 150 microgram
  1050. 1077.Antidote of choice in methyl alcohol poisoning is:
    a. Atropine b. PAM c. Neostigmine d. Ethanol
  1051. 1078. Thyroid dysfunction is caused by:
    a. Amiodarone b. Lithium c. Phenytoin d. all of the above
  1052. 1079. Fungal meningitis is caused by:
    a. Cryptococcus b. Actinomycetes c. Sporotrichosis d. All of the above
  1053. 1080.In a patient of fever, nausea and mild pain in right hypochondrium, the most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Viral hepatitis b. Acute cholecystitis c. Gastritis d. Pleurisy
  1054. 1081. Treatment of choice for typhoid carriers;
    a. Chloramphenicol b. Ciprofoxacin c. Cholecystectomy d. Ampicillin
  1055. 1082. hypomagnesemia is caused by which of the following :
    a. Alcoholism b. Hyperthyroidism c. Both d. none
  1056. 1083. which is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome:
    a. Gaunidine gives relief b. neostigmine also effective c. Ptosis d. Associated with oat cell carcinoma
  1057. 1084. True about Ludwig’s angina is:
    a. Caused by Anaerobic streptococci b. A severe form of cellulitis c. originates from an infected mandibular molar d. All of the above
  1058. 1085. The treatment of eosinophilic myositis is:
    a. Steroids b. Aspirin c. Persantine d. Hydralazine
  1059. 1086. Which is the diagnostic test in pancreatic insulfficiency:
    a. Schilling test b. Serum lipase c. Serum amylase d. Fecal fat estimation
  1060. 1087.HLA linkage is seen in:
    a. IDDM b. NIDDM c. Secondary diabetes due to pancreatic disease d. Diabetes due to insulin antagonist
  1061. 1088. Trace element not needed is:
    a. Chromium b. Molybdenum c. Magnesium d. Cesium
  1062. 1089. Risk of development of atherosclerosis is inversely proportional to:
    a. LDL levels b. VLDL levels c. Chylomicron level d. HDL levels
  1063. 1090. Which of the following decreases the risk of atherosclerosis:
    a. LDL b. VLDL c. HDL d. Hyperthriglyceridemia
  1064. 1091.s Sinus bradycardia is seen in:
    a. Typhoid fever b. Hypothyroid state c. Athletes d. All of the above
  1065. 1092.Hallucination of obnoxious smell occurs in lesion of… lobe:
    a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Occipital
  1066. 1093. The highest frequency wave in EEG is…. Wave:
    a. Alpha b. Beta c. Gamma d. Theta
  1067. 1094. External cardiac massage is usually done in the :
    a. Lower 1/3 of sternum b. Xiphisternum c. Middle of sternum d. Manubrium
  1068. 1095. Features of rheumatic carditis are all except:
    • a. Aschoff bodies b. lymphatic infiltration c. Myocardial fibrosis d. Intramyocardial microemboli
    • 1096. Goldblatt hypertension is seen in:
    • a. Renovascular disease b. Drug induced c. Adrenal medullar tumor d. Children
  1069. 1097.Air embolism is diagnosed by:
    a. Loud P2 b. Continuous murmur c. Mill-wheel sound d. Crescendodecrescendo murmur
  1070. 1098.Hepatic granulomas are caused by:
    a. Sarcoidosis b. Sulfonamides c. Schistosomiasis d. all of the above
  1071. 1099. Progressive dementia without focal motor signs is seen is:
    a. Motor neuron disease b. Alzhemer’s disease c. parkinson’s disease d. Huntington’s chorea
  1072. 1100. Tubercular nephritis is characterized by:
    • a. Pus cells without organism in the acidic urine b. Pus cell with organism in the acidic urine
    • c. Pus cell without organism in the alkaline urine d. Pus cell with organism in the alkaline urine
  1073. 1101.Which of the following combination is not synergistic :
    a. Penicillin and streptomycin in endocarditis b. amphotericin B and flucytosine in cryptococcal meningitis c. Penicillin and tetracycline in pneumococcal meningitis d. Sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprin in UTI
  1074. 1102. Which of the following is not a feature of bartter’s syndrome :
    a. Hypertension b. Hypokalemia c. polyuria d. Autosomal recessive inheritance
  1075. 1103. Pericarditis in rheumatoid arthritis is:
    a. Serous b. Fibrinous c. Serofibrinous d. Adhesive
  1076. 1104. leonine facies is seen in which disease:
    a. Leprosy b. Syphilis c. Jaws d. Trypanosomiasis
  1077. 1105. Chloroma is associated with:
    a. Dehydration b. Myelogenous leukemia c. Melanoma d. Wilm’s tumor
  1078. 1106.black urine is seen in:
    a. porphyria b. Rifampicin c. Pyridium d. Alkaptonuria
  1079. 1107. The treatment of geographic tongue is:
    a. Scrapping b. Vitamin B1 c. Vitamin B12 d. Nothing
  1080. 1108. Angular oral fissures are treated with:
    a. Riboflavin b. pyridoxine c. Cyanocobalamin d. Vitamin C
  1081. 1109. Temperature regulation is mostly controlled by:
    a. pons b. Medulla c. Thalamus d. Hypothalamus
  1082. 1110. Progressive dysphagia is seen in :
    a. Carcinoma esophagus b. Globus hystericus c. Presbycusis d. Achalasia
  1083. 1111. Hutchinson’s pupil is:
    a. Seen in syphilis b. Unilateral constricted pupil c. Irregular pupil d. Argyll Robertson pupil
  1084. 1112. Echolalia is a disorder of:
    a. Speech b. Mood c. perception d. Personality
  1085. 1113. Factor deficiency in Christmas disease is:
    a. II b. VII c. VIII d. IX
  1086. 1114. Christmas disease is treated by:
    a. FF plasma b. FF blood c. Antibiotics d. Steroids
  1087. 1115. Sweaty feet syndrome is associated with:
    a. G6PD deficiency b. Isovaleric acidemia c. Branchoid chain ketonuria d. Phenylalanine deficiency
  1088. 1116. Dementia is seen in:
    a. Alzhemer’s disease b. Creutzfeldt-jakob disease c. Huntington’s disease d. All
  1089. 1117. Recurrent painful orogenital ulcerations with arthritis are seen in:
    a. Gonorrhea b. Reiter’s disease c. syphilis d. Behcet’s syndrome
  1090. 1118. Volume of air taken into the lungs in normal respiration is known as:
    a. Vital capacity b. Timed vital capacity c. Tidal volume d. Inspiratory reserve volume
  1091. 1119. The drug not used in donovanosis is:
    a. Sulphonamide b. Tetracycline c. Penicillin d. Streptomycin
  1092. 1120. Drug not used in herpes infection:
    a. Acyclovir b. VInblastine c. Vidarabine d. Idoxuridine
  1093. 1121.The features of Weber’s syndrome include:
    a. 7th cranial nerve palsy b. 8th cranial nerve palsy c. 3rd cranial nerve palsy d. Paraplegia
  1094. 1122. Ipsilateral 3rd nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia with tremors is known as:
    a. Millard-Gubler syndrome b. Benedict’s syndrome c. Weber’s syndrome d. Foville’s syndrome
  1095. 1123.AIDS is caused by…. Virus:
    a. CMV b. EBV c. Human T cell virus type I d. HTLV –III
  1096. 1124. Which of the following is not predisposed to by contraceptive therapy:
    a. Carcinoma breast b. Hepatic adenomas c. Thromboembolism d. Budd-Chiari syndrome
  1097. 1125. Most common presenting feature of bladder carcinoma is:
    a. Painless profuse intermittent hematuria b. Dysuria c. Clot colic d. Sterile acid pyuria
  1098. 1126. Which of the following disease increase the risk of active tuberculosis:
    a. Sarcoidosis b. leprosy c. Silicosis d. Rheumatoid arthritis
  1099. 1127. the normal respiratory quotient of fat is:
    a. 0.5 b. 0.9 c. 0.7 d. 1.0
  1100. 1128. HLA associated with hemochromatosis:
    a. B27 b. A c. DW 5 d. B14
  1101. 1129. Bence jones proteins are excreted in the urine in:
    a. Multiple myeloma b. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia c. Both d. None
  1102. 1130. parasites causing lung injury include:
    a. Strongyloides b. Paragonimus c. Both d. None
  1103. 1131. Mad as a hatter refers to…. Poisoning:
    a. Arsenic b. Cadmium c. Mercury d. Selenium
  1104. 1132.CLonidine is indicated in all except:
    a. morphine withdrawal b. Migraine c. Hypertension d. Cardiac arrhythmias
  1105. 1133. ABO hemolytic disease of newborn occurs when the blood group of mother is:
    a. A b. B c. AB d. O
  1106. 1134.Heel pad thickness is useful in:
    a. Hyperthyroidism b. Acromegaly c. PEM d. Hypogonadism
  1107. 1135. Acromegaly is characterized by all except :
    a. diabetes b. enlarged nasal sinuses c. Muscular hypertrophy d. Increased hell pad thickness
  1108. 1136. Diabetes insipidus is treated with:
    a. Thiazides b. Despopressin c. Both d. None
  1109. 1137.Testosterone is secreated by:
    a. Leydig cells b. Germ cells c. Sertoli cells d. Adrenal medulla
  1110. 1138. Raised platelet count may be found in:
    a. Postoperative period b. Acute hemorrhage c. Splenectomized patients d. All of the above
  1111. 1139. Visceral have migrans is caused by:
    a. Toxocara canis b. Ancylostoma braziliensis c. Strongyloidiasis d. Filariasis
  1112. 1140. Drug induced neutrophilia is not seen in:
    a. Glucocorticoids b. lithium c. NSAIDS d. Alpha methyl dopa
  1113. 1141.Clot solubility in 5M urea is a test of:
    a. Factor 13 b. Factor 12 c. Platelet function d. Plasmin inhibitor
  1114. 1142. Patients with lymphedema are prone to recurrent cellulitis with :
    a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Escherichia coli d. Proteus mirabilis
  1115. 1143. Nonoliguric renal failure is commonly seen in:
    a. Snake bite b. Hypovolemic shock c. aminoglycoside toxicity d. Myeloma
  1116. 1144. Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) is characterized by:
    • a. Auer rods in blast cells b. Philadelphia chromosome c. High leukocyte phosphatase d. Peak
    • incidence in childhood
  1117. 1145. Digitalis given to atrial flutter often produces :
    a. Atrial fibrillation b. Atrial tachycardia c. atrial asystole d. Atrial bigeminy
  1118. 1146. a patient with spontaneous pheumothorax involving more than 50% of hemithorax is best treated with:
    a. needle aspiration b. Closed drainage by tube in underwater seal c. Let spontaneous remission occurs d. Open thoracotomy
  1119. 1147. In a patient with liver cirrhosis factors pointing towards an alcoholic etiology include:
    a. Peripheral neuropathy b. Splenomegaly c. Hepatitis B surface antigen d. Macronodular cirrhosis
  1120. 1148. Xylose absorption tests are good screening test for:
    a. Fat absorption b. Pernicious anemia c. Carbohydrate absorption d. Amino acid absorption
  1121. 1149.The contraindications of amantadine include all except:
    a. heart failure b. Severe renal disease c. History of convulsion d. Pregnancy
  1122. 1150. which of the following is not an adverse effect of phenytoin:
    a. Gum hyperplasia b. Osteomalacia c. Gyecomastia d. Megaloblastic anemia
  1123. 1151. myasthenia gravis is characterized by all of the following except:
    a. Proximal muscle involvement b. Fatigue with exertion c. Spontaneous regression sometimes d. absent deep reflexes
  1124. 1152. Myasthenia gravis is usually associated with:
    a. Hyperparathyroidism b. thymoma c. Thyroid adenoma d. Salmonella infection
  1125. 1153.Myasthenia gravis is associated with:
    a. Thymoma b. Ca lung c. Red cell aplasia d. Glucagonoma
  1126. 1154. Aggravation of myasthenia is a feature of all of the following drugs except :
    a. Gentamicin b. Neomycin c. edrophonium d. Succinylcholine
  1127. 1155. lipofuscin, the golden yellow pigment is seen in heart muscle:
    a. Hypertrophy b. Atrophy c. Hyperplasia d. Infarction
  1128. 1156. Mode of action of streptokinase:
    a. antiplatelet action b. Anticoagulant c. Vasodilator d. fibrinolytic
  1129. 1157. Hyperglycemia is caused by all except:
    • a. Fluconazole b. Furosemide c. Glucocorticoids d. phenytoin
    • 1158. Pulsating tinnitus is seen in:
    • a. Glomous jugulare tumor b. Glioma of frontal lobe c. tuberculoma in occipital lobe d. Lithium toxicity
  1130. 1159. Grey baby syndrome is caused by:
    a. Tetracycline b. Cotrimoxazole c. Chloramphenicol d. Lithium toxicity
  1131. 1160.Kluver-Bucy syndrome is characterized by:
    a. Rage reaction b. Loss of recognition of people c. loss of fear d. All of the above
  1132. 1161. Angiotensinogen is synthesized in the :
    a. Liver b. Lungs c. Kidneys d. Adrenals
  1133. 1162. Deletion of chromosome 22 occurs in 90% of:
    a. Meningioma b. Retinobalstoma c. Neuroblastoma d. wilms’ tumor
  1134. 1163.The antihypertensive which causes gingival hyperplasia is:
    a. metoprolol b. Hydralazine c. Nifedipine d. Sodium nitroprusside
  1135. 1164. Deficiency of which vitamin is associated with hyposmia:
    a. Vitamin A b. vitamin B c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin B12
  1136. 1165. Deficiency of which metal is associated with hyposmia:
    a. Zinc b. Iron c. chromium d. Magnesium
  1137. 1166. Malabsorption of amino acids is seen in:
    a. Homocystinuria b. Alkaptonuria c. Phenylketonuria d. Cystinuria
  1138. 1167. Calcium channel blocker with maximum peripheral actions:
    a. Verapamil b. Diltiazem c. Nifedipine d. lisinopril
  1139. 1168. Intestinal parasitic disease in immunocompromised patient is:
    a. Strongyloides b. Ascaris c. Trichuris d. Hookworm
  1140. 1169. Dysgeusia is seen with the use of:
    a. Cotrimoxazole b. clotrimazole c. Ciprofoxacin d. Captopril
  1141. 1170.Treatmetn of traveler’s diarrhea ( watery diarrhea, no blood in stool or fever, 1-2 unformed stools per day with distressing enteric symptoms) is:
    a. Sulfamethoxazole b. Loperamide c. Metronidazole d. chloramphenicol and streptomycin
  1142. 1171. there is no correlation between X-ray appearance and clinical state of the patient in… pneumonia:
    a. Mycoplasma b. Loperamide c. Friedlander’s d. Staphylococcal
  1143. 1172. Hepatic enzyme inducers are all except :
    a. Phenobarbitone b. Phenytoin c. Valporic acid d. Carbamazepine
  1144. 1173. mechanism of action of quinidine is:
    a. Potassium channel blocker b. sodium channel blocker c. Calcium channel blocker d. Chloride channel blocker
  1145. 1174. The following is true of tetralogy of Fallot except :
    a. Increased lung vascularity b. Clubbing c. Cyanosis d. squatting
  1146. 1175. pickwickian syndrome consists of:
    a. decreased pulmonary function b. polycythemia c. obesity d. all of the above
  1147. 1176. Mode of action of viegabatrin is:
    a. GABA agonist b. GABA antagonist c. NMDA antagonist d. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
  1148. 1177. All predispose to ARDS except:
    a. FAT embolism b. Hypertransfusion c. Septicemia d. status asthmaticus
  1149. 1178.Ampicillin is used in all except:
    a. UTI b. LRTI c. Typhoid d. Infectious mononucleosis
  1150. 1179. which of the following steroid can be administered by inhalation :
    a. Hydrocortisone b. Dexamethasone c. Prednisolone d. Beclomethasone
  1151. 1180. side effect of steroid inhalation is:
    a. Cushing syndrome b. Sedation c. Oropharyngeal candidiasis d. None
  1152. 1181. prognosis is related to incubation period in:
    a. cholera b. diphtheria c. Rabies d. Tetanus
  1153. 1182. Drug of choice in chloramphenicol resistant typhoid fever is:
    a. Ampicillin b. Septran c. Ceftazidime d. Ciprofloxacin
  1154. 1183. hereditary hypoparathyroidism is characterized by:
    a. nephrocalcinosis b. Candidiasis c. Bilateral cataract d. Subcutaneous calcification
  1155. 1184. Ipratropium bromide is an:
    a. Sympatholytic b. Antiemetic c. anticholinergic d. Antipsychotic
  1156. 1185. Simvastatin acts by:
    • a. Dissolution of plasma cholesterol b. inhabitation of HMG Co A reductase
    • c. Decrease bile salt production d. Inhibition of LDL secretion
  1157. 1186. melphalan is the drug of choice of:
    a. nephroblastoma b. Multiple myeloma c. Craniopharyngioma d. Retinoblastoma
  1158. 1187. Hypersensitive cholestatic jaundice is caused by:
    a. Rifampicin b. Chlorpromazine c. Halothane d. Phenobarbitone
  1159. 1188.sThe drug of choice in guinea worm infestation is:
    • a. Niridazole b. Albendazole c. Levamisole d. Mebandazole
    • 1189. Antihelmintic drug which acts by flaccid paralysis of worms:
    • a. Albendazole b. Piperazine c. Levamisole d. Pyrantel pamoate
  1160. 1190. Drug of choice in heart block is:
    a. Nifedine b. Isosorbide c. Steroids d. Isoproterenol
  1161. 1191.100% Oxygen improves cyanosis in all except:
    a. TOF b. Interstital lung disease c. Bronchial asthma d. Eosinophilic pneumonia
  1162. 1192. Bronchopneumonia after measles occurs due to:
    a. Immunomodulation b. Sinusitis c. Aspiration d. bronchial obstruction
  1163. 1193. Cells seen in M-5 type of leukemia:
    a. Lymphocytes b. Neutrophils c. Eosinophils d. Monocytes
  1164. 1194. Diuretic used in hypokalemic state is:
    a. Frusemide b. Thiazide c. Spironolactone d. BUmetanide
  1165. 1195. neutropenia can be the feature of all except:
    a. ALL b. Felty’s syndrome c. AIDS d. Typhoid fever
  1166. 1196. Antibiotic which is safe in renal failure :
    a. Kanamycin b. Penicillin c. Gentamicin d. Minocycline
  1167. 1197. Russell bodies are found in:
    a. Plasma cell tumor b. Gonadal tumor c. Parkinson’s disease d. Ovarian tumor
  1168. 1198. Nickel exposure is associated with which cancer:
    a. Larynx b. kidney c. Lung d. Pharynx
  1169. 1199. Eclampsia differs from pre-eclampsia by the presence of:
    a. Pregnancy b. Convulsions c. albuminuria d. Hypertension
  1170. 1200. all are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except:
    a. Mydriasis b. Ptosis c. Outward deviation of eye d. Miosis
  1171. 1201. Which test is used in the diagnosis of anthrax :
    a. Casoni’s test b. Ascoli’s test c. Atoloni’s test d. Frei’s test
  1172. 1202. Test used in the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis:
    a. Paul-Bunell test b. Ascoti’s test c. Atoloni’s test d. Frei’s test
  1173. 1203. Steroids are used along with anti-tuberculous therapy in the following :
    a. TB meningitis b. Ureteric obstruction in genitourinary TB c. TB of the eye d. Pericardial effusion d . All of the above
  1174. 1204. Salt losing nephropathy is a feature of :
    • a. Amyloid kidney b. Interstitial nephritis c. lupus nephritis d. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
    • 1205. Romana’s sign is seen in infestation with:
    • a. Toxoplasma b. Trypanosoma cruzi c. Loa loa d. Wuchereria
  1175. 1206. Fenfluramine is used to treat :
    a. Gout b. Radiation sickness c. Dressler’s syndrome d. Obesity
  1176. 1207. Fanconi’s syndrome is inherited as:
    a. X-linked trait b. Autosomal rrecessive c. Autosomal dominant d. All of the above
  1177. 1208. The following are interstitial lung diseases except:
    a. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis b. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis c. Bronchial asthma d. Pneumoconiosis
  1178. 1209.The amount o factor VIII required to raise the plasma factor VIII concentration by 100% is:
    a. 45units/kg b. 85 units /kg c. 125 units /kg d. 105 units /kg
  1179. 1210. Allergic bronchopulmonary asperggillosis is seen in:
    a. Asthma b. Carcinoma bronchus c. Tuberculosis cavity d. Bronchiectasis
  1180. 1211.Pleurisy is common in which of the following connective tissue disease;
    a. SLE b. Systemic sclerosis c. Polyarteritis nodosa d. Mixed connective tissue disease
  1181. 1212.All are features of hypereosinophilic syndrome except:
    a. Blood eosinophilia b. bone marrow eosinophilia c. Associated with parasites d. Tissue eosinophilia
  1182. 1213. Pleural effusion with low glucose content is characteristic:
    a. Rheumatic arthritis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Mesothelioma d. Malignant effusions
  1183. 1214. Raised glucose in pleural effusion is not seen in:
    a. Filarial effusion b. nephrotic syndrome c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Tuberculosis
  1184. 1215.Which one of the following is an immunostimulant:
    a. miconazole b. Levamisole c. ketoconazole d. Albendazole
  1185. 1216. busulfan causes:
    a. Hemorrhagic cystitis b. neurotoxicity c. Pulmonary fibrosis d. Alopecia
  1186. 1217.Amantadine an anti-flu is useful in:
    a. Acromegaly b. Interstitial lung disease c. Parkinsonism d. Toxoplasmosis
  1187. 1218.Myocardial isoenzyme of CK which is specific for myocardial infarction is:
    a. CK-BB b. CK-MB c. CK-MM d. all of the above
  1188. 1219. What is morbilli:
    a. Rubella b. Smallpox c. Monkey pox d. Measles
  1189. 1220. Opportunistic lung infection in AIDS is due to:
    • a.Pneumocystis carinii b. Klebsiella c. Mycoplasma d. Mucormycosis
    • 1221. hyperpathia is observed in….
    • a. Pontine hemorrhage b. Pyramidal tact lesions c. Thalamic syndrome d. Sarcoidosis
  1190. 1222. Todd’s paralysis is seen in:
    a. Head injury b. Strokes c. Epilepsy d. Subarachnod hemorrhage
  1191. 1223. Gaze nystagmus is seen in:
    a. Miners b. Infants c. Myasthenia gravis d. Spinal cord lesions
  1192. 1224.In pericardial effusion all are seen except:
    a. Raised JVP b. hepatomegaly c. Pedal edema d. loud heart sounds
  1193. 1225. Which of the following is not used to treat acute pulmonary edema:
    a. IV fluids b. IV furosemide c. IV morphine d. Oxygen
  1194. 1226. The most common neutrophil defect is:
    a. Myeloperoxidase deficiency b. chediak-Higashi syndrome c. CD 3b deficiency d. Job’s syndrome
  1195. 1227. Transmural myocardial infarction in ECG is characterized by:
    a. ST segment elevation b. Pathlogical Q waves c. Prolonged QRS d. T waves inversion
  1196. 1228. The following are contraindications of heart transplantation except :
    a. Age less than 55 years b. Pulmonary hypertension c. IDDM d. pulmonary embolism
  1197. 1229. The normal AV ratio in fundoscopy is:
    a. 3:4 b. 1: 2 c. 3:2 d. 1:3
  1198. 1230. Dancing carotids(a sign in aortic regurgitation ) is also known as:
    a. Hill’s sign b. Quincke’s sign c. Corrigan’s sign d. Traube’s sign
  1199. 1231. In ataxia-telangiectasia which is seen:
    a. IgG absent b. IgM present c. IgA structure abnormality d. IgA low
  1200. 1232.Liver biopsy is done by using……. Needle:
    a. Vim silverman b. Abrams c. kocher d. Menghini
  1201. 1233. The half life of choloroquine is:
    a. 6 hours b. 7 days c. 12 days d. 2 hours
  1202. 1234. leukemoid reaction is seen in:
    a. Acute infection b. Hodgkin’s disease c. None d. both
  1203. 1235.In a patient with brain abscess which investigation is contraindicated:
    a. CT scan b. Lumbar puncture c. EEG d. Angiogram
  1204. 1236. The pathogenesis of cholera is by:
    • a. Stimulating the small intestine to secrete large amount of fluid b. Ulceration of the mucosa of the intestine c. Inhibition of absorption of fluids d. None of the above
    • 1237. Central necrosis of liver is seen in:
    • a. CCF b. Yellow fever c. Phosphorus poisoning d. Carbon tetrachloride toxicity
  1205. 1238. Carcinoembryonic antigen is seen in:
    a. Colorectal carcinoma b. Alcoholic cirrhosis c. Emphysema d. Diabetes mellitus
  1206. 1239. The normal fecal fat excretion is:
    a. <6 gm/day b. 8 gm/ day c. 10 gm/day d. 15 gm/day
  1207. 1240.Enzyme appearing early in myocardial infraction:
    a. CPK b. LDH c. SGOT d. SGPT
  1208. 1241. Recurrent chest pain and syncope is commonly seen in:
    a. Aortic stenosis b. Aortic regurgitation c. Mitral valve prolapse d. Mitral stenosis
  1209. 1242. Maximum specificity in VDRL test is case of:
    a. primary syphilis b. Tertiary syphilis c. Secondary syphilis d. GPI
  1210. 1243.Niclosamide is not effective for treatment of:
    a. Tinea saginata b. hymenoleplasis c. Tinea solium d. Echinococcus granulosus
  1211. 1244. A person cannot identify familiar object when placed in the palm when he is blindfolded this condition is called:
    a. Aphakia b. Aphonia c. Aphasia d. Asterognosis
  1212. 1245. Obesity predisposes to all except:
    a. Hypoventilation b. Hyperventilation c. Hypertension d. Diabetes mellitus
  1213. 1246. The treatment of choice in symptomatic sinus node dysfunction is:
    a. Diltiazem b. Propranolol c. Permanent pacemaker d. Verapamil
  1214. 1247.S4 us caused by:
    a. Atrial contraction b. Mitral valve bellowing c. Turbulent blood flow d. Papillary muscle action
  1215. 1248. The most sensitive and reliable indicator of rejection following renal transplant is:
    a. Blood urea b. Urinary hydroxyproline c. Creatinine clearance d. T4/T8 ratio
  1216. 1249.Most common arrhythmia encountered in digitalis toxicity:
    a. Complete heart block b. bigeminus rhythm c. Sick sinus syndrome d. Atrial fibrillation
  1217. 1250.The outstanding symptom of acute pancreatitis is:
    a. Abdominal bloating b. Jaundice c. Agonizing upper abdominal pain d. Constiaption
  1218. 1251`. Mitral valve relapse is characterized by:
    a. Diastolic click b. chest pain c. Soft S1 d. Right ventricular atrophy
  1219. 1252. Characteristic signs of vitamin A deficiency include:
    • a. dryness of the conjunctiva b. Keratomalacia c. bitot’s spot d. all of the above
    • 1253. Which vitamin deficiency occurs in intestinal malabsorption :
    • a. Vitamin a b. Vitamin B1 c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin C
  1220. 1254. Peripheral stigmata of laennec’s cirrhosis include all except:
    a. Clubbing b. Testicular atrophy c. Purpura d. None of the above
  1221. 1255. which of the following is not associated with tetany:
    a. Chvostek’s sign b. Erb’s sign c. Coles’s sign d. Trousseau’s sign
  1222. 1256. Adrenal ‘reserve’ is best tested by means of infusion with:
    a. Glucocorticoids b. Hypothyroidism c. Metyrapone d. ACTH
  1223. 1257. plucked chicken skin appearance is pathognomic of:
    a. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum b. Homocystinuria c. marfan’s syndrome d. any of the above
  1224. 1258. Idoxuridine is the drug of choice in:
    a. Chickenpox b. Adneovirus infection c. Herpes virus infection d. Rubella
  1225. 1259. Pink frothy expectoration is seen in:
    a. Pulmonary edema b. Pulmonary tuberculosis c. Bronchogenic carcinoma d. Mucormycosis
  1226. 1260. Fungal infection commonly seen in diabetes is:
    a. Actinomycosis b. Mucormycosis c. Aspergillosis d. Coccidioidomycosis
  1227. 1261.Hypothermia is characterized by all except:
    • a. common in old age b. external rewarming treatment of choice c. Give warm dialysate d. Steroids
    • has no role
  1228. 1262.The characteristic ECG change in hypothermia is:
    a. T wave inversion b. PR prolonged c. J wave d. ST segment depressed
  1229. 1263. Chickenpox rash:
    a. Appears in the second day of the illness b. Appears on the trunk first c. Maximum density on trunk d. Lesions at all stages of development seen e. All of the above are correct
  1230. 1264. Features of megaloblastic anemia include:
    a. poikilocytosis b. Paresthesia c. Macrocytosis with anisocytosis d. Hyper segmentation of neutrophils d. all of the above
  1231. 1265. Which one of the following is AIDS defining illness:
    • a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis meningitis b. Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis
    • c. Cytomegalovirus meningitis d. Histoplasma capsulatum meningitis
  1232. 1266. Cutting of the pituitary stalk decreases all of the following hormones except:
    a. ACTH b.GH c. Prolactin d. FSH
  1233. 1267. A middle aged patient was brought to the hospital in stuporous conditions with loss of power in all four limbs. Waxy flexibility of muscle tone in the limbs was detected. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Hysterical stupor b. Organic stupor c. Catatonic stupor d. Depressive stupor
  1234. 1268. which one of the following drugs causes hyperlactinemia:
    a. Domperidone b. Metoclopramide c. Cisapride d. Lansoprazole
  1235. 1269.An Indian adult who has never traveled abroad comes with a history of high fever, headache, jaundice, marked oliguria and shock with TLC of 16,000/cumm. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • a. Viral hepatitis b. Leptospirosis (weil’s disease )
    • c. Yellow fever d. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
  1236. 1270.Causes of hypersensitivity pneumonitis are all except:
    a. Silicosis b. bird fancier’s lung c. Farmer’s lung d. Coffee worker’s lung
  1237. 1271. Cisapride is contraindicated in all except:
    a. Severe GI hemorrhage b. GI obstruction c. Pregnancy d. Severe anemia
  1238. 1272. The causes of pericarditis include all except:
    a. Uremia b. Hypertension c. Rheumatic fever d. Tuberculosis
  1239. 1273. Cerebral edema is characteristically seen in poisoning by:
    a. Methanol b. Lead c. CO d. all of the above
  1240. 1274.Cavernous breathing is seen in:
    a. Pleural effusion b. Consolidation c. Carcinoma lung d. Cavity lung
  1241. 1275. The principal cause of chyluria is:
    a. Lymphosarcoma b. Hypercholesterolemia c. Hyperlipedemia d. Filariasis
  1242. 1276. Third heart sound when heard is:
    a. Always pathological b. Indicative of aortic stenosis c. Suggestive of poor ventricular function d. Suggestive of mitral stenosis
  1243. 1277. Nitroblue tetrazolium test (NBT) is a test of:
    a. Humoral immunity b. Phagocytosis c. complement pathway d. Cellular immunity
  1244. 1278. The critical narrowing of coronary vessels to cause angina is:
    a. >50% b. >70% c. >80% d. >60%
  1245. 1279. Serum angiotensin converting enzyme levels are raised in:
    a. Cat scratch fever b. Miliary TB c. brucellosis d. Sarcoidosis
  1246. 1280.Drug of choice in carotid sinus syncope is:
    a. Ephedrine b. Adrenaline c. Reserpine d. Propranolol
  1247. 1281. alpha coma is characterized by the following except:
    a. EEG shows waves of 8-12 hertz b. Prognosis good c. Diffuse cortical damage d. None of the above
  1248. 1282. Dohle bodies are inclusions seen in:
    a. EOsinophil b. Monocyte c. Netrophil d. Basophil
  1249. 1283. Spur cell anemia is feature of:
    a. liver disease b. Myelofibrosis c. Acute blood loss d. Renal failure
  1250. 1284. Keshan disease is due to deficiency of:
    a. Selenium b. Cobalt c. B12 d. Zinc
  1251. 1285.All of the following are true of MVP except:
    • a. More common in females b. Ejection click heard best on lying down
    • c. Sudden death is rare d. associated with arrhythmias
  1252. 1286. parkinsonism may occur because of chronic exposure to:
    a. Chromium b. Molybdenum c. Manganese d. Nickel
  1253. 1287. Photodermatitis and corneal microdeposits are side effects of:
    a. Verapamil b. flecainide c. amiodarone d. Procainamide
  1254. 1288. Rhabdomyoma of the heart is seen in association with:
    a. Friedreich’s ataxia b. Noonan’s syndrome c. Turner’s syndrome d. Tuberous sclerosis
  1255. 1289. All of the following are endocrine manifestation of renal cell carcinoma except:
    a. Erythrocytosis b. hypercalcemia c. Stauffers’ syndrome d. Peptic ulcer
  1256. 1290. the normal cardiac index is:
    a. 2-3 b. 4-6 c. More than 5 d. 2.6 -3.6
  1257. 1291. General paralysis of insane (GPI) usually follows primary infection after:
    a. 1 year b. 5 years c. 3 years d. 10 years or more
  1258. 1292.The total daily loss of iron amounts to about:
    a. 0.1 mg b. 0.5 mg c. 10 mg d. 1 mg
  1259. 1293. Dementia is not a feature of:
    a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Hyperthyroidimsm c. hypothyroidism d. Cushing’s disease
  1260. 1294. which is not an ionotropic agent:
    a. Dopamine b. amrinone c. Dobutamine d. Aminodarone
  1261. 1295. AIDS was first diagnosed inpatients suffering from:
    • a. Cryptococcus neofformaans meninigitis b. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia(PCP)
    • c. Tuberculosis d. Kaposi sarcoma
  1262. 1296. HELLP includes all except :
    a. Thrombocytopenia b. Hemolytic anemia c. Eosinophilia d. Hepatic dysfunctions
  1263. 1297. Hormones secreted by small cell carcinoma lungs all except:
    • a. Vasopresin b. GHRH c. ACTH d. GIP
    • 1298. The cardiac anomaly seen in Osler-Weber syndrome:
    • a. High output cardiac failure b. Pulmonary stenosis c. VSD d. Dilated cardiomyopathy
  1264. 1299. Visual cortex is supplied by:
    a. anterior and middle cerebral artery b. middle cerebral artery c. Posterior and middle cerebral artery d. Posterior cerebral artery
  1265. 1300. ‘punch drunk’ state is associated with:
    a. Boxing b. Parkinsonism c. Alcoholism d. Chorea
  1266. 1301.Drug of choice for cytomegalovirus:
    a. Acyclovir b. Ganciclovir c. Amantadine d. Idoxuridine
  1267. 1302. Granulomatous hepatitis is caused by:
    a. amiodarone b. allopurinol c. halothane d. none
  1268. 1303. S Hamman’s crunch s seen in:
    a. Caries tooth b. Mediastinal emphysema c . Fracture mandible d. niemann pick disease
  1269. 1304. Wilm’s tumor is characterized by which chromosomal aberration:
    a. 11p- b. 13p- c. 13q- d. 11q-
  1270. 1305.One of the following statements about tetanus is true:
    a. Caused by clostridium tetani b. Central spores c. Aerobic infection d. Cannot be prevented
  1271. 1306. Lev’s disease is:
    a. Sclerodegeneration of the conducting system b. Calcification and sclerosis of the fibrous cardiac skeleton c. Seen as a result of surgical trauma to the conducting system d. Congenital disorder of the conducting system
  1272. 1307. The exanthema of Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) usually appears 1st on the :
    a. Face b. Extremities c. Abdominal wall d. Neck
  1273. 1308. Keratoderma blenorrhagica is pathognomic of:
    a. bEhchet’s disease b. Lyme’s disease c. Glucagonoma d. Reiter’s syndrome
  1274. 1309. Alveolar hypoventilation is observed in:
    a. Guillain-Barre syndrome b. bronchiectasis c. Status asthmaticus d. chronic bronchitis
  1275. 1310. Malignant hypertension is diagnosed when:
    • a. Associated malignancy is present b. Papilledema associated with elevated BP
    • c. Diastolic BP 120 mm Hg d. All of the above
  1276. 1311. The sick cell is characterized by:
    a. Hyponatremia b. hypokalemia c. Hypernatremia d. Hyperkalemia
  1277. 1312.Dysdiadochokinesia is a sign of:
    • a. Hysteria b. Epilepsy c. Tabes dorsalis d. Cerebellar ataxia
    • 1313.Characteristic histological appearance of cells in Niemann-Pick disease is:
    • a. Multinuclear b. Foam cells c. Eosinophilic d. Crystals in cytoplasm
  1278. 1314. Vitamin B6 deficiency is caused by all except:
    a. Penicillamine b. Isoniazed c .Cyclosporine d. Cycloserine
  1279. 1315. Fever is caused by:
    a. leukotrienes b. Histamine c. Interleukin d. prostaglandins
  1280. 1316. Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by:
    a. Mycoplasma b Mycobacterium kansasii c. Pneumocystis carinii d. Photochromogens
  1281. 1317.Calcitonia is secreted from :
    a. C cells of thyroid b. Oxyphil cells of parathyroid c. Chief cells of parathyroid d. Acinar cells of thyroid
  1282. 1318. which of the following drugs may precipitate gout:
    a. Streptomycin b. pyrazinamide c. Rifampicin d. Isoniazid
  1283. 1319.s The formation of 25 hydroxy cholecalciferol takes place in the:
    a. Liver b. kidneys c. Intestines d. Pancreas
  1284. 1320. Water hammer pulse is seen in:
    a. AR b. Pregnancy c. Anemia d. All of the above
  1285. 1321. Atherosclerosis in the coronary circulation most commonly affects:
    a. Left anterior descending artery b. Left circumflex c. Right coronary d. all of the above
  1286. 1322. Dressing apraxia is seen in lesion of which lobe:
    a. Dominant temporal b. Nondominant temporal c. Dominant parietal d. nondominant parietal
  1287. 1323.Palmomental reflex is present in lesions of:
    a. parietal lobe b. Frontal lobe c. occipital lobe d. Temporal lobe
  1288. 1324. Frequency of rest tremor in parkinson’s disease is:
    a. 2/sec b. 4-6/sec c . 8/sec d. 14/sec
  1289. 1325. Desferrioxamine is used in treatment of poisoning with:
    a. Iron b. gold c. Lead d. copper
  1290. 1326. Stokes adam syndrome is associated with:
    a. Auricular fibrillation b. Supraventricular tachycardia c. Atrial flutter d. complete heart block
  1291. 1327. How long can be blood be stored with CPDA:
    a. 12 days b. 21 days c. 35 days d. 48 days
  1292. 1328. Negri bodies are most often found in:
    a. Midbrain b. Basal ganglia c. frontal cortex d. hippocampus
  1293. 1329. Skin pigmentation in ‘bronze’ diabetes is due to:
    a. Hemosiderin b. Melanin c. Acaroids d. Lipofuscin
  1294. 1330. Most common presentation of unilateral renal stenosis is:
    a. Uremia b. hypertension c. Peripheral edema d. Polycythemia
  1295. 1331.Vitamin k is required for:
    • a. over dosage of Dindevan (Phenindione) b. Hemophilia c. Over dosage of heparin d. Christmas
    • disease
  1296. 1332.not a feature of hereditary spherocytosis:
    • a. Normal or decreased MCV b. Increased RBC surface area/ volume
    • c. Autosomal dominant d. Increased mean corpuscular hemoglobin
  1297. 1333. Congenital 17 hydroxylase deficiency leads to:
    a. hypertension b. virilism c. Hermaphroditism d. Hyperkalemia
  1298. 1334. Overloads of LSD is most likely to be associated with:
    a. Deafness b. Bradycardia c. Pupillary dilation d. Blindness
  1299. 1335. What percent of gouty individuals havenephrolithiasis:
    a. 5% b. 30-35% c. 40% d. 50-60%
  1300. 1336. mode of action of actinomycin D is to prevent:
    a. RNA synthesis b. DNA elongation c. DNA synthesis d. None of the above
  1301. 1337. Treatment of Vincent’s angina is:
    a. Penicillin b. Penicillin+ Metronidazole c. Amphotericin B d. Metrondazole
  1302. 1338. Meralgia paresthetica involves:
    a. Axillary nerve b. Median nerve c. Sural nerve d. lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
  1303. 1339. In which of the following condition, tissue and blood eosinophilia is seen:
    a. Bacillary dysentery b. entamoeba histolytic infection c. Trichinella infestation d. Giardiasis
  1304. 1340. the enzyme avidin inactivates….. in the egg:
    a. Riboflavin b. thiamine c. Pyridoxine d. Biotin
  1305. 1341. ‘p’ wave in the ECG disappears in:
    a. Atrial tachycardia b. Atrail flutter c. Mital valve prolapse d. Atrial fibrillation
  1306. 1342. Treatment of choice in ventricular fibrillation is:
    a. electrical cardioversion b. Carotid massage c. IV lignocaine d. IV nifedipine
  1307. 1343.Ebstein’s anomaly is associated with:
    a. Tricuspid regurgitation b. Cardiomyopathy c. Coarctation of aorta d. right ventricular hypertrophy
  1308. 1344. Sustained heaving cardiac impulse indicates:
    a. Mitral regurgitation b. Aortic regurgitation c. Mitral stenosis d. Aortic stenosis
  1309. 1345.PH of the gastric juice is:
    a. 1.0 b. 2.5-3 c. 0.5-2.5 d. 3-3.5
  1310. 1346. Drug of choice in herpes simplex encephalitis is:
    a. Interferon b. Amantadine c. Vidarabine d. Acyclovir
  1311. 1347. Bancroftian filariasis is transmitted by:
    a. Culex b. Aedes c. Mansonia d. Tick
  1312. 1348. Drug of choice to treat metabolic acidosis in cardiac arrest is:
    a. ringer lactate b. normal saline c. NaHCO3 d. Isolyte P
  1313. 1349. Cotton dust is associated with:
    a. byssinosis b. Bagassosis c. Asbestosis d. silicosis
  1314. 1350.Extrapyramidal symptoms are best treated with:
    a. haloperidol b. Procyclidine c. Trihexyphenidyl d. Metoclopramide
  1315. 1351. Juveline Huntigon’s disease is marked by:
    a. Chorea b. Tremors c. Athetosis d. Tics
  1316. 1352. paroxysmal hypotension is seen in:
    a. Infectious mononucleosis b. leukemia c. lymphoma d. carcinoid syndrome
  1317. 1353. Drug of choice for treating schistosoma hematobium is:
    a. Pyrantel pamote b. Metronidazole c. Praziquantel d. None of the above
  1318. 1354.Lardaceous spleen is seen in:
    a. Alcoholic hepatitis b. Malaria c. chronic active hepatitis d. diffuse amyloidosis
  1319. 1355. Synkinesia is seen in:
    a. Trigeminal neuralgia b. bell’s palsy c. Migraine d. all of the above
  1320. 1356. Milk alkali syndrome consists of all of the following except:
    a. Azotemia b. Alkalosis c. hypercalcemia d. Hypercalciuria
  1321. 1357. monckeberg’s sclerosis involves:
    A .Externa b. Media c. Intima d. All the layers
  1322. 1358. postural hypotension and failure of ejaculation is most commonly seen in treatment with:
    a. Guanethidine b. Propranolol c. minoxidil d. Na+ nitroprusside
  1323. 1359. rheumatic activity involves mostly…… valves:
    a. Aortic and tricuspid b. Mitral and tricuspid c. Aortic and pulmonary d. Mitral and aortic
  1324. 1360. Somatostatin inhibits secretion of all except:
    a. Prolactin b. Insulin c. Glucagon d. Growth hormone
  1325. 1361.Clinical features of CRF appear when renal function is reduced to:
    a. 20% of normal b. 30% of normal c. 50% of normal d. 70% of normal
  1326. 1362. In chronic renal failure all are seen except:
    a. Hyperphosphatemia b. Hypomagnesemia c. hyponatremia d . Metabollic acidosis
  1327. 1363. Followign are CNS complication ofAIDS:
    a. Dementia b. CNS lymphoma c. Aseptic meningitis d. all of the above
  1328. 1364. which is false about adrenal adenoma :
    a. Half are malignant b. presents as abdominal mass c. Should be excised d. causes cushing’s syndrome
  1329. 1365. which of the following is not a differential diagnosis to botulism:
    a. Polio b. Stroke c. Guillain-Barre syndrome d. Tick palsy
  1330. 1366. Which of the following is a 17-Ketosteroid:
    a. progesterone b. Pregnenolone c. 17-hydroxypregnenolones d. All
  1331. 1367. One of the following is not a chromosomal breakage syndrome:
    a. Bloom’s syndrome b. Xeroderma pigmentosa c. Friedreich’s ataxia d. Fanconi anemia
  1332. 1368. M spike on serum electrophoresis is seen in:
    a. α chain disease b. Lymphoblastic leukemia c. Waldenstron’s macroglobulinemia d. AIDS
  1333. 1369. All can cause acute tubular necrosis except:
    a. Cyclosporine b. Hypovolemia c. Ceftriaxone d. Aminoglycose
  1334. 1370.Most common presentation of primary biliary cirrhosis:
    a. Pruritus b. Jaundice c. Abdominal d. Pain
  1335. 1371. ‘Hung up’ knee jerk is seen in:
    a. Chorea b. Hypothyroidism c. Cerebral palsy d. Athetosis
  1336. 1372. All of the following reduce gastric acid secretion except:
    a. Cimetidine b. Ranitidine c. Pirenzepine d. Carbenoxolone
  1337. 1373. Continuous murmur is seen in:
    a. PDA b. Small (restrictive) ASD with MS c. AV malformation d. All of the above
  1338. 1374. Risus sardonicus is associated with:
    a. Bell’s palsy b. Rabies c. Poliomyelitis d. Tetanus
  1339. 1375. As an emetic, morphine acts at:
    a. Dorsal medullary centre b. Chemo trigger zone c. Peripherally d. Hypothalamus
  1340. 1376. which of the following is true of psoriatic arthritis:
    a. Involves distal joints of hand and foot b. Pencil in cup deformity c. Sacroiliitis d. All of the above
  1341. 1377. Membranous glomerulonephritis can be caused by:
    a. Penicillamine b. Captopril c. Gold d. All of the above
  1342. 1378.Immunogobulin administration is indicated in:
    a. Rabies b. Gas gangrene c. Poliomyelitis d. Typhoid
  1343. 1379. First generation cephalosporins are not effective against:
    a. Pseudomonas b. Proteus c. Streptococci d. Staphylococci
  1344. 1380. Initial site of cryptococcal infection is:
    a. Meninges b. Bone c. lungs d. Skin
  1345. 1381. Which of the following is false about Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein:
    a. Normal urinary constituent b. Tubular in origin c. abnormal urinary constituent d. Seen in multiple myeloma
  1346. 1382. Systolic murmur conduced from apex to axilla occurs in:
    a. Mitral regurgitation b. Tricuspid regurgitation c. Ventricular septal defect d. Mitral valve prolapsed
  1347. 1383. Quick reduction of blood pressure is done in:
    a. Cerebral infarct b. Hypertensive encephalopathy c. Myocardial infarction d. Any patient with hypertension
  1348. 1384. Nephrotic syndrome can be caused by al except:
    a. Malaria b. Syphilis c. Hepatitis d. Mycoplasma
  1349. 1385. Systemic diseases which cause nephrotic syndrome are all except:
    a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Amyloidosis c. diabetes mellitus d. Atherosclerosis
  1350. 1386. Bence jones proteins in the urine are characteristic of:
    a. Multiple myeloma b. Acute glomerulonephritis c. nephrotic syndrome d. Chromic glomerulonephritis
  1351. 1387. Chronic lymphatic leukemia occurs usually in the…. Decade of life:
    a. 1st b. 4th c. 7th d. 3rd
  1352. 1388. Incubation period of mumps is:
    a. 2-8 days b. 7 days c. 10 days d. 18 days
  1353. 1389. Down syndrome is due to:
    a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. Trisomy 8
  1354. 1390. Edward’s syndrome is:
    a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. 5 P
  1355. 1391. Patau syndrome is due to:
    a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. 5 P
  1356. 1392. vitamin D resistant rickets is inherited as:
    a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X-linked recessive d. X-linked dominant
  1357. 1393.Alpha fetoproteine levels of greater than… is suggestive of primary hepatomas:
    a. 100 μg% b. 25 μg% c. 400 μg% d. 500 μg%
  1358. 1394. Syphilis causes all except:
    a. Linear calcification of aorta b. Aortic regurgitation c. Coronary ostial stenosis d. None of the above
  1359. 1395. The following does not occur with asbestosis:
    a. Methemoglobiemia b. Pulmonary fibrosis c. Pleural mesothelioma d. Pleural calcification
  1360. 1396. Cirrhosis of liver portal hypertension occurs in all except :
    a. Cystic fibrosis b. α antitrypsin deficiency c. Wilson’s disease d. Congenital hepatic fibrosis
  1361. 1397. Cardiac manifestations of Graves’ disease would include all of the following except:
    a. wide pulse pressure b. Atrail fibrillation c. Pleuropericardial scratch d. Aortic insufficiency
  1362. 1398. All of the following conditions produce restrictive cardiomyopathy except :
    a. Hypothyroidism b. Amyloidosis c. Hypereosinophilic syndrome d. endomyocardial fibrosis
  1363. 1399.Japanese encephalitis is caused by:
    a. Human retrovirus b. Enteroviruses c. Flaviviruses d. Cytomegalovirus
  1364. 1400. Hurler’s syndrome is associated with:
    a. Dwarfism b. Corneal clouding c. Hepatosplenomegaly d. All of the above
  1365. 1401.Nerve involved in intracranial aneurysm is:
    a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 10th
  1366. 1402. Which is not a feature of sarcoidosis:
    a. Cardiomyopathy b. Malabsorption c. Hypercalcemia d. Paratracheal lymph nodes
  1367. 1403.Bullous lesion occurs in:
    a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hemochromatosis c. Uremia d. Porphyria
  1368. 1404. Papillary necrosis is most commonly seen in:
    a. Diabetes mellitus b. Acute pyelonephritis c. Sickle cell anemia d. analgestic nephropathy
  1369. 1405. All secondaries produce a hot spot on bone scan except:
    a. Myeloma b. Lymphoma c. small cell lung carcinoma d. Renal cell carcinoma
  1370. 1406. All of the following are chromosomal anomalies except:
    • a. down syndrome b. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS)
    • c. Edward’s syndrome d. Tuner’ s syndrome
    • 1407. The part of RNA which does not code for proteins is:
    • a. Exon b. Codon c. introns d. Meson
  1371. 1408. pseudodementia is a feature of:
    a. endogenous depression b. Severe depression c. alzheimer’s disease d. Multiple strokes
  1372. 1409. Enzyme marker of malignant hyperthermia is:
    a. Serum CPK b. SGOT c. LDH d. SGPT
  1373. 1410. The most effective treatment of atrial flutter is:
    a. IV lignocaine b. Quinidine c. Low dose phenytoin d. DC shock
  1374. 1411. Initial dose of heparin in deep vein thrombosis is:
    a. 10,000 U/day b. 1 lakh U/day c. 50,000 U/day d . 2 lakh U / day
  1375. 1412. Ocular muscle most commonly involved in thyrotoxic myopathy is:
    a. Superior oblique b. Inferior rectus c. Inferior oblique d. Superior rectus
  1376. 1413. Hematuria, RBC casts and proteinuria are suggestive of:
    a. nephrotic syndrome b. acute nephritis c. Renal cell carcinoma d. Chronic renal failure
  1377. 1414. birefringent crystals in urine are seen with:
    a. Phosphaturia b. Cystinuria c. Uricosuria d. Struvite stones
  1378. 1415. Function of the thalamus is:
    a. Arousal b. Relay centre c. Pain perception d. Pain location
  1379. 1416. In tuberculosis in an AIDS patient the chest X-ray looks like:
    a. Miliary shadow b. Consolidation c. Cavity d. Collapse
  1380. 1417. Ectopic ACTH syndrome is seen most commonly with :
    a. Renal cell carcinoma b. bronchogenic carcinoma c. Lymphoma d. Pituitary adenoma
  1381. 1418. Cyclosporine A inhibits:
    a. B cells b. CD4 c. T Cells d. CD8
  1382. 1419. The following are the toxicity of cyclosporine except:
    a. Nephrotoxicity b. Tremor c. Hirsutism d. Hypokalemia
  1383. 1420. Constrictive pericarditis is not caused by:
    a. Tuberculosis b. Rheumatic arthritis c. Pyogenic infection d. none of the above
  1384. 1421. All are true about idiopathic hypertrophic aortic stenosis except:
    • a. Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance b. sudden death c. May have associated MR d.
    • verapamil may ameliorate symptoms
  1385. 1422. Causes of atrial fibrillation include:
    • a. Thyroitoxicosis b. Cardiomyopathy c. Chronic lung disease d. all of the above
    • 1423. Hormone producing carcinoma bronchus manifests:
    • a. Hormonal changes earlier than other changes b. Hormonal changes after other changes
    • c. Simultaneously d. During remission
  1386. 1424.Treatment of hypertensive emergency is:
    a. Nitroprusside b. Propranolol c. Guanethidine d. Frusemide
  1387. 1425. All are the features of sickle cell anemia except:
    a. Leukopenia b. pulmonary hypertension c. Heart failure d. Acute chest syndrome:
  1388. 1426. Not a feature of sickle cell anemia:
    a. fish vertebrae b. enlarged heart c. Leukopenia d. Pulmonary hypertension
  1389. 1427. Selective protein loss occurs in:
    a. Tropical sprue b. Celiac disease c. Intestinal lymphangiectasia d. whipple’s disease
  1390. 1428. Cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism is:
    a. Cardiac failure b. Werner syndrome c. Solitary adenoma d. CRF
  1391. 1429. All are ECG manifestations in Wolf Parkinson white syndrome except:
    a. Narrow QRS b. Low Pr interval c. Normal QT interval d. Initial slur
  1392. 1430. Microscopic appearance of pneumocystis carinii shows:
    • a. Interstitial pneumonia b. eosinophilic infiltrate of interstitium
    • c. Fibrosis of alveoli d. Pulmonary hemorrhage
  1393. 1431.Neurofibrillary tangles and plaques are seen in the brain in:
    a. Picks disease b. Huntington’s chorea c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Parkinsonism
  1394. 1432. Ebstein’s anomaly is caused by:
    a. Carbamazepine b. Imipramine c. Lithium d. amphetamine
  1395. 1433.Meconium ileus is a manifestation of:
    a. Hirschsprng’s disease b. Fibrocystic disease of pancreas c. Achalasia cardia d. Celiac disease
  1396. 1434. Pheochromocytoma is associated with:
    a. Vitiligo b. ash leaf amelanotic macules c. Acanthosis nigricans d. Café au lait spots
  1397. 1435. In nontropical sprue there is deficiency of all except:
    a. Iron b. b12 c. folic acid d. Vitamin A
  1398. 1436. Patients with sickle cell anemia are prone to infections with:
    a. Staphyococcus aureus b. Pneumococcus c. Haemophilus influenza d. gonococcus
  1399. 1437. in an AIDS patient presenting with fever, cough a diagnosis of pneuomocystis carinii pneumonia is best established by:
    • a. Transtracheal biopsy b. bronchoalveolar lavage c. staining of intranuclear inclusion and silver staining d. aspiration and culture
    • 1438. pseudocoma results from infarction or hemorrhage in:
    • a. Pons b. medulla c. hypothalamus d. Mid brain
  1400. 1439.α interferon 3-5 million units thrice in a week for 3-6 months is useful in the treatment of:
    a. wilson’s disease b. Chronic hepatitis B c. chronic autoimmune hepatitis d. antitrypsin deficiency
  1401. 1440. Cirrhosis of liver in adult population is commonly due to all of the following except:
    a. Hapatitis A b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis B d. Hepatitis E
  1402. 1441. Cerebellar ataxia is a rare complication of:
    a. Chickenpox b. Mumps c. Measles d. Glandular fever
  1403. 1442. Generalized edema can be produced by deficiency of:
    a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Folic Acid d. thiamine
  1404. 1443.Weil’s syndrome usually present as:
    a. aseptic meningitis b. Lobar pneumonia c. diarrhea and vomiting d. Jaundice
  1405. 1444. External cardiac massage is given at least at the rate of:
    a. 40/ minute b. 60/ minute c. 80 /minute d. 120/ minute
  1406. 1445. True about coarctation of aorta is:
    • a. Most common site is distal to origin of subclavian artery b. Bp always comes down after repair
    • c. Increased incidence in Down syndrome d. nothcing of superior border of rib is seen
  1407. 1446. Lymphocytic chorimeningitis is caused by:
    a. Arenavirus b. coronavirus c. Reovirus d. Parvovirus
  1408. 1447.Regarding Dandy Walker syndrome, all are seen, except:
    a. Hydrocephalus b. posterior fossa cyst c. Arachnoid cyst d. Cerebellar vermis deficiency
  1409. 1448. Bilateral anterior uveitis, skin depigmentation is seen in;
    a. Vogt – koyanagi-Harada syndrome b. Alport’s disease c. Fabry’s disease d. Weinberg disease
  1410. 1449. Xanthelasma is:
    a. Premalignant b. Deposit around eyelids c. More common in females d . Deposits over trunk
  1411. 1450. An overdose of morphine is treated with:
    a. IV naloxone b. Iv nalorphine c. IV methadone d. IV steroids
  1412. 1451. Vunyl chloride has been implicated in:
    a. Angiosarcoma of liver b. Hepatomas c. Angiofibroma of nose d. bladder cancer
  1413. 1452. Casal necklace is seen in:
    a. Beriberi b. pityriasis rosea c. Scabies d. pellagra
  1414. 1453. Ormond’s disease is:
    • a. retroperitoneal fibrosis b. Retroperitoneal carcinomatosis
    • c. Intra- abdominal desmoids d. Reactive mesenteric adenitis
  1415. 1454. Sensory neuropathy is not seen in:
    a. Diabetes b. Lead poisoning c. beriberi d. Alcoholism
  1416. 1455.Onion skin spleen is seen in:
    a. SLE b. Thalassemia c. ITP d. Scleroderma
  1417. 1456. Metastatic tumor causing spinal cord compression are all except:
    a. Carcinoma prostate b. Meningitis c. Carcinoma lung d. Carcinoma breast
  1418. 1457. Hypochromic microcytic anemia is seen in all except:
    a. Hypothyroidism b. Thalassemia c. Sideroblastic anemia d. iron deficiency anemia
  1419. 1458. False regarding chronic iron deficiency anemia is:
    • a. Increased bone marrow macrophage iron ingestion b. Decreased transferrin iron binding capacity
    • c. Decreased ferritin d. Decreased serum iron level
  1420. 1459. magnetic gait is seen in:
    a. hepatic encephalopathy b. Parkinsonism c. hemiparesis d. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
  1421. 1460. In children not a common presentation of AIDS:
    • a. Pneumocystic carinii pneumonia b. Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis
    • c. Kaposi sarcoma d. Failure of thrive
  1422. 1461. Dapsone is not used in:
    a. Alcoholic liver disease b. Actinomycotic mycetoma c. Dermatitis herpetiformis d. Leprosy
  1423. 1462.Hemiballism is caused by lesions of:
    a. Caudate nucleus b. contra lateral subthalamic nuclei c. Putamen d. Substantia nigra
  1424. 1463. Diagnostic features of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) include all of the following except :
    • a. Changing pulmonary infiltrates b. Peripheral eosinophilia
    • c. Serum precipitins against Aspergillus fumigatus d. occurrence inpatients with old cavitary lesions
  1425. 1464.Whihc of the following is the best indicator of iron deficiency?
    a. Serum iron levels b. Serum ferrin levels c. TIBC d. Serum transferring levels
  1426. 1465. A patient with recent onset primary ‘generalized’ epilepsy develops drug reaction and skin rash due to phenytoin sodium. The most appropriate course of action is:
    • a. Shift of clonazepam b. Restart phenytoin sodium after 2 weeks
    • c. Shift to sodium valproate d. Shift to thosuximide
  1427. 1466.Which of the following is true about pericarditis?
    • a. Pain increase on leaning forward b. Pain decreases in supine position
    • c. Pain increase in inspiration d. Pain increases on eating
  1428. 1467.Hemorrahge pericarditis occurs in all of the following conditions except:
    • a. Transmural myocardial infarction b. Dissecting aneurysm of aorta
    • c. Metastatic disease of pericardium d . Constrictive pericarditis
  1429. 1468. Chylous ascites is caused by all of the following except:
    a. Colloid carcinoma of stomach b. Tuberculosis c. Trauma d. Nephrotic syndrome
  1430. 1469.In a patient with cirrhosis the causative organism for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is:
    a. Escherichia coli b. Staphylococci c. Streptcoccus d. Pseudomonas
  1431. 1470. sleep apnea is defined as a temporary pause in breathing during sleep lasting for at least:
    a. 40 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 20 seconds d. 10seconds
  1432. 1471. Most common cause of papillary necrosis is:
    a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hemolytic uremic syndrome c. analgesic nephropathy d. Hypertension
  1433. 1472. Most common presentation of neurocysticercosis is:
    a.. Seizures b. focal neurological deficits c. dementia d. Radiculopahty
  1434. 1473. A 55 year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days complains of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest X-ray is normal. The next investigation should be:
    • a. Lung ventilation –perfusion scan b. Pulmonary arteriography
    • c. Pulmonary venous angiography d. Echocardiography
  1435. 1474. The most common cause of tricuspid regurgitation is secondary to:
    a. Rheumatic heart disease b. Dilatation of right ventricle c. Coronary artery disease d. Endocarditis due to intravenous drug abuse
  1436. 1475. Absence seizures are characterized on EEG by:
    a. 3Hz spike and wave b. 1-2 Hz spike and wave c. Generalized poly spikes d. hypsarrhythmia
  1437. 1476.Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by:
    a. Cholera b. Starvation c. Ethylene glycol poisoning d. Lactic acidosis
  1438. 1477. Normal anion gap is seen in:
    a. Starvation acidosis b. Renal tubular acidosis c. Salicylate poisoning d. diabetic ketoacidosis
  1439. 1478. normal anion gap acidosis is seen in:
    a. Chronic renal failure b. Diarrhea c. Diabetic ketoacidosis d. Methanol poisoning
  1440. 1479. All of the following cause high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis except:
    a. Lactic acidosis b. Salicylate poisoning c. Ethylene glycol poisoning d. Ureterosigmoidostomy
  1441. 1480. Metabolic abnormality of ureterosigmoidostomy is:
    a. Hypochloremic alkalosis b. Hypochloremic acidosis c. Hyperchloremic alkalosis d. Hyperchloremic acidosis
  1442. 1481. Best method to diagnose bronchiectasis is:
    a. X-ray b. Bronchography c. MRI d. HRCT
  1443. 1482. In the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma, 1 of the following radionuclide scans is useful:
    a. MIBG scan b. MIDA scan c. DTPA scan d. DMSA scan
  1444. 1483. ‘H’ shaped vertebra seen in:
    a. Phenylketonuria b. sickle cell anemia c. Hemangioma d. Osteoporosis
  1445. 1484. The morphology of RBC in disseminated intravascular coagulation is:
    a. Microcytes b. Macrocytes c. Schistocytes d. Eliptocyte
  1446. 1485. progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) is characterized by all of the following except:
    a. Caused by JC virus b. Late manifestation of AIDS c. Cognitive impairment common d. Brainstem can be involved
  1447. 1486. Wimberger’s ring is present in:
    a. Rickets b. Scurvy c. Secondary syphilis d. Tuberculosis
  1448. 1487. All of the following are advantages of using isoniazid in antitubercular treatment except:
    • a. It reduces load of TB bacilli b. It kills intracellular TB bacilli
    • c. It acts on dormant bacilli d. It has preventable side effects like peripheral neuropathy
  1449. 1488.The only drug available for treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is:
    a. Chlorpropamide b. Thiazole c. Desmopressin d. Furosemide
  1450. 1489. Narcolepsy is:
    a. Narcotic induced epilepsy b. Narcotic induced depression c. Attacks of sleep and paralysis d. Narcotic withdrawal reaction
  1451. 1490. Narcolepsy is characterized by all of the following except:
    a. Sleep paralysis b. Cataplexy c. Hallucination d. snoring
  1452. 1491.Regardign Barrett’s esophagus, which of the following statements is incorrect:
    • a. Is due to chronic gastroesophageal reflux b. Is lined by columnar epithelium
    • c. is associated with elevated lower esophageal sphincter pressure d. Is associated with increased incidence of adenocarcinoma of esophagus
  1453. 1492. the normal PR interval is in seconds:
    a. 0.05-0.08 b. 0.12-0.16 c. 0.8-1.6 d. 1.2-2.3
  1454. 1493.Cardiac output is decreased by:
    a. Increased sympathetic activity b. Tachycardia c. Increased preload d. Decreased venous return
  1455. 1494.The most common cause of pseudohermaphroditism is:
    a. Ovarian dysgenesis b. Ovarian tumor c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia d. PCOD
  1456. 1495. All of the following are true about congenital heart disease except:
    a. ASD is associated with fixed split in 2ndsound b. Transposition of great vessels is associated with boot shaped heart c. down syndrome is associated with endocardial cushion defect d. VSD is the most common type in children
  1457. 1496. Tetralogy of Fallot cosntitudes all of the following except:
    a. VSD b. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle c. Hypoplasia of aorta d. Pulmonary stenosis
  1458. 1497. All of the following are seen in tetralogy of Fallot except :
    a. VSD b. Overriding aorta c. Pulmonary stenosis d. Left ventricular hypertrophy
  1459. 1498. Inmost patients with multiple sclerosis, CSF proteins are:
    a. Increased b. Decreased c. Normal d. Absent
  1460. 1499. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for cryptococcal meningititis?
    a. fluconazole b. Itraconazole c. FLucytosine d. Amphotericin B
  1461. 1500.A male child of 15 years , with a mental age of 9 years has an IQ of:
    a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 80
  1462. 1501. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation intravenous calcium gluconate is indicated under all of the following circumstances except:
    • a. After 1 minute of arrest routinely b. Hypocalcemia
    • c. Calcium channel blocker toxicity d. Electromechanical dissociation
  1463. 1502. Diagnosis of rotavirus diarrhea is confirmed by:
    a. Stool culture b. Antigen detection in blood by ELISHA c. Antigen detection in stool by ELISHA d. Antibody detection in blood by ELISHA
  1464. 1503. The most specific investigation for rotavirus infection is:
    a. Stool antigen b. Serum ELISHA c. Microscopy d. Stool culture
  1465. 1504. The ECG changes seen in hyperkalemia are all of the following except :
    a. Flat P waves b. Peaked P waves c. Tall T waves d. Progressive widening of QRS
  1466. 1505.Polymyositis involves all of the following muscles except:
    a. Brachialis b. Ocular muscles c. Vastus medialis d. Shoulder gridle
  1467. 1506. The drug of choice in the treatment of PSVT is:
    a. Amiodarone b. Adenosine c. Procainamide d. Propranolol
  1468. 1507. The patent ductus arteriosus connects aorta and:
    a. Pulmonary trunk b. Left pulmonary artery c. Subclavian artery d. Descending aorta
  1469. 1508. Neurological complications of meningitis include all of the following except :
    a. Seizures b. Increases intracranial pressure c. Cerebral hemantoma d. Subdural effusions
  1470. 1509. Following cranial nerve is most commonly involved in patients with sarcoidosis:
    • a. II cranial nerve b. III cranial nerve c. VII cranial nerve d. IX cranial nerve
    • 1510. The most common cause of acute cor pulmonale is:
    • a. Pneumonia b. Pulmonary thromboembolism c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease d. Primary
    • spontaneous pneumothorax
  1471. 1511. All of the following murmurs may be heard in patients with aortic regurgitation except:
    • a. High-pitched decrescendo diastolic murmur b. Soft, low pitched mid-diastolic rumbling murmur
    • c. Mid-systolic ejection flow murmur d. pan-systolic murmur
  1472. 1512. The most recent advance in non-invasive cardiac output monitoring is use of:
    a. PA catheter b. Thermodilution technique c. Echocardiography d.. Electrical impedance cardiograph technology
  1473. 1513. ASD is seen in all except:
    a. Turner’s syndrome b. Ellis-van creveld syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Holt-Oram syndrome
  1474. 1514. Selective media for TB bacilli is:
    a. NNN media b. Dorset media c. Lowenstein-Jensen media d. Nutrient agar
  1475. 1515. Drug of choice in anaphylaxia:
    a. Epinephrine b. chlorpheniramine c. Wait and watch d. Nebulished salbutamol
  1476. 1516. A 70 year old man was administered penicillin intravenously. Within 5 minutes, he developed generalized urticaria, swelling of lips, hypotension and bronchospasm. The first choice of treatment is to administer:
    a.Chlorpheniramine injection b. Epinephrine injection c. High-dose hydrocortisone tablet d. Nenulished salbutamol
  1477. 1517. A 30 year old man presented with nausea, fever and jaundice of5-days duration. The biochemical tests revealed a bilirubinof 6.7 mg/dl( conjugated 5.0 mg/dl) with SGOT/SGPT (AST /ALT) of 123/900 IU/ml. the secrological tests showed presence of HBsAG, IgM anti-HBc and HBeAg. The most likely diagnosis is;
    • a. chronic hepatitis B infection with high infectivity b. Acute hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
    • c. chronic hepatitis B infection with low infectivity d. Acute hepatitis B infection with low infectivity
  1478. 1518. The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in contacts of patients of pneumonic plague is:
    a. penicillin b. rifampicin c. Erythromycin d. Tetracycline
  1479. 1519. All of the following statements regarding the ECG in acute pericarditis are true except :
    • a. T-wave inversions develops before ST elevations return to baseline
    • b. Global ST segment elevation is seen in early pericarditis
    • c. Sinus tachycardia is a common finding
    • d. PR segment depression is present in majority of patients
  1480. 1520. Troponin T is preferable to CPK-MB in the diagnosis of acute MI in all of the following situations except:
    a. Bedside diagnosis of MI b. Postoperatively after CABG c. Re-infarction after 4 days d. Small infarcts
  1481. 1521. A 60 year old man is diagnosed to be suffering from legionnaire’s disease after he returns home from attending convention. He could have acquired it:
    • a. From a person suffering from the infection while traveling in the aeroplane
    • b. From a chronic carrier in the conversion center
    • c. From inhalation of the aerosol in the air-conditioned room at convention center
    • d. By sharing an infected towel with a fellow delegate at the convention
  1482. 1522. The following are true regarding lyme disease, except :
    • a. It is transmitted by ixodes tick b. Erythema chronicum migrans may be a clinical feature
    • c. Borrelia recurrentis is the etiological agent d . Rodents act as natural hosts
  1483. 1523. A 30 year old HIV positive patient presents with fever, dyspnea and non-productive cough. Patient is cyanosed. His chest X-ray revelas bilateral, symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Tuberculosis b. Cryptococcosis c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia d. Toxoplasmosis
  1484. 1524. True regarding methemoglobinemia is:
    • a. Oxygen saturation is normal b. Amyl nitrite is used in the treatment of symptomatic cases
    • c. Hemoglobin is in the ferrous form d. Levels greater than 5% are almost always fatal
  1485. 1525. Reye’s syndrome is caused by:
    a. Ibuprofen b. Mefenamic acid c. Salicylates d. Naproxen
  1486. 1526.All of the following are X-linked transmissions except :
    a. Down syndrome b. Duchenne muscle dystrophy c. Hemophilia d. G-6-PD deficiency
  1487. 1527. All of the following autosomal recessive except :
    a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia b. Cystic fibrosis c. Hemophilia d. Wilson’s disease
  1488. 1528. Turner’s syndrome karyotype is:
    a. 45, XXY b. 45 XO c. 45, XX d. 45, XY
  1489. 1529. A 19 year old female with short stature wide spread nipples and primary amenorrhea most likely has a karyotype of:
    a. 47, XX +18 b. 46, XXY c. 47, XXY d. 45 X
  1490. 1530. Which endocrine disorder is associated with epiphyseal dysgenesis?
    a. Hypothyroidism b. Cushing’s syndrome c. Addison’s disease d. Hypoparathyroidism
  1491. 1531.Normal value in blood analysis is:
    a. PaO2 of arterial blood 105 b. paO2 of arterial blood 110 c. SaO2 of 90 d. Sao2 of blood 97
  1492. 1532. In a diabetic it was found that he was suffering from orbital mucormycosis. The treatment to be given to him would include:
    a. Amphotericin B b. itraconazole c. Fluconazole d. Ketoconazole
  1493. 1533. Which of the following is an acquired stem cell defect as a cause of anemia:
    a. G-6-PD deficiency b. Pure red cell aplasia c. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria d. Shwachman syndrome
  1494. 1534. First abnormality of ALport’s syndrome is:
    a. Microscopic hematuria b. Proteinuria c. Sensorineural deafness d. Lenticonus
  1495. 1535. Men II syndrome is associated with all of the following except :
    a. Pheochromocytoma b. Pituitary adenoma c. Medullary carcinoma thyroid d. Parathyroid hyperplasia
  1496. 1536. True about sydenham’s chorea is all of the following except:
    • a. Usually occurs 6 months after rheumatic fever b. Occurs in 1/3 d of cases of rheumatic fever
    • c. The jerks are exaggerated on movement d. ALSO titer and other markers are not specific
  1497. 1537. Most common cause of sporadic encephalitis is:
    a. Japanese B virus b. Herpes simplex virus c. Human immunodeficiency virus d. Rubeola virus
  1498. 1538.All of the following are associated with SLE except:
    a. Thrombocytopenia b. Leukopenia c. Lymphocytosis d. Anemia
  1499. 1539. all of the following parameters indicate prerenal azotemia except:
    • a. Urine sodium is less than 20 b. Urine to serum creatinine ratio is >20
    • c. FeNa is >1 d. Serum BUN to creatinine ratio is <20
  1500. 1540. All of the following changes are seen in hemolytic anemia except :
    a. Increased reticulocyte count b. Increased hemoglobinuria c. Increased heptoglobin d. Iron deficiency
  1501. 1541. The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is:
    a. An abnormality in porphyrin part of hemoglobin b. Replacement of glutamate by valine in β-chain of HbA c. A nonsense mutation in the β-chain of HbA d. Substitution of valine by glutamate in the α-chain of HbA
  1502. 1542. de Quervain’s thyroiditis is characterized by all except :
    a. Tender enlargement of thyroid b. Increased ESR c. Increased RAIU d. Fever
  1503. 1543. Metabolic acidosis occurs in all except:
    a. Diarrhea b. Renal tubular acidosis c. Pyloric stenosis d. CRF
  1504. 1544. Recent studies show that relapses of P. vivax is due to:
    a. Exoerythrocytic stage b. Erythrocytic stage c. Liver hypnozoites d. Vivax stage in peripheral smears
  1505. 1545.Erysipelas is caused by:
    a. Viruses b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Pseudomonas d. Streptococcus
  1506. 1546.Broca’s are is situated at:
    a. Inferior frontal gyrus b. Superior frontal gyrus c. Inferior temporal gyrus d. Superior temporal gyrus
  1507. 1547. Mesna is used to treat :
    a. Nausea and vomiting b. Neuritis c. Hemorrhagic cystitis d. Drug fever
  1508. 1548. Sodium -2-mercapto ethane sulfonte(Mensa) is used as a protective agent in:
    a. Radiotherapy b. cancer chemotherapy c. Lithotropsy d. Hepatic encephalopathy
  1509. 1549. True about acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) are all except :
    a. Dark urine b. Acute abdominal pain c. Skin manifestation d. Neuropsychiatric features
  1510. 1550. Resistance against anti-TB drug primarily starts from:
    a.INH b. Rifampicin c. PZM d. Streptomycin
  1511. 1551. Cause of candidiasis all except :
    a. OC pills b. DM c. Hypertension d. Pregnancy
  1512. 1552. Organism causing dental caries:
    a. Streptococcus mutans b. Streptococcus sanguis c. Staphylococcus aureus d. bacteroides
  1513. 1553. Streptococci cause toxic shock syndrome due to:
    a. Streptolysin – S b. Pyrogenic exotoxin c. M protein d. Streptolysin – O
  1514. 1554. Which of the following is false regarding Wiskott-aldrich syndrome?
    a. Increased IgE b. Decreased IgM c. Increased IgA d. Decreased CD4/CD8 ratio
  1515. 1555. All of the following are associated with increased bone age except:
    a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia b. Gonadal tumors c. Turner syndrome d. Polyostotic dysplasia
  1516. 1556.A 62 year old man with carcinoma of lung presented to emergency department with respiratory distress His EKG showed electrical alternans. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Pneumothorax b. Pleural effusion c. Cardiac tamponade d. Constrictive pericarditis
  1517. 1557.Atrial fibrillation may occur in all of the following conditions except:
    a. Mitral stenosis b. Hypothyroidism c. Dilated cardiomyopathy d. Mitral regurgitation
  1518. 1558.The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goiter is known as:
    a. Jodbasedow effect b. wolff-Chaikoff effect c. Thyrotoxicosis factitia d. de Quervain’s thyroiditis
  1519. 1559. Which of the following imaging modalities is ‘most sensitive’ for evaluation of extra-adrenal pheochromocytoma:
    a. Ultrasound b. CT c. MRI d. MIBG scan
  1520. 1560. All are correct about potassium balance except :
    • a. Most of the potassium is intracellular
    • b. Three quarter of the total body potassium is found inn skeletal muscle
    • c. Intracellular potassium is released into extracellular space in response to severe injury or surgical stress
    • d. Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment
    • 1561. Which of the following is not usual features of right middle cerebral artery territory infarct:
    • a. Aphasia b. Hemiparesis c. Facial weakness d. Dysarthria
  1521. 1562. dystrophin-gene mutation leads to:
    a. Myasthenia gravis b. Motor neuron disease c. Poliomyelitis d. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  1522. 1563. hypocalcemia is characterized by all except :
    a. Numbness and tingling of circumoral region b. Hyperactive tendon reflexes and positive Chvostek’s sign c. Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG d. Carpopedal spasm
  1523. 1564. The level of alpha-fetoprotein is raised in all of the following except :
    a. Cirrhosis of liver b. Hepatocellular carcinoma c. yolk-sac tumor d. Dysgerminoma
  1524. 1565. Which of the following conditions is associated with coombs positive hemolytic anemia:
    • a. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura b. Progressive systemic sclerosis
    • c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Polyarteritis nodosa
  1525. 1566.The severity of mitral stenosis is clinically best decided by:
    • a. length of diastolic murmur b. Intensity of diastolic murmur
    • c. Loudness of first heart sound d. Split of second heart sound
  1526. 1567. The risk of developing infective endocarditis is least in a patient with:
    • a. Small ventricular septal defect b. Severe aortic regurgitation
    • c. Severe mitral regurgitation d. Large atrial septal defect
  1527. 1568.Kenny packs were used in the treatment of:
    a. Poliomyelitis b. Muscular dystrophy c. Polyneuropathies d. Nerve injury
  1528. 1569.In a patient with polyuria and polydipsia with passage of dilutes urine is suffering from abnormality involving:
    a. Aldosterone b. ADH c. Insulin d. Growth hormone
  1529. 1570. the immunological response giving protection to hepatitis A for long periods:
    a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgD
  1530. 1571.Loss of speech with inability to read, understand in a patient is referred to as:
    a. Dyslexia b. Aphasia c. Disconnection syndrome d. Apraxia
  1531. 1572. The blocking antibodies in pernicious anemia are:
    • a. directed against parietal cells b. prevents binding of IF and B12
    • c. Prevents absorption of IF and B12 complex d. Are directed against enterocytes in ileum
  1532. 1573. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is seen more commonly with which of the following lung carcinomas:
    a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. epidermoid carcinoma d. Oat cell carcinoma
  1533. 1574. “pathyergy” test is specific for:
    • a. Caplan’s syndrome b. rheumatoid arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Reiter’s arthritis
    • 1575. “Omychodystrophy” is found in:
    • a. Rheumatic arthritis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Reiter’s arthritis
  1534. 1576. All the following are characteristic of “right ventricular infarction” except:
    a. Jugular venous distension b. Basal crepitation of lung c. Tender palpable liver d. Volume expansion is the treatment
  1535. 1577. A young female presents with history of dyspnea on exertion . on examination, she has a wide, fixed split of S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III/IV) in left second intercostals space. Her EKG shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage b. Tricuspid atresia c. Ostium primum atrial septal defect d. Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary artery hypertension
  1536. 1578. Which of the following is not seen in cerebral malaria?
    a. Heavy parasitemia b. ARDS c. Thrombocytopenia d. Hyperglycemia
  1537. 1579. Most common primary immunodeficiency is:
    a. AIDS b. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome c. Isolated IgA immunodeficiency d. Common variable immunodeficiency
  1538. 1580. Subdural effusion is a complication of which of the following parasite?
    a. Pseudomonas b. Haemophilus influenza c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pneumonia
  1539. 1581. Congenital long QT syndrome can lead to:
    a. Complete heart block b. polymorphic ventricular tachycardia c. Acute myocardial infarction d. Recurrent supraventricular tachycardia
  1540. 1582. most common organism causing septicemia in splenectomized patient is:
    a. Haemophilius influenza b. Pneumococci c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Staphylococcus aureus
  1541. 1583. Phlegmasia cerulean dolens in deep vein thrombosis denotes:
    a. Black leg b. Red leg c. Blue leg d. White leg
  1542. 1584. All of the following are implicate in the causation of hepatocellular carcinoma except:
    a. Alcoholic cirrhosis b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis B d. Hepatitis A
  1543. 1585.All of the following are useful intravenous therapy for hypertensive emergencies except:
    a. Fenoldopam b. Urapidil c. enalapril d. nifedipine
  1544. 1586. Father –to –so inheritance is never seen in case of:
    a. Autosomal dominant inheritance b. Autosomal recessive inheritance c. X-linked recessive inheritance d. Multifactorial inheritance
  1545. 1587. A young man with tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment which vascular structure should be evaluated first:
    a. Pulmonary artery b. Bronchial artery c. pulmonary vein d. superior vena cava
  1546. 1588. The syndrome management of urethral discharge includes treatment of:
    • a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis b. Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes genitalis
    • c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis d. Syphilis and chancroid
  1547. 1589. A 60 year old hypertensive patient on angiotensin II receptor antagonists (losartan ) is posted for hernia repair surgery. The antihypertensive drug should be:
    • a. Continued till the day of operation b. discontinued 24 hrs preoperatively
    • c. Discontinued one week preoperatively d. Administered in an increased dosage on the day of operation
  1548. 1590. Which of the following is not an oncologic emergency:
    a. spinal cord compression b. Superior vena caval syndrome c. Tumor lysis syndrome d. Carcinoma cervix stage III B with pyometria
  1549. 1591. Which of the following markers in the blood is the most reliable indicator of recent hepatitis B infection :
    a. HBsAg b. IgG anti-HBs c. IgM anti-HBc d. IgM anti-Hbe
  1550. 1592. Development of testes is dependent upon which of the following:
    a. X chromosome b. Y chromosome c. XY chromosomes d. XX chromosomes
  1551. 1593. Hypocalcemia is characterized by all of the following features except:
    • a. numbeness and tingling of circumoral region b. Hyperactive tendon reflexes
    • c. Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG d. CArpopedal spasm
  1552. 1594. All of the following are poor prognostic factors for acute myeloid leukemia, except:
    • a. Age more than 60 years b. Leukocyte counts more than 1,000,000/micro liter
    • c. Secondary leukemia d. Presence of t (8, 21)
  1553. 1595. All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of severe hyperkalemia except:
    a. Peaked T waves b. Presence of U waves c. sine wave pattern d. Loss of p Waves
  1554. 1596. A laborer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is:
    a. Weil-Felix test b. Paul-Bunnell test c. Microscopic agglutination test d. Microimmunofluorescence test
  1555. 1597. Following are the features of corticospinal involvement except:
    a. Cogwheel rigidity b. spasticity c. Planter extensor response d. Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes
  1556. 1598. Dressing apraxia is due to lesion of:
    a. dominant parietal lobe b. dominant frontal lobe c. Non-dominant parietal lobe d. Non dominant frontal lone
  1557. 1599. A lesion of ventrolateral part of spinal cord will lead to loss( below the level of lesion ) of:
    • a. Pain sensation on the ipsilateral side b. proprioception on the contralateral side
    • c. Pain sensation on the contralateral side d. Proprioception on the ipsilateral side
  1558. 1600. All of the following are true regarding cerebellar lesion except:
    a. Hypotonia b. dysdiadochokinessia c. Resting tremors d. ataxia
  1559. 1601. Past pointing, intension tremor, slurred speech and drunken gait are seen in the lesions of?
    a. pons b. Medulla c. Cerebellum d. Caudate nucleus
  1560. 1602. All of the following are seen in cerebellar lesions except:
    a. Ataxia b. Dysarthria c. Spontaneous tremors d. Hypotonia
  1561. 1603. which of the following is not a usual feature of right middle cerebral artery territory infarct:
    a. Aphasia b. Hemiparesis c. Facial weakness d. Dysarthria
  1562. 1604. Lesion in left inferior frontal gyrus leads to:
    a. Compromised language output b. difficulty in articulation c. inability to comprehended written language d. Inability to comprehended hearing
  1563. 1605. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is useful in:
    a. Cardiac failure b. Bronchial asthma c. Hepatic failure d. Arthritis
  1564. 1606. A 56 year old man has painful rashes over his right upper eyelid and forehead for the last 48 hours. He underwent chemotherapy for non-Hodkin’s lymphoma one year ago. His temperature is 98 F, blood pressure s 138/76 mmHg and pulse rate is 80 per minute. Examination shows no other
    • abnormalities which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
    • a. Impetigo b. Herpes Zoster c. Pyoderma gangrenosum d. Erysipelas
  1565. 1607.A 25 year old female presented with mild pallor and moderate hepatosplenomegaly. Her hemoglobin was 9.2 gram per liter and fetal hemoglobin level was 65%. She has not received any blood transfusion till date. She is most likely to be suffering from:
    a. Thalassemia major b. Thalassemia intermedia c. Hereditary persistant fetal hemoglobin homozygous state d. Hemoglobin D, homozygous state
  1566. 1608.A 41 year old patient presented with chronic diarrhea for 3 months. A D-xylose absorption test was
    • Ordered to look for:
    • a. Carbohydrate malabsorption due to mucosal disease b. Carbohydrate malaabsorption due to chronic pancreatitis c. Fat malabsorption due to mucosla disease d. FAT malabsorption due to chronic pancreatitis
  1567. 1609. Which of the following statements is true regarding drug used in parkinsonism?
    • a. Amantadine causes ankle edema b. Levodopa is particularly effective in reducing tremor
    • c. Amantadine is more effective than levodopa d. Antimuscarinics are effective in drug induced parkinsonism
  1568. 1610. All of the following are used in the treatment of parkinsonism except :
    a. Bromocriptine b. Rilluzole c. Ropinirole d. Pramipexole
  1569. 1611. Which of the following is the most common tumor associated with type-I neurofibromatosis:
    a. Optic nerve glioma b. Meningioma c. Acoustic neuroma d. Low grade astrocytoma
  1570. 1612. A patient undergoing surgery suddenly develops hypotension. The monitor shows that the end-tidal CO2 has decreased abruptly by 15 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis:
    a. Hypothermia b. Pulmonary embolism c. Massive fluid deficit d. Myocardial depression due to anesthetic agents
  1571. 1613.The most common cause of death in a patient with primary amyloidosis is:
    a. Renal failure b. Cardiac involvement c. Bleeding diathesis d. Respiratory failure
  1572. 1614. The most common infectious agent associated with chronic pyelonephritis is:
    a. Proteus vulgaris b. klebsiella pneumonia c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Escherichia coli
  1573. 1615. Iv bicarbonate is given in:
    a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Head injury d. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
  1574. 1616. Chlamydia is best treated by:
    a. Tetracycline b. Ampicillin c. Gentamicin d. Cephalexin
  1575. 1617. A 23 year old woman has experience episode of myalgias effusion, pericarditis and arthralgias without joint deformity over course of several years. The best laboratory screening test ot diagnose her disease would be:
    a. CD4 lymphocyte count b. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate c. Antinuclear antibody d.. Assay for thyroid hormones
  1576. 1618. A postoperative cardiac surgical patient developed sudden hypotension, raised central venous pressure, pulses paradoxus at the 4th postoperative hour. The most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Excessive mediastinal bleeding b. Ventricular dysfunction c. Congestive cardiac failure d. Cardiac tamponade
  1577. 1619. The diffusion capacity of lung (DLco) id decreased in all of the following conditions except :
    a. Interstitial lung disease b. Goodpasture’s syndrome c. Emphysema d. Primary pulmonary hypertension
  1578. 1620. prolactin secretion is inhibited by:
    a. Growth hormone b. Somatostatin c. Dopamine d. TSH
  1579. 1621. prolactin secretion will be inhibited by:
    a. Haloperidol b. somatostain c. Neurophysin d. Dopamine
  1580. 1622. Epidemics of poliomyelitis are most commonly caused by:
    a. TypeI b. Type II c. Type III d. Type II and III
  1581. 1623.Which of the following Is associated with primary hemochromatosis?
    a. HLA DW5 b. HLA-A3 c. HLA DW6 d. HLA DW7
  1582. 1624. A 6 year old child is brought with history of hemophilia, and swollen and painful right knee joint, factor VIII serum level is 10% . which of the following is the preferred treatment ?
    a. Cryoprecipitate b. Factor VIII concentrate c. Fresh frozen plasma d. Desmopressin acetate
  1583. 1625. Most common cause of acute cor pulmonale is?
    a. Pulmonary thromboembolism b. Lung disease c. Aortic stenosis d. Pulmonary stenosis
  1584. 1626.Which of the following is the best indicator of chronic renal failure?
    a. Red cell casts b. Hyaline casts c. Granular casts d. broad casts
  1585. 1627. HLA B-27 is associated with all except:
    a. sjogren’s syndrome b. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Ankylosing spondylitis
  1586. 1628. Albendazle is effective against infection with all of the following except:
    a. Ascariasis b. Neurocysticercosis c. Echinococcus granulosus d. Schistosomiasis
  1587. 1629. CD10 is a marker in:
    a. ALL b. AML c. CML d. CLL
  1588. 1630. Takayasu’s arteritis most commonly involves:
    a. Abdominal aorta b. Subclavian artery c. Renal artery d. Common carotid artery
  1589. 1631.Which one of the following conditions may lead to exudative pleural effusion ?
    a. Cirrhosis b. Nephrotic syndrome c. Congestive heart failure d. Bronchogenic carcinoma
  1590. 1632. A high amylse level in pleural fluid suggests a diagnosis of:
    a. Tuberculosis b. Malignancy c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Pulmonary infarction
  1591. 1633. All of the following are causes of decreased glucose in pleural effusion except:
    a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Empyema d. Cirrhosis
  1592. 1634. Decreased pleural fluid glucose is seen in all of the following except :
    a. Empyema b. Cirrhosis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Malignancy]
  1593. 1635. all of the following are true statements regarding acid base balance except:
    • a. Diarrhea is associated with normal anion gap
    • b. Respiratory acidosis is associated with increased PaCO2
    • c. Lactic acidosis can produce an increase in anion gap
    • d. Hyperkalemia is associated with metabolic alkalosis
  1594. 1636. Which test is performed to detect reversible myocardial ischemia:
    a. Coronary angiography b. MUGA scan c. Thallium scan d. Resting echocardiography
  1595. 1637. the relevance of fibrin degradation products is in:
    a. Hemolytic uremic syndrome b. von Willebrnad’s disease c. TTP d. DIC
  1596. 1638. Familial amloidotic polyneuropathy is due to amyloidosis of nerves caused by deposition of:
    a. Amyloid associated protein b. Mutant calcitonin c. Mutant transthyretin d. Normal transthyretin
  1597. 1639. The severity of mitral regurgitation is decided by all of the following clinical findings except :
    • a. Presence of mid-diastolic murmur across the mitral valve
    • b. Wide split of second heart sound
    • c. Presence of left ventricular S3 gallop
    • d. Intensity of systolic murmur across mitral valve
  1598. 1640.All of the following type of lymphoma are commonly seen in the orbit except:
    • a. Non-Hodgkin’s syndrome lymphoma, mixed lymphocytic and histiocytic
    • b. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, lymphocytic poorly differentiated
    • c. Burkitt’s lymphoma d. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  1599. 1641. The nephrotic syndrome with best prognosis is seen in which of the following nephropathies:
    a. Minimal change disease b. Focal segmental disease c. Membranoroliferative d. Mesangioproliferative
  1600. 1642. Congenital transmission is seen in all of the following except:
    • a. Sturge-Weber syndrome b. Von Recklinghausen’s neurofibromatosis
    • c. MEN type II b d. Prader –Willi syndrome
  1601. 1643. Congenital transmission is seen in all of the following except:
    a. Cryptococcus b. Herpes c. Toxoplasmosis d. Cytomegalovirus
  1602. 1644. All of the following heart sounds occur shortly after S2 except:
    a. opening snap b. pericardial knock c. Ejection click d. Tumor plop
  1603. 1645.A patient with a mid-diastiolic murmur with loud S1 and S2 at the apex is most likely suffering from:
    a. Mitral incompetence b. Mitral stenosis c. Aortic regurgitation d. Pulmonary regurgitation
  1604. 1646. In a patient presenting with episodic jaundice and conjugated hyperbilirubinemia had normal liver biopsy. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Crigler-Najjar syndrome b. Rotor’s syndrome c. Dubin-Johnson syndrome d. Gilbert’s syndrome
  1605. 1647. True regarding multiple respiratory papillomatosis is all of the following except:
    • a. Causative organism is HPV b. Usually seen in children
    • c. Mainstay of treatment is steroids d. Tracheostomy is avoided as it causes seeding further below
  1606. 1648. a patient with CRF is having normocytic anemia. Which of the following drugs is most likely to correct it:
    a. Iron b. folic acid c. Erythroprotein d. Vitamin B12
  1607. 1649.All of the following are associated with increased pigmentation except:
    a. Hypopituitarism b. Addison’s disease c. hemochromatosis d. biliary cirrhosis
  1608. 1650. All of the following are true statements regarding diabetic ketoacidosis except:
    • a. The fluid deficit to be corrected within 6 hours
    • b. Usually associated with > 2-3 liters o fluid deficit
    • c. In most cases the blood sugar level is above 300 mg%
    • d. Potassium deficit may be present to the cells in spite of hyperkalemia
  1609. 1651.True regarding primary hypothyroidism is:
    a. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerks b. T3 is best for replacement c. TSH levels are decreased d. none of the above
  1610. 1652. the best drug in treatment of motion sickness among the following is;
    a. Domperidone b. Metoclopramide c. Ondansetron d. Promethazine
  1611. 1653. lyme disease caused by:
    a. leptospira b. Borrelia c. Treponema d. Bordetella
  1612. 1654. A patient presents with respiratory symptoms I.e. cough, hemoptysis and glomerulonephritis. His c-ANCA level in serum is raised. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Good pasture’s syndrome b. Classic polyarteritis nodosa c. Wegener’s granulomatosis d. Kawasaki syndrome
  1613. 1655. The pathogenesis of hypochromic anemia in lead poisoning is due to:
    • a. Inhibition of enzymes involved in heme biosynthesis
    • b. binding of lead to transferring, inhibiting transport of iron
    • c. binding lead to cell membrane of erythroid precursors
    • d. Binding of lead to ferritin inhibiting their breakdown into hemosiderin
  1614. 1656. Dystrophic calcification is seen in:
    • a. Rickets b. Hyperparathyroidism c. atheromatous plaque d. Vitamin A intoxication
    • 1657. Following is true regarding opening snap:
    • a. it is a high-pitched diastolic sound b. It is due to opening of stenosed aortic valve
    • c. It indicated pulmonary arterial hypertension d. It precedes the aortic component of second heart sound
  1615. 1658. In type II respiratory failure, there is:
    • a. Low PaO2 and low PaCO2 b. Low PaO2 and high PaCO2
    • c. Normal PaO2 and high PaCO2 d. Low PaO2 and normal PacO2
  1616. 1659. Which of the following imaging modality is most sensitive to detect early renal tuberculosis:
    a. IV urography b. Ultrasound c. Computed tomography d. MRI
  1617. 1660. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is seen in all except:
    a. HUS b. ITP c. malignant hypertension d. Prosthetic valves
  1618. 1661. ‘c’ wave in JVP corresponds to:
    a. Atrail systole b. Ventricular systole c. Atrial diastole d. Ventricular diastole
  1619. 1662.s False about pyloric stenosis:
    a. Hypokalemia b. Hyponatremia c. Metabolic acidosis d. Hypochloremia
  1620. 1663. which of the following symbol represent adopted individuals:
  1621. 1664.Choose the false statement regarding hepatitis G virus:
    • a. Also called GB virus b. Blood borne RNA virus c. Mostly infected with c virus d. Responds to lamivudine
    • 1665. A 35 year old non-smoker presents with 2 episodes of mild hemoptysis. There is no history of fever of any constitutional symptoms. A plain X-ray of chest is found to be normal. Which one of the following should be the next step in the diagnostic evaluation of this patient?
    • a. Bronchography b. High-resolution computed tomography
    • c. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography d. Fiber-optic bronchoscopy
  1622. 1666. A 15 year old boy presents to you with history of fever, altered sensorium and purpuric rash for two days. On examination , the patient is found stuporous. He ahs a BP of 90/60 mmHg and extensive palpable purpura over the legs . which of the following would be the most appropriate initial choice of antibiotic?
    a. Vancomycin b. Penicillin G c. Ciprogloxacin d. Gentamicin
  1623. 1667. A 55 year old man a chronic smoker is brought to emergency with history of polyuria, polydipsia, nausea and altered sensorium for last two days. He had been diagnosed as having squamous cell carcinoma of lung two months prior to this. On examination , he was lethargic and confused . an ECG was normal except for a narrowed QT interval. Which one of the following is the most likely metabolic abnormality?
    a. Hypernatremia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyponatremia
  1624. 1668. Tumor lysis syndrome is associated with all of the following laboratory features, except:
    a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hyperuricemia d. Hyperphosphatemia
  1625. 1669. All of the following drugs are useful in the treatment of a patient with acute bronchial asthma except :
    a. Ipratropium b. Salbutamol c . Montelukast d. Hydrocortisone
  1626. 1670. A normal anion gap metabolic acidosis occurs in patients with:
    a. diarrhea b. Diabetic ketoacidosis c. Methyl alcohol poisoning d. Acute renal failure
  1627. 1671. A 41 year old male patient presented with recurrent episodes of bloody diarrhea for 5 years. Despite regular treatment with adequate doses of sulfasalazine, he has had several exarcerbations of his disease and required several weeks of steroids for the control of flares. What should be the next line of treatment for him:
    a. Methotrexate b. Azathioprine c. Cyclosporine d. Cyclophosphamide
  1628. 1672. a 55 year old male patient was diagnosed to have chronic hepatitis C. he responded to treatment with interferon , however, after one year of follow up he showed a relapse of disease. Which of the following would be the next most appropriated choice?
    a. RIbavirin and interferon b. Lamivudine and interferon c. Nevirapine and lamivudine d. Indinavir and ribavirin
  1629. 1673. In malignant hyperthermia the increased heat production is due to:
    • a. Increased muscle metabolism by excess of calcium ions b. Thermic effect of blood
    • c. Increased sympathetic discharge d. Mitochondrial thermogenesis
  1630. 1674. Which of the following management procedures of acute upper gastrointestinal bleed should possible be avoided:
    a. Intravenous vasopressin b. Intravenous beta-blockers c. endoscopic sclerotherapy d. Balloon tamponade
  1631. 1675.Early diagnosis of acute hepatitis B infection is made by:
    • a. Presence of HBeAg in serum b. Presence of IgM anti-HBc in serum
    • c. Presence of HBsAg in serum d. Presence of IgG anti- HBc in serum
  1632. 1676. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is disease of:
    a. Neuromuscular junction b. Sarcolemmal proteins c. Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness d. Muscle contractile proteins
  1633. 1677. Which of the following is the drug of first choice for non-gonococcal urethritis?
    a. Ceftriaxone b. Doxycycline c. Ciprofloxacin d. Minocycline
  1634. 1678. Ataxia telangiectasia is characterized by all of the following except:
    • a. Chronic sinopulmonary disease b. Decreased level of alfa fetoprotein
    • c. Chromosomal breakage d. IgA deficiency
  1635. 1679.Hemoglobin A 1c level in blood explains:
    a. Chronic pancreatitis b. Hepato-renal syndrome c. Long term status of blood sugar d. Acute rise of sugar
  1636. 1680.The first investigation of choice in patient with suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage should be:
    a. CSF examination b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) c. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography d. Non-contrast computed tomography
  1637. 1681. Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferriin saturation are most consistent diagnosis of:
    a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Anemia of chronic disease c. Hemochromatosis d. Lead poisoning
  1638. 1682. Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynecomastia except :
    a. Testosterone b. Prolactin c. Luteinizing hormone d. Estradiol
  1639. 1683. Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynecomastia, except:
    a. Testosterone b. Prolactin c. Luteinizing hormone d. Estradiol
  1640. 1684. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease?
    a. Cyclosporine b. Dapsone c. IV immunoglobulin d. Methotrexate
  1641. 1685. Which one of the following is not a feature of multiple myeloma?
    a. Hypercalcemia b. Anemia c. Hyperviscsity d . elevated alkaline phosphatase
  1642. 1686. Which one of the following diseases is an autosomal dominant disorder?
    a. Hemochromatosis b. Phenylkenuria c. Maturity-onset diabetes of the young d. Glucose -6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
  1643. 1687. Which one of the following lymphomas is associated with HTLV-I virus infection ?
    • a. Burkitt’s lymphoma b. B-cell lymphoma c. Adult T-cell leukemia and lymphoma d. Hodgkin’s disease
    • 1688. D-dimer is the most sensitive diagnostic test for:
    • a. Pulmonary embolism b. Acute pulmonary edema c. Cardiac tamponade d. Acute myocardial infarction
  1644. 1689. The most appropriate drug for the treatment of bulimia nervosa is:
    a. Amitriptyline b. Lithium c. Fluoxetine d. Sertraline
  1645. 1690.Carcinoid syndrome produces valvular disease primarily involving :
    a. Pulmonary valves b. Tricuspid valves c. Mitral valve d. Aortic vlave
  1646. 1691. all of the following conditions are observed in marasmus, except:
    a. Heaptomegaly b. Muscle wasting c. Low insulin levels d. Extreme weakness
  1647. 1692. Bart’s hydrops fetalis is tethal because:
    • a. Hb Bart’s cannot bind oxygen b. The excess α chain form insoluble precipitates
    • c. Hb Bart’s cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues d. Microcytic red cells become trapped in the placenta
  1648. 1693. Which of the following is a cause of reversible dementia :
    a. Subacute combined degeneration b . Picks disease c. Creutzfeldt-jakob disease d. Alzheimer’s disease
  1649. 1694.Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following except :
    a. Myelopathy b. Optic atrophy c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Myopathy
  1650. 1695. Which one of the following is used in therapy of toxoplasmosis?
    a. Artesunate b. Thiacentazone c. Ciprofloxacin d. Pyrimethamine
  1651. 1696. Which of the following drugs is useful in prophylaxis of migraine ?
    a. Propranolol b. Sumatriptan c. Domperidone d. Ergotamine
  1652. 1697. Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonuism is treated by:
    a. Anticholinergics b. Levodopa c. Selegiline d. Amantadine
  1653. 1698. Which of the following infestation leads to malabsorption ?
    a. Giadia lamblia b. Ascaris lumbricoides c. Necator americanus d. Ancylostoma duodenale
  1654. 1699. All of the following can cause osteoporosis except:
    a. Hyperparahtyroidism b. Steroid use c. Flurosis d. Thyrotoxicosis
  1655. 1700. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by:
    • a. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) b. Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
    • c. Interleukin -6 (IL-6) d. Calcitonin
  1656. 1701. All of the following are the causes of ‘relative’ polycythemia, except:
    a. Dehydration b. Dengue hemorrhagic fever c. Gaisbock syndrome d. High altitude
  1657. 1702. 5’ –nucleotidase activity is increased by:
    a. bone disease b. Prostate cancer c. Chronic renal failure d. Cholestatic disorders
  1658. 1703. Normal CSF glucose level in a normoglycemic adult is:
    a. 20-40 mg/dl b. 40-70 mg/dl c. 70-90 mg/dl d. 90-110 mg/dl
  1659. 1704. All of the following may cause ST segment elevation on ECG , except:
    a. Early repolarization variant b. Constrictive pericardia c. Ventricular aneurysm d. Prinzmetal’s angina
  1660. 1705. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is:
    • a. elevated serum Ach-receptor binding antibodies b. Repetitive nerve stimulation test
    • c. Positive edrophonium test d. Measurement of jitter by single fiber electromyography
  1661. 1706. Not a neurologic channelopathy:
    a. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis b. Episodic atxias c. Familial hemiplegic migraine d. Huntigton’s disease
  1662. 1707. all of the following are neurological channelopathies , except:
    a. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis b. Episodic ataxia type 1 c. Familial hemiplegic migraine d. Spinocerebellar ataxia 1
  1663. 1708.All of the following are calcium channelopathies except :
    a. Episodic ataxia type 1 b. Spinocerebellar ataxia type 6 c. Familial hemiplegic migraine d. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis
  1664. 1709.At what value of one hour glucose challenge test will you recommend a standard glucose tolerance test?
    a. 120 Mg/dl b. 140 mg/dl c. 150 mg/dl d. 160 mg/dl
  1665. 1710. A 50 year old man alcoholic and a smoker presents with a 3-hour history of severe retrosternal chest pain and increasing shortness of breath. He started having this pain while eating, which was constant and radiated to the back and intercapular region. He was a known hypertensive. On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130 /min , and a BP of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP was normal . all peripheral pulses were present and equal. Breath sounds were decreased at the left lung base and chest X-ray showed left pleural effusion. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Acute aortic dissection b. Acute myocardial infarction c. Rupture of the esophagus d. Acute pulmonary embolism
  1666. 1711. A 30 year old male patient presents with complaints of weakness in right upper and both lower limbs for last 4 months. He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3rd fingers side and 5th finger in left side. On examinations, BP was 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. Investigations showed Hb-12 gm, TLC -12000 CU mm, platelets-4,30,000, ESR- 49 mm. urine examination showed proteinuria and RBC 10-15 per HPF with no casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Polyarteritis nodosa b. systemic lupus erythematosus c. Wegener’s granulomatosis d. Mixed cryoglobulinemia
  1667. 1712. All of the following conditions are known to cause diabetes insipidus, except:
    a. Multiple sclerosis b. Head injury c. Histiocytosis d. Viral encephalitis
  1668. 1713. Increased susceptibility to breast cancer is likely to be associated with a mutation in the following gene:
    a. p53 b. BRCA-1 c. Retinoblastoma (Rb) d. H-Ras
  1669. 1714. The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are:
    a. Gram-positive organism b. Gram –negative organism c. Mycoplasma d. Virus infections
  1670. 1715. Ropinirole’s is most useful for treatment of:
    a. Parkinson’s disease b. wilson’s disease c. Hoffman’s syndrome d. Carpal tunnel syndrome
  1671. 1716.In which of the following arthritis erosions are not seen?
    a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) c. Psoriasis d. Gout
  1672. 1717. Flapping tremors are seen in the following conditions except:
    a. Uremic encephalopathy b. Parkinsonism c. Hepatic encephalopathy d. Carbon dioxide narcosis
  1673. 1718. All of the following are true regarding tetralogy of fallot, except:
    • a. ejection systolic murmur in second intercostals space b. Single second heart sound
    • c. Predominantly left t right shunt d. Normal jugular venous pressure
  1674. 1719. Which one of the following is not a feature of irritable bowel syndrome:
    a. abdominal pain b. Constipation c. Rectal bleeding d. bloating
  1675. 1720. In which of the following conditions of malabsorption, an intestinal biopsy is diagnostic?
    a. Celiac disease b. Tropical sprue c. whipple’s disease d. Lactose intolerance
  1676. 1721. Hemolytic anemia may be characterized by all of the following except:
    a. Hyperbilirubinemia b. Reticulocytosis c. Hemoglobinuria d. Increased plasma haptoglobin level
  1677. 1722. Recurrent facial/oropharyngeal/ laryngeal edema in a patient having low C4 , normal C3 and normal factor B. The pathogenesis is most likely due to:
    a. Immune complex disease b. C 1 esterase inhibitor deficiency c. Hereditary deficiency of QI d. Classical pathway activation by IgM
  1678. 1723. There is mutation of gene coding for the ryanodine receptors in malignant hyperthermia. Which of the following statements best explains the increased heat production in malignant hyperthermia?
    • a. Increased muscle metabolism by excess of calcium ions b. Thermic effect of food
    • c. Increased sympathetic discharge d. Mitochondrial thermogenesis
  1679. 1724. All of the following conditions are observed in gout, except:
    • a. Uric acid nephrolithiasis b. deficiency of enzyme xanthine oxidase
    • c. Increase in serum urate concentration d. Renal disease involving interstitial tissues
  1680. 1725. which of the following statement is false regarding Wilson’s disease?
    • a. It is an autosomal recessive disorder
    • b. Serum ceruloplasmin level is less than 20 microgram per day
    • c. Urinary copper excretion is less than 100 microgram per day
    • d. Zinc acetate is effective as maintenance therapy
  1681. 1726. False regarding creutzfeldt-jakob disease:
    • a. It is a neurodegenerative disease b. It is caused by infectious proteins
    • c. Myoclonus is rarely seen d. Brain biopsy is specific for diagnosis
  1682. 1727.Which of the following is not a feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
    • a. Myoclonus on awakening b. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
    • c. Automation d. Absence seizure
  1683. 1728. A 20 year old female presents with history of dyspnea on exertion. On examination she has wide fixed split of S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III/Iv) in left second intercostals space. Her EKG shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosis is:
    a. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection b. Tricuspid atresia c. Ostium primum atrial septal defect d. Tetralogy of Fallot
  1684. 1729. The only thrombolytic agent approved for the treatment of acute ischemic stroke is:
    a. Tissue plasminogen activator b. streptokinase c. Urokinase d. Pro-urkinase
  1685. 1730. The most common cause of sporadic viral encephalitis is:
    a. Japanese B encephalitis b. Herpes simplex encephalitis c. HIV encephalitis d. Rubeola encephalitis
  1686. 1731. A 27 year old man is noted to have blood pressure of 170/100 mm Hg. He has prominent aortic ejection click and murmurs heard over the ribs on both sides anteriorly and over the back posteriorly. In addition , the pulses in the lower extremities are feeble and he complains of mild claudication with exertion . the most likely diagnosis is:
    a. ASD b. Aortic stenosis b. Coarctatiuon aorta d. Cardiomyopathy
  1687. 1732. A 62 year old diabetic female patient presented with history of progressive right sided weakness of one-month duration . the patient was also having speech difficulty. Fundus examination showed papilledema. Two months ago, she also had a fall in her bathroom and struck her head against a wall. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:
    • a. Alzhemer’s disease b. Left parietal glioma c. Left MCA territory stroke d. Left chronic subdural
    • hematoma
  1688. 1733. All of the following can cause hyeprcalcemia , except:
    a. Prolonged immunobilization b. Tumor lysis syndrome c. Sarcoidosis d. Multiple melanoma
  1689. 1734. Humoral immunodeficiency is suspected in a patient and he is under investigation. Which of the following infections would not be consistent with the diagnosis?
    a. Giardiasis b. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia c. Recurrent sinusitis d. Recurrent subcutaneous abscesses
  1690. 1735. In a ptient with listeria meningitis who is allergic to penicillin , the antimicrobial of choice is:
    a. Vancomycin b. Gentamicin c. Trimethoprin-Sulfamethoxazole d. Ceftriaxone
  1691. 1736. Migratory thrombophlebitis is associated with the following malignancies except:
    • a. Lung cancer b. Prostate cancer c. Pancreas cancer d. Gastrointestinal cancer
    • 1737. Which of the following is the most common extra-renal involvement in autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?
    • a. Mitral valve prolapse b. Hepatic cysts c. splenic cyst d. Colonic diverticulosis
  1692. 1738. Which of the following is generally not seen in ITP?
    a. More common in females b. Petechiae, ecchymosis and bleeding c. Palpabe splenomegaly d. Increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow
  1693. 1739. Which of the following arbovirus diseases has not been reported in India?
    a. Japanese encephalitis b. Yellow fever c. Chikungunya fever d. KFD
Author
hamroreadinghome
ID
356951
Card Set
Sharad Medicine
Description
Updated