-
1. In tumor lysis syndrome” all the following are seen except:
a. Hyperuricemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hyperphosphatemia d. Hypercalcemia
-
2. Hypercalcemia is seen in all except:
a. Sarcoidosis b. Tumor lysis syndrome c. Multiple myeloma d. Primary hyperparathyroidism
-
3. Not seen in tumor lysis syndrome:
a. Hyperphosphatemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hyperuricemia d. Hypocalcemia
-
4. Drug not used in prevention of rejection after transplantation :
a. Flucytosine b. Mycophenolate mofetil c. Rapamycin d. Azathioprine
-
5. Not a clinical feature of normal pressure hydrocephalus:
a. Urinary incontinence b. Gait disturbance c. Aphasia d. Dementia
-
6. Triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus is:
- a. Gait disorder, urinary incontinence and lower cranial nerve palsy
- b. Gait disorder, urinary incontinence and dementia
- c. Ataxia, aphasia and gait disorder
- d. D. Tremor, aphasia and dementia
-
7. Which of the following is not used in acute asthma:
a. Ipratropium bromide b. Salbitamol c. Steroids d. Montelukast
-
8. Acute lung injury not include which of the following:
a. Cardiopulmonary bypass b. Aspiration c. toxic gas injury d. Lung contusion
-
9. Pseudofractures are seen in:
a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Osteoporosis c. Osteomalacia d. Hypoparathyroidism
-
10. A 25 year old girl presents with fever and weakness. There is splenomegaly of 3 cm below the costal margin. Hemoglobin is 8 mg/dl, TLC is 3000/mm, platelet count is 80,000/mm. least likely diagnosis is:
a. Aplastic anemia b. Megaloblastic anemia c. Anemia of chronic disease d. ALL
-
11. In a young patient with aplastic anemia, the treatment of choice is:
a. ATG b. Bone marrow transplantation c. Danazol d. G-CSF
-
12. Investigation of choice for invasive amebiasis of:
a. Indirect hemagglutination b. ELISA c. Counterimmunodiffusion assays d. Microscopy
-
13. Acute breathlessness is an important feature of :
a. Pericarditis b. CHF c. Pneumonia d. Pulmonary embolism
-
14. Most common symptom of pulmonary embolism is:
a. Chest pain b. Dyspnea c. Hemoptysis d. Cough
-
15. Most common sign of pulmonary embolism is:
a. Sweating b. Tachypnea c. Tachycardia d. Cyanosis
-
16. Dose of digoxin is not altered in:
a. Hypomagnesemia b. Renal failure c. Hepatotxity d. Hypokalemia
-
17. False regarding digitalis is:
a. Lipid soluble b. Actively metabolized in liver c. Oral absorption d. Renal excretion
-
18. Dose of digoxin is not reduced in which of the following condition:
a. Liver disease b. Renal disease c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypoxia
-
19. ECG finding in hypercalcemia is:
a. Prolonged PR interval b. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia c. Short QT interval d. Bundle branch blocks
-
20. QT interval is shortened in:
a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypokalemia d. Hypocalcemia
-
21. Shortest QT interval is seen in:
a. Hypocalcemia b. Hyperrcalcemia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyperkalemia
-
22. False regarding Reye’s syndrome is:
a. Deep jaundice is present b. Disease may be precipitated by salicylates d. It frequently complicates viral infection
-
23. Not a myeloproliferative disease:
a. Essential thrombocytosis b. CML c. AML d. Polycythemia vera
-
24. Not an important feature of polycythemia vera:
a. Bone marrow hyperplasia b. Leukocyte alkaline phosphate increased c. Splenomegaly d. Erythropoietin level increased
-
25. In polycythemia vera all the following are seen except:
a. Thrombocytosis b. Increased B 12 binding capacity c. High erythropoietin level d. Increased vitamin B12 binding capacity
-
26. Not seen in polycythemia vera:
a. Ocular congestion b. Increased RBC count c. Increased erythropoietin level d. Increased vitamin B12 binding capacity
-
27. Not seen in polycythemia rubra vera:
a. Increased platelets b. Leukocytosis c. Decreased LAP score d. Increased vitamin B12 binding capacity
-
28. Paradoxicla pulse is seen in:
a. Severe AR+As b. Severe AR c. LVF d. Cardiac tamponade
-
29. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in:
a. Adhesive pericarditis b. Rheumatic pericarditis c. Uremic pericarditis d. Constrictive pericarditis
-
30. Pulsus paradoxus is found in all except:
a. IPPV b. COPD c. Constructive pericarditis d. Pericardial tamponade
-
31. Pulsus paradoxus is not seen in:
a. Cardiac tamponade b. Severe ronchial asthama c. Pregnancy d. Constructive pericarditis
-
32. Pulses bisferiencs can occur in:
a. Has alternate high and low volume pulse b. Has bifid anacrotic wave c. Severe AR with good LV function d. AS with AR
-
33. Not seen in acute severe asthma is:
a. Pulsus paradoxus b. Hypercapnia c. Acidosis d. Cyanosis
-
34. Bilateral facial nerve palsy is not seen in:
a. Melkersson-rosenthal syndrome b. Ramsay Hunt syndrome c. Guillain-Barre syndrome d. Sarcoidosis
-
35. Bilateral facial paralysis is not seen in:
a. Ramsay Hunt syndrome b. Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome c. Heerfordt’s syndrome d. Guillain-Barre syndrome
-
36. Melkersson-rosenthal syndrome consists of all except:
a. Deafness b. Labial edema c. Plication of the tongue d. Recurrent facial paralysis
-
37. Bilateral LMN facial palsy is not seen in:
a. Transverese myelitis b. Bilateral acoustic neuroma c. Guillain-Barre syndrome d. Sarcoidosis
-
38. Not a common cause of carpal tunnel syndrome:
a. Hypertension b. Hypothyroidism c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Pregnancy
-
39. In which of the following, highly “selective” proteinuria is seen:
a. Focal sclerosis b. Membranous glomerulonephritis c. Medssangial proliferative gllomerulonephritis d. minimal change disease
-
40. Triad of glomerulonephritis , pulmonary hemorrhage and antibody to basement membrane is seen in:
-
a. Diabetic nephropathy b. mixed connective tissue disease c. systemic necrotizing vasculitis d. Goodpasture’s syndrome
-
41. Tic douloureux is synonymous with:
a. Trigeminal neuralgia b. Temporal lobe epilepsy c. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia d. Todd’s paralysis
-
42. Trigeminal neuralgia is treated with;
a. Indomethacin b. Chlorpromazine c. Phenobarbitone d. Carbamazepine
-
43. Increased serum iron and normal total iron binding capacity are seen in:
a. Anemia of chronic disease b. iron deficiency anemia c. Sideroblastic anemia d. Thalassemia
-
44. Metal causing sideroblastic anemia is:
a. Selenium b. Cu c. Hg d. Lead
-
45. Intraceelular iron level is not decreased in:
a. Anemia due to gastric ulcer b. sideroblastic Anemia due to gastric ulcer b. sideroblastic Anemia due to gastric ulcer b. sideroblastic anemia c. anemia due to chronic infection d. Hookworm anemia
-
46. Microcytic hypochromic anemia is not seen in:
a. Fanconi’s anemia b. Iron deficiency anemia c. Lead poisoning d. Thalassemia major
-
47. Propranolol is contraindicated in:
a. Hypertension b. CHF c. Angina pectoris d. Thyrotoxicosis
-
48. Drug used in angina that can cause CCF is:
a. Verapamil b. Sorbitrate c. Propranolol d. Nifedipine
-
49. Preoperative propranolol is not indicated in:
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Migraine c. CHF d. Prolong QT syndrome
-
50. All are seen in subacute thyroiditis except:
a. Increased radioiodine uptake b. Pain c. Raised ESR d. Raised T4 level
-
51. All are true about de quervain’s thyroiditis except:
a. Raised ESR b. Subsides spontaneously c. autoimmune etiology d. Pain and swelling of the thyroid occurs
-
52. Nephrotic syndrome, which is not cured after eradicating malaria, is caused by;
a. Plasmodium vivax b. Plasmoium ovale c. Plasmodium falciparum d. Plasmodium malariae
-
53. Which of the following is a feature of falciparum malaria:
a. Black water fever b. Algid malaria c. Cerebral malaria d. All of the above
-
54. All are the features of cerebral malaria except:
a. Absent abdominal reflex b. Extensor planter reflex c. Retinal hemorrhage d. Focla neurological deficit
-
55. Which species commonly causes cerebral malaria:
a. Plasmodium ovale b. Plasmodium malariae c. plasmodium falciparum d. Plasmodium vivax
-
56. Genetically transmitted diseases which protect against malaria are all except:
a. Sickle cell anemia b. G6PD deficiency c. Absence of Duffy blood group d. Hereditary spherocytosis
-
57. Radical cure of plasmodium vivax is by;
a. Chloroquine b. Quinine c. Primaquine d. Tetracycline
-
58. Primaquine has no role in infection with:
a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Palsmodium vivax c. Palsmodium malariae d. Plasmodium ovale
-
59. Malaria affects the following organs except:
a. Brain b. Liver c. Heart d. kidney
-
60. Types of malaria not seen in india:
a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Plasmodium vivax c. Plasmodium malariae d. Plasmodium ovale
-
61. In cerebral malaria the drug of choice is:
a. Tetracycline b. Primaquine c. Chloroquine d. Quinine
-
62. Nephroclacinosis is common in:
a. Type I renal tubular acidosis b. Type II renal tubular acidosis c. Type III renal tubular acidosis d. Type IV renal Tubular acidosis
-
63. Hyperkalemia is characteristic of which type of RTA:
a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV
-
64. Pseudotumor cerebri is not caused by:
a. Hypervitaminosis A b. Oral contraceptives c. Tetracycline d. Gentamicin
-
65. Not a feature of psudotumor cerebri:
a. Normal sized ventricles on CT scan b. Increased protein content in CSF c. absence of localizing neurological deficit d. Papilledema
-
66. In syringomyelia thesensation that is lost is:
a. Touch b. Pain and temperature c. Pressure d. Two-point discrimination
-
67. Painless burn of hand is seen in;
a. Systemic lupus erythematous b. Cord compression c. Thalamic syndrome d. Syringomyelia
-
68. Dissociated sensory loss is seen with:
a. Tabes dorsalis b. Syringomyelia c. Cauda equina syndrome d. motor neuron disease
-
69. Dissociated anesthesia is seen in:
a. Fredrick’s ataxia b. Tabes dorsalis c. Syringomyelia d. motor neuron disease
-
70. Dissociated sensory loss and balaclava helmet sensory loss is seen in:
a. Syringomyelia b. Extradural spinal tumor c. Intradural extramedullary tumors d. none of the above
-
71. Systemic lupus erythematousus is not caused by which of the following drug:
a. Methotrexate b. phenytoin c. Isoniazoid d. Hydralazine
-
72. Subarachnoid space ends at:
a. S4 b. S2 c. L2 d. L1
-
73. Indiabetes joint commonly involved is:
a. Foot b. Hip c. Knee d. shoulder
-
74. Charcot’s joint in diabetes affects:
a. Tarsal b. Hip c. knee d. Shoulder
-
75. Not seen in botulism :
a. Ptosis b. diploma c. Diarrhea d. Vomiting
-
76. Not a clinical feature Of botulism:
a. Descending paralysis b. Bulbar palsy c. Diarrhea d. Nausea and vomiting
-
77. Not a clinical manifestation of botulism:
a. Diplopia b. Diarrhea c. Urinary retention d. no fever
-
78. Southern blot method is for analysis of:
a. Carbohydrates b. proteins c. RNA d. DNA
-
79. RNA fragments are sequenced by:
a. Southern blot b. northern blot c. Eastern blot d. Western blot
-
80. Pin point pupils, loss of consciousness and hyperpyrexia is seen in:
a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Pontine hemorrhage c. Cerebral infarction d. Thalamic syndrome
-
81. A patient pupils, loss of consciousness and hyperpyrexia is seen in:
a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Pontine hemorrhage c. Cerebral infarction d. Thalamic syndrome
-
82. Important role of rennin is in:
a. Malignant hypertension b. Renovascular hypertension c. Essential hypertension d. Coronary heart disease
-
83. Horner’s syndrome manifests as:
a. Miosis and ptosis b. Mydriasis c. Ptosis and sweating d. Sweating
-
84. Not a characteristic feature of Horner’s syndrome:
a. Partial ptosis of the eyelid b. anhydrosis c. Exophthalmos d. miosis
-
85. False regarding hemolytic anemia is:
a. Hemosiderinuria b. Increased haptoglobin c. Raised unconjugated bilirubin d. Raised LDH
-
86. Not a clinical feature of hemolytic anemia:
a. Reticulocytosis b. Raised level of haptoglobin c. Hemosiderinuria d. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
-
87. False regarding hemolytic anemia is:
a. Hemoglobinuria b. Hemosiderinuria c. Raised unconjugated bilirubin d. Increased haptoglobin
-
88. Not seen in hemolytic anemia:
a. Increased haptoglobin b. Spherocytosis c. Reticulocytosis d. Hemosiderinuria
-
89. Painless effusion in joints of congenital syphilis is known as:
a. Synovitis b. Clutton’s joint c. Charcot’s joint d. Barton’s joint
-
90. Beriberi disease is due to deficiency of:
a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin B c. Vitamin A d. Vitamin D
-
91. Palmar erythema is seen in :
a. Respiratory failure b. ARF c. CHF d. Hepatic failure
-
92. The treatment of choice for chronic partial and tonic clonic seizures is:
a. Trimethadione b… Phenytoin c. Diazepam d. Ethosuximide
-
93. Drug not used in maintenance therapy of epilepsy is:
a. Trimethadione b. phenytoin c. Diazepam d. Ethosuximide
-
94. Drug useful in both absence seizures (petit Mal) and generalized , tonic –clonic seizures (Grand mal) is:
a. Carbamazepine b. Phenytoin c. Sodium valproate d. All of the above
-
95. Which antiepileptic drug acts by potentiating the action of GABA:
a. Phenobarbitone b. Phenytoin c. Valproic acid d. Carbamazepine
-
96. Meningitis is caused by:
aa. Neisseria meningitidis b. Haempphilus influenza c. Streptococcus pneumonia d. All of the above
-
97. Secondary hyperparathyroidism is caused by:
a. Solitary adenoma b. Wermer’s syndrome c. Cardiac failure d. CRF
-
98. Basal Ganglion tremors are:
a. Flapping tremor b. Resting tremor c. Intension tremor d. Action tremor
-
99. Cannon waves are seen in ;
a. AF b. Pulmonary stenosis c. Complete heart block d. Sinus bradycardia
-
100. Cannon ‘a’ waves are seen in:
a. AF bb. Pulmonary stenosis c. Coomplete heart block d. Sinus bradycardia
-
101. All are seen with hyperkalemia except;
a. High T wave b. Prolonged PR interval c. Depressed ST segment d.. Prolonged QT interval
-
102. First change in ECG seen in hyperkalemia is:
a. Absent P waves b. Increased QRS interval c. Tall tented T waves d. Increased PQ interval
-
103. ‘Sinewave’ [attern in ECG is seen in:
a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypernatremia
-
104. In Hyperkalemia , ECG change shows:
a. U wave b. Tall T wave c. Decreased PR interval d. Short ST segment
-
105. Following are causes of pseudohyperkalemia except:
a. Thrombocytosis b. Hemolysis c.. Leukocytosis d. Eosinophilia
-
106. Not a treatment of hyperkalemia:
a. Sodium bicarbonate b. Calcium gluconate c. Insulin d. Steroid
-
107. Risus sardonicus is seen in:
a. Leprosy b. Tetanus c. Strychnine poisoning d. TMJ ankylosis
-
108. An intelligent dwarf child with square fingers and palms and backache has:
a. Nutritional dwarfism b. Hypothyroidism c. Marion dwarf d. Achondroplasia
-
109. Achondroplasia is inherited as:
a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X-linked dominant d. X-linked recessive
-
110. A 6 months old infant has multiple fractures with trivial trauma. The diagnosis is:
a. Rickets b. Osteogenesis imperfects c. Achondroplasia d. Battered baby syndrome
-
111. Multiple fractures in children with joint laxity and deafness are seen in:
a. Osteomalacia b. Osteochondromatosis c. Osteogenesis imperfect d. Ehlers –Danlos syndrome
-
112. Not a feature of osteogenensis imperfect:
a. Blue sclera b. Cataract c. multiple fractures d. Hearing loss
-
113. Oculocutaneous albinism is:
a. X-linked recessive b. X-Linked dominant c. Autosomal recessive d. Autosomal dominant
-
114. MEdiastinal shift occurs in:
a. Pneumothorax b. Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis c. Bronchitis emphysema d. Lobar pneumonia
-
115. Streptokinase therapy in myocardial infarction is most effective when given within:
a. <2 hours b. >24 hours c. 4-6 hours d. 2-4 hours
-
116. Drug of choice for pain in myocardial infarction is:
a. Morphine b. Diazepam c. Fortwin d. NSAID
-
117. Not used in treatment of MI:
a. Pentazocine b. Vasodilators c. Platelet function inhibitors d. Fibrinolytic agent
-
118. Duchenne pseudomuscular dystrophy is inherited as:
- a. Autosomal recessive b. X-linked dominant c. X-linked recessive d. Autosomal dominant
- 119. False regarding duchenne muscular dystrophy:
- a. Congenital hypotonia b. Respiratory failure in 2nd decade of life c. Cardiomyopathy d. X-linked recessive
-
120. Most characteristic feature of Duchenne muscular dystrophy is:
a. Early involvement of respiratory muscle b. Wasting of distal muscle c. Association with sensory deficit d. Pseudohypertrophy of muscle
-
121. Creatine phosphokinase (CPK) is increased in:
a. Hepatocellular carcinoma b. Renal cell carcinoma c. Cirrhos d. pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy
-
122. Muscle not involved in Duchenne muscular dystrophy:
a. Infraspinatus b. branchioradiatis c. Gastrocnemius d. Vastus medialis
-
123. Hypercalcemia is not seen in:
a. Sarcoidosis b. Milk alkali syndrome c. squamous cell carcinoma of lung d. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
-
124. Not a feature of primary hyperldosteronism:
a. Increase in Na+ retention b. Increase intravascular volume c. Edema d. hypertension
-
125. In conn’s syndrome, all the following are seen except:
a. Hypokalemia b. Hypernatremia c. Hypertension d. Edema
-
126. False regarding conn’s syndrome:
a. Generalized edema b. Raised blood pressure c. low rennin levels d. Hypokalemia
-
127. Excess aldosterone is not associated with:
a. Hypertension b. Water retention c. hyperkalemia d. Hypikalemia
-
128. A 25 year old man presents with hypertension. His serum sodium is 145mEq/L , potassium is 1.3 mEq/L and serum creatinine is 1.2 mg. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Renal parenchymal disease b. Cushing syndrome c. Conn’s syndrome d. pheochromocytoma
-
129. Cushing’s syndrome is commonly caused by:
a. Adrenal carcinoma b. Ectopic adrenal tissue c. Adrenal hyperplasia d. Adrenal adenoma
-
130. Pernicious anemia is due to deficiency of:
a. Pyridoxine b. folic acid c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin D
-
131. False regarding pernicious anemia:
a. Parenteral vitamin B12 is therapeutic b. Premature graying of hair c. Hyperchlorhydria d. Autommune disease
-
132. In which of the following condition increased gastrin levels with decreased HCI level is seen:
a. Stomach carcinoma b. Atrophic gastritis c. Pernicious anemia d. Zollinger –Ellison syndrome
-
133. Decreased protein content in pleural effusion is seen in:
a. Bacterial pneumonia b. Malignancy c. Tuberculosis d. Cirrhosis
-
134. In which of the following conditions does hyperglycemia occur:
a. Addison’s disease b. Uremia c. Acromegaly d. Starvation
-
135. In antiphospholipid antibody syndrome all the following are seen except:
a. Recurrent fetal loss b. Neurological symptoms c. Thrombocytosis d. Prolonged aPTT
-
136. A young lady with spontaneous abortions has a history of joint pains and fever. She currently presents with thrombosis of her leg vein. Her aPTT is prolonged. The diagnosis is most likely to be:
a. Inherited protein C and S deficit b. Factor XII deficiency c. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome d. Increased antithrombin III levels
-
137. Medullary cystic disease of the kidney is best diagnosed by:
a. Ultrasound b. Nuclear scan c. Urography d. Biopsy
-
138. A patient presents with hypertension and dizziness. The X-ray shows anterior rib nothcing. The diagnosis is most likely to be:
a. Pheochromocytoma b. Coarctation of the aorta c. Neurofibromatosis d. Marfan syndrome
-
139. Renal vein thrombosis ismost likely in which of the following conditions:
- a. Membranous glomerulonephritis b. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
- c.Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis d. Minimal change disease
-
140. Renal osteodystrophy differs from nutritional and metabolic rickets due to the presence of:
a. Hyperphosphatemia b. hypercalcemia c. Hypophosphatemia d. Hypocalcemia
-
141. A 10 years old child presents with anemia and recurrent fractures. The X-ray shows diffuse hyperdensity of bone. The diagnosis is most likely to be:
a. Osteogenesis imperfect b. Osteopetrosis c. Osteochondroma d. Hyperparathyroidism
-
142. While inserting a central venous catheter, a patient develops respiratory distress. The most likely cause is:
a. Hemothorax b. Pneumothorax c. Pleural effusion d. Hypovolemia
-
143. While undergoing central venous catheterization through internal jugular vein, the patient suddenly developed respiratory distress and hypoxemia. Most likely cause is:
a. Septicemia b. Carotid artery injury c. Tamponade d. Pneumothorax
-
144. The systeme international d’ unites (SI) unit for blood pressure is:
a. T or r b. mm hg c. pa d. cm H2 O
-
145. Which of the following is not seen in atrial myxoma:
a. Fever b. Increased ESR c. hypertension d/ Embolic phenomenon
-
146. Lentigines and blue nevus are associated with which of the following cardiac lesion :
- a. Cardiomyopathy b. Pericarditis c. Atrial myxoma d. Cardiac arrhythmia
- 147. Prolonged fever is seen in:
- a. liposarcoma b. Neurofibromatosis c. Exostosis d. Atrial myxoma
-
148. False regarding atrial myxoma is:
a. no sex preference b. Stimulates mitral stenosis c. Occur at right atrium d. Most common site is left atrium
-
149. True regarding cardiac myxoma is:
a. Common in females b. distant metastasis is seen c. Rarely reoccurs after excision d. Most common site is left atrium
-
150. which is not true of sporadic myxoma:
a. Diagnosed by 2D echocardiography b. Female preponderance c. Occur at all ages d. Most common type of primary cardiac tumor
-
151. Left atrial myxoma is best diagnosed by:
a. ECG b. Cardiac catheterization c. Echocardiogram d. Chest X-ray
-
152. The most common intracavitary benign cardiac tumor is:
a. Leiomyoma b. Myxoma c. Neuroma d. Sarcoid
-
153. A patient with nephrotic syndrome with longstanding corticosteroid therapy may develop all of the following except:
a. hyperglycemia b. Hypertrophy of muscle c. neuropsychiatric symptoms d. Suppression of the pituitary adrenal axis
-
154. Roth’s spots are seen in the :
a. Pharynx b. Heart c. Fundus d. Palms
-
155. Roth’s spots are seen in:
a. Subacute bacteria endocarditis b. Rheumatic fever c. Thrombocytopenic purpura d. Malaria
-
156. not a clinical feature of SABE :
a. Osler’s node b. Janeway lesion c. Erythema nodosum d. Roth’s spot
-
157. osler’s nodes are seen in:
a. Finger or toe pads in infective endocarditis b. DIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis c. DIP joints in rheumatoid osteoarthritis d. PIP joints in rheumatoid osteoarthritis
-
158. Isolated hematuria is not seen in:
a. Hereditary nephritis b. Thin basement membrane disease c. Lead nephropathy d. Burger’s disease
-
159. In a patient with raised IgA levels the most common finding is:
a. Proteinuria b. GI bleed c. Hematuria d. Hypertension
-
160.Not commonly seen in hemochrmatosis:
- a. Hypogonadism b. Neuropathy c. Cirrhosis d. Diabetes
- 161. A diabetic patient presents with arthritis, Skin hyperpigmentation and hypogonadism. Most probably he has:
- a. Syatemic lupus erythematosus b. Wilson’s disease c. Hemochromatosis d. Rheumatoid arthritis
-
162. Macula ceruleae is seen in:
a. Phthirus pubis b. Pediculosis humains corporis c. Pediculosis capitis d. Pediculosis canis
-
163. Organ least involved in primary hemochromatosis is:
a. Heart b. testes c. Pancreas d. Pituitary
-
164. Most common type of lung carcinoma is:
a. Anaplastic b. Small cell c. Adenocarcinoma d. Squamous cell
-
165. Decreased serum iron and total iron binding capacity is seen in:
a. Sideroblastic anemia b. Thalassemia c. Anemia of chronic disease d. Iron deficiency
-
166. A 7 years old anemic child has decreased serum iron level and low serum iron binding capacity. The anemia is:
a. Sideroblastic b. Beta thalassemia c. Iron deficiency d. Chronic infection
-
167. best treatment for hairy cell leukemia is:
a. pentostatin b. Slenectomy c. Corticosteriod d. Alkylating agent
-
168. Treatment of choice in hairy cell leukemia is:
a. α interferon b. splenectomy c. Cyclophosphamide d. Chlorambucil
-
169. not used in the treatment of hairy cell leukemia:
a. Interferon α b. Splenectomy c. Steroids d. Pentostatin
-
170. Not present in cardiac tamponade:
a. Depression of ST segment b. Paradoxical pulse c. Increased vein pressure d. Shock
-
171. Finding in cardiac tamponade is:
a. 3rd heart sound b. Pericardial knock c. Positive Kussmaul sign d. Prominent X, absent Y wave inJVP
-
172. Long Q interval is not seen in:
a. Intracranial bleed b. Hypothermia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypokalemia
-
173. Hypokalemia causes:
a. GI bleeding b. Intestinal colic c. Muscle weakness d. Hypertonia
-
174. Not seen in hypokalemia:
a. Muscular weakness b. Fatigue c. Increased peristalsis d. abdominal distention
-
175. Blue-green pus is seen in infection of:
a. klebsiella b. streptococcus c. staphylococcus d. Pseudomonas
-
176. Which of the following is true regarding human plague:
a. Penicillin is the drug of choice b. Streptomycin is the drug of choice c. Bubo rarely recedes without incision and drainage
-
177. Incubation period of plague is… days:
a. 16-21 b. 10-15 c. 7-10 d. 2-7
-
178. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in :
a. physiological jaundice b. Choledocholithiasis c. Extravascular hemolysis d. Intravascular hemolysis
-
179. not seen in scurvy in adults:
a. Hemarthrosis b. Purpura b. Scurvy rosary d. Perifollicular hyperkeratosis
-
180. Not a clinical manifestation of scurvy in children:
a. Retrobulbar hemorrhage b. Intracerebral hemorrhage c. Perifollicular hemorrhage d. Hemorrhage into the periosteum of long bone
-
181. Clubbing and hemoptysis is seen in:
a. Pneumonia b. empyema c. Crohn’s disease d. Bronchiectasis
-
182. False regarding Zollinger –Ellison syndrome is:
a. Ca++ provocative test is best b. Serum gastrin level is high c. Associated with MEN I d. Usually multiple ulcers
-
183. Not seen in asthma:
a. Paradoxical pulse b. pCO2= 40 mmHg c. Accessory muscle becomes active d. expiratory rhonchi only
-
184. Definite diagnosis of bronchial asthama is made by:
a. Decreased FEV1 /FVC ratio on spirometry b. Relief of symptoms after bronchodilators c. Reversibe responsiveness of bronchial musculature d. Methacholine challenge
-
185. Most common presentation of unilateral renal artery stenosis is:
a. Polycythemia b. peripheral edema c. Hypertension d. Uremia
-
186. In tension pneumothorax, drainage tube is inserted through:
a. 6th ICS in axillary line b. 2nd ICS in axillary line c. 2nd ICS in midclavicular line d. 6th ICS in midclavicular line
-
187. Recurrent hematuria in a deaf-mute is seen in:
a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Renal cyst c. Fanconi anemia d. Alport’s syndrome
-
188. True regarding classic Alport’s syndrome is:
a. Hematuria b. Autosomal recessive c. Conductive deafness d. All of the above
-
189. Initial sign of Alport’s syndrome is:
a. Sensorineurial high frequency deafness b. Oliguria c. proteinuria d. Microscopic hematuria
-
190.Characteristic initial manifestation of Alport’s syndrome is:
a. Nephrotic syndrome b. hypertension c. Deafness d. microscope hematuria
-
191. best investigation for hyperthyroidism is:
a. ELISHA b. T4 c. T3 d. Serum TSH
-
192. Most diagnostic test for primary hypothyroidism is:
a. Ca++ b. TSH c. T3 d. T4
-
193. In hypothyroidism, treatment response is monitored by:
a. TSH b. Ft4 c. T4 d. T3
-
194. In subclavian steal syndrome the blood flow in vertebral artery is:
a. Reversed b. Increased c. Diminished d. Absent
-
195. Polyuria with low fixed specific gravity is seen in:
a. Competitive water drinking b. CRF c. Diabetes insipidus d. Diabetes mellitus
-
196. Bone marrow leukocytosis is not seen in:
a. Aplastic anemia b. Gaucher’s disease c. Kala azar d. All of the above
-
197. In a case of kala azar aldehyde test becomes positive after positive after:
a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 8 weeks d. 12 weeks
-
198. Most common cause of intracerebral bleeding is:
a. Tumor b. Trauma c. Hypertension d. Rupture of aneurysm
-
199. the most common site of cerebral hemorrhage in hypertension is:
a. Pons b. Cerebrum c. putamen d. Thalamus
-
200. Specific diagnostic investigation in DIC is:
- a. Thrombocytopenia and schistocytes b. fibrin degradation product assay
- c. Raised PTT and PT d. Increased bleeding time
-
201. Diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation is best confirmed by:
a. Defective platelet function b. prolongation of prothrombin time c. Fibrin degradation products in serum d. Fragmented red cells in the PBS
-
202. Not a laboratory findings of DIC:
a. Low FDP b. High aPTT c. High PT d. thrombocytopenia
-
203. not a feature of DIC:
a. Thrombocytopenia b. normal aPTT c. prolonged PT d. Hypofibrinogenemia
-
204.False regarding DIC:
a. hypofibrinogenemia b. Increased PT and aPTT c. Thrombocytosis d. Increase in fibrin degradation products
-
205. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is not seen in:
a. Post partum hemorrhage b. Accidental hemorrhage c. Amniotic fund embolism d. diabetes mellitus
-
206. Not included in the treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation :
a. ε- aminocarproic acid(EACA) b. Fresh frozen plasma c. Heparin d. Platelet transfusion
-
207. Fanconi syndrome Is associated with:
a. Fructose intolerance b. Hypophosphatemia c. Generalized aminoaciduria d. all of the above
-
208. Regarding Fanconi syndrome all are correct except:
- a. Usually presents by 6 months, but may present later b. Linear growth is impaired
- c. polyuria and polydipsia are the features d. none of the above
-
209. Drug not used in thyrotoxic crisis is:
a. Corticosteroids b. Iodine c. Carbimazole d. Propranolol
-
210. Most important drug used in acute MI with multiple ectopic:
a. Streptokinase b. β-adrenoceptor blocking agents c. Procainamide d. Digoxin
-
211. Most of the death in myocardial infarction results in the… day:
a. First b. Second c. Fifth d. Seventh
-
212. ATT used in patients of renal failure is:
a. Pyrazinamide b. Isoniaxid c. Rifampicin d. Ethambutol
-
213. In acute respiratory failure, most frequent abnormality seen in ECG is:
a. Right ventricular hypertrophy b. Ventricular arrhythmia c. AV block d. Acute ventricular arrhythmia
-
214.Psychiatric manifestations are common in:
a. Hepatic porphyria b. porphyria cutanea tarda c. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria d. Acute intermittent porphyria
-
215. Not a feature of acute intermittent porphyria:
a. heamturia b. Abdominal pain c. Leukocytosis d. Fever
-
216.Not a clinical feature of SLE:
a. Psychosis b. Coombs’ positive hemolytic anemia c. sterility d. Recurrent abortion
-
217. Bronchiectasis, eosinophilia and asthma are seen in:
a. Aspergillosis b. histoplasmosis c. Nocardiosis d. mucormycosis
-
218. In which of the following condition, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergilosis is seen:
a. Tubercular cavity b. bronchitis c. Bronchiectasis d. bronchus carcinoma
-
219. False regarding allergic aspergillosis is :
a. Plueral effusion b. Pulmonary infiltrates c. Central bronchiectasis d. Asthma
-
220. False regarding allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillisis is:
- a. eosinophilia b. asthma c. Pleural effusion d. Central bronchiectasis
- 221.Megaloblastic anemia is not caused by:
- a. Folic acid deficiency b. Lead poisoning c. Vitamin B12 deficiency d. orotic aciduria
-
222. In pre-excitation syndrome ECG shows:
a. Q waves b. Delta waves c. long Pr interval d. Tall T waves
-
223. Drug of choice in WPW syndrome with atrial fibrillation is:
a. Procainamide b. Disopyramide c. Adenosine d. Verapamil
-
224. The best treatment for Wolf-parkinson white syndrome is;
a. Carotid massage b. IV verapamil c. Cardioversion d. Surgical excision of the tract
-
225.Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is due to:
a. Acquired hemoglobin defect b. Complement mediated RBC lysis c. Autoimmune disorder d. Congenital membrane defect
-
226. Troglitazone is the drug used in the treatment of:
a. Type 2 diabetes mellitus b. Petit mal epilepsy c. Hyperlipidemia d. Candidiasis
-
227.Not an important feature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria:
a. High leukocyte alkaline phosphatase b. Hemosiderinuria c. Hypocellular marrow d. Pancytopenia
-
228. not a feature of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is;
a. high leukocyte alkaline phosphate (LAP) b. Thrombocytopenia c. Hemosiderinuria d. Venous thrombosis
-
229. Folic acid deficiency in megaloblastic anemia is due to:
a. Methylcobalamin is cofactor b. Inhibit purine synthesis c. Intrinsic factor deficiency d. Folate trap mechanism
-
230. not a clinical feature of Henoch-Schonlenin purpura:
a. Thrombocytopenia b. increased serum IgA c. Glomerulonephiritis d. Arthralgia
-
231. False regarding Henoch-Schonlenin purpura:
a. Nehritis b. Arthritis c. Centrifugal rash d. Thrombocytopenia
-
232. not a feature of Henoch-Schonlenin purpura:
a. Renal failure may cause death b. IgA deposition in medangium c. Hematuria d. Thrombocytopenia
-
233. Not a characteristic feature of Henoch-Schonlein purpura:
a. Abdominal pain b. Arthralgia c. Thrombocytopenia d. Glomerulonephritis
-
234. Important feature of Henoch-Schonlein purpura is:
a. Aneurysm of branching point b. Absent radial pulse c. Membranous glomerulonephritis d. Raised IgA
-
235. Thrombocytopenia is seen in all except:
- a. Thrombocytopenic purpura b. Immunogenic thrombocytopenia c. Henoch- Schonlein purpura d. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
- 236. Not a clinical feature of pancreatic cholera:
- a. Metabolic acidosis b. hypocalcemia c. Hypochlorhydria d. Hypokalemia
-
237. Single drug used in prophylaxis of tuberculosis is:
a. Pyrazinamide b. Isoniazed c. Rifampicin d. Ethambutol
-
238. not a cause of hypokalemia:
a. K+ sparing diuretic b. Licorice ingestion c. liddle’s syndrome d. Bartler’s syndrome
-
239. all the following are features of Bartler’s syndrome except:
a. Hypokalemia b. Hypertension c. Alkalosis d. Increased rennin and aldosterone
-
240. Sensory involvement is not seen in:
a. Wilson’s disease b. Acute intermittent porphyria c. Guillain-Barre syndrome d. Infectious mononucleosis
-
241.All are seen in Wilson’s disease except:
a. positive Babinski sign b. Rigidity c. Spasticity d. Sensory symptoms
-
242.Not a feature of Wilson’s disease :
a. Sensor changes b. Spasticity c. Rigidity d. Intension tremors
-
243. Not a feature of Wilson’s disease:
a. Features of chronic active hepatitis b. Mental changes c. Increased ceruloplasmin d. Increased copper content in liver
-
244. All of the following are true about Wilson’s disease except:
a. Increase liver copper b. Increased serum ceruloplasmin level c. Chronic active hepatitis d. Hemolysis
-
245.Wilson’s disease is due to deposition of:
a. Arsenic b. copper c. Iron d. Zinc
-
246. not seen in Wilson’s disease :
a. Chorea b. Dysphagia c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Dysarthria
-
247. All are the features of Wilson’s disease except:
a. Manic depressive psychosis b. Chorea c. Testicular atrophy d. Dusarthria
-
248. not a recognized feature of Wilson’s disease:
- a. Histopathological features of chronic active hepatitis b. Increased copper content of liver
- c. Increased serum ceruloplasmin levels d. psychological disturbance
-
249. Characteristics of wilson’s disease include:
a. kayser-Fleisher ring in the cornea b. Ceruloplasmin deficiency c. Psychiatric symptoms preceding neurological symptoms d. all of the above
-
250. The term “crossed aphasia” means:
a. Right hemispherical lesion in right handed person b. right hemispherical lesion in left handed person c. Left hemispherical lesion in left handed person d. Left hemispherical lesion in right handed person
-
251.Glucagonoma is characterized by which of the following skin disorders:
a. necrolyitc migratory erythema b. Erythema chronicum migrans c.. Erythema gyratum repens d. Acrodermatitis enteropathica
-
252. hypophosphatemia is not caused by:
a. Dlucocorticoid administration b. Salicylate poisoning c. diabetic ketoacidosis d. Familial hypophosphatemia
-
253.REticulocyte count is not increased in which of the following :
a. Hemorrhage b. Hemolytic anemia c. Myeloid metaplasia d. Treated iron deficiency anemia
-
254. True regarding anton syndrome is:
a. Cortical blindness b. Patient denies that he is blind c. Both d. none
-
255. In giardiasis, malabsorption is due to:
a. Hypogammaglobulinemia b. Lactose intolerance c. bacterial overgrowth d. Adherence of trophozoites
-
256. All of the following are effective in giardiasis except:
a. Furazolidone b. Metronidazole c. Tinidazole d. Cotrimoxazole
-
257. All are seen in hepatorenal syndrome except:
a. normal renal biopsy b. Low Na+ in urine c. Normal urinary sediments d. Normal GFR
-
258.Most common congenital heart disease (CHD) is:
a. ASD b. VSD c. TOF d. PDA
-
259. A patent ductus is necessary for survival for all the following conditions except:
a. Underdeveloped aortic arch b. TGV c. Left ventricular hypoplasia d. Truncus arteriosus
-
260. All are false regarding VSD except:
a. Pulmonary oligemia in CXR b. small hoe closes spontaneously c. Defect is usually in muscular part d. Endocarditis is the most common complication
-
261.Cardiac manifestation of Williams’ syndrome is:
a. Coarctation of aorta b. Endocardial cushin defect c. PDA d. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
-
262. False regarding thymoma:
a.Hypergammagobulinemia b. Superior mediastinal compression syndrome c. Pure red cell aplasia d. Myasthenia gravis
-
263. In thymoma, all are seen except:
a. Red cell aplasia b. Hypoalbuminemia c. Hypogammaglobulinemia d. Myasthenia gravis
-
264. not associated with thymoma:
a. myasthenia gravis b. Pure red cell aplasia c. Hypergammaglobulinemia d. Pemphigus
-
265. Thymoma is not associated with:
a. myasthenia gravis b. hypergammaglobulinemia c. Isaac’s syndrome d. Pure red cell aplasia
-
266. Thymoma is associated with:
a. Esophageal stricture b. Hypergammaglobulinemia c. Scleroderma d. Myasthenia gravis
-
267.Thymoma is not associated with:
a. Isaac’s syndrome b. Hypergamaglobulinemia c. Pure red cell aplasia d. Myasthenia gravis
-
268. not a clinical feature of tabes dorsalis is:
a. Hyper-reflexia b. Bladder incontinence c. Argyll Robertson pupil d. Ataxia
-
269. False regarding tabes dorsalis is:
a. Posterior column involvement b. Hyper-reflexia c. Urinary bladder incontinence d. Ataxia
-
270. False regarding tabes dorsalis is:
a. bilateral Argyll Robertson pupil b. Hyper-reflexia c. Bladder disturbance d. Romberg’s sign
-
271. Not a clinical feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy:
a. Digoxin is useful b. Irregular thickness of septum c. Dynamic obstruction d. Double apical impulse
-
272. False regarding hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is :
a. Treatment by digoxin b. Irregular thickness of septum c. Sub-aortic narrowing d. Asymmetricla septal hypertrophy
-
273. False regarding hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy:
a. Asymmetrical septal hypertrophy b. Forward flow obstruction d. Anterior motion of mitral valve
-
274. False regarding hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is:
- a. Digoxin is the treatment of choice b. Hallmark of obstructive HCMP is a systolic murmur
- c. Symptoms are not related to the presence of severity of an outflow gradient d. Most common compliant is dyspnea
-
275.False regarding renal tubular acidosis is:
a. hypokalemia b. Increased anion gap c. Acidosis d. Defective bicarbonate reabsorption
-
276. False regarding renal tubular acidosis is:
a. High urinary pH b. Hyperchloremia c. Bicarbonaturia d. Increased anion gap
-
277. False regarding renal tubular acidosis:
a. HCO3 increase in urine b. Urine pH more than 6 c. Hyperchloremic acidosis d. Reduced anion gap
-
278.Anion gap is not increased in:
a. Diabetic ketoacidosis b. Salicylates c. Renal tubular acidosis d. Starvation
-
279. Widened anion gap is not seen in:
a. Diabetic ketoacidosis b. lactic acidosis c. diarrhea d. Acute renal failure
-
280. normal anion gap in humans is (in mmol/L):
a. 5-6 b. 10-12 c. 20-30 d. 14-20
-
281. The major contribution to anion gap is from:
a. Proteins b. Lactic acid c. Sulphate d. Phosphates
-
282. Raised anion gap in blood is seen in all the following except:
a. Diabetic ketoacidosis b. Renal failure c. Chronic respiratory failure d. Antifreeze ingestion
-
283. Antifreeze poisoning results in:
- a. Mixed acidosis and alkalosis b. metabolic alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap d.
- metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
-
284. A patient has drunken antifreeze of car. Metabolic finding will be:
a. Raised anion gap acidosis b. hypercalcemia c. Normal gap alkalosis d. normal gap acidosis
-
285. CSF finding in aseptic meningitis is:
a. neutrophilia b. CSF is clear to opalescent d. Oligoclonal IgG bands d. Protein and sugar are usually normal
-
286. not aCSF finding in tubercular meningitis:
a. High red cell count b. Lo chloride c. Raised protein d. Low sugar
-
287.Not a characteristic CSF change in acute pyogenic meningitis:
a. Reduction of C reactive protein b. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes c. Marked fall in sugar content d. Rise in protein content
-
288. In pyogenic meningitis the CSF finding is:
- a. Increased chloride and increased glucose b. Inceased protein and increased glucose
- c. Less glucose and more protein d. CSF contains no organism
-
289. The most common cause of Addison’s disease is:
a. Autoimmune etiology b. Tuberculosis c. Metastatic carcinoma d. Meningococcal septicemia
-
290. Feature of Addison’ s disease is:
a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypernatremia c. Decreased serum bicarbonates
-
291. Characteristic feature of Addison’s disease is:
a. Hypernatremia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypoglycemia d. Hypertension
-
292. most common presentation of primary hyperparathyroidism is:
a. Myopathy b. Asymptomatic hypocalcemia c. Asymptomatic hypercalcemia d. Nephrolithiasis
-
293. False regarding menetrier’s disease is:
a. Hypergastrinemia b. Protein losing gastropathy c. Foveolar hypertrophy d. Most common symptom is epigastric pain
-
294. Not a presenting feature of Menentrier’s disease :
a. Anorexia b. Constipation c. Edema d. Weight loss
-
295. Fatal familial insomnia is associated with:
a. Vascular disease b. Neoplastic disease c. Degenerative disease d. Prion disease
-
296. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by:
a. Riluzole used for treatment b. Prion c. JC virus d. Nonspongiform change
-
297. Kuru is caused by:
a. Chlamydia b. Virus c. Protozoan d. Prion
-
298. Most common malignancy seen in AIDS patients is:
a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Colon carcinoma c. Lymphoma d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
-
299. All are HIV associated malignancies except:
a. Kaposi’s sarcoma b. Lung carcinoma c. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma d. Anogenital carcinoma
-
300. s Drug of choice in acute migraine is:
a. Pizotifen b. Methysergide c. Clonidine d. Ergotamine
-
301. Drug not used in migraine :
a. Ergotamine b. Propranolol c. Verapamil d. Flunarizine
-
302. Drug of choice for acute attack of migraine is:
a. Sumatriptan b. Amitriptyline c. Methysergide d. Caffeine
-
303. Drug of choice is acute migraine not responding to aspirin is:
a. Ibuprofen b. Zolmitriptan c. Sumatriptan d. Ergotamine
-
304.Severe migraine is treated with:
a. Sodium valproate b. Amitriptyline c. Propranolol d. Ergotamine
-
305.Most common site of pyogenic liver abscess is:
a. Quardrate lobe b. Caudate lobe c. right side d. None of the above
-
306.s X-linked recessive disorder is:
a. Sickle cell anemia b. Cystic fibrosis c. Hypophosphatemia rickets d. G6PD deficiency
-
307. G6PD deficiency is genetically :
a. X-linked b. Autosomal recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Polygenic
-
308. Not an X-linked disease:
a. Color blindness b. G6PD deficiency c. Hemophilia A d. β-thalassemia
-
309.s Drug of choice for tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is:
- a. Chlorquine b. Montelukast c. Salbitamol d. Diethylcarbamazine
- 310. Not a feature of TPE:
- a. Bilateral chest mottling b. Wheezing c. Wuchereria bancrofti infestation d. Eosinophilia >3000
-
311. Ranson criterion isused in:
a. Gallstone ileus b. Acute appendicitis c Acute choledicitis c. Acute cholecystitis d. Acute pancreatitis
-
312. Not included in the Ranson criteria for the prognosis of acute pancreatitis:
a. Serum amylase>350 IU b. AST >250 IU/L c. Age >55Years d. WBC >16,000 cells/mm
-
313.Not a prognostic marker is acute pancreatitis:
a. Hypocalcemia b. Increased LDH c. Leukocytosis d. Decreased serum lipase
-
314. Acute pancreatitis cannot occur in:
a. Hyppocalcemia b. Alcoholism c. Hereditary pancreatitis d. Hypercalcemia
-
315. Not a cause of acute pancreatitis:
a. Hyperclacemia b. Hemochromatosis c. Gallstone d. Alcohol
-
316. Causes of pancreatitis are all the following except:
a. Cystic fibrosis b. Chronic alcoholism c. Hypocalcemia d. CBD stone
-
317.Organism which causes pancreatitis:
a. Measles b. Mumps c. Influenza d. Herpes
-
318. All are false regarding Klinefelter’s syndrome except:
a. Subnormal intelligence b. Subluxation of lens c. Cataract d. Short stature
-
319. Not a clinical feature of Klinefelter’s syndrome:
a. Oligospermia b. Gynecomastia c. diabetes mellitus d. 47 XXY
-
320. In klinefelter’s syndomre , the chromosomal pattern is:
a. XXY b. XXX c. XO d. Any of the above
-
321. Translocation from 8 to 14 is seen in:
a. Retinoblastoma b. Ewing’s sarcoma c. Burkitt’s lymphoma d. All
-
322. Neisseria infection is characteristic of deficiency of;
a. C2 b. C4 c. C5 d. C3
-
323. Severe cyanosis with left axis deviation is seen in:
a. Tetralogy of fallot b. Malpositioning of heart c. Ebstein’s anomaly d. Tricuspid atresia
-
324. Cyanosis with left ventricular hypertrophy is caused by:
a. TGV b. Eisemenger complex c. Tricuspid atresia d . Tetralogy of Fallot
-
325. ‘possibility’ of right axis deviation is found in all except:
a. Tetralogy of fallot b. Tricuspid atresia c. Ventricular septal defect d. Atrial septal defect
-
326. False regarding tricuspid atresia is:
- a. Decreased pulmonary blood supply is seen inn PA view of CXR:
- b. Decreased pulmonary blood supply is seen in PA view of CXR b. Right ventricular hypoplasia
- c. Fixed split S2 d. Left axis deviation
-
327. Major criteria for AIDS does not includes:
a. Weight loss>10% b. Persistent diarrhea c. Persistent cough d. Persistent fever
-
328. Diameter of normal mitral valve orifice is:
a. 6-8 cm b. 4-6cm c. 1 cm d. 2-4 cm
-
329. Left ventricular dysfunction is seen in:
a. Aortic regurgitation b. Aortic stenosis c. Mitral regurgitation d. mitral stenosis
-
330.Left ventricular hypertrophy is not seen in:
a. MS b. AS c. Aortic incompetence d. Essential hypertension
-
331.s Lung carcinoma with worst prognosis is:
a. Large cell carcinoma b. Small cell carcinoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Epidermoid
-
332.False regarding Gaucher’s disease is:
a. Hepatomegaly b. Autosomal dominant inheritance c. no neurological symptoms in adult form d. β-glucosidase deficiency
-
333. False regarding Kawassaki’s disease is:
a. Generally benign and self limiting b. Coronary artery aneurysm c. Occurs >5 years of age d. Fever
-
334. Not a characteristic feature of Kawasaki’s disease :
a. Desquamation of skin of finger and toes b. Cervical lymphadenopathy c. Thrombocytopenia d. Conjunctival effusion
-
335. Not a feature of Kawasaki’s disease:
a. Desquamation of skin of finger and toes b. Coronary artery aneurysm c. thrombocytopenia d. Conjunctival effusion
-
336. Kawasaki’s disease is treated with:
a. .Chemotherapy b. IV glucocorticoids c. Oral glucocorticoids d. Immunotherapy
-
337.Sudden pain in thyroid nodule indicates:
a. Malignant change b. Hemorrhage c. Infarction d. Necrosis
-
338.Kussmaul’s breathing is due to presence of:
a. Bicarbonate b. H+ ions(acidosis) c. Chloride ions d. k+ ions
-
339.Kussmaul’s breathing is seen in:
a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Respiratory acidosis
-
340. Initial treatment of shy-drager syndrome is:
a. β-blockers b. Prazosin c. Fludrocortisone d. None of the above
-
341. Cardiomyopathy is seen in;
a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Holt-Oram syndrome c. Friedreich’s ataxia d. Refsum’s disease
-
342. Most common cardiac anomaly in Friedreich’s ataxia is:
a. Cardiomyopathy b. Conduction defect c. Mitral stenosis d. Patent ductus arteriosus
-
343. Bilateral absent ankle jerk with extensor planter reflex is seen in:
a. Ataxia telangiectasia b. Syringomyelia c. Upper motor neuron lesion d. Friedreich’s ataxia
-
344.Tutubation is characteristic of lesion in:
a. Basal ganglia b. Motor cortex c. Cerebellum d. ARAS
-
345.Hallmark of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is:
a. Short QT interval b. Prolonged QT interval c. Short PR interval d. Prolonged PR interval
-
346. Torsades de pointes are seen in:
a. Metabolic acidosis b. Hypomagnesemia/hypokalemia c. Hypermagnesemia d. Metabolic alkalosis
-
347. In Torsades de points are seen in:
a. Short QT interval b. Short QRS interval c. Prolonged QT interval d. Prolonged QRS interval
-
348. Not a blood borne disease:
a. Hepatitis E b. Hepatitis D c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis B
-
349. False regarding hepatitis E is:
a. No carrier state b. High mortality in pregnant women c. May produce chronic hepatic disease d. Fecal-oral transmission
-
350.Most common route of spread in hepatitis E is:
a. IV injection b. Intercourse c. Fecal oral d. Blood transfusion
-
351. Most dangerous hepatitis in pregnancy is:
a. Hepatitis E b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis A d. Hepatitis B
-
352.True regarding hepatitis E is:
- a. Seen in post-transfusion cases b. Increases mortality in pregnancy
- c. Alpha interferon given for carries d. Associated with hepatitis B
-
353. Dane particle pertains to:
a. HAV b. HNAB c. HBV d. None
-
354. Best means of giving hepatitis B vaccine is:
a. Subcutaneous b. Intradermal c. Intramuscular gluteal d. Intramuscular deltoid
-
355. Incubation period of hepatitis B is:
a. 4 weeks to 6 months b. 6 days to 6 weeks c. 6 months to 6 years d. >6 years
-
356. Korsakoff’s psychosis is due to involvement of:
a. Nondominant cerebral hemispheres b. Dominant hemispheres c. Both A and B d. Either of temporal lobe
-
357. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in all the following except:
a. Crigler-Najjar syndrome b. Dubin-Johnson syndrome c. Breast milk jaundice d. Gilbert’s syndrome
-
358. Most severe hyperbilirubinemia occurs in:
a. Dubin-Johnson syndrome b. Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I c. Crigler- Najjar syndrome type II d. Gilbert’s syndrome
-
359. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in:
a. Hemophilia b. Huntington’s chorea c. Hunter’s syndrome d. Hurler’s syndrome
-
360. Disorder genetically transmitted by single autosomal dominant gene is:
a. Huntington’s disease b. CJD c. PKU d. Catatonic schizophrenia
-
361. Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign is seen in:
a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Hypoparathyroidism c. Hyperthyroidism d. Hypothyroidism
-
362.HLA matching is not necessary in which of the following organ transplantation:
a. Liver b. Bone marrow c. pancreas d. Kidney
-
363. Lyme disease is caused by:
a. Borrelia burgdorferi b. Borrelia falciparum c. Borrelia turicatae d. borrelia recurrentis
-
364. All the following diseases are transmitted by flea bites except:
a. Plague b. Murine typhus c. Chiggerosis d. Lyme disease
-
365. In temporal lobe epilepsy treatment is:
a. Ethosuximide b. Carbamazepine c. Clobazam d. Valporic acid
-
366.Chronic Inflammatory bowel disease is associated with which of the following:
a. Primary sclerosing cholangitis b. Cholangiosarcoma c. Fibrosis d. Chronic hepatitis
-
367. Ulcerative colitis is not accompanied by:
a. Interstitial nephritis b. Pyoderma gangrenosum c. Iridis d. Arthritis
-
368. In diabetes mellitus ‘hypoglycemia unawareness’ is due to :
a. necrobiosis lipoidica b. Insulin resistance c. Diabetic neuropathy d. Switch over insulin to oral drugs
-
369. hypoglycemia unawareness in diabetes mellitus is because of:
a. Lipodystrophy b. Insulin resistance c. Autonomic neuropathy d. switch over insulin to oral hypoglycemic drugs
-
370. Insulin resistance is due to:
- a. IgD b. IgA c. IgG d. IgM
- 371. Weight loss is seen in:
- a. Hypothyridism b. Insulin secreting tumor c. Pheochromocytoma d. Cushing syndrome
-
372.Not a characteristic feature of Turner’s syndrome :
a. polycystic kidney b. Short neck c. Coarctation of aorta d. Ovarian dysgenesis
-
373. 45, Chromosomal anomaly, short stature and genital infantilism are seen in:
a. Gonadal agenesis b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. Down’s syndrome d. Turner’s syndrome
-
374.HbA 1 is :
- a. A result of enzymatic degradation of glucose b. Indicative of level of glucose in diabetic patient
- c. Mutant of hemoglobin d. Absent in normal people
-
375. Significance of glycosylated hemoglobin is:
a. Useful in fetal damage b. Indicates abnormal hemoglobin c. Long-term measurement of blood sugar d. Useful in fetal lung maturity
-
376. Glycosylated hemoglobin which indicates good control of diabetes is:
a. 8% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%
-
377. Increased cardiac silhouette is not seen in:
a. CHF b. Pericardial effusion c. Multi-valvular rheumatic heart disease d. Uncomplicated tetralogy of Fallot
-
378. Boot shaped heart with pulmonary oligemia is seen in:
a. TGA b. TOF c. ASD d. PDA
-
379. Drug essential in sheehan’s syndrome is:
a. gonadotropins b. Cortisone c. Thyroxin d. Estrogen
-
380.Poor prognostic factor in scleroderma is:
a. Telangiectasia b. Dysphagia c. Renal involvement d. Cutaneous calcification
-
381. Virus implicated in hepatocellular carcinoma is:
a. HCV b. HEV c. HDV d . HAV
-
382.Most common predisposing factor for hepatocellular carcinoma in india is:
a. Mixed micronodular cirrhosis b. Hepatitis B c. non A, Non B hepatitis d. Alcoholic cirrhosis
-
383. Small intestine biopsy is diagnostic in:
a. Whipple’s disease b. Tropical sprue c. Hirschsprung’s disease d. Amyloidosis
-
384. Electrical alternans in ECG Is seen in:
a. Dilated cardiomyopathy b. Pericardial effusion c. Hypertrophiuc cardiomyopathy d. Hypertension
-
385. Electrical alternans is seen in:
a. COPD b. Left atrial myxoma c. Restrictive cardiomyopathy d. Cardiac tamponade
-
386. Most common age of presentation of gastric ulcer is:
a. 6th decade of life b. 3rd decade of life c. 4th decade of life d. 5th decade of life
-
387. Most common cardiac manifestation of sarcoidosis is:
a. PAT b. Atrial fibrillation c. Heart block d. Cor pulmonale
-
388.Romberg’s sign indicates dysfunction of:
a. Cerebellum b. Sensory cortex c. Lateral spinothalamic tracs d. Anteiror column
-
389. HLA B-27 is not associated with:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Psoriatic arthritis c. Reiter’s syndrome d. Ankylosing spondylitis
-
390. HLA B -27 is not associated with:
a. Psoriatic arthritis b. Behcet’s syndrome c. Ankylosing spondylitis d. Reiter’s disease
-
391. Ankylosing spondyltis is associated with:
a. HLA B-27 b. HLA DR-4 c. HLA B-8 d. HLA A -3
-
392. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with:
a. DR -2 b. DR-3 c. DR-4 d. DR-5 e. HLA B-27
-
393. Palatal myoclonus is seen in:
a. Guillain-Barre syndrome b. Cerebellar infarction c. Multiple sclerosis d. Epilepsy
-
394. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopthy is caused by:
a. HHV-8 b. Parvovirus c. JC virus d. Hanta virus
-
395.Malarial relapse is due to:
A Trophozoites b. Merozoites c. Hypnozoites d. Sporozoites
-
396. Not seen in Dressler’s syndrome:
a. Usually in 1st or subsequent week after infarction b. Ventricular tachycardia c. Fever d. Pericarditis
-
397. Herpes –Zoster most commonly affects:
a. Spinal cord medulla b. Dorsal root ganglia c. Sympathetic ganglia d. Anterior horn cells
-
398. Zoster recurrence occurs after infection with:
a. Smallpox b. HSV 1 c. Varicella d. HSV 2
-
399. Sezary syndrome is:
a. Locke’s disease b. merck’s disease c. T-cell lymphoma d. B-cell lymphoma
-
400. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is:
a. Rectosigmoid junction tear b. Duodenojejunal junction tear c. Gastroesophageal junction tear d. Gastroduodenal junction tear
-
401. In phenothiazines induced dystonia the drug of choice is:
- a. Metoclopramide b. Diphenhydramine c. Pimoxide d. Trifluoperazine
- 402. Metabolic alkalosis is not seen in:
- a. Cushing disease b. Ureterosigmoidostomy c. Prolonged vomiting d. Thiazide diuretic
-
403. Toxoplasmosis in pregnancy Is treated with:
a. Nifurtimox b. Pyrimethamine c. spiramycin d. Suramin
-
404. Drug of choice for ocular toxoplasmosis is:
a. Riboflavin b. Ganciclovir c. Tetracycline d. Pyrimethamine
-
405. In what percentage of patients with anorexia nervosa, amenorrhea is present:
a. 100% b. 50% c. 25% d. 80%
-
406. Not a feature of anorexia nervosa:
a. Avoidance of high caloric foods b. Amenorrhea is rare c. loss of weight at time of presentation d. Predominantly seen in females
-
407. Drug of choice in anorexia nervosa is:
a. FLuoxetine b. Phenytoin c. Haloperidol d. Cyproheptadine
-
408. Sturge-Weber syndrome is associated with:
a. Hemangiosarcoma b. Lymphagioma c. Cavernous hemangioma d. Port-wine stain
-
409. False regarding Sturge-Weber syndrome is:
a. Focal seizure on same side b. Capillary hemangioma c. Sensory motor paralysis d. Cerebral cortex atrophy
-
410. All of the following are anterior mediastinal masses except:
a. Thymomas b. Teratoma c. Thyroid masses d. Gastroenteric cysts
-
411. Most common anterior mediastinum tumor is:
a. Vascular cyst b. Neurogenic tumor c. Thymoma d. Lymphoma
-
412. Not an anterior mediastinal tumor:
a.Teratoma b. Lymphoma c. Neurofibroama d. Thymoma
-
413. Not a middle mediastinal mass:
a. Pleuropericardial cyst b. Gastroenteric cyst c. Bronchogenic cyst d. Vascular masses
-
414. Most common lesion of middle mediastinum is:
a. Neurogneic tumor b. Aneurysm c. Congenital cyst d. Germ cell tumor
-
415. Most common tumor of posterior mediastinum:
a. Teratoma b. Neurogenic c. Lymphoma d. Thymoma
-
416. Most common tumor of posterior mediastinum is:
a. Cyst b. Lymphoma c. Neurofibroma d. Thymoma
-
417.Inherited disorder of metabolism is:
a. Patau’s syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Maple syrup urine disease d. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
-
418. not associated with microcytic hypochromic anemia:
a. liver disease b. Thalassemia c. Pyridoxine deficiency d. ARF
-
419. Most common cause of death in acute poliomyelitis is:
a. Intercostal muscle paralysis b. Respiratory failure c. Convulsions d. cardiac arrest
-
420. Most common presentation of craniopharyngioma is:
a. Cardiac disturbance b. Endocrinal disturbance c. Visual complaints d. Nausea and vomiting
-
421. Most common clinical feature of craniopharyngioma is:
a. Headache b. Convulsions c. Field defect d. Optic atrophy
-
422. Not a clinical feature of Eaton-Lambert syndrome:
a. Associated with lung carcinoma b. Female predominant c. Affect pelvic muscle first d. Proximal muscle weakness
-
423. Nephrocalcinosis is seen in all except:
a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Vitamin D intoxication c. Medullary sponge kidney d. Cystic disease of kidney
-
424. False regarding hemolytic uremic syndrome is:
a. Positive coombs test b. Thrombocytopenia c. Hypofibrinogenemia d. Uremia
-
425. Not seen in hemolytic uremic syndrome
a. Coombs test positive b. Burr cells c. Thrombocytopenia d. Uremia
-
426.Not a feature of hemolytic uremic syndrome:
a. Purpura b. Thrombocytopenia c. Liver cell abnormality d. Encephalopathy
-
427. Not a feature of hemolytic uremic syndrome:
a. Segmented RBCs in Peripheral blood smear b. Thrombocytosis c.. Hematuria d. Uremia
-
428. Characteristic finding in peripheral blood smear of a patient of hemolytic uremic syndrome is:
a. Burr cells with fragmented RBCs b. Punctate basophilia c. ANisopoikilocytosis d. Burr cells
-
429. Minimum Pericardial fluid is best detected by:
a. Echocardiography b. ECG c. CT d. CXR
-
430. Most common site for amebiasis is :
a. Hepatic flexure b. Cecum c. Sigmoid colon d. Transverse colon
-
431. Most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is:
a. Ectopic ACTH b. Latrogneic steroids c. Pituitary adenoma d. Motor neuron disease
-
432.Fasciculations are seen in:
a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. Polymyositis c. Poliomyelitis d. Motor neuron disease
-
433. Motor neuron disease is characterized by:
a. Sensory loss b. rigidity c. Fasciculation d. focal seizure
-
434. all are paraneoplastic syndrome except:
- a. Cerebellar degeneration b. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis d.
- opsoclonus myoclonus
-
435. In cryptococcal meningitis the drug of choice is:
a. Zidovudine b. Clotrimazole c. Amphotericin B d. Pentostatin
-
436.Whihc of the following is not a feature of digitalis toxicity :
a. Xanthopsia b. Parozysmal atrial tachycardia c. ST depression d. Nausea
-
437. Not used in treatment of digitalis toxicity:
a. Lignocaine b. Fab paricle c. Atropine d. Peritoneal dialysis
-
438.Treatment of digoxin overdose does not include:
a. Hemodialysis b. Phenytoin c. Potassium d. Lignocaine
-
439. Lignocaine is not used in:
a. Digoxin toxicity b. AF c. Local anesthetics d. Ventricular tachycardia
-
440. Not a disease modifying antirheumatoid drug (DMARD):
a. Bal b. Gold c. Penicillamine d. Chloroquine
-
441. Gold salt can be used in:
a. Behcet’s syndrome b. Osteoarthritis c. Early progressive rheumatoid arthritis d. Ankylosing spondylitis
-
442.Not a disease modifying antirheumatic drug:
a. Glucocorticoids b. Sulfasalazine c. Methotrexate d. Antimalarials
-
443. In rheumatoid arthritis gold and penicillamine are used because:
- a. Not modifying drugs b. Decreasing severity and progression of disease on long-term use
- c. Useful in acute arthritis d. They bring about immediate relief
-
444. A patient has polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty and pigmentation, most likely
- diagnosis is:
- a. Systemic lupus erythematous b. Klinefelter’s syndrome c. McCune –Albright syndrome d. Tuberous sclerosis
-
445.A patient has seizures with mental retardation and sebaceous adenoma. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Down syndrome b. Toxoplasmosis c. Tuberous sclerosis d. Hypothyroid
-
446. Not seen in tuberous sclerosis:
a. Renal cortical cyst b. Heart and lung rhabdomyosarcoma c. Adenoma sebaceum d. Iris nodules
-
447. Aspirin sensitive asthma is associated with:
a. Extrinsic asthma b. Nasal polyp c. Associated with urticaria d. Obesity
-
448. In prinzmetal’s angina, the drug of choice is:
a. Verapamil b. Propranolol c. Diltiazem d. Nitrates
-
449. drug not much useful in prinzmetal’s angina is:
a. Calcium channel blocker b. Propanolol c. Nifedipine d. Nitroglycerin
-
450.s Hyperparathyroidism is most commonly caused by:
a. Ectopic PTH production b. adrenal hyperplasia c. Solitary adenoma d. Multiple parathyroidism adenoma
-
451.Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism, :
a. Werner’s syndrome b. Multiple adenoma c. Chief cell hyperplasia d. Solitary adenoma
-
452. Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is:
a. parathyroid carcinoma b. Parathyroid adenoma c. Chronic renal disease d. Hyperplasia of parathyroid glands
-
453. Retinopathy in diabetes mellitus depends upon:
a. Duration of disease b. Age of patient c. Blood sugar level d. Severity of disease
-
454. Tumor metastasis spread through CSF is:
a. Craniopharyngioma b. Glioblastoma c. Medulloblastoma d. Ependymoma
-
455. Brain tumor associated with CSF invasion is:
a. Oligodendroglioma b. Glioblastoma c. Medulloblastoma d. Ependymoma
-
456. Craniospinal irradiation is useful in which of the following conditions:
a. Astrocytoma b. Oligodendroglioma c. Medulloblastoma d. Oncocytoma
-
457. Sickle cell anemia Is due to:
a. Point mutation b. Translocation c. Trisomy d. Monosomy
-
458. Most common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia is;
a. Salmonella b. Staphylococci c. Pseudomonas d. Escherichia coli
-
459. most common tumor to metastasize in heart is:
a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. Renal cell carcinoma c. Bronchogenic carcinoma d. Malignant melanoma
-
460. In SABE diagnosis is made by:
a. Anti streptolysin b. ASLO titer c. Anti DNAase d. Serial blood culture
-
461. In anemia of chronic disease there is:
- a. Raised serum iron b. Low serum ferritin c. Low TIBC d. Low HBA
- 462.Prominent ‘V’ wave in JVP suggests:
- a. Mitral stenosis b. Pulmonary hypertension c. Tricuspid regurgitation d. Pulmonary stenosis
-
463. Bromocriptine is used to treat:
a. Myxedema b. parkinsonism c. Medullary carcinoma thyroid d. Obesity
-
464.Bromocriptine is not useful in:
a. Infertility b. endogenous depression c. Acromegaly d. Parkinsonism
-
465. Osteitis fibrosa cystica is seen in:
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypothroidism c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Hypoparathyroidism
-
466. Acute aortic regurgitation is not seen in:
a. Trauma b. Acute myocardial infarction c. Infective endocarditis d. Aortic dissection
-
467.s A 25 year old basket ball player has height of 188cm and arm span 197 am weight 76kg and blood pressure 140/60mmHg . Auscultation revels long diastolic murmurs at 3rd ICS. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Coarctation of aorta b. Ebstein’s anomaly c. Aortic stenosis d. Aortic regurgitation
-
468. Aortic regurgitation is not seen in:
a. Acute MI b. Infective endocarditis c. Rheumatic heart disease d. Marfan’s syndrome
-
469. Aortic regurgitation is not seen in:
a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Bacterial endocarditis c. Acute myocardial infarction d. Marfan’s syndrome
-
470. A 60 year old man presented with soft tissue tumor, vertebral collapse, bony pain and rib erosion. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Diabetic nephropathy b. Malignant hypertension c. Diabetic neuropathy d. Multiple myeloma
-
471. In multiple myeloma best indicator of prognosis is:
a. Serum alkaline phosphate b. Number of plasma cells in marrow c. Serum β microglobulin d. Serum level of CA++
-
472. best marker for prognosis of multiple myeloma is:
a. β1 microglobulin b. β2 microglobulin c. Serum Ca++ d. Bone marrow plasma cells
-
473. Serum alkaline phosphate is not raised in:
a. Hyperparathyroidism b. osteomalaica c. Paget’s disease d. Multiple myeloma
-
474. False regarding multiple myeloma is:
a. Increased alkaline phosphatase b. Casts c. Increased uric acid d. Multiple myeloma
-
475. In which of the following condition Ý glutamyl transpeeptidase is elevated:
a. Secondaries in liver b. Alcoholic liver disease c. Viral disease d. Liver disease
-
476. Specific enzyme elevated in alcoholism is:
- a. Gamma glutamyl transferase b. Alkaline phosphate c. AST d. ALT
- 477. Alcoholism enzyme elevated in alcoholism is:
- a. GGT b. Macrocytosis c. SGOT d. SGPT
-
478. Angina pectoris and syncope are most likely to be associated with:
a. Tricuspid stenosis b. Aortic regurgitation c. Mitral stenosis d. Aortic stenosis
-
479. Recurrent chest pain and syncope is commonly seen in:
a. Mitral stenosis b. Aortic regurgitation c. MVP d. Aortic stenosis
-
480. Sudden death is common in:
a. patent ductus arteriosus b. Aortic stenosis c. Mitral stenosis d. Arterial VSD
-
481.Not a feature of Behchet’s syndrome:
a. Common in youngsters b. Seen only in tropics c. Multisystem
-
482. In Behcet’s syndrome:
- a. There is a strong association with HLAB-5 b. There may be recurrent deep venous thrombosis
- c. The skin may be hyperatice to minor injury d. All of the above
-
483. which of the following is a feature o behcet’s syndrome:
- a. A strong association with HLAB-5 b. Recurrent deep venous thrombosis
- c. skin may be hyperactive d. All of the above
-
484. Hemiplegia is commonly associated with infarction of area of distribution in… artery:
a. Anterior communicating artery b. posterior cerebral artery c. Middle cerebral artery d. Anterior cerebral artery
-
485. Normal portal venous pressure is:
a. 20-26 b. 22-25 c. 8-12 d. 3-5
-
486. Characteristic feature of frontal lobe tumor is:
a. Antisocial behavior b. Distractibility c. Abnormal gait d. Aphasia
-
487. Frontal lobe lesion causes:
a. Side determination b. Visual defect c. Urinary incontinence d. Personality change
-
488. most common manifestation of osteoporosis is:
a. loss of weight b. Bowing of legs c. Backache d. Compression fracture of spine
-
489. In thyrotoxicosis β blockers do not control:
a. Oxygen consumption b. Tachycardia c. Anxiety d. Tremors
-
490. Marker of acute hepatitis B is:
a. HBeAg b. HBcAG c. HBsAg d. IgM anti HBc
-
491. Acute infection of hepatitis B virus is characterized by:
a. anti HBeAg b. IgM anti-HBC +HBsAg c. Anti HBsAg d. HBsAg
-
492. A donor for blood transfusion is screned for hepatitis B. All are safe except:
a. anti HBeeAg positive b. HBsAg + IgM anti- HBc positive c. anti HBsAg + HBeAg d. anti HbsAg positive
-
493.Hepatitis B infectivity is indicated by:
a. HbeAg _anti HBsAg b. HBsAg +HbeAg c. Anti HBcAG + Anti HbeAg d. HbeAg +Anti HBcAg
-
494. ‘a’ wave inJVP is absent in:
a. Sick sinus syndrome b. Tricuspid atresia c. Atrial fibrillation d. Mitral stenosis
-
495. not a feature of Marfan’s syndrome:
a. high arched foot b. High palate c. Arachnodactyly d. short stature
-
496.not a clinical feature of Marfan’s syndrome:
a. Aortic regurgitation b. Genu valgum c. Ectopia lentis d. Hyperelasticity of joints
-
497. Gas gangrene is most commonly due to:
a. clostridium tetani b. Clostridium welchii c. Clostridium difficile d. Clostridium botulinum
-
498.Food poisoning is caused by all except:
a. Bacillus anthrax b. Shigella c. Escherichia coli d. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
-
499. Food poisoning with incubation period of less than 6 hours and which is not fatal is:
a. Salmonella b. Shigella c. Vibrio cholera d. bacillus
-
500. dose of mercaptopurine requires reduction with:
a. Allopurinol b. Thiazide c. Spironolactone d. Methotrexate
-
501. Most common enzyme deficiency is:
a. G6PD b. glucose 1, 6 diphosphatase c. Hexokinase d. Glucose -6-Phosphatase
-
502.Hemophilia is associated with all except:
a. Males more commonly affected b. Increased PT c. Increased aPTT d. X-linked recessive
-
503. Not a feature of hemophilia :
a. Decreased factor VIII level b. Bleeding into tissue and joints c. Increased aPTT d. Increased PT
-
504. Not a characteristic feature of hemophilia A:
a. Prolonged prothrombin VIII level b. Prolonged into thromboplastin time c. Low factor VIII level d. Bleeding into soft tissue, muscle and joints
-
505. Least likely cause of a prolonged bleeding time is:
a. Scurvy b. Hemophilia A c. Von Willebrand’s disease d. Thrombocytopenia
-
506.s A patient presented with ecchymoses and petechiae all over body with increased bleeding time and normal clotting time. All of the following points to the diagnosis except:
a. Decreased platelet in blood b. Bleeding into the joints and muscle c. Hypersplenism d. Increased megakaryocytes in marrow
-
507. Acute bronchiotitis is most commonly caused by:
a. Mycoplasma b . Parainfluenza type III c. RSV d. Adenovirus
-
508. For diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever, the essential feature is;
a. Erythema marginatum b. One major and two minor Jones’ criteria c. Recent sore throat infection d. Prior history f rheumatic fever
-
509. Most common cause of mediastinitis is:
a. idiopathic b. drugs c. Esophageal rupture d. Tracheal rupture
-
510. Not a malignant tumor:
a. Ependymoma b. Hemangioblastoma c. Astrocytoma d. Glioma
-
511. Coarctation of aorta is not associated with:
a. PDA b. Renal artery stenosis c. Turner syndrome d. Bicuspid aortic valve
-
512. Not a feature of coarctation of aorta:
a. Right ventricular failure b. Infective endocarditis c. Bicuspid aortic valve d. Cerebral aneurysm
-
513. In mitral stenosis:
a. QRS are widened b. Left axis deviation c. Left ventricular hypertrophy d. Right ventricular hypertrophy
-
514. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and noncaseating granuloma is seen in:
a. Stein leventhal syndrome b. Systemic lupus erythmatosus c. Sarcoidosis d. Scleroderma
-
515. Spinal segment in knee jerk is:
a. L1 b. L3 c. L4 d. B and C
-
516. Adult polycystic kidney is:
a. X-linked dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. X-linked recessive
-
517. In adult polycystic kidney, all are true except:
a. Cysts are seen in the liver, lung and the pancreas b. Hematuria occurs c. Hypertension is rare d. Autosomal dominant transmission is seen
-
518.Not a manifestation of polycystic kidney:
a. Hematuria b. Renal failure c. Acute retention d. Renal hypertension
-
519. False regarding clozapine is:
a. Extrapyramidal side effect b. agranulocytosis c. Precipitates seizure d. Used in schizophrenia
-
520. Most common cause of amebic lung abscess is:
a. Hematogenous spread from gut b. Hematogenous spread from liver c. Direct spread from liver d. Aspiration
-
521. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is not seen in:
a. Mycoplasma pneumonia b. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma c. α methyldopa therapy d. Systemic lupus erythmatous
-
522. Cold antibodies are seen in all except:
a. Syphilis b. Mycoplasma c. infectious mononucleosis d. Lymphoma
-
523.Donath-Landsteiner antibody is seen in which of the following conditions:
a. PNH b. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria c. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia d. Systemic lupus erythmatosus
-
524. Hyperprolactinemia is caused by all except:
a. Metoclopramide b. bromocriptine c. Methyldopa d. phenothiazines
-
525. Budd-Chiari syndrome is due to:
a. IVC obstruction . Congenital portal hypertension c. Acute portal hypertension d. hepatic vein obstruction
-
526. Most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome is:
a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Valve in hepatic vein
-
527. Budd- chiari syndrome is not caused by:
a. Oral contraceptive b. PNH c. dilantin d. Polycythemia
-
528. False regarding Budd-Chiari syndrome:
a. Seen in hypercoagulable states b. Ascites is minimal c. liver transplantation may be required d. It is due to obstruction of hepatic venous outflow secondary to spontaneous thrombosis of hepatic veins
-
529. Drug not used in anthrax is:
a. Tetracycline b. Erythromycin c. Gentamicin d. Ciprofloxacin e. Penicilllin
-
530. Drug of choice for anthrax is:
a. Erythromycn b. streptomycin c. Penicillin d. Tetracycline
-
531. Cysticercosis in brain is caused by:
a. Schistosoma mansoni b. Echinococcus c. Taenia solium d. Taenia saginata
-
532. Graham steel murmur is heard in:
a. aortic incompetence b. Aortic stenosis c. pulmonary incompetence d. Tricuspid stenosis
-
533. Austin flint murmur is seen in:
a. Mitral regurgitation b. Aortic regurgitation c. Tricuspid stenosis d. Pulmonary regurgitation
-
534. Murmur in Eisenmenger’s complex is:
a. Graham steel murmur b. Austin flint murmur c. Carey –Coombs murmur d. none
-
535. Not included in treatment of Helicobacter pylori:
- a. Cisapride b. Omeprazole c. Clarithromycin d. Metronidazole
- 536. drug not effective against Helicobacter pylori is:
- a. Erythromycin b. amoxicillin c. Metronidazole d. Colloidal bismuth
-
537. Which of the following drug is not used to eradicate Helicobacter pylori:
a. Bismuth b. Ranitidine c. Tetracycline d. metronidazole
-
538.s Not used for diagonosing Helocobacter pylori is:
a. SAFA test b. Gastric biopsy c. Rapid urease test d. Urea breath test
-
539. Correct statement regarding regarding Helicobacter pylori is:
- a. It invades the gastric mucosa b. serology differentiates between active and remote infection
- c. Indirect transmission d. Rapid urease test of gastric biopsy is diagnostic
-
540. Regimen used for eradication of Helicobacter pylori gastritis is:
- a. Metronidazole + bismuth +ranitidine b. Amoxycilllin +Omeprazole + clarithromycin
- c. CLarithromycin + ranitidine + metronidazole d. Ampicillin+ omeprazole + tinidazole
-
541.Not caused by Helicobacter pylori:
a. Fundal gastritis b. Gastric lymphoma c. Gastric ulcer d. Duodenal ulcer
-
542. Drug not used in management of acute attack of asthma is:
a. Sodium cromoglycate b. Inhaled salbutamol c. Injection hydrocortisone d. Subcutaneous adrenaline
-
543.All of the following are useful for treating acute bronchial asthma in children except:
a. 100% oxygen b. IV hydrocortisone c. Nebulization with salbutamol liquid d. Sodium cromoglycate inhalation
-
544. Smoking is not associated with malignancies of:
a. pancreas b. Kidney c. Liver d. Bladder
-
545. Smoking predisposes to all except:
a. Lymphoma b. carcinoma pancreas c. Larynx carcinoma d. Bladder carcinoma
-
546. Upper motor neuron lesion cause:
a. Localized muscle atrophy b. Rigidity c. Fasciculation d. Weakness and spasticity
-
547. Myotonic dystrophy gene iscoded at chromosome:
a. 24 b. 21 c. 19 d. 20S
-
548. Not seen in Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome:
a. Polydactyly b. Obesity c. Retinal detachment d. Retinitis pigmentosa e. hypogonadism
-
549.s Dethylcarbamazine citrate acts on:
a. Adult filarial parasite b. Microfilariae and kills them c. Does not allow multiplication of adult forms d. Paralyze adult worms
-
550. Hand-foot and mouth disease is caused by:
- a. Coxsackievirus A 16 b. CMV c. enterovirus d. Arbovirus
- 551. Hand-foot syndrome is seen in:
- a. sickle cell disease b. Thalassemia major c. ALL d. Fanconi’s anemia
-
552. Not a bactericidal drug:
a. Penicillins b. Cephalosporine c. Sulfonamides d. Quinolones
-
553.IgA induced vasculitis is seen in:
a. Glomerulonephritis b. Henoch-Scholein purpura c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
-
554. Digitalis is contraindicated in cardiac failure caused by following:
a. Valvular heart disease b. Myocardial infarction c. Thyrotoxicosis d. anemia
-
555. True regarding right ventricular infarction:
a. Volume expanders b. Digoxin c. Diuretics d . Pacing
-
556.s Acute right ventricular infarct is treated with:
a. IV fluids b. Diuretics c. Vasodilators d. Digoxin
-
557. Ascarbose used in diabetes mellitus acts by:
- a. Increasing secretion of insulin b. Increases sensitive of tissue to insulin
- c. Reduces blood glucose levels d. Reduces absorption of glucose from the gut wall
-
558. Prosopagnosia is:
a. Inability to speak b. Inability to read c. Inability to identify faces d. Inability to write
-
559. Hepatic encephalopathy is not precipitated by:
a. Superimposed acute liver disease b. GI bleeding c. barbiturates d. Hyperkalemia
-
560. Acute hepatocellular feature is most likely to be precipitated by:
a. Oral lactulose b. Upper GI bleeding c. Large carbohydrate meal d. Large IV albumin infusion
-
561. most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
a . Trauma b. Berry aneurysm c. AV malformation d. Hypertension
-
562. A 25 year old man develops sudden headache with loss of consciousness. CSF is blood stained most likely diagnosis is:
a. Encephalopathy b. Embolic stroke c. Thrombotic CVA d. Ruptured cerebral aneurysm
-
563. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is caused by:
a. Dural sinuses b. Venae comitantes of corpus striatum c. Rupture of vertebral artery aneurysm d . Rupture of circle of willis aneurysm
-
564. LVH is seen in:
a. Carcinoid syndrome b. Aortic regurgitation c. ASD with fossa ovalis d. pure mitral stenosis
-
565. Primaquine causes hemolysis in:
- a. G6PD deficiency b. Malaria c. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency d. NADP deficiency
- 566. Splenectomy is most useful in:
- a. Sickle cell anemia b. Henoch-Schonlein purpura c. Hereditary spherocytosis d. Thrombocytopenia
-
567. In PSVT the drug of choice is:
a. Adenosine b. lignocaine c. Quinidine d. Amiodarone
-
568. Hypoglycemia is seen in:
a. Acromegaly b. Cushing’s syndrome c. Hypothyroidism d. Hypopituitarism
-
569. False regarding chronic bronchitis is:
a. Hemoptysis b. >2 consecutive years c. Productive cough d. Cough for 3 months
-
570. nasal allergy is most often due to:
a. Automobile dust b. Pollen grains c. animal dust d. House dust
-
571. loud s3 is a feature of :
a. Severe MR b. Mitral stenosis c. ASD d. Old age
-
572. Most common cause of organic amnestic syndrome is:
a. Vitmain deficiency b. Hypoxia c. Alzheimer’s disease d.. Concussion
-
573. Chemical transmitter in REM sleep is:
a. Acetylcholine b. Serotonin c. GABA d. Dopamine
-
574. Leigonnaires’ disease causes:
a. Acute respiratory infection b. Congenital malformations c. neoplastic disease d. urinary tract infection
-
575. Pontiac fever is caused by:
a. Marburg virus b. Legionella c. Tuberculosis bacilli d. Sindbis virus
-
576.A 28 year old lady presented with diarrhea, confusion and high grade fever and headache with bilateral pneumonitis. The causative agent is:
a. Pseudomonas b. Streptococcus pneumonia c. Neisseria meningitidis d. Legionella
-
577.In hepatic encephalopathy the antibiotic which retards NH3 formation and absorption is:
a. Ceftriaxone b. Chloramphenicol c. Cefixime d. neomycin
-
578. Drug not used in hepatic encephalopathy is:
a. Phenobarbitone b. Lactulose c. Mannito d. Metronidazole
-
579.A patient presents with hyperpigmented lesion on mucosa of lip and oral cavity. She has melena and her elder sister also has similar complains. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Familial polyposis coli b. Gardener’s syndrome c. Villous adenoma d. peutz-Jeghers syndrome
-
580. A female patient presents with pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa and colonic polyps. Her sister also has the same history. The diagnosis is:
- a. Peutz-jeghers syndrome b. Carcinoid c. Melanoma d. Villous adenoma
- 581.s Drug used in prophylaxis ofmeningococcal meningitis is:
- a. Penicillin b. Ampicillin c. Rifampicin d. Erythromycin
-
582.s Drug not used in prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis:
a. Penicillin b. Ofloxacin c. Rifampicin d. Ceftriaxone
-
583.Palpable purpura is seen in all except:
a. ITP b. Henoch-Schonlein purpura c. Polyarteritis nodesa d. Acute meningococcemia
-
584. Palpable purpura is seen in all except:
a. Drug induced vasculitis b. henoch-Schonlein purpura c. Essential mixed cryglobulinemia d. Giant cell arteritis
-
585. Non pappable purpura is seen in:
a. Temporal arteritis b. Drug Induced vasculitis c. Cryglobulinemia d. henoch-Schonlein purpura
-
586. A 35 year old man has carcinoma bronchus with decreased pulmonary functions. Which of the following drug shoud not be given to him:
a. Vinblastine b. Mithramycin c. bleomycin d. Adriamycin
-
587. Hepatitis C is associated with :
a. scleroderma b. Cryglobulinemia c. anti LKM antibodies d. Polyarteritis nodosa
-
588. Autosomal dominant inheritance is seen in:
a. Hemophilia b. bloom’s syndrome c. Retinoblastoma d. Ataxia telangiectasia
-
589. A 28 year old male comes with history of exposure 3 weeks back, having cervical lymphadenopathy. Hepatsplenomegaly. The early diagnosis of HIV is done bby:
a. Lymph node biopsy b. ELISHA c. p24 antigen d. Western blot
-
590. A 65 year old female meena gives the history of severe unilateral headache on the right side and complains of blindness since 2 days. On examination there Is a thick cord like structure on the lateral side of the head. The ESR is 80 mm/hr in the first hour. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Temporal arteritis b. Migraine c. Cluster headache d. Sinusitis
-
591. False regarding temporal arteritis is:
a. Sudden blindness is a complication b. low ESR c . Anemia d. Polymyalgia rheumatic
-
592.A HIV positive patient has intractable seizures and cerebral calcification. Most likely organism is:
a. Isospora belli b. Neurocysticercosis c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Cryptococcus neoformans
-
593.An 8 year old child suffering fro recurrent attacks of polyuria since childhood presents to the pediatric OPD. On examination , the child has short stature, vitals and BP is normal . serum creatinine is 6 mg% HCO3-- 16mEq. Na+ 134, K+ 4.2 on USG bilateral small kidneys are seen. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Polycystic kidney disease b. Medullary cystic kidney disease c. Nephronophthisis d. Reflux nephropathy
-
594. Right sided infective endocarditis cannot occur in:
a. Puerperal sepsis b. ASD c. Tetralogy of Fallot d. IV drug abusers
-
595. Infective endocarditis is least likely to occur in:
a. MVP b. Small VSD c. TOF d. ASD
-
596. Mycosis fungoides is best treated by:
a. Iv doxorubicin (Adriamycin ) b. Surgery c. 5GU cream d.. Electron beam therapy
-
597. Dopamine is preferred in shock because:
a. Rapid action b. Renal vasodilatation c. Cardiac stimulation d. Potent vasoconstriction
-
598. The most frequent cause of peripheral cyanosis is:
- a. Interatrial septal defect b. Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis c. Slowed circulation through skin d.
- Methemoglobinemia
-
599. Cyanosis is not seen in patient with severe anemia because:
a. RBCs are defective b. Capillary dilation occurs c. Hypoxia is rare d. Minimum 5gm hemoglobin is required
-
600. Cyanosis is not caused by:
a. Cirrhosis with portal hypertension b. Carboxyhemoglobinemia c. sulfhemoglobinemia d. Methemoglobinemia
-
601. About central cyanosis true is:
a. Hb< 5 gm/dl b. Hb<2 gm/dl c. Methemoglobin less than 2.5 gm/dl d. Sulfhemoglobin more than 0.5 gm/dl
-
602. A 20 year old girl with UTI on treatment develops blue lips and nails with normal vitals:
a. Cardiac right to left shunt b. Sickle cell disease c. Sideroblastic anemia d. Methemoglobinemia
-
603.All of the following are true about primary CNS lymphoma except:
a. Causes focal signs b. Most are of T-cell origin c. Multicentric location d. Associated with latent Epstein-Barr virus infection
-
604. Drug of choice for acute gout is:
a. Probenicid b. Allopurinol c. Sulphonamide d. Indomethacin
-
605. The treatment of choice for intestinal and extraintestinal amebiasis is:
a. Diloxanide furoate b. Chloroquine c. Metronidazole d. Tetracycline
-
606. All the following are used in the treatment of hypertension emergencies except:
a. Prazosin b. Nitroglycerin c. Sodium nitroprusside d. Nifedipine
-
607. The histological finding in acute rheumatic fever which would best aid in diagnosis is:
a. Increased vascularity of myocardial valves b. Osler’s nodule c. Aschoff bodies d. Vegetations over mitral valve
-
608. All the following are seen in nephrotic syndrome except:
a. Albuminuria b. Hypoalbuminemia c. Edema d. Hypocomplementemia
-
609. Which of the following is/are true about nephrotic syndrome:
a. Hematuria b. Azotemia c. proteinuria d. All of the above
-
610. Nephrotic syndrome is not associated with:
a. Hypertension b. Massive proteinuria c. Marked edema d. Hypoproteinemia
-
611. A 2-year old boy developed generalized pitting edema in 7 days and significant decreased in urinary output. His blood pressure is 104/70 mmHg , urine examination shows hyaline cast +; proteinuria +++; no WBC and RBC. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Increase in blood volume b. increase in blood urea c. selective proteinuria d. low serum complement level
-
612. not seen in nephrotic syndrome:
a. hypoalbuminemia b. Increased α2 globulin c. Hyperlipidemia d. Hypercalcemias
-
613. In nephrotic syndrome, levels of all serum proteins decrease except:
a. Transferrin b. Albumin c. Ceruloplasmin d. Fibrinogen
-
614. A young child had nephrotic syndrome and was started on steroids. He was responding to steroid
- therapy . f a biopsy were to be dine, what would the light microscopy have shown:
- a. Endothelial thickening b. Split basement membrane c. Loss of foot processes d. No abnormality
-
615. In nephrotic syndrome due to minimal change disease, the pathology is:
a. Loss of foot process and loss of the fixed negative charge in the glomerular filtration barrier for protein b. Loss of foot processes only c. Deposition of antigen antibody complex d. Destruction of glomerulus alone
-
616.Neurotransmitter involved in nigrostriatal pathway is:
a. Serotonin b. dopamine c. Cholinergic d. Adrenergic
-
617.The pathology in parkinsonism lies in:
a. Substantia nigra b. Hippocampus c. Red nucleus d. Hypothalamus
-
618. Which of the following complication of diabetes cannot be prevented by strict control of blood sugar:
a. Nerve conduction velocity b. amyotrophy c. Fluorescein leak d. Microalbuminuria
-
619. False regarding CRF:
a. Decreased half-life of insulin b. Serum vitamin D is increased c. Hypocalcemia d. Hyperphosphatemia
-
620. Not common in alcoholism:
a. Polycythemia b. Dementia c. polyneuritis d. Hypomagnesemia
-
621.False regarding cholera is:
a. Infectivity b. Denudation of jejuna mucosa c. Watery stool d. Stool HCO3 is twice plasma HCO3
-
622. Diagnostic of thiamine deficiency is:
a. FIGLU test b. Microcytic anemia c. low RbC transketolase d. Low RBC acetylcholine
-
623. Not seen in Brown-Sequard’s syndrome :
a. Ipsilateral loss of joint sense b. Contralateral loss of pain sense c. Ipsilateral monoplegia d. Ipsilaterla loss of temperature
-
624. Not used in treatment of hypercalcemia :
a. Riluzole b. Risedronate c. Plicamycin d. Gallium nitrates
-
625. Not used in the treatment of hypercalcemia:
a. Biphosphonate b. Penicillamine c. Mithramycin d. Steroid
-
626. Not a treatment of hypercalcemia :
a. Ketoconazole b. Frusemide c. Plicamycin d. Oral phosphate
-
627. Not a feature of magnesium deficiency :
a. Delirium b. Raised serum calcium c. Convulsions d. Athetoid tetany
-
628. Dawn phenomenon is:
a. Postprandial coma b. Breakfast hypoglycemia c. Early morning hyperglycemia d. Early morning hypoglycemia
-
629. Colchicine is not used in;
a. Adrenal adenoma b. Amyloidosis c. Familial mediaterranean fever d. Cirrhosis of fever
-
630. Shrinking lung syndrome is seen in:
a. Dermatomyositis b. Polymyositis c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Systemic sclerosis
-
631. lesion of caudate nucleus is produces:
a. Athetosis b. Chorea c. hemiballismus d. All of the above
-
632. Semi-Purposive movements in a boy are generally seen in:
a. Encephalitis b. brain abscess c. Rheumatic fever d. systemic lupus erythematosus
-
633. Hypersensitive pneumonitis is associated with which of the following:
a. Raised serum precipitins b. Hilar lymphadenopahty c. Increased eosinophils d. Raised IgE
-
634.s Site of action of blocking immunoglobulin in myasthenia gravis is:
a. motor end plate b. presynaptic vesicles c. Absent deep reflexes d. Cell body
-
635. Not a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis:
a. sometimes spontaneous regression b. Proximal muscle involvement c. Absent deep reflexes d. Fatigue with exertion
-
636. Not an indication for thymectomy in myasthenia gravis:
a. thymic hyperplasia b. Thymoma c. Young female d. Males> 66 years
-
637.Characteristic feature of idiopathic hypoparathyroidism is:
a. Candidiasis b. Subcutaneous calcification c. Nephrocalcinosis d. bilateral cataract
-
638. Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed by using:
a. Gallamine b. Endrophonium c. Succinylcholine d. Atropine
-
639. Best diagnostic acid to myasthenia gravis is:
a. History b. EMG c. Chest X-ray d. Response to IV edrophonium
-
640. In pneumocystis carinii pneumonia the treatment of choice is:
a. Zidovudine b. Ciprofloxacin c. Cotrimoxazole d. Pentamidine
-
641. In severe pneumocystis cell carinii pneumonia , the drug of choice is:
a. Penicillin b. Cefoperazone c. Cefotaxime d. Trimethopeim + sulphamethoxazole
-
642. In hypokalemia the ECG finding is:
a. RSR pattern b. Tall T-wave c. ST depression d. Prominent U-wave
-
643. HBsAg carrier status is associated with all except:
a. Infectious mononucleosis b. down syndrome c. Chronic renal failure d. Polyarthritis nodosa
-
644. Most common complication of prosthetic valve is:
a. Embolism b. Subacute bacterial endocarditis c. Rejection d. Infarction
-
645. In drug addicts endocarditis is common due to:
a. Pseudomonas b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Streptococcus viridians d. Group D streptococcus
-
646. Prosthetic valve endocarditis is most commonly caused by:
a. Coxiella burnetii b. Candida c. Streptococcus epidermidis d. Staphylococcus aureus
-
647.In IV drug users, most common heart valve involved is:
a. Tricuspid valve b. Pulmonary valve c. Mitral valve d. Aortic valve
-
648. Bronchial asthma is associated with raised levels of:
a. Thromboxane b. Leukotriene c. PgI2 d. PGE8
-
649. Asymmetrical radial pulse is seen in which of the following:
a. Takayasu’s disease b. Aortic regurgitation c. Coarctation of aorta d. Dissecting aneurysm of aorta
-
650. Vaccine not recommended in symptomatic patient of HIV is:
a. DPT b. Hib conjugate c. BCG d. Measles
-
651. In HIV patient the most common form of tuberculosis is seen in:
a. Genitourinary tract b. Intestine c. Lungs d. Lymph nodes
-
652. PUO in a farmer dealing with goat’s milk is likely due to:
a. Bacillus anthracis b. Histoplasma c. Brucella d. Mycobacterium
-
653. Not seen in CRF:
a. Metabolic acidosis b. Increased Mg++ c. increased phosphate d. Decreased sodium
-
654. Which of the following changes of chronic renal failure is not improved by dialysis:
a. Volume expansion and contraction b. hypernatremia and hyponatremia c. Hyperkalemia and hypokalemia d. Decreased high-density lipoprotein level
-
655. Bleeding time is prolonged in:
a. Hemolytic telangiectasia b. henoch-Schonlein purpura c. von Willebrand’s disease d. Hemophilia
-
656.False regarding von Willebrand’s disease :
a. Impaired clot aggregation on glass surface b. Ristocetin cofactor assay c. Factor VIII deficiency d. Increased bleeding time
-
657. Most common mode of inheritance of von Willebrand’s disease is:
a. Co-dominant b. X-linked recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Autosomal recessive
-
658. Murmur of idiopathic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is increased by all except;
a. Valsalva maneuver b. Exercise c. Digoxin d. Squatting
-
659. Murmur of HOCM is decreased in:
a. Amyl nitrate inhalation b. Valsalva maneuver c. Standing position d. Supine position
-
660.100% HLA association is seen with:
a. Narcolepsy b. Schizophrenia c. Myasthenia gravis d. Multiple sclerosis
-
661. Histocompatibility complex associated with narcolepsy is:
a. B4 b. DR 4 c. DR2 d. DR3
-
662. In immunocompromised patients the intestinal parasitic disease is:
a. Trichuriasis b. Hookworm c. Strongyloidiasis d. ascaiasis
-
663. Anterior uveitis is seen in:
a. Pauci articular JRA b. Polyarticular JRA c. Still’s disease d. Rheumatoid arthritis
-
664. Kussmaul’s sign is not seen in:
a. Left ventricular failure b. Right ventricular failure c. Cardiac tamponade d. constrictive pericarditis
-
665.Not included in the triad of Huntington’s disease:
a. Early onset of memory loss b. Cog wheel rigidity c. Cognitive symptoms d. Chorea
-
666. a 40 year old patient has 2 episodes of headache daily for last 2-3 weeks, and no previous history of similar disease. Headache wakes him from sleep and remains for one hours associated with lacrimation, and nasal abnormality. Most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Brain tumor b. Cluster headache c. Tension headache d. Migraine
- 667. Drug of choice to prevent cluster headache is:
- a. Lithium b. Aspirin c. Phenytoin d. Methysergide
-
668. A young patient presents with jaundice, his bilirubin is 21mg%; direct is 9.6 mg% , alkaline phosphate is 84 KA units . most likely diagnosis is:
a. Obstructive jaundice b. Chronic active hepatitis c. Viral hepatitis d. hemolytic jaundice
-
669.A young male with gallbladder stone, has serum bilirubin 2.5, hemoglobin 6 gm% urine shows urobilinogen positive . most likely diagnosis is:
a. Protoporphyria b. Hepatocellular jaundice c. Obstructive jaundice d. hemolytic jaundice
-
670.s not seen in steele-Richardson –Olszewski syndrome:
a. Convulsions b. Gaze palsy progressive supranuclear c. Dementia d. none of the above
-
671.A 45 year old man has history of dementia, ataxia, and difficulty in downward gaze. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Progressive supranuclear palsy b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Parkinson’s disease d. normal pressure hydrocephalus
-
672. A 60 year old man has repeated fall and develops rigidity and ophthalmoplegia. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Parkinsonism b. Huntigton’s chorea c. Shy-Drager syndrome d. Supranuclear palsy
-
673.Chromosomal anomaly associated with Alzheimer’s dementia is:
a. Turner syndrome b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 18 d. patau syndrome
-
674. Alzheimer’s disease typically affects:
a. nucleus basalis of meynert b. Amygdala c. Parietal cortex d. Basal ganglion
-
675. A 48 year old obese patient with random blood sugar 400mg% , urine sugar and ketones positive. Most appropriate drug in this scenario is:
a. Insulin b. Metformin c. Glibenclamide d. Troglitazone
-
676. Not seen in hemoglobin electrophoresis in sickle cell anemia:
a. Hb S b. Hb F c. Hb A d. B and C
-
677. a 50 year old chronic smoker presented with history of hemoptysis. He was having truncal obesity and hypertension , an elevated ACTH level which was not suppressible with high dose dexamethasone. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Ectopic ACTH producing lung cancer b. Pituitary tumor c. Adrenal adenoma d. Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
-
678. hypercalcemia is common in:
a. Large cell carcinoma b. Oat cell carcinoma c. adenocarcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
-
679. Hypercalcemia occurs in which type of lung cancer:
- a. Oat cell b. Giant cell c. Squamous cell d. Alveolar cell
- 680.s A 26 year old man presented with hemoglobin 6gm% , WBC 2000/cu mm, normal differential count except for having 6% blast cells, platelet count is 80000. Examination revealed spleen is moderately enlarged most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Hemolysis b. ITP c. leukemia d. Aplastic anemia
-
681. Most common type of ASD is:
a. Ostium primum b. Sinus venous type c. Endocardal cushion defect d. ostium secundum
-
682. False regarding ASD is:
a. Pulmonary hypertension b. Right ventricular hypertrophy c. Left atrial hypertrophy d. Right atrial hypertrophy
-
683. Not a clinical feature of ostium secundum type ASD;
- a. mid diastolic along the left sterna border b. Wide and fixed splitting of 2nd heart sound
- c. Surgery is advised even in asymptomatic patients d. frequent occurrence of congestive cardiac failure in childhood
-
684. Wide splitting of S2 is seen in:
a. Cardiomyopathy b. VSD c. PDA d. ASD
-
685. Reversed splitting of S2 is seen in all except:
a. Left bundle branch block b. Systemic hypertension c. Aortic stenosis d. Atrial septal defect
-
686. Most common fungal infection seen in febrile neutropenic patient is:
a. Aspergillus fumigatus b. Mucormycosis c. Aspergillus niger d. Candida Spp
-
687.Treatment of choice of a patient of CLL with systemic symptoms is:
a. No treatment required b. Chlorambucil c. Radiotherapy d. Doxorubicin
-
688. Leukemia associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia is:
a. All b. CML c. CLL d. AML
-
689. Amylase is increased in pleural effusion in following condition:
a. Pancreatic disease b. Esophageal rupture c. Both d. None
-
690. which of the following is false regarding neurocysticerosis:
- a. Calcification on X-ray skull b. Meningoencephalitic variety is most common
- c. Convulsions d. Mimics cerebral tumor
-
691. neurocysticercosis is diagnosed by:
a. Pneumoencephalography b. EEG c. Angiography d. CT scan
-
692. True regarding neurocysticerosis is:
a. Steroids are used in management of hydrocephalus b. usually presents with 6th nerve palsy and hemiparesis c. Albendazole is more effective than praziquantel d. usually present with seizure resistant to antiepileptic drugs
-
693.Not used in the treatment of cysticercosis:
a. Niclosamide b. Flubendazole c. Praziquantell d. Albendazole
-
694. Not caused by hypervitaminosis A:
a. Hypotension b. Bony swelling c. Loss of hair d. Anorexia
-
695.Mononeuritis multiplex is seen in:
a. Bronchus carcinoma b. Guillain-BArre syndrome c. leprosy d. Syphilis
-
696. Mononeuritis multiplex is a feature of:
a. Polyarteritis nodosa b. Hypersensitive vasculitis c. leprosy d. all of the above
-
697.Episodic muscle weakness does not occur in:
a. Eaton lambert’s syndrome b. Hyperglycemia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypocalcemia
-
698. Episodic generalized weakness is not caused by:
a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypernatremia c. Hypermagnessemia d. hypercalcemia
-
699. Flapping tremors are seen in all except:
a. Thyrotoxicosis b. uremia c. liver failure d. CO2 narcosis
-
700.Asterixis (Flapping tremor) is seen in:
a. Thyrotoxicosis b. β2 stimulant therapy c. Parkinsonism d. CO2 narcosis
-
701. Flapping tremor is not seen in:
a. Thyrotoxicosis b. Uremic patient c. CO2 necrosis d. Wilson disease
-
702. In hyperprolactinemia the investigation of choice is:
a. Steroid assay b. Prolactin estimation c. LH estimation d. TRH estimation
-
703. Best diagnostic test for bronchiectasis is:
a. CXR b. Broncography c. Bronchoscopy d. CT scan
-
704. Hyperkalemia does not occur in:
a. Cushing ‘s syndrome b. ARF c. 21-hydroxylase deficiency d. Pentamidine
-
705.Rhinocerebral mucormycosis canoccur in all except:
a. Organ transplantation b. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus c. CRF d. Deferoxamine therapy
-
706.which of the following does not change with age:
a. Hematocrit b. Glucose tolerance test c. GFR d. FEV1
-
707. Idiopathic orthostatic hypotension is also known as:
a. Shy-drager syndrome b. Von Hippel-Lindau disease c. Kugelberg –Welander disease d. Louis-Bar syndrome
-
708. which of the following is true about maladie de Roger:
a. Small VSD b. Harsh pan-systolic murmur c. Most defect close spontaneously d. all of the above
-
709. white patch in the throat may be due to:
a. Candida b. smoker’s leukoplakia c. nicotinic stomatitis d. All of the above
-
710. Turner’s sign is seen in:
a. Myocarditis b. Cholecystitis c. Pancreatitis d. Pleural effusion
-
711.Hemoptysis is seen in:
a. Aortic stenosis b. Pulmonary stenosis c. Mitral stenosis d. Tricuspid stenosis
-
712. Reticulocytosis is not seen in:
a. anemia in CRF b. Hereditary spherocytosis c. following acute bleeding d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
-
713. Which of the following drugs cause diarrhea:
a. Morphine b. Atropine c. Magnesium sulphate d. Gaunethidine
-
714. In methemoglobinemia:
- a. Methane is present in hemoglobin b. Methane is present in the beta globulin chain
- c. oxidized hemoglobin contains ferrous iron d. oxidized hemoglobin contains ferric iron
-
715. Isolated 3rd nerve palsy is seen in:
a. Frontal lobe tumor b. Weber’s syndrome c. Diabetes mellitus d. Lateral medullary syndrome
-
716. which carcinoma of lung responds best to chemotherapy:
a. Squamous cell type b. Oat cell type c. Clara cell type d. Small cell type
-
717. Mee’s lines in the nails are characteristic of which poisoning:
a. Lead b. Arsenic c. Mercury d. Nicotine
-
718. Myocardial rupture as a result of myocardial infarction occurs usually during the:
a. 1st week b. 2nd week c. 3rd week d. 5th week
-
719. A patient of inferior wall infarction develops shock on 3rd day. Most common cause is:
a. right ventricular infarction b. Ventricuar aneurysm c. Cardiac rupture d. Atrial fibrillarion
-
720.s Chemoprophylaxis is used in all except:
a. Malaria b. typhoid c. meningococcal meningitis d. pertussis
-
721. hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in:
a. CML b. alcoholism c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Myelodysplasia
-
722. Not a feature of rheumatic heart disease in our country:
- a. School going population is most often affected b. Aortic valve is most commonly affected
- c. Affects younger age group d. CHF and cardiomegaly is seen in most of the cases
-
723. In rheumatic fever, earliest valvular lesion is:
a. AR b. AS c. MR d. MS
-
724.Themost common heart valve abnormality in acute MI is:
a. MR b. AR c.. MS d. AS
-
725. Routine screening for Down syndrome is done If maternal age is above:
a. 45 years b. 35 years c. 40 years d. 30 years
-
726. True regarding Barrett’s esophague is:
a. Asymptomatic b. Dilated tortures esophague c. premalignant d. Squamous metaplasia of esophagus
-
727. Adenocarcinoma is commonly found in:
a. Chronic smoking b. Plummer-vinson syndrome c. barrett’s esophagus d. Achalasia cardia
-
728. Barrett’s esophagus may lead to:
a. Stricture formation b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Reflux esophagitis d. Achalasia cardia
-
729. In nonsmokers the most common type of bronchogenic carcinoma is:
a. Large cell b. Small cell c. Squamous cell d. Adenocarcinoma
-
730. Recovery of myocardium after myocardial infarction occurs in about ….. weeks:
a. 12 b. 8 c. 6 d. 2
-
731. Hyperbaric oxygen is used in:
a. Anemia b. Anerobic infection c. CO poisoning d. Ventilatory failure
-
732. not associated with EBV:
a. Burkitt’s lymphoma b. Bell’s palsy c. Guillain –Barre syndrome d. Hepatitis
-
733.In Noonan’s syndrome the cardiac anomaly is:
a. coarctation of aorta b. Pulmonary stenosis c. ASD d. VSD
-
734. False regarding fibrolamellar carcinoma of liver is:
a. Common in females b. Nests of cell with fibrous stroma c. worse prognosis d. difuse involvement of liver
-
735. False regarding fibrolamellar carcinoma of liver:
a. Younger age of onset b. alpha fetoproteins are >1000 units/ml c. Better prognosis than hepatocellular carcinoma d. more common in women
-
736. Best prognosis is of:
a. Angiosarcoma of liver b. hepatoblastoma c. Fibrolamellar carcinoma of liver d. Hepatocellular carcinoma of liver
-
737. True regarding rabies is:
a. Local wound care is of no use b. Vaccine is given intramuscularly c. HDVC is live attenuated d. fluorescent antibody is the treatment of choice
-
738. The characteristic feature of rabies is:
a. Brainstem encephalitis b. Peripheral neuropathy c. Patchy meningitis d. Ventriculitis
-
739. Human bite infection is commonly caused by:
a. Staphylococcus b. Anaerobic bacilli c. Anaerobic streptococci d. Spirochete
-
740. False regarding thoracic outlet syndrome:
- a. Resection of 1strib is the treatment b. physiotherapy and position relieves the symptoms
- c. Most common radial nerve involvement d. neurological signs and symptoms are common
-
741. Zenker’s diverticulum presents with:
a. Found I stomach b. Dysphagia c. dysphonia d. Reflux esophagitis
-
742. macrocytic anemia is seen in all except:
a. Thiamine deficiency b. copper deficiency c. orotic aciduria d. liver disease
-
743. False regarding hepatocellular carcinoma is:
- a. Aflatoxins are the etiological agent b. Fibrolamellar type has best prognosis
- c. marker’s are increased d. Uncommon among Asians
-
744. Aflatoxin may cause:
a. Botulism b. Cholangiocarcinoma c. Lathyrism d. Hepatoma
-
745. In rheumatoid arthritis (RA) characteristic joint involvement is:
a. Hip joint b. Metacarpophalangeal joint c. Knee joint d. Spine
-
746. In rheumatoid arthritis, part of spine involved is:
a. Sacral b. lumbar c. Cervical d. Thoracic
-
747. All are caused by lupus anticoagulant except:
a. Valvular heart disease b. Increased prothrombin time c. Arterial thrombosis d. Recurrent abortion
-
748. leukocyte alkaline phosphatase is not increased in:
a. Polycythemia vera b. CML c. Myelofibrosis d. None of the above
-
749. Not a manifestation of insulinoma :
a. Psychological alteration b. Visual disturbance c. Weight loss d. Fasting hypoglycemia
-
750. Not a characteristic feature of insulinoma:
a. Weight loss b. Fasting hypoglycemia c. Majority are solitary tumors d. Majority are benign tumors
-
751. In acute myocardial infarction, earliest finding of ECG is:
a. Prominent U wave b. Widened QRS complex c. ST depression d. ST elevation
-
752. Most common cause of lactic acidosis during the treatment of diabetes is:
a. Oral hypoglycemics b. phenformin c. Diet restriction d. Insulin
-
753. piecemeal necrosis on liver biopsy is seen in:
a. Chronic active hepatitis b. Indian childhood cirrhosis c. alcoholic hepatitis d. Primary alcoholic airrhosis
-
754. Most common malignant change seen in renal transplant is:
a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Cervix carcinoma c. Skin and lip carcinoma d. lymphoma
-
755. In ulcerative colitis the drug of choice is:
a. Aminosalicylic acid b. Sulfasalazine c. Prednisolone d. Salazopyrin
-
756. heberden’s nodes are seen in:
- a. Proximal interphalangeal joint of RA b. proximal interphalangeal joint of osteoarthritis
- c. distal interphalangeal joint of osteathritis d. Proximal distal interphalangeal joint of RA
-
757. Paradoxical breathing is characteristic of:
a. Pneumonia b. pneumothorax c. Atelectasis d. Diaphragmatic paralysis
-
758. False regarding diaphragmatic paralysis :
- a. Diaphragmatic pacing is useful if any nerve is intact b. Causes normocapnic failure
- c. Sniff test is positive in unilateral diaphragmatic paralysis d. none
-
759. In which of the following condition, paradoxical respiration is seen:
a. Severe asthma b. Bulbar polio c. Diaphragmatic palsy d. Multiple fracture of rib
-
760. Hirsutism is caused by all of the following drugs except:
a. pneobarbitone b. phenytoin c. Minoxidil d. Cyclosporine
-
761. brain tumor associated with CNS invasion is:
a. Oligodendroglioma b. Glioblastoma multiforme c. Medulloblastoma d. Ependymoma
-
762. Not a cause of osteoporosis:
a. osteogenesis imperfect b. Hypophosphatasia c. Hypogonadism d. hypoparathyroidism
-
763. osteoporosis is not seen in:
a. Cushing’s disease b. Hyperthyroidism c. Hypoparathyroidism d. hyperparathyroidism
-
764. Osteoporosis is not seen in:
a. Steroid therapy b. hypoparathyroidism c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Thyroitoxicosis
-
765. osteoporosis is not seen in :
a. Thyrotoxicosis b. hypoparathyroidism c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Chronic heparin administration
-
766. osteoporosis is not seen in:
a. Steroid therapy b. hypoparathyroidism c. Scurvy d. Old age
-
767. Not a cause of osteoporosis:
a. Scurvy b. methotrexate c. osteogenesis imperfect d. heparin administration
-
768. Familial hypercholesterolemia is because of :
- a. Dysbetalipproteinemia b. Familial apoprotein c II deficiency c. lipoprotein deficiency d. Mutation in gene for LDL receptors
- 769. Tendon xanthomas are seen in :
-
a. Familial lipothomas lipase deficiency b. Familial hypertriglyceridemia
c. Dysbetalipoproteinemia d. Familial hypercholesterolemia
-
770.Zinc deficiency causes:
a. hypogonadism b. Diarrhea c. Alopecia d. All of the above
-
771.Not a manifestation of Zinc deficiency:
a. hypogonadism b. Cardiomyopathy c. Growth retardation d. alopecia
-
772. Blood culture is indicated in all except:
a. malaria b. Septicemia c. SABE d. enteric fever
-
773.Not seen in hyponatremia:
a. periodic muscle paralysis b. Convulsions c. Raised ICT d. Headache
-
774. Earliest indicator of sodium loss is:
a. Orthostatic hypertension b. Arrhythmia c. Altered sensorium d. Reduced skin turgidity
-
775. In rheumatoid arthritis, common type of anemia is:
a. Macrocytic hypochromic b. Hypochromic normocytic c. Hyperchrmic, normocytic d. NMnormocytic, normochromic
-
776. Not a complication of rheumatoid arthritis:
a. Polycythemia b. Splenic infarct c. endocarditis d. Pericarditis
-
777. Most common site of iatrogenic rupture of esophagus is:
a. Abdominal b. Thoracic region above aortic arch c. Thoracic region below aortic arch d. Cervical esophagus
-
778.Spontaneous rupture of spleen is seen in:
a. Hereditary spherocytosis b. infectious monocleosis c. Polycythemai rubra vera d. CML
-
779. Not a characteristic feature of plummer-Vinson syndroma:
a. Dysphagia b. Common in elderly male c. Esophageal webs d. Premalignant
-
780. Inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is not seen in:
a. Head injury b. small cell c. Acute encephalitis d. Chromophobe adenoma
-
781. SIADH is associated with which of the following :
a. Small cell carcinoma of lung b. Squamous cell carcinoma of lung c. Adneocercinoma of lung d. Large cell carcinoma of lung
-
782. SIADH occurs in all except:
- a. Migraine b. Chronic meningitis c. Guillain- Barre syndrome
- 783. Lateral medullary syndrome is caused by thrombosis of:
- a. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery b. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
- c. Superior cerebellar artery d. Posterior communicating branch of middle cerebral artery
-
784. Not a feature of Wallenberg’s syndrome:
- a. Ipsilateral involvement of lower cranial nerve b. Ipslateral involvement of sympathetic tract
- c. ipsilateral loss of taste d. Ipslateral loss of pain and temperature
-
785. Not a characteristic feature of lateral medullary syndrome:
a. Crossed hemi-anesthesia b. Horner’s syndrome is rare c. Dysphagia d. Numbness
-
786. not a feature of lateral medullary syndrome:
a. Impairment of pain over contralateral half of the body b. Impairment of sensation over ipslateral face c. Falling to the side opposite to the lesion d. Ipslateral Horner’s syndrome
-
787. Tumor common in AIDS is:
a. Uterus carcinoma b. Urinary bladder carcinoma c. B-cell lymphoma d. Lung carcinoma
-
788. In patients of AIDS least common tumor is:
a. Primary CNS lymphoma b. Astrocytoma c. Burkitt’s lymphoma d. kaposi’s sarcoma
-
789. In which of the following condition, concentric hypertrophy of left ventricle is seen:
a. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy b. Mitral stenosis c. Mitral regurgitation d. Essential hypertension
-
790. the following conditions predispose to leukemia:
a. Blood syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Fanconi anemia d. All of the above
-
791. AML is seen with increased frequency in all except :
a. Fanconi anemia b. Bloom syndrome c. Fragile X syndrome d. Down syndrome
-
792. Galactorrhea is not seen with the use of:
a. Reserpine b. Phenothiazines c. Bromocriptine d. Metoclopramide
-
793. Disorder of language of cerebral origin is;
a. Aphasia b. Dysarthria c. Stuttering d. Echolalia
-
794. lesion in inferior frontal gyrus causes:
a. Motor aphasia b. Incomprehension of spoken language c. Incomprehension of written language d. Defect in articulation
-
795. Most common type of aphasia in AD is seen in:
a. Trans cortical motor b. Trans cortical sensory c. anomic aphasia d. Broca’s aphasia
-
796.Recurrent giardiasis is common in:
a. C1 esterase inhibitors deficiency b. DiGeorge syndrome c. C8 deficiency d. Common variable immunodeficiency
-
797. Viral meningitis is most commonly caused by:
a. Echovirus b. Coxsaroviruses c. Poliovirus d. enteroviruses
-
798.s Sjogren’s syndrome is not associated with:
a. Primary biliary cirrhosis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Chronic active hepatitis d. Mid line granuloma
-
799. Alkaline phosphatase is not increased in:
a. Paget’s disease b. Hypophosphatasia c. Osteomalacia d. Hyperparathyroidism
-
800. Alkaline phosphatase is raised in:
a. Osteoporosis b. CRF c. Primary hyperparathyroidism d. Multiple myeloma
-
801.s Pure motor neuropathy does not occur in:
a. Gaillain-Barre syndrome b. Porphyria c. Dapsone intoxication d. Lead intoxication
-
802. In primary idiopathic polymyositis, which of the following group of muscles are never involved :
a. Ocular muscle b. Extensor neck muscle c. pharyngeal muscles d. Proximal limb girdle
-
803. In polymyositis which of the following muscle is not involved:
a. Muscle of pharynx b. Muscles of trunk c. neck muscle d. Ocular muscle
-
804. In polymyositis, which of the following muscle is not involved:
a. Thigh b. Girdle c. Ocular d. Neck
-
805. 4th heart sound is heard in all except:
a. Ventricular aneurysm b. MR c. Cardiomyopathy d. Hypertension
-
806. In 1998, Noble prize for research in medicine was given for:
a. NO b. Super oxide c. N2O d. H2O2
-
807.Not associated with hypercoagulable state:
a. Weber Christian disease b. Protein S deficiency c. Protein C deficiency d. antiphospholipid antibody
-
808. A patient of AIDS with pneumocystis carinii infection is treated with aerosol pentamidine. He may develop all of the following except:
a. Extra- thoracic infection b. Cavitation c. Pneumothorax d. Lower lobe infection
-
809. An HIV patient with perihilar infiltrates and without pleural effusion in the X-ray is most likely to have:
a. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia b. Kaposi’s sarcoma c. Tuberculosis d. Lymphoma
-
810. Non –synchronized DC shock is given in:
a. Ventricular fibrillation b. Ventricular tachycardia c. Atrial fibrillation d. Atrial flutter
-
811. Vaccine prescribed to a child with nephrotic syndrome is:
a. bordetella pertussis b. Hepatitis B virus c. Pneumococcal d. Haemophilus influenza
-
812. Pneumococcal vaccine is not indicated in:
- a. Diabetes mellitus b. Cystic fibrosis c. Renal failure d. Sickle cell anemia
- 813. A patient presents with history of low grade fever 10 days back, which decreased with some antipyretics. Now he is again having fever and peripheral smear examination showed gametocytes of plasmodium falciparum. Which of the following drugs will you give for him:
- a. Artemether b. Quinine c. Ciprofloxacin d. Primaquine d. Cephalosporins
-
814. A 50 year old asymptomatic man on routine investigation was found to have 3 times increased alkaline phosphatase with normal serum calcium and phosphorus. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Metastasis form primary carcinoma b. Primary hyperparathyroidism c. Paget’s disease of bone d. Osteoporosis
-
815.Interferon is not used in:
a. Myelomonocytic leukemia b. chronic hepatitis B c. CML d. hairy cell leukemia
-
816. Interferon is not used in:
a. Polymyositis b. Hepatitis C c. CML d. Hairy cell leukemia
-
817. Insulin resistance is not seen in:
a. Excess growth hormone b. obesity c. Lipodystrophy d. Addison’s disease
-
818. Gonadectomy is done in:
a. Mixed gonadla dysgenesis b. klinefelter syndrome c. Kallmann syndrome d. Down syndrome
-
819. Complication of sickle cell anemia is:
a. Splenomegaly b. Predispose to bladder tumor c. Urolithiasis d. Priapism
-
820. Clubbing is not seen in:
a. Cyanotic heart disease b. Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis c. Primary biliary cirrhosis d. chronic bronchitis
-
821. Clubbing is not seen in:
a. Mesothelioma b. Left to right shunt c. Empyema d. Cirrhosis
-
822. Garderner’s syndrome has all of the following except :
a. Skull osteomas b. Polyposis coli c. Dental defect d. Xanthomas
-
823. False regarding Gardener’s syndrome is:
a. Dental abnormality b. osteoma c. CNS tumor d. Desmoid tumor
-
824. Not a cause of CNS vasculitis:
a. PAN b. Behcet’s disease c. Whipple’s disease d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
-
825. Which of the following is the single recessive gene inherited disease:
a. parkinsonism b. Schizophrenia c. Tuberous sclerosis d. Wilson’s disease
-
826. Bronchial adenoma commonly presents as:
a. Chest pain b. Dyspnea c. Recurrent hemoptysis d. Wheezing
-
827. most common trosomy among the following is:
a. Trisomy 5 b. trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 21 d. Trisomy 13
-
828. In cerebral aneurysm rupture which of the following nerve is involved:
a. Oculomotor b. VII c. VIII d. Trochlear
-
829. All of the following metastatic tumors compress spinal cord except:
a. Meningioma b. breast carcinoma c. Lymphoma d. Lung carcinoma
-
830. Nosocomial pneumonia is caused by which of the following organism:
a. Mycoplasma b. Gram negative cocci c. Gram positive bacilli d. Gram negative bacilli
-
831. Not apredisposing factor of Alzheimer’s disease:
a. Smoking b. Head injury c. Low education level d. down syndrome
-
832. False regarding subacute combined degeneration:
a. Brisk ankle reflexes b. Corticospinal involvement c. posterior column involvement d. Due to vitamin B12 deficiency
-
833. Pyramidal tract involvement with absent ankle jerk is seen in:
a. Fredrick’s ataxia b. Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord c. Lathyrism d. Tabes dorsalis
-
834. blood of patient is anti HBsAg (HBsAb) positive but all other tests are negative. This may be due to:
a. chronic active hepatitis b. Carrier state c. Vaccine given d. Acute infection
-
835. Most important prognostic factor in an infarct case is:
a. Ejection fraction b. CPK c. Ventricular tachycardia d. Left main coronary artery obstruction
-
836. Not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome:
a. Acromegaly b. Hypertension c. Myxedema d. pregnancy
-
837. not a cause of tunnel syndrome:
a. hypertension b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Hypothyroidism d. Pregnancy
-
838. A 60 year old man, who is a known case of liver cirrhosis, presents with increased levels of AFP, hepatomegaly 3cm below costal margin. USG showed lesions involving the right lobe of liver. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Metastasis b. hepatic adenoma c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. focal nodular hyperplasia
-
839. Which among the following resembles calcivirus:
a. HAV b. HBV c. HCV d. HEV
-
840. A patient with a bee-sting developed itching and subcutaneous edema, which progressed to involve the face. There was laryngeal edema with difficulty in breathing . the immune mechanism implicated in the causation of these manifestations is:
a. Immune compleses b. IgE antibodies c. IgG antibodies d. Cytootoxic T cells
-
841. joint least commonly involved inankylosing spondylitis is:
a. lesser femoral trochanter b. Spine c. Wrist and hand d. Sacroiliac joint
-
842. Eosinophilia is seen in all except:
a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. Glucocorticoids c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. NSAID therapy
-
843. eosinophilia is not caused by:
a. Babesiosis b. Paragonimus c. Filariasis d. Ascariasis
-
844. bilateral parotid gland enlargement is not seen in:
a. sjogren’s syndrome b. Systemic lupus erythematosus c. Chronic pancreatitis d. sarcoidosis
-
845.To qualify as a solitary pulmonary nodule in chest X-ray size should not exceed:
a. 3 cm b. 8 cm c. 9 cm d. 6 cm
-
846. The investigation of choice for a solitary pulmonary nodule is:
a. CT b. MRI c. FNAC guided by imaging d. USG
-
847. Risk of transmission of HIV following single needle stick injury is:
a. 100% b. 90% c. 0.3% d. 50%
-
848. A doctor, while drawing blood for an HIV positive patient felt a needle stick injury. The prophylaxis
- is to be given is:
- a. AZT + lamivudine for 4 weeks b. AZT + lamivudine + indinavir for 4 weeks
- c. AZT + lamivudine + nevirapine for 4 weeks d. AZT + stavudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks
-
849. About medullary sponge kidney false is:
a. Autosomal dominant b. Nephrocalcinosis c. Normal serum calcium d. nephrotic syndrome
-
850. Left sided pleural effusion is seen in:
a. Pancreatitis b. CHF c. Both d. None
-
851. hypocomplementemia is found in:
a. poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis b. MCD c. Both d. None
-
852. Rubella in fetus is diagnosed by:
a. IgG antibody in mother b. IgM antibody in mother c. IgA antibody in fetus d. IgM antibody in fetus
-
853. A pregnant lady is detected to be HBsAg positive at 22 weeks of pregnancy . the treatment of the baby includes:
- a. HBv vaccination b. HBV vaccination +HBV immonuglobulin
- c. Immunoglobulin alone d. Immunoglobulins followed by vaccine after 1 month if HBsAg negative
-
854. Danazol s given in the treatment of:
a. Cyclical mastalgia b. Non-cyclical mastalgia c. Mastitis d. fibrocystic breast disease
-
855. A newborn baby is affected from encephalitis with skin lesion. The agent is likely to be:
- a. HSV -1 b. HSV-2 c. Japanese encephalitis B d. Meningococci
- 856. Not seen in goodpasture’s syndrome:
- a. Diffuse alveolar involvement b. Anti-GBM antibody c. Hemorrhage d. Crecentric glomerulonephritis
-
857.Apart from heredity spherocytosis, spherocytes are seen in:
a. Immune hemolytic anemia b. PNH c. Thalassemia d. Iron deficiency
-
858. Rheumatoid factor is:
a. IgE against Fc of IgG b. IgM against Fc of IgG c. IgG against Fc of IgM d.. IgA against Fc of IgM
-
859. Rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis is important because:
a. RA factor is associated with bad prognosis b. Absent RA factor rules out the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis c. it is very common in childhood rheumatoid arthritis d. It correlates with disease activity very well
-
860. Not a cause of cor pulmonale:
a. Chronic bronchitis b. Emphysema c. Lung abscess d. Chronic asthma
-
861. In herpes simplex encephalitis the CT and EEG findings are confined to which of the following lobe:
a. Occipital b. Temporal c. Frontal d. Parietal
-
862. Most common cause of spontaneous pneumothorax is:
a. Rupture of sub-pleural bleb b. Tuberculosis c. Trauma d. Asthama
-
863. Spontaneous pneumothorax is not common in:
a. Radiation pneumonitis b. Cryptogenic fibroshing alveolitis c. Histiocytosis d. Lymphangioleimyomatosis
-
864.Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is often associated with:
a. Smoking b. Female sex c. Exercise d. Short stature
-
865. Spontaneous pneumothorax is not seen in:
- a. Positive and pressure ventilation b. Bronchopulmonary aspergillous
- c. Eosinophilic granuloma d. MArfan’s syndrome
-
866. Pneumothorax is not a feature of:
a. Bronchopulmonary aspergilosis b. assisted ventilation c. Eosinophilic granuloma d. Marfan’s syndrome
-
867. Following infection associated with AIDS can cause retinal involvement except
a. Varicella-Zoster virus b. HSV c. HPV d. CMV
-
868.Fase regarding hypokalemic periodic paralysis is:
a. Sodium channel defect b. Affects proximal limb muscles more c. Decreased serum K+ level d. Autosomal dominant
-
869. Thrombin time is prolonged in which of the following :
- a. ITP b. Factor II deficiency c. Dysfibrinogenemia d. Von Willebrnad’s disease
- 870. Serum CPK levels are low in myopathy associated with which of the following:
- a. Hypoparathyroidism b. Hyperparathyroidism c. Hypothyroidism d. Hyperthyroidism
-
871. Example of single gene disorder is:
a. Hypertension b. Diabetes mellitus c. Glycogen storage disease d. Marfan’s syndrome
-
872. Dominant trait express in:
a. Males only b. Both homozygous and heterozygous states c. Heteroxygous state d. Homozygous state
-
873. Waddling gait is most frequently seen in:
a. Cushing disease b. Common peroneal nerve injury c. Bilateral dislocation of hip d. Myopathy
-
874. Decreased melanin pigmentation is seen in:
a. Whipple’s disease b. PKU c. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia d. None of the above
-
875. Fait in parkinsonism is:
a. Dancing gait b. High stepping gait c. Festinate gait d. Ataxic gait
-
876.The defect in thrombasthenia is In :
a. Platelet contraction b. ADP secretion c. Platelet aggregation d. Platelet adhesion
-
877. Edema is a feature of:
a. Vitamin B12, deficiency b. Protein deficiency c. Cushing syndrome d. Hyperthyroidism
-
878. Not included in the differential diagnosis of chylous ascites:
a. CHF b. Tuberculosis c Filariasis d. Nephrotic syndrome
-
879. pleural calcification is commonly seen in:
a. Bronchogenic carcinoma b. Hyperparathyroidism c. Asbestosis d. Silicosis
-
880. Investigation of choice to diagnose epilepsy is:
a. EEG b. Angiogram c. CT scan d. MRI
-
881. Not an indication for bone marrow transplant:
a. Myelofibrosis b. hypoplastic anemia c. CML d. Thalassemia major
-
882. Bone marrow transplant is the indicated in:
a. Aplastic anemia b. Myelodysplastic syndrome c. Acute leukemia d. All of the above
-
883. Senile plaques in brain are a feature of:
a. Multiple sclerosis b. Parkinsonism c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Motor neuron disease
-
884. Downbeat nystagmus is characteristic of:
a. Cerebellar lesions b. Labyrinthine lesions c. Posterior fossa lesions d. Vestibular lesions
-
885.Caplan’s syndrome is seen in:
- a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Pulmonary edema c. COPD d. Hypercalcemia
- 886. Rheumatoid arthritis associated with pneumoconiosis is known as:
- a. Middle lobe syndrome b. Black lung syndrome c. Caplan’s syndrome d. Hamman-Rich syndrome
-
887.Generalized lymphadenopathy is seen in all except :
a. CLL b. Tertiary syphilis c. ALL d. Infectious mononucleosis
-
888. Oral anti-diabetic drug of choice in renal failure is:
a. Metformin b. Glipizide c. TOlbutamine d. Chlorpropamide
-
889. Mode of action of atrial natriuretic peptide is:
- a. Increasing blood volume b. decreasing cardiac output c. Increasing venous pressure d. Increasing
- rennin secretion
-
890. Atrial natriuretic peptide acts by:
a. Increasing rennin secretion b. Increasing venous pressure c. Inhibiting sodium reasorption in distal tubules d. Increasing blood volume
-
891. Absolute indication for hemodialysis is:
a. Hyperkalemia >6.5 mEq/L b. Percarditis c. GI bleeding d. convulsion
-
892. Uncinate fits are seen in tumors of…. Lobe:
a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Frontal
-
893.best treatment modality for CML is:
a. Radiotherapy b. Allogeneic bone marrow transplantation c. Hydroxyurea d. Interferon
-
894. Blast crisis in CML is not indicated by:
a. Bleeding tendencies b. sudden enlargement of spleen c. High fever d. Lymphadenopahty
-
895. In CML the drug of choice is:
a. Hydroxyurea b. 5FU c. Busulphan d. Clorambucil
-
896. Increased C peptide is seen in:
a. Hepatoma b. Insulinoma c. Glucogonoma d. Gastrinoma
-
897. Anterior uveitis and parotid enlargement is seen in:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Sjogren’s syndrome c. lupus erythematosus d. Sarcoidosis
-
898.Pellagra like dermatitis is seen in:
a. Lymphoma b. Systemic lupus erythematosis c. Dermatomyositis d. Carcinoid syndrome
-
899.Part of heart most commonly affected in carcinoid syndrome is:
- a. Inflow tract of right ventricle b. Outflow tract of right ventricle
- c. Outflow tract of left ventricle d. Inflow tract of left ventricle
-
900. not a recognized feature of carcinoid syndrome :
- a. Increased urinary excretion of venillylmandeic acid b. Skin changes of pellagra
- c. Bronchospam d. flushing
- 901. “ Giant cell’ pneumonia is seen in:
- a. Epstein-Barr virus b. Cytomegalovirus c. measles d. Vericella
-
902. Myoclonic jerk is typically seen in:
a. Trycyclic antidepressant poisoning b. BSE c. SSPE d. Steele-Richardson syndrome
-
903. Not seen in histiocytosis X:
- a. LAngerhans’ cells are pathognomic b. Letterer-Siwe disease
- c. Hand-Schhuller-Christian disease d. Eosinophilic granuloma
-
904. The histologic hallmark of langerhans cels granulomatosis is:
a. Dendritic cell processes b. Giant mitochondria c. birbeck granules d. Eosinophilic granules
-
905. Macrocytic anemia is seen in all except:
a. Thalassemia b. Acute blood loss c. Alcoholism d. Aplastic anemia
-
906. Carey-Coombs murmur s found in:
a. TAPVC b. Tetralogy of Fallot c. TR d. Acute rheumatic fever
-
907. Most common cause of death in adults due to PDA is:
a. Rupture of the ductus b. Aneurysmal dilatation c. Infective endocarditis d. Cardiac failure
-
908. Most common cause of chronic recurrent diarrhea in HIV patient is:
a. Campylobacter b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Cryptosporidium d. Giardia lamblia
-
909. Not used to treat raised ICT:
a. Tetracycline b. Repeated lumber tapping c. Corticosteroids d. Diuretics
-
910.Msot common cause of dementia in people more than 65 years of age is:
a. Turner syndrome b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Huntington’s chorea
-
911. Holiday heart syndrome is commonly associated with:
a. PAT b. Ventricular premature complexes c. Atrial premature complexes d. Atrial fibrillation
-
912. which is not true regarding alcoholic cardiomyopathy:
a. Low cardiac output b. Ventricular arrhythmias c. Systemic vasodilation d. Atrial fibrillation
-
913.Extradural hemorrhage is due to rupture of which of the following artery:
a. Middle meningeal b. Anterior meningeal c. posterior meningeal d. Middle cerebral
-
914. In hemoptysis, blood usually comes from:
a. Pulmonary arteries b. pulmonary veins c. bronchial arteries d. bronchial veins
-
915. Not seen in emphysema:
- a. Damage to alveoli b. Rhonchi c. Decreased vital capacity d. Hyperinflation
- 916. Best method for decreasing blood cholesterol level is:
- a. High fiber diet with low cholesterol b. Unsaturated fatty acid with high fiber diet and low cholesterol diet c. High fiber diet with saturated fatty acids and low cholesterol diet d. Low fiber diet with restricted dietary cholesterol
-
917. diabetes mellitus is not seen in:
a. Myotonic dystrophy b. Ataxia telangiectasia c. Noonan syndrome d. Acromegaly
-
918. Lasegue’s sign is seen in:
a. Sciatica b. Myasthenia gravis c. Intracranial lesions d. Transaction of spinal cord
-
919.Neuropathic joint is not seen in:
a. Fredrick’s ataxia b. Syringomyelia c. Tabes dorsalis d. Diabetes mellitus
-
920. Neuropathic joints are not seen in:
a. Tabes dorsalis b. Leprosy c. diabetes mellitus d. Myopathy
-
921. True regarding Korsakoff’s psychosis is:
a. Anterograde amnesia b. Delirium c. Coarse tremor d. Disorientation
-
922. Botulinum toxin is used in the treatment of:
a. Trigeminal neuralgia b. Torticollis c. Focal dystonia d. amytrophic lateral sclerosis
-
923. Pneumocytosis carinii pneumonia is:
a. Interstitial b. hemorrhagic c. Eosinophilic d. Alveolar pneumonia
-
924.Not seen in diphtheria:
a. Polyneuropathy b. Endotoxemia c. Cardiomyopathy d. Pseudomembrane formation
-
925. Wenckebach’s phenomenon is defined as:
- a. Shortened ST interval b. Irregular heart rate and premature ventricular beats
- c. Slurred QRS complex d. Progressive lengthening of PR interval till a beat is dropped
-
926. False regarding klebsiella pneumonia:
- a. It is also known as Friedlander’s pneumonia b. ampicillin the drug of choice
- c. bulging fissure sign d. Upper lobe involvement
-
927. which of the following is false regarding Klebsiella pneumonia:
a. Chocolate colored sputum b. Seen in alcoholics c. Seen in older age group d. Penicillin is the drug of choice
-
928. Bulging fissure sign in X-ray is seen in infection with:
a. Loeffler’s bacillus b. klebsiela pneumonia c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Haemophilus influenza
-
929. which of the following drug causes diarrhea:
a. Methyldopa b. Purgatives c. Cocaine d. all of the above
-
930. True regarding sickle cell anemia is:
- a. In β chain valine is present in place of glutamic acid as 6th amino acid
- b. In β chain glutamic acid is present in place valine of as 6th amino acid
- c. In α chain valine is present in place of glutamic acid as 6th amino acid
- d. In α chain glumatic acid is present in place of valine as 6th amino acid
-
931. Not a good risk factor in multiple myeloma:
a. IgG spike < 5 gm/dl b. Hematocrit >40% c. Hypocalcemia d. Azotemia
-
932. Pigment gallstones are not seen in:
a. Hemolytic anemia b. TPN c. Clonorchis infestation d. Alcoholic cirrhosis
-
933. In congenital erythropoietic porphyria the enzyme deficient is:
a. UPG decarboxylase b. PBG deaminase c. Uroporphyrinogen III synthase d. Ferrochelatase
-
934. False regarding congenitall erythropoietic porphyria:
a. Autosomal recessive b. BMT is the treatment of choice c. Due to deficiency of URO synthase d. Hypertrichosis of face and extremities are common
-
935. Differential cyanosis is seen in:
a. Tetralogy of Fallot b. TGA c. PDA d. TAPVC
-
936. Pituitary tumor which is most responsive to medical therapy is:
a. Thyrotropin secreting tumors b. Prolactinoma c. ACTH secreting tumor d. Growth hormone secreting tumor
-
937. HTLV-I is associated with:
a. Huntington’s chorea b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma c. AIDS d. Tropical spastic paraparesis
-
938. SLE like syndrome is not caused by:
a. Levamisole b. Oral contraceptives c. D-Penicillamine d. Methyldopa
-
939.SLE like syndrome may be caused by:
Practolol b. Metoprolol c. Alprenolol d. Timolol
-
940. Not seen in Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia:
a. IgM spike on SPE b. Hyperviscosity c. Hypercalcemia d. Positive coombs’ test
-
941. Erythema chronicum migrane is seen in:
a. Glucagonoma b. Lyme disease c. diabetes mellitus d. Bronchus carcinoma
-
942. All of the following drugs precipitate hypertensive crisis in pheochromocytoma except:
a. Opiates b.. Saralasin c. Phenoxybenzamine d. Methyldopa
-
943.Drug of choice for very high circulatory catecholamine in pheochromocytoma is:
a. Propanolol b. Doxazosin c. Prazosin d. Phenoxybenzamine
-
944. Drug not used alone in pheochromocytoma is:
a. Metyrosine b. Atenolol c. Calcium channel blockers d. Sodium nitroprusside
-
945. Lupus pernio is characteristic of:
a. Amyloidosis b. Coccidioidomycosis c. Sarcoidosis d. Histoplasmosis
-
946.Not a characteristic lab finding of Wegener’s granulomatosis:
a. reduced levels of hemoglobin b. Reduced levels of complement c. Elevated levels of IgA d. elevated ESR
-
947. Extraparenchymal restrictive lung disease does not occur in:
a. Congenital hyphoscoliosis b. Emphysema c. Myasthenia gravis d. obesity
-
948.hand-foot syndrome is seen with the use of:
a. Bleomycin b. Adriamycin c. Busulphan d. 5 FU
-
949. Human liver transplant was pioneered by;
a. Halstead b. Christian barnard c. Starzl d. Alexis carrel
-
950.Gottron’s papule is seen in:
a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Systemic sclerosis c. Dermatomyositis d. Dermatitis herpetiformis
-
951. penicillamine is not used in…… poisoning:
a. Lead b. copper c. Arsenic d. Mercury
-
952.D-penicillamine is useful in all except :
a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Mercury poisoning c. Wilson’s disease d. Hemochromatosis
-
953. D-penicillamine is used in treating:
a. Systemic sclerosis b. Systmeic lupus erythematosus c. Systemic infection d. DLE
-
954.Wrist drop, punctuate basophilia and encephalopathy occur in:
a. Lead poisoning b. Arsenic poisoning c. Iron poisoning d. Copper poisoning
-
955. A boy presents with ascending paralysis followed by increasing respiratory muscle involvement . CSF examination shows albuminocytologic dissociation. Which of the following is the best treatment:
a. Prednisolone IV b. Immunoglobulins IV c. Corticosteroids d. Oral prednisolone
-
956.Not used in the treatment of Guillain-Barre syndrome:
a. IV gamma globulin b. IV methyl prednisolone c. Plasmapheresis d. Ventilatory support
-
957. lesion of the Meyer’s loop of the optic radiation causes:
a. Bitemporal heminopia b. Superior quardrantic heminipia c. Central scotoma d . Homonymous hemianopia
-
958. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to deficiency of:
a. Thiamine b. riboflavin c. Pyridoxine d. niacin
-
959. Not a feature of Wernicke’s encephalopathy:
- a. Dementia b. global confusion c. Ophthalmoplegia d. Ataxia
- 960. An alcoholic patient presented with complaints of confusion. He was administered IV glucose and suddenly developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The treatment is:
- a. IV vitamin B1 b. IV 5% dextrose c. IV 50% dextrose d. IV normal saline
-
961.ABG of a patient reveals PH 7.2 HCO3_36 mmol/L; pcO2 mmHg. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Repository alkalosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis d. Repository acidosis
-
962. Blood examination of a patient with head injury reveals PH 7.2 PaCO2 65 mmHg and bicarbonate 30. He has:
a. Metabolic alkalosis b. metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Respiratory acidosis
-
963. Respiratory alkalosis is seen in:
a. morphine poisoning b. ethanol poisoning c. Salicylate poisoning d. Barbiturate poisoning
-
964. Respiratory acidosis is caused by:
a. Morphine b. Asthma c. Emphysema d. All of the above
-
965. Cataract, mental retardation and short 4th metacarpal are the feature of:
a. Hypothyroidism b. Pseudohypoparathyroidism c. Hyperthyroidism d. Hyperparathyroidism
-
966.C-reactive protein is raised in:
a. Infections b. Inflammatory arthritis c. Autoimmune disorders d. All of the above
-
967.C-reactive Protein is significantly increased in all the following except:
a. Rheumatic fever b Rheumatoid arthritis c. Systemic vasculitis d. Systemic sclerosis
-
968. Most common mendelian disorder among the following is:
a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X-linked dominant d. X-linked recessive
-
969. Which of the following is the most common cause of female pseudohermaphroditism:
a. PCOD b. CAH c. Ovarian agenesis d. Turner syndrome
-
970. Which of the following is the scale used in comparing the grade of pain:
a. mcGill’s pain chart b. Visual Analogue scale c. numerical charts d. CHEOPES
-
971. ST depression is seen in all the following except:
a. Coronary vasospasm b. Acute MI c. Ventricular aneurysm d. LBBB
-
972. The shape of RBC is maintained by:
a. Spectrin b. Ankyrin c. Fibrin d. Alpha glycoprotein
-
973. Vitamin E deficiency is associated with:
a. pseudotumor cerebri b. Hyperkeratosis c. Ataxia d. Cholestasis
-
974. Acute leukemia phase is seen in all except :
a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma b. CLL c. CML d. PNH
-
975. Antihypertensive drug which should not be given to a truck driver is:
a. propanolol b. aldomet c. Clonidine d. Hydralazine
-
976. not seen in SIADH:
a. Hyperuricemia b. Concentrated urine c. Lethargy d. hyponatremia
-
977. Reactive arthritis is commonly caused by:
a. shigella sonnei b. Shigella flexneri c. Shigella boydii d. Shigella dysenteriae
-
978. Virus most commonly causing aplastic crisis in hemolytic anemia is:
a. HTLV b. Parvovirus c. HIV d. Herpes virus
-
979.s Dementia in a patient of CRF with chronic hemodialysis is due to:
a. hypertensive encephalopathy b. Hypokalemia c. Uremia d. Aluminum toxicity
-
980. Calcification of basal ganglion is least likely in:
a. Hypoparathyroidism b. Pseudohypparathyroidism c. Idiopathic d. Berry’s aneurysm
-
981. In morphine poisoning , type of respiration is:
a. Diaphragmatic b. slow c. Deep rapid d. Rapid shallow
-
982. Kala azar is transmitted by:
a. Droplet infection b. Sandflies c. anopheles d. Black fly
-
983. not a clinical manifestation of kala azar:
a. Dysphagia and chest pain b. pancytopenia c. Fever and cough d. splenomegaly
-
984. If kala azar is not responding to the primary treatment , then which of the following should be used:
a. Splenectomy b. Ketoconazole c. Amphetericin B d. Double dose of antimony
-
985. Drug not used in treatment of kala azar:
a. Pentamidine b. Amphotericin c. clindamycin d. Sodium stibogluconate
-
986. A continuous machinery murmur is heard in:
a. PDA b. VSD c. ASD d. TOF
-
987. Curschmann’s spirals in sputum are seen in:
a. Tuberculosis b. Asthma c. Bronchitis d. Bronchiectasis
-
988.Enzyme deficient in diabetes mellitus is:
a. Glucokinase b. Hexokinase c. Phosphorylase d. pyrophosphate dehydrogenase
-
989. Which of the following enzyme is deficient in MODY type 2:
a. GLucokinase b. Hexokinase c. Phosphorylase d. Pyrophosphate dehydrogenase
-
990. Which antitubercular drug is used in a patient of renal failure:
- a. Isoniazid b. Rifampicin c. Ethambutol d Pyrazinamide
- 991.Which one of the following therapies would be safe in a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis having markedly abnormal liver function:
- a. Streptomycin + isoniazid b. Streptomycin+ Ethambutol c. Ethambutol + isoniazid d. Rifampicin + isoniazid
-
992. Deposition in alkaptonuria is not seen in:
a. pinna b. Eye c. Nose d. Cartilage
-
993.Drug not causing cholestatic liver injury is:
a. Ciprofloxacin b. Erythromycin estolate c. Clavulanic acid/ amoxicillin d. Chlorpromazine
-
994. Drug very effective in renal involvement in scleroderma is:
a.Nifedipine b. Captopril c. D-penicillamine d. Prednisolone
-
995. Treatment of choice of pseudomembranous colitis is:
a. Amikacin b. Bacitracin c. Vancomycin d. Ampicillin
-
996. Not used in the treatment of pseudomembranous colitis:
a. Vancomycin b. Cholestyramine c. Ampicillin d. Metronidazole
-
997.Idiopathic ulcerative colitis most commonly involves:
a. Cecum and ascending colon b. Colon and rectum c. cecum and decending colon d. rectum
-
998. Heparin’ s major mode of action is;
a. Inhibits synthesis of thrombin b. inhibits factor VII synthesis c. Not easily controlled d. Activities plasmin
-
999. Efficiency of anticoagulant heparin is best monitored by:
a. Clotting time b. FDP c. PT d. APTT
-
1000. Late systolic murmur is seen in which of the following condition:
a. Large VSD b. Small VSD c. MVP d. Tricuspid valve endocarditis
-
1001. Most common cause of osteomyelitis in drug addicts is:
a. Haemophilus influenza b. Escherichia coli c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Salmonella
-
1002.True regarding Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is:
- a. Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase deficiency b. Myoadenylate deaminase deficiency
- c. Partial HPRT deficiency d. Total HPRT deficiency
-
1003. Most specific for systemic lupus erythematosus is:
a. Antinuclear antibody b. Anti-Sm c. Anti-Ro d. Anti-RNA
-
1004. Most common cause of hemobilia except:
a. Hepatoma b. liver hemangioma c. Liver trauma d. Portal infection
-
1005. All of the following suggest hemobilia except:
- a. Lower GI bleeding b. Upper abdominal trauma c. Jaundice d. Intermittent colicky abdominal pain
- 1006.Spastic paraplegia is seen in all except:
- a. Lead poisoning b. Motor neuron disease c. Cervical spondylosis d. Lathyrism
-
1007. Not a recognized tumor marker:
AFP b. Acid phosphate c. β hCG d. neuron-specific enolase
-
1008. Acanthosis is not associated with:
a. GI malignancy b. Gout c. Cushing’s syndrome d. Diabetes mellitus
-
1009. Water bottle configuration of the heart on chest X-ray is seen in:
a. Hypothyroidism b. Carcinoid syndrome c. Beriberi d. Obesity
-
1010. Radiation nephritis is characterized by all except:
a. Mild hypertension b. Massive proteinuria c. Rapidly developing azotemia d. Anemia
-
1011. Carbamazepine toxicity is precipitated by:
a. Valporic acid b. Erythromycin c. Theophylline d. Vitamin K
-
1012. Monday chest tightness is a symptom classifically seen in:
a. bagassosis b. silicosis c. Berylliosis d. Byssinosis
-
1013. normal mean Reid index is:
a. 0.22 b. 0.35 c. 0.44 d. 0.66
-
1014. Which of the following is not a feature of Addison’s disease:
a. Hypertension b. Weight loss c. Pigmentation of skin d. Weakness
-
1015.Drugs causing metabolic acidosis are all except:
a. Metformin b. Spironlactone c. Phenformin d. Albendazole
-
1016. Digoxin toxicity is not accentuated by;
a. Hepatic dysfunction b. Hypokalemia c. Renal disease d. Wuinidine
-
1017. Which of the following is not a feature of Felty’s syndrome :
a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Splenomegaly c. Neutropenia d. Osteoarthritis
-
1018. In aortic regurgitation, the left ventricle is:
a. Hypertrophic b. Dilated c. small d. Atrophic
-
1019. The human parathormone:
a. Increases bone reabsorption b. Lowers serum calcium c. Increases renal tubular reabsorption of phosphate d. Causes reabsorption of calcium in the kidney
-
1020. True about Huntington’s disease is:
a. Autosomal dominant b. usually onset is in childhood c. Associates with rheumatic fever d. Disappears with rest and sedation
-
1021. Broad cast in the urine are typically seen in:
a. Acute glomerulonephritis b. Acute renal failure c. chronic renal failure d. nephrotic syndrome
-
1022. RBC casts in urine are seen in:
a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Renal amyloidosis c. CRF d. Acute nephritis
-
1023. Prophylactic dose of tetanus immune globulin is:
a. 250 international units b. 500 international units c. 1000 international units d. 1500 international units
-
1024.The treatment of acute cardiac tamponade is:
a. emergency paracentesis b. Emergency thoracotomy c. IV digitalis d. Wait and watch
-
1025. Amyl nitrate is used in the poisoning of:
a. Carbon monoxide b. Cyanide c. Salicylates d. Morphine
-
1026. Zieve’s syndrome is seen in:
a. Protal cirrhosis b. Hepatocellular carcinoma c. Hereditary spherocytosis d. Chronic alcoholism
-
1027.Relatively specific test for pheochromocytoma is:
a. Ultrasound b. Estimation of urinary metanephrines c. Estimation of urinary vanilylmandelic acid d. Phentolamine test
-
1028.Bloody mucoid diarrhea is not seen in infection with:
a. Shigella spp b. Vibrio cholera c. Salmonella spp d. Campylobacter jejuni
-
1029. ASO titers are useful in the diagnosis of:
a. Acute rheumatoid arthritis b. Acute rheumatic fever c. Ankylosing spondylitis d. Osteoarthritis
-
1030.In the jones criteria for rheumatic heart disease the major criteria are all except :
a. Carditis b. Fever c. Erythema marginatum d. Subacutaneous nodule
-
1031. The major criteria for rheumatic fever are the following except :
a. Carditis b. Fever c. Erythema marginatum d. ESR above 20 mm/hour
-
1032.Migrating polyarthritis is characteristically seen in:
a. Syphilitic arthritis b. rheumatoid arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Rheumatic fever
-
1033. Which of the following is false regarding rheumatic nodules:
a. Found over extensor surface b. Tender on palpation c. Coincides with subsidence of rheumatic process d. Pea size nodules
-
1034. which of the following is not a feature of classical migraine:
a. Hallucinations b. No aura c. Fortification spectrum d. Scotomas
-
1035. Differential diagnosis of mitral stenosis includes:
a. left atrial myxoma b. Ebstein’s anomaly c. Aortico pulmonary window d. All of the above
-
1036.Differential diagnosis of aortic stenosis includes all except :
a. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy b. Congestive cardiomyopathy c. Left atrial myxoma d. Heart block
-
1037. Convulsions are commonly precipitated in chronic renal failure by:
a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypomagnessemia
-
1038. In adults jaundice in clinically detachtable in the sclera when the serum bilirubin concentration exceeds:
a. 1 mg% b. 2 mg% c. 5mg% d. 7mg%
-
1039. Hamman-Rich syndrome is treated with:
a. Vitamin B6 b. Vitamin B12 c. Isoniazid d. Steroids
-
1040.Which of the following is the best diagnostic method of confirming tuberculous peritonitis:
a. Culture of peritoneal fluid b. Mantoux c. Peritoneal biopsy d. upper GI contrast films
-
1041. Important toxicity of ethambutol is:
a. Jaundice b. Epigastric pain c. Retrobular neuritis d. Skin rash
-
1042. Optic neuritis is a side effect of:
a. Rifampicin b. Pyrazinamide c. Ethambutol d. PAS
-
1043. Metyrapone inhibits:
a. 11b-hydroxylase b. 21B hydroxylase c. both d. none
-
1044. Which of the following drugs commonly cause aplastic anemia:
a. Prednisolone b. Penicillin c. Minocycline d. Chloramphenicol
-
1045.Renal papillary necrosis can be caused by;
a. Phenacetin b. Sulphonamides c. Gentamicin d. penicillin
-
1046. Which of the following is a form of dyskinesia:
a. Torsion dystonia b. Tics c. Chorea d. all of the above
-
1047. Determination of FLGLU in urine demonstrates deficiency of:
a. Iron b. Vitamin B12 c. Folic acid d. Pyridoxine
-
1048. niacin deficiency causes:
a. Dementia b. Diarrhea c. Dermatitis d. All of the above
-
1049. Normal TIBC is….. microgram/dl:
a. 50-100 b. 150-250 c. 100-150 d. 300-350
-
1050. Iron is transported by:
a. Ferritin b. Apotransferrin c. Transferrin d. Apoferritin
-
1051. In a patient with internuclear opthlmoplegia, the lesion is most likely to be at the level of the :
- a. median longitudinal fasciculus b. Third nerve nucleus c. Reticular activation system d. Lateral lemniscus
- 1052.A patient has history of recurrent hemoptysis, truncal obesity and cushingoid habitus and has increased ACTH not suppressible by dexamethasone suppression test. Which of the following is most likely to be the diagnosis:
- a. Adrenal adenoma b. Pituitary tumor c. Ectopic ACTH secreting tumor d. Latrogenic cushing’s syndrome
-
1053. True regarding adult polygenic kidney disease I and II respectively is;
- a. Chromosome 16 and 5 b. Chromosome 16 and 4 c. chromosome 11 and 5 d. chromosome 21 and
- 18
-
1054. Anosmia is seen in:
a. Kallmann’s syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. patau syndrome
-
1055.Kartagener’s syndrome all are seen except;
a. Cystic fibrosis b. Dextrocardia c. Sinusitis d. All
-
1056. In kartagener’s syndrome all are seen except:
a. cystic fibrosis b. Dextrocardia c. Sinusitis d. Absence of cilia
-
1057. ultrastructural abnormalities reported in immotile cilia syndrome are:
a. Dynein deficiency b. Absence of radial spokes c. Absence of central microtubule d. all of the above
-
1058.Which of the following is seen in ITP:
- a. Thrombocytosis b. Increased prothrombin time c. Increased bleeding time d. Increased clotting
- time
-
1059. Treatment of acute gout includes all except:
a. NSAID b. Colchicine c. allopurinol d. all of the above
-
1060. postural tremors are seen in all except :
a. Benign essential familial tremor b. Heavy metal poisoning c. lithium toxicity d. Spinocerebellar degeneration
-
1061.Which of the following is not a feature of hypothyroidism:
a. Myxedema b. Carpal tunnel syndrome c. Menorrhagia d. Increased appetite
-
1062. Pulsus paradoxus is not seen in:
a. Cardiac tamponade b. Chronic obstructive airways disease c. Chronic constrictive pericarditis d. Intermittent positive pressure ventilation
-
1063. Chronicity is least common in:
- a. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis b. Membranous glomerulonephritis
- c. Minimal change glomerulonephritis d. Focal glomerulonephritis
-
1064. Wermer’s syndrome 9 multiple endocrine neoplasia type) is characterized by all of the following except:
- a. Tumors of anterior pituitary b. Tumors of parathyroid c. Pancreatic adenomas d. pheochromocytoma
- 1065. Treatment of choice in Taenia saginata and TAenia solium infestation is:
- a. metronidazole b. niclosamide c. Praziquantel d. Albendazole
-
1066. Which of the following is not a feature of mumps:
a. Caused by paramyxovirus b. Aseptic meningitis c. Orchitis d. Incubation period is less than 2 weeks
-
1067. Most common complication of mumps in adults is;
a. otitis media b. Orchitis c. Myocarditis d. encephalitis
-
1068. Which is true regarding von Willebrand’s disease:
a. prolonged bleeding time b. Rare inherited bleeding disorder c. Autosomal recessive disease d. all of the above
-
1069.Carbamazepine is the drug of choice in:
a. Absence attacks b. Complex partial seizures c. myoclonus d. Infantile spasm
-
1070. When carbamazepine is administered one should avoid:
a. Sulphamethoxazole b. Amoxycillin c. Ceftriaxone d. Erythromycin
-
1071.Which of the following is a highly emetic drug:
a. Cisplatin b. methotrexate c. Vincristine d. 5 Fluorouracil
-
1072. Which of the following is seen in infectious mononucleosis:
a. lymphocytosis b. thrombocytopenia c. Increased serum transaminase d. all of the above
-
1073. pernicious anemia is due to:
a. Iron deficiency b. Atrophic gastritis c. low folic acid d. None
-
1074.Which of the following drug causes acute pancreatitis:
a. Valproic acid b. furosemide c. 6-Mercaptopurine d. all of the above
-
1075.Staphylococcus aureus commonly inhabits:
a. Nasopharynx b. Throat c. Ear d. Skin
-
1076.Daily requirement of Vitamin K in adult male is:
a. 20 to 50 microgram b. 10 to 20 microgram c. 45 to 80 microgram d. more than 150 microgram
-
1077.Antidote of choice in methyl alcohol poisoning is:
a. Atropine b. PAM c. Neostigmine d. Ethanol
-
1078. Thyroid dysfunction is caused by:
a. Amiodarone b. Lithium c. Phenytoin d. all of the above
-
1079. Fungal meningitis is caused by:
a. Cryptococcus b. Actinomycetes c. Sporotrichosis d. All of the above
-
1080.In a patient of fever, nausea and mild pain in right hypochondrium, the most probable diagnosis is:
a. Viral hepatitis b. Acute cholecystitis c. Gastritis d. Pleurisy
-
1081. Treatment of choice for typhoid carriers;
a. Chloramphenicol b. Ciprofoxacin c. Cholecystectomy d. Ampicillin
-
1082. hypomagnesemia is caused by which of the following :
a. Alcoholism b. Hyperthyroidism c. Both d. none
-
1083. which is false regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome:
a. Gaunidine gives relief b. neostigmine also effective c. Ptosis d. Associated with oat cell carcinoma
-
1084. True about Ludwig’s angina is:
a. Caused by Anaerobic streptococci b. A severe form of cellulitis c. originates from an infected mandibular molar d. All of the above
-
1085. The treatment of eosinophilic myositis is:
a. Steroids b. Aspirin c. Persantine d. Hydralazine
-
1086. Which is the diagnostic test in pancreatic insulfficiency:
a. Schilling test b. Serum lipase c. Serum amylase d. Fecal fat estimation
-
1087.HLA linkage is seen in:
a. IDDM b. NIDDM c. Secondary diabetes due to pancreatic disease d. Diabetes due to insulin antagonist
-
1088. Trace element not needed is:
a. Chromium b. Molybdenum c. Magnesium d. Cesium
-
1089. Risk of development of atherosclerosis is inversely proportional to:
a. LDL levels b. VLDL levels c. Chylomicron level d. HDL levels
-
1090. Which of the following decreases the risk of atherosclerosis:
a. LDL b. VLDL c. HDL d. Hyperthriglyceridemia
-
1091.s Sinus bradycardia is seen in:
a. Typhoid fever b. Hypothyroid state c. Athletes d. All of the above
-
1092.Hallucination of obnoxious smell occurs in lesion of… lobe:
a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Occipital
-
1093. The highest frequency wave in EEG is…. Wave:
a. Alpha b. Beta c. Gamma d. Theta
-
1094. External cardiac massage is usually done in the :
a. Lower 1/3 of sternum b. Xiphisternum c. Middle of sternum d. Manubrium
-
1095. Features of rheumatic carditis are all except:
- a. Aschoff bodies b. lymphatic infiltration c. Myocardial fibrosis d. Intramyocardial microemboli
- 1096. Goldblatt hypertension is seen in:
- a. Renovascular disease b. Drug induced c. Adrenal medullar tumor d. Children
-
1097.Air embolism is diagnosed by:
a. Loud P2 b. Continuous murmur c. Mill-wheel sound d. Crescendodecrescendo murmur
-
1098.Hepatic granulomas are caused by:
a. Sarcoidosis b. Sulfonamides c. Schistosomiasis d. all of the above
-
1099. Progressive dementia without focal motor signs is seen is:
a. Motor neuron disease b. Alzhemer’s disease c. parkinson’s disease d. Huntington’s chorea
-
1100. Tubercular nephritis is characterized by:
- a. Pus cells without organism in the acidic urine b. Pus cell with organism in the acidic urine
- c. Pus cell without organism in the alkaline urine d. Pus cell with organism in the alkaline urine
-
1101.Which of the following combination is not synergistic :
a. Penicillin and streptomycin in endocarditis b. amphotericin B and flucytosine in cryptococcal meningitis c. Penicillin and tetracycline in pneumococcal meningitis d. Sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprin in UTI
-
1102. Which of the following is not a feature of bartter’s syndrome :
a. Hypertension b. Hypokalemia c. polyuria d. Autosomal recessive inheritance
-
1103. Pericarditis in rheumatoid arthritis is:
a. Serous b. Fibrinous c. Serofibrinous d. Adhesive
-
1104. leonine facies is seen in which disease:
a. Leprosy b. Syphilis c. Jaws d. Trypanosomiasis
-
1105. Chloroma is associated with:
a. Dehydration b. Myelogenous leukemia c. Melanoma d. Wilm’s tumor
-
1106.black urine is seen in:
a. porphyria b. Rifampicin c. Pyridium d. Alkaptonuria
-
1107. The treatment of geographic tongue is:
a. Scrapping b. Vitamin B1 c. Vitamin B12 d. Nothing
-
1108. Angular oral fissures are treated with:
a. Riboflavin b. pyridoxine c. Cyanocobalamin d. Vitamin C
-
1109. Temperature regulation is mostly controlled by:
a. pons b. Medulla c. Thalamus d. Hypothalamus
-
1110. Progressive dysphagia is seen in :
a. Carcinoma esophagus b. Globus hystericus c. Presbycusis d. Achalasia
-
1111. Hutchinson’s pupil is:
a. Seen in syphilis b. Unilateral constricted pupil c. Irregular pupil d. Argyll Robertson pupil
-
1112. Echolalia is a disorder of:
a. Speech b. Mood c. perception d. Personality
-
1113. Factor deficiency in Christmas disease is:
a. II b. VII c. VIII d. IX
-
1114. Christmas disease is treated by:
a. FF plasma b. FF blood c. Antibiotics d. Steroids
-
1115. Sweaty feet syndrome is associated with:
a. G6PD deficiency b. Isovaleric acidemia c. Branchoid chain ketonuria d. Phenylalanine deficiency
-
1116. Dementia is seen in:
a. Alzhemer’s disease b. Creutzfeldt-jakob disease c. Huntington’s disease d. All
-
1117. Recurrent painful orogenital ulcerations with arthritis are seen in:
a. Gonorrhea b. Reiter’s disease c. syphilis d. Behcet’s syndrome
-
1118. Volume of air taken into the lungs in normal respiration is known as:
a. Vital capacity b. Timed vital capacity c. Tidal volume d. Inspiratory reserve volume
-
1119. The drug not used in donovanosis is:
a. Sulphonamide b. Tetracycline c. Penicillin d. Streptomycin
-
1120. Drug not used in herpes infection:
a. Acyclovir b. VInblastine c. Vidarabine d. Idoxuridine
-
1121.The features of Weber’s syndrome include:
a. 7th cranial nerve palsy b. 8th cranial nerve palsy c. 3rd cranial nerve palsy d. Paraplegia
-
1122. Ipsilateral 3rd nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia with tremors is known as:
a. Millard-Gubler syndrome b. Benedict’s syndrome c. Weber’s syndrome d. Foville’s syndrome
-
1123.AIDS is caused by…. Virus:
a. CMV b. EBV c. Human T cell virus type I d. HTLV –III
-
1124. Which of the following is not predisposed to by contraceptive therapy:
a. Carcinoma breast b. Hepatic adenomas c. Thromboembolism d. Budd-Chiari syndrome
-
1125. Most common presenting feature of bladder carcinoma is:
a. Painless profuse intermittent hematuria b. Dysuria c. Clot colic d. Sterile acid pyuria
-
1126. Which of the following disease increase the risk of active tuberculosis:
a. Sarcoidosis b. leprosy c. Silicosis d. Rheumatoid arthritis
-
1127. the normal respiratory quotient of fat is:
a. 0.5 b. 0.9 c. 0.7 d. 1.0
-
1128. HLA associated with hemochromatosis:
a. B27 b. A c. DW 5 d. B14
-
1129. Bence jones proteins are excreted in the urine in:
a. Multiple myeloma b. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia c. Both d. None
-
1130. parasites causing lung injury include:
a. Strongyloides b. Paragonimus c. Both d. None
-
1131. Mad as a hatter refers to…. Poisoning:
a. Arsenic b. Cadmium c. Mercury d. Selenium
-
1132.CLonidine is indicated in all except:
a. morphine withdrawal b. Migraine c. Hypertension d. Cardiac arrhythmias
-
1133. ABO hemolytic disease of newborn occurs when the blood group of mother is:
a. A b. B c. AB d. O
-
1134.Heel pad thickness is useful in:
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Acromegaly c. PEM d. Hypogonadism
-
1135. Acromegaly is characterized by all except :
a. diabetes b. enlarged nasal sinuses c. Muscular hypertrophy d. Increased hell pad thickness
-
1136. Diabetes insipidus is treated with:
a. Thiazides b. Despopressin c. Both d. None
-
1137.Testosterone is secreated by:
a. Leydig cells b. Germ cells c. Sertoli cells d. Adrenal medulla
-
1138. Raised platelet count may be found in:
a. Postoperative period b. Acute hemorrhage c. Splenectomized patients d. All of the above
-
1139. Visceral have migrans is caused by:
a. Toxocara canis b. Ancylostoma braziliensis c. Strongyloidiasis d. Filariasis
-
1140. Drug induced neutrophilia is not seen in:
a. Glucocorticoids b. lithium c. NSAIDS d. Alpha methyl dopa
-
1141.Clot solubility in 5M urea is a test of:
a. Factor 13 b. Factor 12 c. Platelet function d. Plasmin inhibitor
-
1142. Patients with lymphedema are prone to recurrent cellulitis with :
a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Escherichia coli d. Proteus mirabilis
-
1143. Nonoliguric renal failure is commonly seen in:
a. Snake bite b. Hypovolemic shock c. aminoglycoside toxicity d. Myeloma
-
1144. Acute myeloblastic leukemia (AML) is characterized by:
- a. Auer rods in blast cells b. Philadelphia chromosome c. High leukocyte phosphatase d. Peak
- incidence in childhood
-
1145. Digitalis given to atrial flutter often produces :
a. Atrial fibrillation b. Atrial tachycardia c. atrial asystole d. Atrial bigeminy
-
1146. a patient with spontaneous pheumothorax involving more than 50% of hemithorax is best treated with:
a. needle aspiration b. Closed drainage by tube in underwater seal c. Let spontaneous remission occurs d. Open thoracotomy
-
1147. In a patient with liver cirrhosis factors pointing towards an alcoholic etiology include:
a. Peripheral neuropathy b. Splenomegaly c. Hepatitis B surface antigen d. Macronodular cirrhosis
-
1148. Xylose absorption tests are good screening test for:
a. Fat absorption b. Pernicious anemia c. Carbohydrate absorption d. Amino acid absorption
-
1149.The contraindications of amantadine include all except:
a. heart failure b. Severe renal disease c. History of convulsion d. Pregnancy
-
1150. which of the following is not an adverse effect of phenytoin:
a. Gum hyperplasia b. Osteomalacia c. Gyecomastia d. Megaloblastic anemia
-
1151. myasthenia gravis is characterized by all of the following except:
a. Proximal muscle involvement b. Fatigue with exertion c. Spontaneous regression sometimes d. absent deep reflexes
-
1152. Myasthenia gravis is usually associated with:
a. Hyperparathyroidism b. thymoma c. Thyroid adenoma d. Salmonella infection
-
1153.Myasthenia gravis is associated with:
a. Thymoma b. Ca lung c. Red cell aplasia d. Glucagonoma
-
1154. Aggravation of myasthenia is a feature of all of the following drugs except :
a. Gentamicin b. Neomycin c. edrophonium d. Succinylcholine
-
1155. lipofuscin, the golden yellow pigment is seen in heart muscle:
a. Hypertrophy b. Atrophy c. Hyperplasia d. Infarction
-
1156. Mode of action of streptokinase:
a. antiplatelet action b. Anticoagulant c. Vasodilator d. fibrinolytic
-
1157. Hyperglycemia is caused by all except:
- a. Fluconazole b. Furosemide c. Glucocorticoids d. phenytoin
- 1158. Pulsating tinnitus is seen in:
- a. Glomous jugulare tumor b. Glioma of frontal lobe c. tuberculoma in occipital lobe d. Lithium toxicity
-
1159. Grey baby syndrome is caused by:
a. Tetracycline b. Cotrimoxazole c. Chloramphenicol d. Lithium toxicity
-
1160.Kluver-Bucy syndrome is characterized by:
a. Rage reaction b. Loss of recognition of people c. loss of fear d. All of the above
-
1161. Angiotensinogen is synthesized in the :
a. Liver b. Lungs c. Kidneys d. Adrenals
-
1162. Deletion of chromosome 22 occurs in 90% of:
a. Meningioma b. Retinobalstoma c. Neuroblastoma d. wilms’ tumor
-
1163.The antihypertensive which causes gingival hyperplasia is:
a. metoprolol b. Hydralazine c. Nifedipine d. Sodium nitroprusside
-
1164. Deficiency of which vitamin is associated with hyposmia:
a. Vitamin A b. vitamin B c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin B12
-
1165. Deficiency of which metal is associated with hyposmia:
a. Zinc b. Iron c. chromium d. Magnesium
-
1166. Malabsorption of amino acids is seen in:
a. Homocystinuria b. Alkaptonuria c. Phenylketonuria d. Cystinuria
-
1167. Calcium channel blocker with maximum peripheral actions:
a. Verapamil b. Diltiazem c. Nifedipine d. lisinopril
-
1168. Intestinal parasitic disease in immunocompromised patient is:
a. Strongyloides b. Ascaris c. Trichuris d. Hookworm
-
1169. Dysgeusia is seen with the use of:
a. Cotrimoxazole b. clotrimazole c. Ciprofoxacin d. Captopril
-
1170.Treatmetn of traveler’s diarrhea ( watery diarrhea, no blood in stool or fever, 1-2 unformed stools per day with distressing enteric symptoms) is:
a. Sulfamethoxazole b. Loperamide c. Metronidazole d. chloramphenicol and streptomycin
-
1171. there is no correlation between X-ray appearance and clinical state of the patient in… pneumonia:
a. Mycoplasma b. Loperamide c. Friedlander’s d. Staphylococcal
-
1172. Hepatic enzyme inducers are all except :
a. Phenobarbitone b. Phenytoin c. Valporic acid d. Carbamazepine
-
1173. mechanism of action of quinidine is:
a. Potassium channel blocker b. sodium channel blocker c. Calcium channel blocker d. Chloride channel blocker
-
1174. The following is true of tetralogy of Fallot except :
a. Increased lung vascularity b. Clubbing c. Cyanosis d. squatting
-
1175. pickwickian syndrome consists of:
a. decreased pulmonary function b. polycythemia c. obesity d. all of the above
-
1176. Mode of action of viegabatrin is:
a. GABA agonist b. GABA antagonist c. NMDA antagonist d. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
-
1177. All predispose to ARDS except:
a. FAT embolism b. Hypertransfusion c. Septicemia d. status asthmaticus
-
1178.Ampicillin is used in all except:
a. UTI b. LRTI c. Typhoid d. Infectious mononucleosis
-
1179. which of the following steroid can be administered by inhalation :
a. Hydrocortisone b. Dexamethasone c. Prednisolone d. Beclomethasone
-
1180. side effect of steroid inhalation is:
a. Cushing syndrome b. Sedation c. Oropharyngeal candidiasis d. None
-
1181. prognosis is related to incubation period in:
a. cholera b. diphtheria c. Rabies d. Tetanus
-
1182. Drug of choice in chloramphenicol resistant typhoid fever is:
a. Ampicillin b. Septran c. Ceftazidime d. Ciprofloxacin
-
1183. hereditary hypoparathyroidism is characterized by:
a. nephrocalcinosis b. Candidiasis c. Bilateral cataract d. Subcutaneous calcification
-
1184. Ipratropium bromide is an:
a. Sympatholytic b. Antiemetic c. anticholinergic d. Antipsychotic
-
1185. Simvastatin acts by:
- a. Dissolution of plasma cholesterol b. inhabitation of HMG Co A reductase
- c. Decrease bile salt production d. Inhibition of LDL secretion
-
1186. melphalan is the drug of choice of:
a. nephroblastoma b. Multiple myeloma c. Craniopharyngioma d. Retinoblastoma
-
1187. Hypersensitive cholestatic jaundice is caused by:
a. Rifampicin b. Chlorpromazine c. Halothane d. Phenobarbitone
-
1188.sThe drug of choice in guinea worm infestation is:
- a. Niridazole b. Albendazole c. Levamisole d. Mebandazole
- 1189. Antihelmintic drug which acts by flaccid paralysis of worms:
- a. Albendazole b. Piperazine c. Levamisole d. Pyrantel pamoate
-
1190. Drug of choice in heart block is:
a. Nifedine b. Isosorbide c. Steroids d. Isoproterenol
-
1191.100% Oxygen improves cyanosis in all except:
a. TOF b. Interstital lung disease c. Bronchial asthma d. Eosinophilic pneumonia
-
1192. Bronchopneumonia after measles occurs due to:
a. Immunomodulation b. Sinusitis c. Aspiration d. bronchial obstruction
-
1193. Cells seen in M-5 type of leukemia:
a. Lymphocytes b. Neutrophils c. Eosinophils d. Monocytes
-
1194. Diuretic used in hypokalemic state is:
a. Frusemide b. Thiazide c. Spironolactone d. BUmetanide
-
1195. neutropenia can be the feature of all except:
a. ALL b. Felty’s syndrome c. AIDS d. Typhoid fever
-
1196. Antibiotic which is safe in renal failure :
a. Kanamycin b. Penicillin c. Gentamicin d. Minocycline
-
1197. Russell bodies are found in:
a. Plasma cell tumor b. Gonadal tumor c. Parkinson’s disease d. Ovarian tumor
-
1198. Nickel exposure is associated with which cancer:
a. Larynx b. kidney c. Lung d. Pharynx
-
1199. Eclampsia differs from pre-eclampsia by the presence of:
a. Pregnancy b. Convulsions c. albuminuria d. Hypertension
-
1200. all are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except:
a. Mydriasis b. Ptosis c. Outward deviation of eye d. Miosis
-
1201. Which test is used in the diagnosis of anthrax :
a. Casoni’s test b. Ascoli’s test c. Atoloni’s test d. Frei’s test
-
1202. Test used in the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis:
a. Paul-Bunell test b. Ascoti’s test c. Atoloni’s test d. Frei’s test
-
1203. Steroids are used along with anti-tuberculous therapy in the following :
a. TB meningitis b. Ureteric obstruction in genitourinary TB c. TB of the eye d. Pericardial effusion d . All of the above
-
1204. Salt losing nephropathy is a feature of :
- a. Amyloid kidney b. Interstitial nephritis c. lupus nephritis d. Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
- 1205. Romana’s sign is seen in infestation with:
- a. Toxoplasma b. Trypanosoma cruzi c. Loa loa d. Wuchereria
-
1206. Fenfluramine is used to treat :
a. Gout b. Radiation sickness c. Dressler’s syndrome d. Obesity
-
1207. Fanconi’s syndrome is inherited as:
a. X-linked trait b. Autosomal rrecessive c. Autosomal dominant d. All of the above
-
1208. The following are interstitial lung diseases except:
a. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis b. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis c. Bronchial asthma d. Pneumoconiosis
-
1209.The amount o factor VIII required to raise the plasma factor VIII concentration by 100% is:
a. 45units/kg b. 85 units /kg c. 125 units /kg d. 105 units /kg
-
1210. Allergic bronchopulmonary asperggillosis is seen in:
a. Asthma b. Carcinoma bronchus c. Tuberculosis cavity d. Bronchiectasis
-
1211.Pleurisy is common in which of the following connective tissue disease;
a. SLE b. Systemic sclerosis c. Polyarteritis nodosa d. Mixed connective tissue disease
-
1212.All are features of hypereosinophilic syndrome except:
a. Blood eosinophilia b. bone marrow eosinophilia c. Associated with parasites d. Tissue eosinophilia
-
1213. Pleural effusion with low glucose content is characteristic:
a. Rheumatic arthritis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Mesothelioma d. Malignant effusions
-
1214. Raised glucose in pleural effusion is not seen in:
a. Filarial effusion b. nephrotic syndrome c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Tuberculosis
-
1215.Which one of the following is an immunostimulant:
a. miconazole b. Levamisole c. ketoconazole d. Albendazole
-
1216. busulfan causes:
a. Hemorrhagic cystitis b. neurotoxicity c. Pulmonary fibrosis d. Alopecia
-
1217.Amantadine an anti-flu is useful in:
a. Acromegaly b. Interstitial lung disease c. Parkinsonism d. Toxoplasmosis
-
1218.Myocardial isoenzyme of CK which is specific for myocardial infarction is:
a. CK-BB b. CK-MB c. CK-MM d. all of the above
-
1219. What is morbilli:
a. Rubella b. Smallpox c. Monkey pox d. Measles
-
1220. Opportunistic lung infection in AIDS is due to:
- a.Pneumocystis carinii b. Klebsiella c. Mycoplasma d. Mucormycosis
- 1221. hyperpathia is observed in….
- a. Pontine hemorrhage b. Pyramidal tact lesions c. Thalamic syndrome d. Sarcoidosis
-
1222. Todd’s paralysis is seen in:
a. Head injury b. Strokes c. Epilepsy d. Subarachnod hemorrhage
-
1223. Gaze nystagmus is seen in:
a. Miners b. Infants c. Myasthenia gravis d. Spinal cord lesions
-
1224.In pericardial effusion all are seen except:
a. Raised JVP b. hepatomegaly c. Pedal edema d. loud heart sounds
-
1225. Which of the following is not used to treat acute pulmonary edema:
a. IV fluids b. IV furosemide c. IV morphine d. Oxygen
-
1226. The most common neutrophil defect is:
a. Myeloperoxidase deficiency b. chediak-Higashi syndrome c. CD 3b deficiency d. Job’s syndrome
-
1227. Transmural myocardial infarction in ECG is characterized by:
a. ST segment elevation b. Pathlogical Q waves c. Prolonged QRS d. T waves inversion
-
1228. The following are contraindications of heart transplantation except :
a. Age less than 55 years b. Pulmonary hypertension c. IDDM d. pulmonary embolism
-
1229. The normal AV ratio in fundoscopy is:
a. 3:4 b. 1: 2 c. 3:2 d. 1:3
-
1230. Dancing carotids(a sign in aortic regurgitation ) is also known as:
a. Hill’s sign b. Quincke’s sign c. Corrigan’s sign d. Traube’s sign
-
1231. In ataxia-telangiectasia which is seen:
a. IgG absent b. IgM present c. IgA structure abnormality d. IgA low
-
1232.Liver biopsy is done by using……. Needle:
a. Vim silverman b. Abrams c. kocher d. Menghini
-
1233. The half life of choloroquine is:
a. 6 hours b. 7 days c. 12 days d. 2 hours
-
1234. leukemoid reaction is seen in:
a. Acute infection b. Hodgkin’s disease c. None d. both
-
1235.In a patient with brain abscess which investigation is contraindicated:
a. CT scan b. Lumbar puncture c. EEG d. Angiogram
-
1236. The pathogenesis of cholera is by:
- a. Stimulating the small intestine to secrete large amount of fluid b. Ulceration of the mucosa of the intestine c. Inhibition of absorption of fluids d. None of the above
- 1237. Central necrosis of liver is seen in:
- a. CCF b. Yellow fever c. Phosphorus poisoning d. Carbon tetrachloride toxicity
-
1238. Carcinoembryonic antigen is seen in:
a. Colorectal carcinoma b. Alcoholic cirrhosis c. Emphysema d. Diabetes mellitus
-
1239. The normal fecal fat excretion is:
a. <6 gm/day b. 8 gm/ day c. 10 gm/day d. 15 gm/day
-
1240.Enzyme appearing early in myocardial infraction:
a. CPK b. LDH c. SGOT d. SGPT
-
1241. Recurrent chest pain and syncope is commonly seen in:
a. Aortic stenosis b. Aortic regurgitation c. Mitral valve prolapse d. Mitral stenosis
-
1242. Maximum specificity in VDRL test is case of:
a. primary syphilis b. Tertiary syphilis c. Secondary syphilis d. GPI
-
1243.Niclosamide is not effective for treatment of:
a. Tinea saginata b. hymenoleplasis c. Tinea solium d. Echinococcus granulosus
-
1244. A person cannot identify familiar object when placed in the palm when he is blindfolded this condition is called:
a. Aphakia b. Aphonia c. Aphasia d. Asterognosis
-
1245. Obesity predisposes to all except:
a. Hypoventilation b. Hyperventilation c. Hypertension d. Diabetes mellitus
-
1246. The treatment of choice in symptomatic sinus node dysfunction is:
a. Diltiazem b. Propranolol c. Permanent pacemaker d. Verapamil
-
1247.S4 us caused by:
a. Atrial contraction b. Mitral valve bellowing c. Turbulent blood flow d. Papillary muscle action
-
1248. The most sensitive and reliable indicator of rejection following renal transplant is:
a. Blood urea b. Urinary hydroxyproline c. Creatinine clearance d. T4/T8 ratio
-
1249.Most common arrhythmia encountered in digitalis toxicity:
a. Complete heart block b. bigeminus rhythm c. Sick sinus syndrome d. Atrial fibrillation
-
1250.The outstanding symptom of acute pancreatitis is:
a. Abdominal bloating b. Jaundice c. Agonizing upper abdominal pain d. Constiaption
-
1251`. Mitral valve relapse is characterized by:
a. Diastolic click b. chest pain c. Soft S1 d. Right ventricular atrophy
-
1252. Characteristic signs of vitamin A deficiency include:
- a. dryness of the conjunctiva b. Keratomalacia c. bitot’s spot d. all of the above
- 1253. Which vitamin deficiency occurs in intestinal malabsorption :
- a. Vitamin a b. Vitamin B1 c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin C
-
1254. Peripheral stigmata of laennec’s cirrhosis include all except:
a. Clubbing b. Testicular atrophy c. Purpura d. None of the above
-
1255. which of the following is not associated with tetany:
a. Chvostek’s sign b. Erb’s sign c. Coles’s sign d. Trousseau’s sign
-
1256. Adrenal ‘reserve’ is best tested by means of infusion with:
a. Glucocorticoids b. Hypothyroidism c. Metyrapone d. ACTH
-
1257. plucked chicken skin appearance is pathognomic of:
a. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum b. Homocystinuria c. marfan’s syndrome d. any of the above
-
1258. Idoxuridine is the drug of choice in:
a. Chickenpox b. Adneovirus infection c. Herpes virus infection d. Rubella
-
1259. Pink frothy expectoration is seen in:
a. Pulmonary edema b. Pulmonary tuberculosis c. Bronchogenic carcinoma d. Mucormycosis
-
1260. Fungal infection commonly seen in diabetes is:
a. Actinomycosis b. Mucormycosis c. Aspergillosis d. Coccidioidomycosis
-
1261.Hypothermia is characterized by all except:
- a. common in old age b. external rewarming treatment of choice c. Give warm dialysate d. Steroids
- has no role
-
1262.The characteristic ECG change in hypothermia is:
a. T wave inversion b. PR prolonged c. J wave d. ST segment depressed
-
1263. Chickenpox rash:
a. Appears in the second day of the illness b. Appears on the trunk first c. Maximum density on trunk d. Lesions at all stages of development seen e. All of the above are correct
-
1264. Features of megaloblastic anemia include:
a. poikilocytosis b. Paresthesia c. Macrocytosis with anisocytosis d. Hyper segmentation of neutrophils d. all of the above
-
1265. Which one of the following is AIDS defining illness:
- a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis meningitis b. Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis
- c. Cytomegalovirus meningitis d. Histoplasma capsulatum meningitis
-
1266. Cutting of the pituitary stalk decreases all of the following hormones except:
a. ACTH b.GH c. Prolactin d. FSH
-
1267. A middle aged patient was brought to the hospital in stuporous conditions with loss of power in all four limbs. Waxy flexibility of muscle tone in the limbs was detected. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Hysterical stupor b. Organic stupor c. Catatonic stupor d. Depressive stupor
-
1268. which one of the following drugs causes hyperlactinemia:
a. Domperidone b. Metoclopramide c. Cisapride d. Lansoprazole
-
1269.An Indian adult who has never traveled abroad comes with a history of high fever, headache, jaundice, marked oliguria and shock with TLC of 16,000/cumm. The most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Viral hepatitis b. Leptospirosis (weil’s disease )
- c. Yellow fever d. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
-
1270.Causes of hypersensitivity pneumonitis are all except:
a. Silicosis b. bird fancier’s lung c. Farmer’s lung d. Coffee worker’s lung
-
1271. Cisapride is contraindicated in all except:
a. Severe GI hemorrhage b. GI obstruction c. Pregnancy d. Severe anemia
-
1272. The causes of pericarditis include all except:
a. Uremia b. Hypertension c. Rheumatic fever d. Tuberculosis
-
1273. Cerebral edema is characteristically seen in poisoning by:
a. Methanol b. Lead c. CO d. all of the above
-
1274.Cavernous breathing is seen in:
a. Pleural effusion b. Consolidation c. Carcinoma lung d. Cavity lung
-
1275. The principal cause of chyluria is:
a. Lymphosarcoma b. Hypercholesterolemia c. Hyperlipedemia d. Filariasis
-
1276. Third heart sound when heard is:
a. Always pathological b. Indicative of aortic stenosis c. Suggestive of poor ventricular function d. Suggestive of mitral stenosis
-
1277. Nitroblue tetrazolium test (NBT) is a test of:
a. Humoral immunity b. Phagocytosis c. complement pathway d. Cellular immunity
-
1278. The critical narrowing of coronary vessels to cause angina is:
a. >50% b. >70% c. >80% d. >60%
-
1279. Serum angiotensin converting enzyme levels are raised in:
a. Cat scratch fever b. Miliary TB c. brucellosis d. Sarcoidosis
-
1280.Drug of choice in carotid sinus syncope is:
a. Ephedrine b. Adrenaline c. Reserpine d. Propranolol
-
1281. alpha coma is characterized by the following except:
a. EEG shows waves of 8-12 hertz b. Prognosis good c. Diffuse cortical damage d. None of the above
-
1282. Dohle bodies are inclusions seen in:
a. EOsinophil b. Monocyte c. Netrophil d. Basophil
-
1283. Spur cell anemia is feature of:
a. liver disease b. Myelofibrosis c. Acute blood loss d. Renal failure
-
1284. Keshan disease is due to deficiency of:
a. Selenium b. Cobalt c. B12 d. Zinc
-
1285.All of the following are true of MVP except:
- a. More common in females b. Ejection click heard best on lying down
- c. Sudden death is rare d. associated with arrhythmias
-
1286. parkinsonism may occur because of chronic exposure to:
a. Chromium b. Molybdenum c. Manganese d. Nickel
-
1287. Photodermatitis and corneal microdeposits are side effects of:
a. Verapamil b. flecainide c. amiodarone d. Procainamide
-
1288. Rhabdomyoma of the heart is seen in association with:
a. Friedreich’s ataxia b. Noonan’s syndrome c. Turner’s syndrome d. Tuberous sclerosis
-
1289. All of the following are endocrine manifestation of renal cell carcinoma except:
a. Erythrocytosis b. hypercalcemia c. Stauffers’ syndrome d. Peptic ulcer
-
1290. the normal cardiac index is:
a. 2-3 b. 4-6 c. More than 5 d. 2.6 -3.6
-
1291. General paralysis of insane (GPI) usually follows primary infection after:
a. 1 year b. 5 years c. 3 years d. 10 years or more
-
1292.The total daily loss of iron amounts to about:
a. 0.1 mg b. 0.5 mg c. 10 mg d. 1 mg
-
1293. Dementia is not a feature of:
a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Hyperthyroidimsm c. hypothyroidism d. Cushing’s disease
-
1294. which is not an ionotropic agent:
a. Dopamine b. amrinone c. Dobutamine d. Aminodarone
-
1295. AIDS was first diagnosed inpatients suffering from:
- a. Cryptococcus neofformaans meninigitis b. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia(PCP)
- c. Tuberculosis d. Kaposi sarcoma
-
1296. HELLP includes all except :
a. Thrombocytopenia b. Hemolytic anemia c. Eosinophilia d. Hepatic dysfunctions
-
1297. Hormones secreted by small cell carcinoma lungs all except:
- a. Vasopresin b. GHRH c. ACTH d. GIP
- 1298. The cardiac anomaly seen in Osler-Weber syndrome:
- a. High output cardiac failure b. Pulmonary stenosis c. VSD d. Dilated cardiomyopathy
-
1299. Visual cortex is supplied by:
a. anterior and middle cerebral artery b. middle cerebral artery c. Posterior and middle cerebral artery d. Posterior cerebral artery
-
1300. ‘punch drunk’ state is associated with:
a. Boxing b. Parkinsonism c. Alcoholism d. Chorea
-
1301.Drug of choice for cytomegalovirus:
a. Acyclovir b. Ganciclovir c. Amantadine d. Idoxuridine
-
1302. Granulomatous hepatitis is caused by:
a. amiodarone b. allopurinol c. halothane d. none
-
1303. S Hamman’s crunch s seen in:
a. Caries tooth b. Mediastinal emphysema c . Fracture mandible d. niemann pick disease
-
1304. Wilm’s tumor is characterized by which chromosomal aberration:
a. 11p- b. 13p- c. 13q- d. 11q-
-
1305.One of the following statements about tetanus is true:
a. Caused by clostridium tetani b. Central spores c. Aerobic infection d. Cannot be prevented
-
1306. Lev’s disease is:
a. Sclerodegeneration of the conducting system b. Calcification and sclerosis of the fibrous cardiac skeleton c. Seen as a result of surgical trauma to the conducting system d. Congenital disorder of the conducting system
-
1307. The exanthema of Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) usually appears 1st on the :
a. Face b. Extremities c. Abdominal wall d. Neck
-
1308. Keratoderma blenorrhagica is pathognomic of:
a. bEhchet’s disease b. Lyme’s disease c. Glucagonoma d. Reiter’s syndrome
-
1309. Alveolar hypoventilation is observed in:
a. Guillain-Barre syndrome b. bronchiectasis c. Status asthmaticus d. chronic bronchitis
-
1310. Malignant hypertension is diagnosed when:
- a. Associated malignancy is present b. Papilledema associated with elevated BP
- c. Diastolic BP 120 mm Hg d. All of the above
-
1311. The sick cell is characterized by:
a. Hyponatremia b. hypokalemia c. Hypernatremia d. Hyperkalemia
-
1312.Dysdiadochokinesia is a sign of:
- a. Hysteria b. Epilepsy c. Tabes dorsalis d. Cerebellar ataxia
- 1313.Characteristic histological appearance of cells in Niemann-Pick disease is:
- a. Multinuclear b. Foam cells c. Eosinophilic d. Crystals in cytoplasm
-
1314. Vitamin B6 deficiency is caused by all except:
a. Penicillamine b. Isoniazed c .Cyclosporine d. Cycloserine
-
1315. Fever is caused by:
a. leukotrienes b. Histamine c. Interleukin d. prostaglandins
-
1316. Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by:
a. Mycoplasma b Mycobacterium kansasii c. Pneumocystis carinii d. Photochromogens
-
1317.Calcitonia is secreted from :
a. C cells of thyroid b. Oxyphil cells of parathyroid c. Chief cells of parathyroid d. Acinar cells of thyroid
-
1318. which of the following drugs may precipitate gout:
a. Streptomycin b. pyrazinamide c. Rifampicin d. Isoniazid
-
1319.s The formation of 25 hydroxy cholecalciferol takes place in the:
a. Liver b. kidneys c. Intestines d. Pancreas
-
1320. Water hammer pulse is seen in:
a. AR b. Pregnancy c. Anemia d. All of the above
-
1321. Atherosclerosis in the coronary circulation most commonly affects:
a. Left anterior descending artery b. Left circumflex c. Right coronary d. all of the above
-
1322. Dressing apraxia is seen in lesion of which lobe:
a. Dominant temporal b. Nondominant temporal c. Dominant parietal d. nondominant parietal
-
1323.Palmomental reflex is present in lesions of:
a. parietal lobe b. Frontal lobe c. occipital lobe d. Temporal lobe
-
1324. Frequency of rest tremor in parkinson’s disease is:
a. 2/sec b. 4-6/sec c . 8/sec d. 14/sec
-
1325. Desferrioxamine is used in treatment of poisoning with:
a. Iron b. gold c. Lead d. copper
-
1326. Stokes adam syndrome is associated with:
a. Auricular fibrillation b. Supraventricular tachycardia c. Atrial flutter d. complete heart block
-
1327. How long can be blood be stored with CPDA:
a. 12 days b. 21 days c. 35 days d. 48 days
-
1328. Negri bodies are most often found in:
a. Midbrain b. Basal ganglia c. frontal cortex d. hippocampus
-
1329. Skin pigmentation in ‘bronze’ diabetes is due to:
a. Hemosiderin b. Melanin c. Acaroids d. Lipofuscin
-
1330. Most common presentation of unilateral renal stenosis is:
a. Uremia b. hypertension c. Peripheral edema d. Polycythemia
-
1331.Vitamin k is required for:
- a. over dosage of Dindevan (Phenindione) b. Hemophilia c. Over dosage of heparin d. Christmas
- disease
-
1332.not a feature of hereditary spherocytosis:
- a. Normal or decreased MCV b. Increased RBC surface area/ volume
- c. Autosomal dominant d. Increased mean corpuscular hemoglobin
-
1333. Congenital 17 hydroxylase deficiency leads to:
a. hypertension b. virilism c. Hermaphroditism d. Hyperkalemia
-
1334. Overloads of LSD is most likely to be associated with:
a. Deafness b. Bradycardia c. Pupillary dilation d. Blindness
-
1335. What percent of gouty individuals havenephrolithiasis:
a. 5% b. 30-35% c. 40% d. 50-60%
-
1336. mode of action of actinomycin D is to prevent:
a. RNA synthesis b. DNA elongation c. DNA synthesis d. None of the above
-
1337. Treatment of Vincent’s angina is:
a. Penicillin b. Penicillin+ Metronidazole c. Amphotericin B d. Metrondazole
-
1338. Meralgia paresthetica involves:
a. Axillary nerve b. Median nerve c. Sural nerve d. lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
-
1339. In which of the following condition, tissue and blood eosinophilia is seen:
a. Bacillary dysentery b. entamoeba histolytic infection c. Trichinella infestation d. Giardiasis
-
1340. the enzyme avidin inactivates….. in the egg:
a. Riboflavin b. thiamine c. Pyridoxine d. Biotin
-
1341. ‘p’ wave in the ECG disappears in:
a. Atrial tachycardia b. Atrail flutter c. Mital valve prolapse d. Atrial fibrillation
-
1342. Treatment of choice in ventricular fibrillation is:
a. electrical cardioversion b. Carotid massage c. IV lignocaine d. IV nifedipine
-
1343.Ebstein’s anomaly is associated with:
a. Tricuspid regurgitation b. Cardiomyopathy c. Coarctation of aorta d. right ventricular hypertrophy
-
1344. Sustained heaving cardiac impulse indicates:
a. Mitral regurgitation b. Aortic regurgitation c. Mitral stenosis d. Aortic stenosis
-
1345.PH of the gastric juice is:
a. 1.0 b. 2.5-3 c. 0.5-2.5 d. 3-3.5
-
1346. Drug of choice in herpes simplex encephalitis is:
a. Interferon b. Amantadine c. Vidarabine d. Acyclovir
-
1347. Bancroftian filariasis is transmitted by:
a. Culex b. Aedes c. Mansonia d. Tick
-
1348. Drug of choice to treat metabolic acidosis in cardiac arrest is:
a. ringer lactate b. normal saline c. NaHCO3 d. Isolyte P
-
1349. Cotton dust is associated with:
a. byssinosis b. Bagassosis c. Asbestosis d. silicosis
-
1350.Extrapyramidal symptoms are best treated with:
a. haloperidol b. Procyclidine c. Trihexyphenidyl d. Metoclopramide
-
1351. Juveline Huntigon’s disease is marked by:
a. Chorea b. Tremors c. Athetosis d. Tics
-
1352. paroxysmal hypotension is seen in:
a. Infectious mononucleosis b. leukemia c. lymphoma d. carcinoid syndrome
-
1353. Drug of choice for treating schistosoma hematobium is:
a. Pyrantel pamote b. Metronidazole c. Praziquantel d. None of the above
-
1354.Lardaceous spleen is seen in:
a. Alcoholic hepatitis b. Malaria c. chronic active hepatitis d. diffuse amyloidosis
-
1355. Synkinesia is seen in:
a. Trigeminal neuralgia b. bell’s palsy c. Migraine d. all of the above
-
1356. Milk alkali syndrome consists of all of the following except:
a. Azotemia b. Alkalosis c. hypercalcemia d. Hypercalciuria
-
1357. monckeberg’s sclerosis involves:
A .Externa b. Media c. Intima d. All the layers
-
1358. postural hypotension and failure of ejaculation is most commonly seen in treatment with:
a. Guanethidine b. Propranolol c. minoxidil d. Na+ nitroprusside
-
1359. rheumatic activity involves mostly…… valves:
a. Aortic and tricuspid b. Mitral and tricuspid c. Aortic and pulmonary d. Mitral and aortic
-
1360. Somatostatin inhibits secretion of all except:
a. Prolactin b. Insulin c. Glucagon d. Growth hormone
-
1361.Clinical features of CRF appear when renal function is reduced to:
a. 20% of normal b. 30% of normal c. 50% of normal d. 70% of normal
-
1362. In chronic renal failure all are seen except:
a. Hyperphosphatemia b. Hypomagnesemia c. hyponatremia d . Metabollic acidosis
-
1363. Followign are CNS complication ofAIDS:
a. Dementia b. CNS lymphoma c. Aseptic meningitis d. all of the above
-
1364. which is false about adrenal adenoma :
a. Half are malignant b. presents as abdominal mass c. Should be excised d. causes cushing’s syndrome
-
1365. which of the following is not a differential diagnosis to botulism:
a. Polio b. Stroke c. Guillain-Barre syndrome d. Tick palsy
-
1366. Which of the following is a 17-Ketosteroid:
a. progesterone b. Pregnenolone c. 17-hydroxypregnenolones d. All
-
1367. One of the following is not a chromosomal breakage syndrome:
a. Bloom’s syndrome b. Xeroderma pigmentosa c. Friedreich’s ataxia d. Fanconi anemia
-
1368. M spike on serum electrophoresis is seen in:
a. α chain disease b. Lymphoblastic leukemia c. Waldenstron’s macroglobulinemia d. AIDS
-
1369. All can cause acute tubular necrosis except:
a. Cyclosporine b. Hypovolemia c. Ceftriaxone d. Aminoglycose
-
1370.Most common presentation of primary biliary cirrhosis:
a. Pruritus b. Jaundice c. Abdominal d. Pain
-
1371. ‘Hung up’ knee jerk is seen in:
a. Chorea b. Hypothyroidism c. Cerebral palsy d. Athetosis
-
1372. All of the following reduce gastric acid secretion except:
a. Cimetidine b. Ranitidine c. Pirenzepine d. Carbenoxolone
-
1373. Continuous murmur is seen in:
a. PDA b. Small (restrictive) ASD with MS c. AV malformation d. All of the above
-
1374. Risus sardonicus is associated with:
a. Bell’s palsy b. Rabies c. Poliomyelitis d. Tetanus
-
1375. As an emetic, morphine acts at:
a. Dorsal medullary centre b. Chemo trigger zone c. Peripherally d. Hypothalamus
-
1376. which of the following is true of psoriatic arthritis:
a. Involves distal joints of hand and foot b. Pencil in cup deformity c. Sacroiliitis d. All of the above
-
1377. Membranous glomerulonephritis can be caused by:
a. Penicillamine b. Captopril c. Gold d. All of the above
-
1378.Immunogobulin administration is indicated in:
a. Rabies b. Gas gangrene c. Poliomyelitis d. Typhoid
-
1379. First generation cephalosporins are not effective against:
a. Pseudomonas b. Proteus c. Streptococci d. Staphylococci
-
1380. Initial site of cryptococcal infection is:
a. Meninges b. Bone c. lungs d. Skin
-
1381. Which of the following is false about Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein:
a. Normal urinary constituent b. Tubular in origin c. abnormal urinary constituent d. Seen in multiple myeloma
-
1382. Systolic murmur conduced from apex to axilla occurs in:
a. Mitral regurgitation b. Tricuspid regurgitation c. Ventricular septal defect d. Mitral valve prolapsed
-
1383. Quick reduction of blood pressure is done in:
a. Cerebral infarct b. Hypertensive encephalopathy c. Myocardial infarction d. Any patient with hypertension
-
1384. Nephrotic syndrome can be caused by al except:
a. Malaria b. Syphilis c. Hepatitis d. Mycoplasma
-
1385. Systemic diseases which cause nephrotic syndrome are all except:
a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Amyloidosis c. diabetes mellitus d. Atherosclerosis
-
1386. Bence jones proteins in the urine are characteristic of:
a. Multiple myeloma b. Acute glomerulonephritis c. nephrotic syndrome d. Chromic glomerulonephritis
-
1387. Chronic lymphatic leukemia occurs usually in the…. Decade of life:
a. 1st b. 4th c. 7th d. 3rd
-
1388. Incubation period of mumps is:
a. 2-8 days b. 7 days c. 10 days d. 18 days
-
1389. Down syndrome is due to:
a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. Trisomy 8
-
1390. Edward’s syndrome is:
a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. 5 P
-
1391. Patau syndrome is due to:
a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. 5 P
-
1392. vitamin D resistant rickets is inherited as:
a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X-linked recessive d. X-linked dominant
-
1393.Alpha fetoproteine levels of greater than… is suggestive of primary hepatomas:
a. 100 μg% b. 25 μg% c. 400 μg% d. 500 μg%
-
1394. Syphilis causes all except:
a. Linear calcification of aorta b. Aortic regurgitation c. Coronary ostial stenosis d. None of the above
-
1395. The following does not occur with asbestosis:
a. Methemoglobiemia b. Pulmonary fibrosis c. Pleural mesothelioma d. Pleural calcification
-
1396. Cirrhosis of liver portal hypertension occurs in all except :
a. Cystic fibrosis b. α antitrypsin deficiency c. Wilson’s disease d. Congenital hepatic fibrosis
-
1397. Cardiac manifestations of Graves’ disease would include all of the following except:
a. wide pulse pressure b. Atrail fibrillation c. Pleuropericardial scratch d. Aortic insufficiency
-
1398. All of the following conditions produce restrictive cardiomyopathy except :
a. Hypothyroidism b. Amyloidosis c. Hypereosinophilic syndrome d. endomyocardial fibrosis
-
1399.Japanese encephalitis is caused by:
a. Human retrovirus b. Enteroviruses c. Flaviviruses d. Cytomegalovirus
-
1400. Hurler’s syndrome is associated with:
a. Dwarfism b. Corneal clouding c. Hepatosplenomegaly d. All of the above
-
1401.Nerve involved in intracranial aneurysm is:
a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 10th
-
1402. Which is not a feature of sarcoidosis:
a. Cardiomyopathy b. Malabsorption c. Hypercalcemia d. Paratracheal lymph nodes
-
1403.Bullous lesion occurs in:
a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hemochromatosis c. Uremia d. Porphyria
-
1404. Papillary necrosis is most commonly seen in:
a. Diabetes mellitus b. Acute pyelonephritis c. Sickle cell anemia d. analgestic nephropathy
-
1405. All secondaries produce a hot spot on bone scan except:
a. Myeloma b. Lymphoma c. small cell lung carcinoma d. Renal cell carcinoma
-
1406. All of the following are chromosomal anomalies except:
- a. down syndrome b. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome (HLHS)
- c. Edward’s syndrome d. Tuner’ s syndrome
- 1407. The part of RNA which does not code for proteins is:
- a. Exon b. Codon c. introns d. Meson
-
1408. pseudodementia is a feature of:
a. endogenous depression b. Severe depression c. alzheimer’s disease d. Multiple strokes
-
1409. Enzyme marker of malignant hyperthermia is:
a. Serum CPK b. SGOT c. LDH d. SGPT
-
1410. The most effective treatment of atrial flutter is:
a. IV lignocaine b. Quinidine c. Low dose phenytoin d. DC shock
-
1411. Initial dose of heparin in deep vein thrombosis is:
a. 10,000 U/day b. 1 lakh U/day c. 50,000 U/day d . 2 lakh U / day
-
1412. Ocular muscle most commonly involved in thyrotoxic myopathy is:
a. Superior oblique b. Inferior rectus c. Inferior oblique d. Superior rectus
-
1413. Hematuria, RBC casts and proteinuria are suggestive of:
a. nephrotic syndrome b. acute nephritis c. Renal cell carcinoma d. Chronic renal failure
-
1414. birefringent crystals in urine are seen with:
a. Phosphaturia b. Cystinuria c. Uricosuria d. Struvite stones
-
1415. Function of the thalamus is:
a. Arousal b. Relay centre c. Pain perception d. Pain location
-
1416. In tuberculosis in an AIDS patient the chest X-ray looks like:
a. Miliary shadow b. Consolidation c. Cavity d. Collapse
-
1417. Ectopic ACTH syndrome is seen most commonly with :
a. Renal cell carcinoma b. bronchogenic carcinoma c. Lymphoma d. Pituitary adenoma
-
1418. Cyclosporine A inhibits:
a. B cells b. CD4 c. T Cells d. CD8
-
1419. The following are the toxicity of cyclosporine except:
a. Nephrotoxicity b. Tremor c. Hirsutism d. Hypokalemia
-
1420. Constrictive pericarditis is not caused by:
a. Tuberculosis b. Rheumatic arthritis c. Pyogenic infection d. none of the above
-
1421. All are true about idiopathic hypertrophic aortic stenosis except:
- a. Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance b. sudden death c. May have associated MR d.
- verapamil may ameliorate symptoms
-
1422. Causes of atrial fibrillation include:
- a. Thyroitoxicosis b. Cardiomyopathy c. Chronic lung disease d. all of the above
- 1423. Hormone producing carcinoma bronchus manifests:
- a. Hormonal changes earlier than other changes b. Hormonal changes after other changes
- c. Simultaneously d. During remission
-
1424.Treatment of hypertensive emergency is:
a. Nitroprusside b. Propranolol c. Guanethidine d. Frusemide
-
1425. All are the features of sickle cell anemia except:
a. Leukopenia b. pulmonary hypertension c. Heart failure d. Acute chest syndrome:
-
1426. Not a feature of sickle cell anemia:
a. fish vertebrae b. enlarged heart c. Leukopenia d. Pulmonary hypertension
-
1427. Selective protein loss occurs in:
a. Tropical sprue b. Celiac disease c. Intestinal lymphangiectasia d. whipple’s disease
-
1428. Cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism is:
a. Cardiac failure b. Werner syndrome c. Solitary adenoma d. CRF
-
1429. All are ECG manifestations in Wolf Parkinson white syndrome except:
a. Narrow QRS b. Low Pr interval c. Normal QT interval d. Initial slur
-
1430. Microscopic appearance of pneumocystis carinii shows:
- a. Interstitial pneumonia b. eosinophilic infiltrate of interstitium
- c. Fibrosis of alveoli d. Pulmonary hemorrhage
-
1431.Neurofibrillary tangles and plaques are seen in the brain in:
a. Picks disease b. Huntington’s chorea c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Parkinsonism
-
1432. Ebstein’s anomaly is caused by:
a. Carbamazepine b. Imipramine c. Lithium d. amphetamine
-
1433.Meconium ileus is a manifestation of:
a. Hirschsprng’s disease b. Fibrocystic disease of pancreas c. Achalasia cardia d. Celiac disease
-
1434. Pheochromocytoma is associated with:
a. Vitiligo b. ash leaf amelanotic macules c. Acanthosis nigricans d. Café au lait spots
-
1435. In nontropical sprue there is deficiency of all except:
a. Iron b. b12 c. folic acid d. Vitamin A
-
1436. Patients with sickle cell anemia are prone to infections with:
a. Staphyococcus aureus b. Pneumococcus c. Haemophilus influenza d. gonococcus
-
1437. in an AIDS patient presenting with fever, cough a diagnosis of pneuomocystis carinii pneumonia is best established by:
- a. Transtracheal biopsy b. bronchoalveolar lavage c. staining of intranuclear inclusion and silver staining d. aspiration and culture
- 1438. pseudocoma results from infarction or hemorrhage in:
- a. Pons b. medulla c. hypothalamus d. Mid brain
-
1439.α interferon 3-5 million units thrice in a week for 3-6 months is useful in the treatment of:
a. wilson’s disease b. Chronic hepatitis B c. chronic autoimmune hepatitis d. antitrypsin deficiency
-
1440. Cirrhosis of liver in adult population is commonly due to all of the following except:
a. Hapatitis A b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis B d. Hepatitis E
-
1441. Cerebellar ataxia is a rare complication of:
a. Chickenpox b. Mumps c. Measles d. Glandular fever
-
1442. Generalized edema can be produced by deficiency of:
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Folic Acid d. thiamine
-
1443.Weil’s syndrome usually present as:
a. aseptic meningitis b. Lobar pneumonia c. diarrhea and vomiting d. Jaundice
-
1444. External cardiac massage is given at least at the rate of:
a. 40/ minute b. 60/ minute c. 80 /minute d. 120/ minute
-
1445. True about coarctation of aorta is:
- a. Most common site is distal to origin of subclavian artery b. Bp always comes down after repair
- c. Increased incidence in Down syndrome d. nothcing of superior border of rib is seen
-
1446. Lymphocytic chorimeningitis is caused by:
a. Arenavirus b. coronavirus c. Reovirus d. Parvovirus
-
1447.Regarding Dandy Walker syndrome, all are seen, except:
a. Hydrocephalus b. posterior fossa cyst c. Arachnoid cyst d. Cerebellar vermis deficiency
-
1448. Bilateral anterior uveitis, skin depigmentation is seen in;
a. Vogt – koyanagi-Harada syndrome b. Alport’s disease c. Fabry’s disease d. Weinberg disease
-
1449. Xanthelasma is:
a. Premalignant b. Deposit around eyelids c. More common in females d . Deposits over trunk
-
1450. An overdose of morphine is treated with:
a. IV naloxone b. Iv nalorphine c. IV methadone d. IV steroids
-
1451. Vunyl chloride has been implicated in:
a. Angiosarcoma of liver b. Hepatomas c. Angiofibroma of nose d. bladder cancer
-
1452. Casal necklace is seen in:
a. Beriberi b. pityriasis rosea c. Scabies d. pellagra
-
1453. Ormond’s disease is:
- a. retroperitoneal fibrosis b. Retroperitoneal carcinomatosis
- c. Intra- abdominal desmoids d. Reactive mesenteric adenitis
-
1454. Sensory neuropathy is not seen in:
a. Diabetes b. Lead poisoning c. beriberi d. Alcoholism
-
1455.Onion skin spleen is seen in:
a. SLE b. Thalassemia c. ITP d. Scleroderma
-
1456. Metastatic tumor causing spinal cord compression are all except:
a. Carcinoma prostate b. Meningitis c. Carcinoma lung d. Carcinoma breast
-
1457. Hypochromic microcytic anemia is seen in all except:
a. Hypothyroidism b. Thalassemia c. Sideroblastic anemia d. iron deficiency anemia
-
1458. False regarding chronic iron deficiency anemia is:
- a. Increased bone marrow macrophage iron ingestion b. Decreased transferrin iron binding capacity
- c. Decreased ferritin d. Decreased serum iron level
-
1459. magnetic gait is seen in:
a. hepatic encephalopathy b. Parkinsonism c. hemiparesis d. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
-
1460. In children not a common presentation of AIDS:
- a. Pneumocystic carinii pneumonia b. Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis
- c. Kaposi sarcoma d. Failure of thrive
-
1461. Dapsone is not used in:
a. Alcoholic liver disease b. Actinomycotic mycetoma c. Dermatitis herpetiformis d. Leprosy
-
1462.Hemiballism is caused by lesions of:
a. Caudate nucleus b. contra lateral subthalamic nuclei c. Putamen d. Substantia nigra
-
1463. Diagnostic features of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) include all of the following except :
- a. Changing pulmonary infiltrates b. Peripheral eosinophilia
- c. Serum precipitins against Aspergillus fumigatus d. occurrence inpatients with old cavitary lesions
-
1464.Whihc of the following is the best indicator of iron deficiency?
a. Serum iron levels b. Serum ferrin levels c. TIBC d. Serum transferring levels
-
1465. A patient with recent onset primary ‘generalized’ epilepsy develops drug reaction and skin rash due to phenytoin sodium. The most appropriate course of action is:
- a. Shift of clonazepam b. Restart phenytoin sodium after 2 weeks
- c. Shift to sodium valproate d. Shift to thosuximide
-
1466.Which of the following is true about pericarditis?
- a. Pain increase on leaning forward b. Pain decreases in supine position
- c. Pain increase in inspiration d. Pain increases on eating
-
1467.Hemorrahge pericarditis occurs in all of the following conditions except:
- a. Transmural myocardial infarction b. Dissecting aneurysm of aorta
- c. Metastatic disease of pericardium d . Constrictive pericarditis
-
1468. Chylous ascites is caused by all of the following except:
a. Colloid carcinoma of stomach b. Tuberculosis c. Trauma d. Nephrotic syndrome
-
1469.In a patient with cirrhosis the causative organism for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is:
a. Escherichia coli b. Staphylococci c. Streptcoccus d. Pseudomonas
-
1470. sleep apnea is defined as a temporary pause in breathing during sleep lasting for at least:
a. 40 seconds b. 30 seconds c. 20 seconds d. 10seconds
-
1471. Most common cause of papillary necrosis is:
a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hemolytic uremic syndrome c. analgesic nephropathy d. Hypertension
-
1472. Most common presentation of neurocysticercosis is:
a.. Seizures b. focal neurological deficits c. dementia d. Radiculopahty
-
1473. A 55 year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days complains of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest X-ray is normal. The next investigation should be:
- a. Lung ventilation –perfusion scan b. Pulmonary arteriography
- c. Pulmonary venous angiography d. Echocardiography
-
1474. The most common cause of tricuspid regurgitation is secondary to:
a. Rheumatic heart disease b. Dilatation of right ventricle c. Coronary artery disease d. Endocarditis due to intravenous drug abuse
-
1475. Absence seizures are characterized on EEG by:
a. 3Hz spike and wave b. 1-2 Hz spike and wave c. Generalized poly spikes d. hypsarrhythmia
-
1476.Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by:
a. Cholera b. Starvation c. Ethylene glycol poisoning d. Lactic acidosis
-
1477. Normal anion gap is seen in:
a. Starvation acidosis b. Renal tubular acidosis c. Salicylate poisoning d. diabetic ketoacidosis
-
1478. normal anion gap acidosis is seen in:
a. Chronic renal failure b. Diarrhea c. Diabetic ketoacidosis d. Methanol poisoning
-
1479. All of the following cause high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis except:
a. Lactic acidosis b. Salicylate poisoning c. Ethylene glycol poisoning d. Ureterosigmoidostomy
-
1480. Metabolic abnormality of ureterosigmoidostomy is:
a. Hypochloremic alkalosis b. Hypochloremic acidosis c. Hyperchloremic alkalosis d. Hyperchloremic acidosis
-
1481. Best method to diagnose bronchiectasis is:
a. X-ray b. Bronchography c. MRI d. HRCT
-
1482. In the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma, 1 of the following radionuclide scans is useful:
a. MIBG scan b. MIDA scan c. DTPA scan d. DMSA scan
-
1483. ‘H’ shaped vertebra seen in:
a. Phenylketonuria b. sickle cell anemia c. Hemangioma d. Osteoporosis
-
1484. The morphology of RBC in disseminated intravascular coagulation is:
a. Microcytes b. Macrocytes c. Schistocytes d. Eliptocyte
-
1485. progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) is characterized by all of the following except:
a. Caused by JC virus b. Late manifestation of AIDS c. Cognitive impairment common d. Brainstem can be involved
-
1486. Wimberger’s ring is present in:
a. Rickets b. Scurvy c. Secondary syphilis d. Tuberculosis
-
1487. All of the following are advantages of using isoniazid in antitubercular treatment except:
- a. It reduces load of TB bacilli b. It kills intracellular TB bacilli
- c. It acts on dormant bacilli d. It has preventable side effects like peripheral neuropathy
-
1488.The only drug available for treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is:
a. Chlorpropamide b. Thiazole c. Desmopressin d. Furosemide
-
1489. Narcolepsy is:
a. Narcotic induced epilepsy b. Narcotic induced depression c. Attacks of sleep and paralysis d. Narcotic withdrawal reaction
-
1490. Narcolepsy is characterized by all of the following except:
a. Sleep paralysis b. Cataplexy c. Hallucination d. snoring
-
1491.Regardign Barrett’s esophagus, which of the following statements is incorrect:
- a. Is due to chronic gastroesophageal reflux b. Is lined by columnar epithelium
- c. is associated with elevated lower esophageal sphincter pressure d. Is associated with increased incidence of adenocarcinoma of esophagus
-
1492. the normal PR interval is in seconds:
a. 0.05-0.08 b. 0.12-0.16 c. 0.8-1.6 d. 1.2-2.3
-
1493.Cardiac output is decreased by:
a. Increased sympathetic activity b. Tachycardia c. Increased preload d. Decreased venous return
-
1494.The most common cause of pseudohermaphroditism is:
a. Ovarian dysgenesis b. Ovarian tumor c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia d. PCOD
-
1495. All of the following are true about congenital heart disease except:
a. ASD is associated with fixed split in 2ndsound b. Transposition of great vessels is associated with boot shaped heart c. down syndrome is associated with endocardial cushion defect d. VSD is the most common type in children
-
1496. Tetralogy of Fallot cosntitudes all of the following except:
a. VSD b. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle c. Hypoplasia of aorta d. Pulmonary stenosis
-
1497. All of the following are seen in tetralogy of Fallot except :
a. VSD b. Overriding aorta c. Pulmonary stenosis d. Left ventricular hypertrophy
-
1498. Inmost patients with multiple sclerosis, CSF proteins are:
a. Increased b. Decreased c. Normal d. Absent
-
1499. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for cryptococcal meningititis?
a. fluconazole b. Itraconazole c. FLucytosine d. Amphotericin B
-
1500.A male child of 15 years , with a mental age of 9 years has an IQ of:
a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 80
-
1501. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation intravenous calcium gluconate is indicated under all of the following circumstances except:
- a. After 1 minute of arrest routinely b. Hypocalcemia
- c. Calcium channel blocker toxicity d. Electromechanical dissociation
-
1502. Diagnosis of rotavirus diarrhea is confirmed by:
a. Stool culture b. Antigen detection in blood by ELISHA c. Antigen detection in stool by ELISHA d. Antibody detection in blood by ELISHA
-
1503. The most specific investigation for rotavirus infection is:
a. Stool antigen b. Serum ELISHA c. Microscopy d. Stool culture
-
1504. The ECG changes seen in hyperkalemia are all of the following except :
a. Flat P waves b. Peaked P waves c. Tall T waves d. Progressive widening of QRS
-
1505.Polymyositis involves all of the following muscles except:
a. Brachialis b. Ocular muscles c. Vastus medialis d. Shoulder gridle
-
1506. The drug of choice in the treatment of PSVT is:
a. Amiodarone b. Adenosine c. Procainamide d. Propranolol
-
1507. The patent ductus arteriosus connects aorta and:
a. Pulmonary trunk b. Left pulmonary artery c. Subclavian artery d. Descending aorta
-
1508. Neurological complications of meningitis include all of the following except :
a. Seizures b. Increases intracranial pressure c. Cerebral hemantoma d. Subdural effusions
-
1509. Following cranial nerve is most commonly involved in patients with sarcoidosis:
- a. II cranial nerve b. III cranial nerve c. VII cranial nerve d. IX cranial nerve
- 1510. The most common cause of acute cor pulmonale is:
- a. Pneumonia b. Pulmonary thromboembolism c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease d. Primary
- spontaneous pneumothorax
-
1511. All of the following murmurs may be heard in patients with aortic regurgitation except:
- a. High-pitched decrescendo diastolic murmur b. Soft, low pitched mid-diastolic rumbling murmur
- c. Mid-systolic ejection flow murmur d. pan-systolic murmur
-
1512. The most recent advance in non-invasive cardiac output monitoring is use of:
a. PA catheter b. Thermodilution technique c. Echocardiography d.. Electrical impedance cardiograph technology
-
1513. ASD is seen in all except:
a. Turner’s syndrome b. Ellis-van creveld syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Holt-Oram syndrome
-
1514. Selective media for TB bacilli is:
a. NNN media b. Dorset media c. Lowenstein-Jensen media d. Nutrient agar
-
1515. Drug of choice in anaphylaxia:
a. Epinephrine b. chlorpheniramine c. Wait and watch d. Nebulished salbutamol
-
1516. A 70 year old man was administered penicillin intravenously. Within 5 minutes, he developed generalized urticaria, swelling of lips, hypotension and bronchospasm. The first choice of treatment is to administer:
a.Chlorpheniramine injection b. Epinephrine injection c. High-dose hydrocortisone tablet d. Nenulished salbutamol
-
1517. A 30 year old man presented with nausea, fever and jaundice of5-days duration. The biochemical tests revealed a bilirubinof 6.7 mg/dl( conjugated 5.0 mg/dl) with SGOT/SGPT (AST /ALT) of 123/900 IU/ml. the secrological tests showed presence of HBsAG, IgM anti-HBc and HBeAg. The most likely diagnosis is;
- a. chronic hepatitis B infection with high infectivity b. Acute hepatitis B infection with high infectivity
- c. chronic hepatitis B infection with low infectivity d. Acute hepatitis B infection with low infectivity
-
1518. The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in contacts of patients of pneumonic plague is:
a. penicillin b. rifampicin c. Erythromycin d. Tetracycline
-
1519. All of the following statements regarding the ECG in acute pericarditis are true except :
- a. T-wave inversions develops before ST elevations return to baseline
- b. Global ST segment elevation is seen in early pericarditis
- c. Sinus tachycardia is a common finding
- d. PR segment depression is present in majority of patients
-
1520. Troponin T is preferable to CPK-MB in the diagnosis of acute MI in all of the following situations except:
a. Bedside diagnosis of MI b. Postoperatively after CABG c. Re-infarction after 4 days d. Small infarcts
-
1521. A 60 year old man is diagnosed to be suffering from legionnaire’s disease after he returns home from attending convention. He could have acquired it:
- a. From a person suffering from the infection while traveling in the aeroplane
- b. From a chronic carrier in the conversion center
- c. From inhalation of the aerosol in the air-conditioned room at convention center
- d. By sharing an infected towel with a fellow delegate at the convention
-
1522. The following are true regarding lyme disease, except :
- a. It is transmitted by ixodes tick b. Erythema chronicum migrans may be a clinical feature
- c. Borrelia recurrentis is the etiological agent d . Rodents act as natural hosts
-
1523. A 30 year old HIV positive patient presents with fever, dyspnea and non-productive cough. Patient is cyanosed. His chest X-ray revelas bilateral, symmetrical interstitial infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Tuberculosis b. Cryptococcosis c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia d. Toxoplasmosis
-
1524. True regarding methemoglobinemia is:
- a. Oxygen saturation is normal b. Amyl nitrite is used in the treatment of symptomatic cases
- c. Hemoglobin is in the ferrous form d. Levels greater than 5% are almost always fatal
-
1525. Reye’s syndrome is caused by:
a. Ibuprofen b. Mefenamic acid c. Salicylates d. Naproxen
-
1526.All of the following are X-linked transmissions except :
a. Down syndrome b. Duchenne muscle dystrophy c. Hemophilia d. G-6-PD deficiency
-
1527. All of the following autosomal recessive except :
a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia b. Cystic fibrosis c. Hemophilia d. Wilson’s disease
-
1528. Turner’s syndrome karyotype is:
a. 45, XXY b. 45 XO c. 45, XX d. 45, XY
-
1529. A 19 year old female with short stature wide spread nipples and primary amenorrhea most likely has a karyotype of:
a. 47, XX +18 b. 46, XXY c. 47, XXY d. 45 X
-
1530. Which endocrine disorder is associated with epiphyseal dysgenesis?
a. Hypothyroidism b. Cushing’s syndrome c. Addison’s disease d. Hypoparathyroidism
-
1531.Normal value in blood analysis is:
a. PaO2 of arterial blood 105 b. paO2 of arterial blood 110 c. SaO2 of 90 d. Sao2 of blood 97
-
1532. In a diabetic it was found that he was suffering from orbital mucormycosis. The treatment to be given to him would include:
a. Amphotericin B b. itraconazole c. Fluconazole d. Ketoconazole
-
1533. Which of the following is an acquired stem cell defect as a cause of anemia:
a. G-6-PD deficiency b. Pure red cell aplasia c. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria d. Shwachman syndrome
-
1534. First abnormality of ALport’s syndrome is:
a. Microscopic hematuria b. Proteinuria c. Sensorineural deafness d. Lenticonus
-
1535. Men II syndrome is associated with all of the following except :
a. Pheochromocytoma b. Pituitary adenoma c. Medullary carcinoma thyroid d. Parathyroid hyperplasia
-
1536. True about sydenham’s chorea is all of the following except:
- a. Usually occurs 6 months after rheumatic fever b. Occurs in 1/3 d of cases of rheumatic fever
- c. The jerks are exaggerated on movement d. ALSO titer and other markers are not specific
-
1537. Most common cause of sporadic encephalitis is:
a. Japanese B virus b. Herpes simplex virus c. Human immunodeficiency virus d. Rubeola virus
-
1538.All of the following are associated with SLE except:
a. Thrombocytopenia b. Leukopenia c. Lymphocytosis d. Anemia
-
1539. all of the following parameters indicate prerenal azotemia except:
- a. Urine sodium is less than 20 b. Urine to serum creatinine ratio is >20
- c. FeNa is >1 d. Serum BUN to creatinine ratio is <20
-
1540. All of the following changes are seen in hemolytic anemia except :
a. Increased reticulocyte count b. Increased hemoglobinuria c. Increased heptoglobin d. Iron deficiency
-
1541. The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is:
a. An abnormality in porphyrin part of hemoglobin b. Replacement of glutamate by valine in β-chain of HbA c. A nonsense mutation in the β-chain of HbA d. Substitution of valine by glutamate in the α-chain of HbA
-
1542. de Quervain’s thyroiditis is characterized by all except :
a. Tender enlargement of thyroid b. Increased ESR c. Increased RAIU d. Fever
-
1543. Metabolic acidosis occurs in all except:
a. Diarrhea b. Renal tubular acidosis c. Pyloric stenosis d. CRF
-
1544. Recent studies show that relapses of P. vivax is due to:
a. Exoerythrocytic stage b. Erythrocytic stage c. Liver hypnozoites d. Vivax stage in peripheral smears
-
1545.Erysipelas is caused by:
a. Viruses b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Pseudomonas d. Streptococcus
-
1546.Broca’s are is situated at:
a. Inferior frontal gyrus b. Superior frontal gyrus c. Inferior temporal gyrus d. Superior temporal gyrus
-
1547. Mesna is used to treat :
a. Nausea and vomiting b. Neuritis c. Hemorrhagic cystitis d. Drug fever
-
1548. Sodium -2-mercapto ethane sulfonte(Mensa) is used as a protective agent in:
a. Radiotherapy b. cancer chemotherapy c. Lithotropsy d. Hepatic encephalopathy
-
1549. True about acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) are all except :
a. Dark urine b. Acute abdominal pain c. Skin manifestation d. Neuropsychiatric features
-
1550. Resistance against anti-TB drug primarily starts from:
a.INH b. Rifampicin c. PZM d. Streptomycin
-
1551. Cause of candidiasis all except :
a. OC pills b. DM c. Hypertension d. Pregnancy
-
1552. Organism causing dental caries:
a. Streptococcus mutans b. Streptococcus sanguis c. Staphylococcus aureus d. bacteroides
-
1553. Streptococci cause toxic shock syndrome due to:
a. Streptolysin – S b. Pyrogenic exotoxin c. M protein d. Streptolysin – O
-
1554. Which of the following is false regarding Wiskott-aldrich syndrome?
a. Increased IgE b. Decreased IgM c. Increased IgA d. Decreased CD4/CD8 ratio
-
1555. All of the following are associated with increased bone age except:
a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia b. Gonadal tumors c. Turner syndrome d. Polyostotic dysplasia
-
1556.A 62 year old man with carcinoma of lung presented to emergency department with respiratory distress His EKG showed electrical alternans. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Pneumothorax b. Pleural effusion c. Cardiac tamponade d. Constrictive pericarditis
-
1557.Atrial fibrillation may occur in all of the following conditions except:
a. Mitral stenosis b. Hypothyroidism c. Dilated cardiomyopathy d. Mitral regurgitation
-
1558.The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goiter is known as:
a. Jodbasedow effect b. wolff-Chaikoff effect c. Thyrotoxicosis factitia d. de Quervain’s thyroiditis
-
1559. Which of the following imaging modalities is ‘most sensitive’ for evaluation of extra-adrenal pheochromocytoma:
a. Ultrasound b. CT c. MRI d. MIBG scan
-
1560. All are correct about potassium balance except :
- a. Most of the potassium is intracellular
- b. Three quarter of the total body potassium is found inn skeletal muscle
- c. Intracellular potassium is released into extracellular space in response to severe injury or surgical stress
- d. Acidosis leads to movement of potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartment
- 1561. Which of the following is not usual features of right middle cerebral artery territory infarct:
- a. Aphasia b. Hemiparesis c. Facial weakness d. Dysarthria
-
1562. dystrophin-gene mutation leads to:
a. Myasthenia gravis b. Motor neuron disease c. Poliomyelitis d. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
-
1563. hypocalcemia is characterized by all except :
a. Numbness and tingling of circumoral region b. Hyperactive tendon reflexes and positive Chvostek’s sign c. Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG d. Carpopedal spasm
-
1564. The level of alpha-fetoprotein is raised in all of the following except :
a. Cirrhosis of liver b. Hepatocellular carcinoma c. yolk-sac tumor d. Dysgerminoma
-
1565. Which of the following conditions is associated with coombs positive hemolytic anemia:
- a. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura b. Progressive systemic sclerosis
- c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Polyarteritis nodosa
-
1566.The severity of mitral stenosis is clinically best decided by:
- a. length of diastolic murmur b. Intensity of diastolic murmur
- c. Loudness of first heart sound d. Split of second heart sound
-
1567. The risk of developing infective endocarditis is least in a patient with:
- a. Small ventricular septal defect b. Severe aortic regurgitation
- c. Severe mitral regurgitation d. Large atrial septal defect
-
1568.Kenny packs were used in the treatment of:
a. Poliomyelitis b. Muscular dystrophy c. Polyneuropathies d. Nerve injury
-
1569.In a patient with polyuria and polydipsia with passage of dilutes urine is suffering from abnormality involving:
a. Aldosterone b. ADH c. Insulin d. Growth hormone
-
1570. the immunological response giving protection to hepatitis A for long periods:
a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgD
-
1571.Loss of speech with inability to read, understand in a patient is referred to as:
a. Dyslexia b. Aphasia c. Disconnection syndrome d. Apraxia
-
1572. The blocking antibodies in pernicious anemia are:
- a. directed against parietal cells b. prevents binding of IF and B12
- c. Prevents absorption of IF and B12 complex d. Are directed against enterocytes in ileum
-
1573. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is seen more commonly with which of the following lung carcinomas:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. epidermoid carcinoma d. Oat cell carcinoma
-
1574. “pathyergy” test is specific for:
- a. Caplan’s syndrome b. rheumatoid arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Reiter’s arthritis
- 1575. “Omychodystrophy” is found in:
- a. Rheumatic arthritis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Reiter’s arthritis
-
1576. All the following are characteristic of “right ventricular infarction” except:
a. Jugular venous distension b. Basal crepitation of lung c. Tender palpable liver d. Volume expansion is the treatment
-
1577. A young female presents with history of dyspnea on exertion . on examination, she has a wide, fixed split of S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III/IV) in left second intercostals space. Her EKG shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage b. Tricuspid atresia c. Ostium primum atrial septal defect d. Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary artery hypertension
-
1578. Which of the following is not seen in cerebral malaria?
a. Heavy parasitemia b. ARDS c. Thrombocytopenia d. Hyperglycemia
-
1579. Most common primary immunodeficiency is:
a. AIDS b. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome c. Isolated IgA immunodeficiency d. Common variable immunodeficiency
-
1580. Subdural effusion is a complication of which of the following parasite?
a. Pseudomonas b. Haemophilus influenza c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pneumonia
-
1581. Congenital long QT syndrome can lead to:
a. Complete heart block b. polymorphic ventricular tachycardia c. Acute myocardial infarction d. Recurrent supraventricular tachycardia
-
1582. most common organism causing septicemia in splenectomized patient is:
a. Haemophilius influenza b. Pneumococci c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Staphylococcus aureus
-
1583. Phlegmasia cerulean dolens in deep vein thrombosis denotes:
a. Black leg b. Red leg c. Blue leg d. White leg
-
1584. All of the following are implicate in the causation of hepatocellular carcinoma except:
a. Alcoholic cirrhosis b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis B d. Hepatitis A
-
1585.All of the following are useful intravenous therapy for hypertensive emergencies except:
a. Fenoldopam b. Urapidil c. enalapril d. nifedipine
-
1586. Father –to –so inheritance is never seen in case of:
a. Autosomal dominant inheritance b. Autosomal recessive inheritance c. X-linked recessive inheritance d. Multifactorial inheritance
-
1587. A young man with tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment which vascular structure should be evaluated first:
a. Pulmonary artery b. Bronchial artery c. pulmonary vein d. superior vena cava
-
1588. The syndrome management of urethral discharge includes treatment of:
- a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis b. Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes genitalis
- c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis d. Syphilis and chancroid
-
1589. A 60 year old hypertensive patient on angiotensin II receptor antagonists (losartan ) is posted for hernia repair surgery. The antihypertensive drug should be:
- a. Continued till the day of operation b. discontinued 24 hrs preoperatively
- c. Discontinued one week preoperatively d. Administered in an increased dosage on the day of operation
-
1590. Which of the following is not an oncologic emergency:
a. spinal cord compression b. Superior vena caval syndrome c. Tumor lysis syndrome d. Carcinoma cervix stage III B with pyometria
-
1591. Which of the following markers in the blood is the most reliable indicator of recent hepatitis B infection :
a. HBsAg b. IgG anti-HBs c. IgM anti-HBc d. IgM anti-Hbe
-
1592. Development of testes is dependent upon which of the following:
a. X chromosome b. Y chromosome c. XY chromosomes d. XX chromosomes
-
1593. Hypocalcemia is characterized by all of the following features except:
- a. numbeness and tingling of circumoral region b. Hyperactive tendon reflexes
- c. Shortening of Q-T interval in ECG d. CArpopedal spasm
-
1594. All of the following are poor prognostic factors for acute myeloid leukemia, except:
- a. Age more than 60 years b. Leukocyte counts more than 1,000,000/micro liter
- c. Secondary leukemia d. Presence of t (8, 21)
-
1595. All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of severe hyperkalemia except:
a. Peaked T waves b. Presence of U waves c. sine wave pattern d. Loss of p Waves
-
1596. A laborer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is:
a. Weil-Felix test b. Paul-Bunnell test c. Microscopic agglutination test d. Microimmunofluorescence test
-
1597. Following are the features of corticospinal involvement except:
a. Cogwheel rigidity b. spasticity c. Planter extensor response d. Exaggerated deep tendon reflexes
-
1598. Dressing apraxia is due to lesion of:
a. dominant parietal lobe b. dominant frontal lobe c. Non-dominant parietal lobe d. Non dominant frontal lone
-
1599. A lesion of ventrolateral part of spinal cord will lead to loss( below the level of lesion ) of:
- a. Pain sensation on the ipsilateral side b. proprioception on the contralateral side
- c. Pain sensation on the contralateral side d. Proprioception on the ipsilateral side
-
1600. All of the following are true regarding cerebellar lesion except:
a. Hypotonia b. dysdiadochokinessia c. Resting tremors d. ataxia
-
1601. Past pointing, intension tremor, slurred speech and drunken gait are seen in the lesions of?
a. pons b. Medulla c. Cerebellum d. Caudate nucleus
-
1602. All of the following are seen in cerebellar lesions except:
a. Ataxia b. Dysarthria c. Spontaneous tremors d. Hypotonia
-
1603. which of the following is not a usual feature of right middle cerebral artery territory infarct:
a. Aphasia b. Hemiparesis c. Facial weakness d. Dysarthria
-
1604. Lesion in left inferior frontal gyrus leads to:
a. Compromised language output b. difficulty in articulation c. inability to comprehended written language d. Inability to comprehended hearing
-
1605. Inhibition of 5-lipoxygenase is useful in:
a. Cardiac failure b. Bronchial asthma c. Hepatic failure d. Arthritis
-
1606. A 56 year old man has painful rashes over his right upper eyelid and forehead for the last 48 hours. He underwent chemotherapy for non-Hodkin’s lymphoma one year ago. His temperature is 98 F, blood pressure s 138/76 mmHg and pulse rate is 80 per minute. Examination shows no other
- abnormalities which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
- a. Impetigo b. Herpes Zoster c. Pyoderma gangrenosum d. Erysipelas
-
1607.A 25 year old female presented with mild pallor and moderate hepatosplenomegaly. Her hemoglobin was 9.2 gram per liter and fetal hemoglobin level was 65%. She has not received any blood transfusion till date. She is most likely to be suffering from:
a. Thalassemia major b. Thalassemia intermedia c. Hereditary persistant fetal hemoglobin homozygous state d. Hemoglobin D, homozygous state
-
1608.A 41 year old patient presented with chronic diarrhea for 3 months. A D-xylose absorption test was
- Ordered to look for:
- a. Carbohydrate malabsorption due to mucosal disease b. Carbohydrate malaabsorption due to chronic pancreatitis c. Fat malabsorption due to mucosla disease d. FAT malabsorption due to chronic pancreatitis
-
1609. Which of the following statements is true regarding drug used in parkinsonism?
- a. Amantadine causes ankle edema b. Levodopa is particularly effective in reducing tremor
- c. Amantadine is more effective than levodopa d. Antimuscarinics are effective in drug induced parkinsonism
-
1610. All of the following are used in the treatment of parkinsonism except :
a. Bromocriptine b. Rilluzole c. Ropinirole d. Pramipexole
-
1611. Which of the following is the most common tumor associated with type-I neurofibromatosis:
a. Optic nerve glioma b. Meningioma c. Acoustic neuroma d. Low grade astrocytoma
-
1612. A patient undergoing surgery suddenly develops hypotension. The monitor shows that the end-tidal CO2 has decreased abruptly by 15 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis:
a. Hypothermia b. Pulmonary embolism c. Massive fluid deficit d. Myocardial depression due to anesthetic agents
-
1613.The most common cause of death in a patient with primary amyloidosis is:
a. Renal failure b. Cardiac involvement c. Bleeding diathesis d. Respiratory failure
-
1614. The most common infectious agent associated with chronic pyelonephritis is:
a. Proteus vulgaris b. klebsiella pneumonia c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Escherichia coli
-
1615. Iv bicarbonate is given in:
a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Head injury d. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
-
1616. Chlamydia is best treated by:
a. Tetracycline b. Ampicillin c. Gentamicin d. Cephalexin
-
1617. A 23 year old woman has experience episode of myalgias effusion, pericarditis and arthralgias without joint deformity over course of several years. The best laboratory screening test ot diagnose her disease would be:
a. CD4 lymphocyte count b. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate c. Antinuclear antibody d.. Assay for thyroid hormones
-
1618. A postoperative cardiac surgical patient developed sudden hypotension, raised central venous pressure, pulses paradoxus at the 4th postoperative hour. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Excessive mediastinal bleeding b. Ventricular dysfunction c. Congestive cardiac failure d. Cardiac tamponade
-
1619. The diffusion capacity of lung (DLco) id decreased in all of the following conditions except :
a. Interstitial lung disease b. Goodpasture’s syndrome c. Emphysema d. Primary pulmonary hypertension
-
1620. prolactin secretion is inhibited by:
a. Growth hormone b. Somatostatin c. Dopamine d. TSH
-
1621. prolactin secretion will be inhibited by:
a. Haloperidol b. somatostain c. Neurophysin d. Dopamine
-
1622. Epidemics of poliomyelitis are most commonly caused by:
a. TypeI b. Type II c. Type III d. Type II and III
-
1623.Which of the following Is associated with primary hemochromatosis?
a. HLA DW5 b. HLA-A3 c. HLA DW6 d. HLA DW7
-
1624. A 6 year old child is brought with history of hemophilia, and swollen and painful right knee joint, factor VIII serum level is 10% . which of the following is the preferred treatment ?
a. Cryoprecipitate b. Factor VIII concentrate c. Fresh frozen plasma d. Desmopressin acetate
-
1625. Most common cause of acute cor pulmonale is?
a. Pulmonary thromboembolism b. Lung disease c. Aortic stenosis d. Pulmonary stenosis
-
1626.Which of the following is the best indicator of chronic renal failure?
a. Red cell casts b. Hyaline casts c. Granular casts d. broad casts
-
1627. HLA B-27 is associated with all except:
a. sjogren’s syndrome b. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Ankylosing spondylitis
-
1628. Albendazle is effective against infection with all of the following except:
a. Ascariasis b. Neurocysticercosis c. Echinococcus granulosus d. Schistosomiasis
-
1629. CD10 is a marker in:
a. ALL b. AML c. CML d. CLL
-
1630. Takayasu’s arteritis most commonly involves:
a. Abdominal aorta b. Subclavian artery c. Renal artery d. Common carotid artery
-
1631.Which one of the following conditions may lead to exudative pleural effusion ?
a. Cirrhosis b. Nephrotic syndrome c. Congestive heart failure d. Bronchogenic carcinoma
-
1632. A high amylse level in pleural fluid suggests a diagnosis of:
a. Tuberculosis b. Malignancy c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Pulmonary infarction
-
1633. All of the following are causes of decreased glucose in pleural effusion except:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Empyema d. Cirrhosis
-
1634. Decreased pleural fluid glucose is seen in all of the following except :
a. Empyema b. Cirrhosis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Malignancy]
-
1635. all of the following are true statements regarding acid base balance except:
- a. Diarrhea is associated with normal anion gap
- b. Respiratory acidosis is associated with increased PaCO2
- c. Lactic acidosis can produce an increase in anion gap
- d. Hyperkalemia is associated with metabolic alkalosis
-
1636. Which test is performed to detect reversible myocardial ischemia:
a. Coronary angiography b. MUGA scan c. Thallium scan d. Resting echocardiography
-
1637. the relevance of fibrin degradation products is in:
a. Hemolytic uremic syndrome b. von Willebrnad’s disease c. TTP d. DIC
-
1638. Familial amloidotic polyneuropathy is due to amyloidosis of nerves caused by deposition of:
a. Amyloid associated protein b. Mutant calcitonin c. Mutant transthyretin d. Normal transthyretin
-
1639. The severity of mitral regurgitation is decided by all of the following clinical findings except :
- a. Presence of mid-diastolic murmur across the mitral valve
- b. Wide split of second heart sound
- c. Presence of left ventricular S3 gallop
- d. Intensity of systolic murmur across mitral valve
-
1640.All of the following type of lymphoma are commonly seen in the orbit except:
- a. Non-Hodgkin’s syndrome lymphoma, mixed lymphocytic and histiocytic
- b. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, lymphocytic poorly differentiated
- c. Burkitt’s lymphoma d. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
-
1641. The nephrotic syndrome with best prognosis is seen in which of the following nephropathies:
a. Minimal change disease b. Focal segmental disease c. Membranoroliferative d. Mesangioproliferative
-
1642. Congenital transmission is seen in all of the following except:
- a. Sturge-Weber syndrome b. Von Recklinghausen’s neurofibromatosis
- c. MEN type II b d. Prader –Willi syndrome
-
1643. Congenital transmission is seen in all of the following except:
a. Cryptococcus b. Herpes c. Toxoplasmosis d. Cytomegalovirus
-
1644. All of the following heart sounds occur shortly after S2 except:
a. opening snap b. pericardial knock c. Ejection click d. Tumor plop
-
1645.A patient with a mid-diastiolic murmur with loud S1 and S2 at the apex is most likely suffering from:
a. Mitral incompetence b. Mitral stenosis c. Aortic regurgitation d. Pulmonary regurgitation
-
1646. In a patient presenting with episodic jaundice and conjugated hyperbilirubinemia had normal liver biopsy. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Crigler-Najjar syndrome b. Rotor’s syndrome c. Dubin-Johnson syndrome d. Gilbert’s syndrome
-
1647. True regarding multiple respiratory papillomatosis is all of the following except:
- a. Causative organism is HPV b. Usually seen in children
- c. Mainstay of treatment is steroids d. Tracheostomy is avoided as it causes seeding further below
-
1648. a patient with CRF is having normocytic anemia. Which of the following drugs is most likely to correct it:
a. Iron b. folic acid c. Erythroprotein d. Vitamin B12
-
1649.All of the following are associated with increased pigmentation except:
a. Hypopituitarism b. Addison’s disease c. hemochromatosis d. biliary cirrhosis
-
1650. All of the following are true statements regarding diabetic ketoacidosis except:
- a. The fluid deficit to be corrected within 6 hours
- b. Usually associated with > 2-3 liters o fluid deficit
- c. In most cases the blood sugar level is above 300 mg%
- d. Potassium deficit may be present to the cells in spite of hyperkalemia
-
1651.True regarding primary hypothyroidism is:
a. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerks b. T3 is best for replacement c. TSH levels are decreased d. none of the above
-
1652. the best drug in treatment of motion sickness among the following is;
a. Domperidone b. Metoclopramide c. Ondansetron d. Promethazine
-
1653. lyme disease caused by:
a. leptospira b. Borrelia c. Treponema d. Bordetella
-
1654. A patient presents with respiratory symptoms I.e. cough, hemoptysis and glomerulonephritis. His c-ANCA level in serum is raised. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Good pasture’s syndrome b. Classic polyarteritis nodosa c. Wegener’s granulomatosis d. Kawasaki syndrome
-
1655. The pathogenesis of hypochromic anemia in lead poisoning is due to:
- a. Inhibition of enzymes involved in heme biosynthesis
- b. binding of lead to transferring, inhibiting transport of iron
- c. binding lead to cell membrane of erythroid precursors
- d. Binding of lead to ferritin inhibiting their breakdown into hemosiderin
-
1656. Dystrophic calcification is seen in:
- a. Rickets b. Hyperparathyroidism c. atheromatous plaque d. Vitamin A intoxication
- 1657. Following is true regarding opening snap:
- a. it is a high-pitched diastolic sound b. It is due to opening of stenosed aortic valve
- c. It indicated pulmonary arterial hypertension d. It precedes the aortic component of second heart sound
-
1658. In type II respiratory failure, there is:
- a. Low PaO2 and low PaCO2 b. Low PaO2 and high PaCO2
- c. Normal PaO2 and high PaCO2 d. Low PaO2 and normal PacO2
-
1659. Which of the following imaging modality is most sensitive to detect early renal tuberculosis:
a. IV urography b. Ultrasound c. Computed tomography d. MRI
-
1660. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is seen in all except:
a. HUS b. ITP c. malignant hypertension d. Prosthetic valves
-
1661. ‘c’ wave in JVP corresponds to:
a. Atrail systole b. Ventricular systole c. Atrial diastole d. Ventricular diastole
-
1662.s False about pyloric stenosis:
a. Hypokalemia b. Hyponatremia c. Metabolic acidosis d. Hypochloremia
-
1663. which of the following symbol represent adopted individuals:
-
1664.Choose the false statement regarding hepatitis G virus:
- a. Also called GB virus b. Blood borne RNA virus c. Mostly infected with c virus d. Responds to lamivudine
- 1665. A 35 year old non-smoker presents with 2 episodes of mild hemoptysis. There is no history of fever of any constitutional symptoms. A plain X-ray of chest is found to be normal. Which one of the following should be the next step in the diagnostic evaluation of this patient?
- a. Bronchography b. High-resolution computed tomography
- c. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography d. Fiber-optic bronchoscopy
-
1666. A 15 year old boy presents to you with history of fever, altered sensorium and purpuric rash for two days. On examination , the patient is found stuporous. He ahs a BP of 90/60 mmHg and extensive palpable purpura over the legs . which of the following would be the most appropriate initial choice of antibiotic?
a. Vancomycin b. Penicillin G c. Ciprogloxacin d. Gentamicin
-
1667. A 55 year old man a chronic smoker is brought to emergency with history of polyuria, polydipsia, nausea and altered sensorium for last two days. He had been diagnosed as having squamous cell carcinoma of lung two months prior to this. On examination , he was lethargic and confused . an ECG was normal except for a narrowed QT interval. Which one of the following is the most likely metabolic abnormality?
a. Hypernatremia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyponatremia
-
1668. Tumor lysis syndrome is associated with all of the following laboratory features, except:
a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hyperuricemia d. Hyperphosphatemia
-
1669. All of the following drugs are useful in the treatment of a patient with acute bronchial asthma except :
a. Ipratropium b. Salbutamol c . Montelukast d. Hydrocortisone
-
1670. A normal anion gap metabolic acidosis occurs in patients with:
a. diarrhea b. Diabetic ketoacidosis c. Methyl alcohol poisoning d. Acute renal failure
-
1671. A 41 year old male patient presented with recurrent episodes of bloody diarrhea for 5 years. Despite regular treatment with adequate doses of sulfasalazine, he has had several exarcerbations of his disease and required several weeks of steroids for the control of flares. What should be the next line of treatment for him:
a. Methotrexate b. Azathioprine c. Cyclosporine d. Cyclophosphamide
-
1672. a 55 year old male patient was diagnosed to have chronic hepatitis C. he responded to treatment with interferon , however, after one year of follow up he showed a relapse of disease. Which of the following would be the next most appropriated choice?
a. RIbavirin and interferon b. Lamivudine and interferon c. Nevirapine and lamivudine d. Indinavir and ribavirin
-
1673. In malignant hyperthermia the increased heat production is due to:
- a. Increased muscle metabolism by excess of calcium ions b. Thermic effect of blood
- c. Increased sympathetic discharge d. Mitochondrial thermogenesis
-
1674. Which of the following management procedures of acute upper gastrointestinal bleed should possible be avoided:
a. Intravenous vasopressin b. Intravenous beta-blockers c. endoscopic sclerotherapy d. Balloon tamponade
-
1675.Early diagnosis of acute hepatitis B infection is made by:
- a. Presence of HBeAg in serum b. Presence of IgM anti-HBc in serum
- c. Presence of HBsAg in serum d. Presence of IgG anti- HBc in serum
-
1676. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is disease of:
a. Neuromuscular junction b. Sarcolemmal proteins c. Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness d. Muscle contractile proteins
-
1677. Which of the following is the drug of first choice for non-gonococcal urethritis?
a. Ceftriaxone b. Doxycycline c. Ciprofloxacin d. Minocycline
-
1678. Ataxia telangiectasia is characterized by all of the following except:
- a. Chronic sinopulmonary disease b. Decreased level of alfa fetoprotein
- c. Chromosomal breakage d. IgA deficiency
-
1679.Hemoglobin A 1c level in blood explains:
a. Chronic pancreatitis b. Hepato-renal syndrome c. Long term status of blood sugar d. Acute rise of sugar
-
1680.The first investigation of choice in patient with suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage should be:
a. CSF examination b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) c. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography d. Non-contrast computed tomography
-
1681. Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferriin saturation are most consistent diagnosis of:
a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Anemia of chronic disease c. Hemochromatosis d. Lead poisoning
-
1682. Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynecomastia except :
a. Testosterone b. Prolactin c. Luteinizing hormone d. Estradiol
-
1683. Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynecomastia, except:
a. Testosterone b. Prolactin c. Luteinizing hormone d. Estradiol
-
1684. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for Kawasaki disease?
a. Cyclosporine b. Dapsone c. IV immunoglobulin d. Methotrexate
-
1685. Which one of the following is not a feature of multiple myeloma?
a. Hypercalcemia b. Anemia c. Hyperviscsity d . elevated alkaline phosphatase
-
1686. Which one of the following diseases is an autosomal dominant disorder?
a. Hemochromatosis b. Phenylkenuria c. Maturity-onset diabetes of the young d. Glucose -6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
-
1687. Which one of the following lymphomas is associated with HTLV-I virus infection ?
- a. Burkitt’s lymphoma b. B-cell lymphoma c. Adult T-cell leukemia and lymphoma d. Hodgkin’s disease
- 1688. D-dimer is the most sensitive diagnostic test for:
- a. Pulmonary embolism b. Acute pulmonary edema c. Cardiac tamponade d. Acute myocardial infarction
-
1689. The most appropriate drug for the treatment of bulimia nervosa is:
a. Amitriptyline b. Lithium c. Fluoxetine d. Sertraline
-
1690.Carcinoid syndrome produces valvular disease primarily involving :
a. Pulmonary valves b. Tricuspid valves c. Mitral valve d. Aortic vlave
-
1691. all of the following conditions are observed in marasmus, except:
a. Heaptomegaly b. Muscle wasting c. Low insulin levels d. Extreme weakness
-
1692. Bart’s hydrops fetalis is tethal because:
- a. Hb Bart’s cannot bind oxygen b. The excess α chain form insoluble precipitates
- c. Hb Bart’s cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues d. Microcytic red cells become trapped in the placenta
-
1693. Which of the following is a cause of reversible dementia :
a. Subacute combined degeneration b . Picks disease c. Creutzfeldt-jakob disease d. Alzheimer’s disease
-
1694.Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following except :
a. Myelopathy b. Optic atrophy c. Peripheral neuropathy d. Myopathy
-
1695. Which one of the following is used in therapy of toxoplasmosis?
a. Artesunate b. Thiacentazone c. Ciprofloxacin d. Pyrimethamine
-
1696. Which of the following drugs is useful in prophylaxis of migraine ?
a. Propranolol b. Sumatriptan c. Domperidone d. Ergotamine
-
1697. Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonuism is treated by:
a. Anticholinergics b. Levodopa c. Selegiline d. Amantadine
-
1698. Which of the following infestation leads to malabsorption ?
a. Giadia lamblia b. Ascaris lumbricoides c. Necator americanus d. Ancylostoma duodenale
-
1699. All of the following can cause osteoporosis except:
a. Hyperparahtyroidism b. Steroid use c. Flurosis d. Thyrotoxicosis
-
1700. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by:
- a. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) b. Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
- c. Interleukin -6 (IL-6) d. Calcitonin
-
1701. All of the following are the causes of ‘relative’ polycythemia, except:
a. Dehydration b. Dengue hemorrhagic fever c. Gaisbock syndrome d. High altitude
-
1702. 5’ –nucleotidase activity is increased by:
a. bone disease b. Prostate cancer c. Chronic renal failure d. Cholestatic disorders
-
1703. Normal CSF glucose level in a normoglycemic adult is:
a. 20-40 mg/dl b. 40-70 mg/dl c. 70-90 mg/dl d. 90-110 mg/dl
-
1704. All of the following may cause ST segment elevation on ECG , except:
a. Early repolarization variant b. Constrictive pericardia c. Ventricular aneurysm d. Prinzmetal’s angina
-
1705. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is:
- a. elevated serum Ach-receptor binding antibodies b. Repetitive nerve stimulation test
- c. Positive edrophonium test d. Measurement of jitter by single fiber electromyography
-
1706. Not a neurologic channelopathy:
a. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis b. Episodic atxias c. Familial hemiplegic migraine d. Huntigton’s disease
-
1707. all of the following are neurological channelopathies , except:
a. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis b. Episodic ataxia type 1 c. Familial hemiplegic migraine d. Spinocerebellar ataxia 1
-
1708.All of the following are calcium channelopathies except :
a. Episodic ataxia type 1 b. Spinocerebellar ataxia type 6 c. Familial hemiplegic migraine d. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis
-
1709.At what value of one hour glucose challenge test will you recommend a standard glucose tolerance test?
a. 120 Mg/dl b. 140 mg/dl c. 150 mg/dl d. 160 mg/dl
-
1710. A 50 year old man alcoholic and a smoker presents with a 3-hour history of severe retrosternal chest pain and increasing shortness of breath. He started having this pain while eating, which was constant and radiated to the back and intercapular region. He was a known hypertensive. On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130 /min , and a BP of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP was normal . all peripheral pulses were present and equal. Breath sounds were decreased at the left lung base and chest X-ray showed left pleural effusion. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Acute aortic dissection b. Acute myocardial infarction c. Rupture of the esophagus d. Acute pulmonary embolism
-
1711. A 30 year old male patient presents with complaints of weakness in right upper and both lower limbs for last 4 months. He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3rd fingers side and 5th finger in left side. On examinations, BP was 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. Investigations showed Hb-12 gm, TLC -12000 CU mm, platelets-4,30,000, ESR- 49 mm. urine examination showed proteinuria and RBC 10-15 per HPF with no casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Polyarteritis nodosa b. systemic lupus erythematosus c. Wegener’s granulomatosis d. Mixed cryoglobulinemia
-
1712. All of the following conditions are known to cause diabetes insipidus, except:
a. Multiple sclerosis b. Head injury c. Histiocytosis d. Viral encephalitis
-
1713. Increased susceptibility to breast cancer is likely to be associated with a mutation in the following gene:
a. p53 b. BRCA-1 c. Retinoblastoma (Rb) d. H-Ras
-
1714. The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are:
a. Gram-positive organism b. Gram –negative organism c. Mycoplasma d. Virus infections
-
1715. Ropinirole’s is most useful for treatment of:
a. Parkinson’s disease b. wilson’s disease c. Hoffman’s syndrome d. Carpal tunnel syndrome
-
1716.In which of the following arthritis erosions are not seen?
a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) c. Psoriasis d. Gout
-
1717. Flapping tremors are seen in the following conditions except:
a. Uremic encephalopathy b. Parkinsonism c. Hepatic encephalopathy d. Carbon dioxide narcosis
-
1718. All of the following are true regarding tetralogy of fallot, except:
- a. ejection systolic murmur in second intercostals space b. Single second heart sound
- c. Predominantly left t right shunt d. Normal jugular venous pressure
-
1719. Which one of the following is not a feature of irritable bowel syndrome:
a. abdominal pain b. Constipation c. Rectal bleeding d. bloating
-
1720. In which of the following conditions of malabsorption, an intestinal biopsy is diagnostic?
a. Celiac disease b. Tropical sprue c. whipple’s disease d. Lactose intolerance
-
1721. Hemolytic anemia may be characterized by all of the following except:
a. Hyperbilirubinemia b. Reticulocytosis c. Hemoglobinuria d. Increased plasma haptoglobin level
-
1722. Recurrent facial/oropharyngeal/ laryngeal edema in a patient having low C4 , normal C3 and normal factor B. The pathogenesis is most likely due to:
a. Immune complex disease b. C 1 esterase inhibitor deficiency c. Hereditary deficiency of QI d. Classical pathway activation by IgM
-
1723. There is mutation of gene coding for the ryanodine receptors in malignant hyperthermia. Which of the following statements best explains the increased heat production in malignant hyperthermia?
- a. Increased muscle metabolism by excess of calcium ions b. Thermic effect of food
- c. Increased sympathetic discharge d. Mitochondrial thermogenesis
-
1724. All of the following conditions are observed in gout, except:
- a. Uric acid nephrolithiasis b. deficiency of enzyme xanthine oxidase
- c. Increase in serum urate concentration d. Renal disease involving interstitial tissues
-
1725. which of the following statement is false regarding Wilson’s disease?
- a. It is an autosomal recessive disorder
- b. Serum ceruloplasmin level is less than 20 microgram per day
- c. Urinary copper excretion is less than 100 microgram per day
- d. Zinc acetate is effective as maintenance therapy
-
1726. False regarding creutzfeldt-jakob disease:
- a. It is a neurodegenerative disease b. It is caused by infectious proteins
- c. Myoclonus is rarely seen d. Brain biopsy is specific for diagnosis
-
1727.Which of the following is not a feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
- a. Myoclonus on awakening b. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures
- c. Automation d. Absence seizure
-
1728. A 20 year old female presents with history of dyspnea on exertion. On examination she has wide fixed split of S2 with ejection systolic murmur (III/Iv) in left second intercostals space. Her EKG shows left axis deviation. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection b. Tricuspid atresia c. Ostium primum atrial septal defect d. Tetralogy of Fallot
-
1729. The only thrombolytic agent approved for the treatment of acute ischemic stroke is:
a. Tissue plasminogen activator b. streptokinase c. Urokinase d. Pro-urkinase
-
1730. The most common cause of sporadic viral encephalitis is:
a. Japanese B encephalitis b. Herpes simplex encephalitis c. HIV encephalitis d. Rubeola encephalitis
-
1731. A 27 year old man is noted to have blood pressure of 170/100 mm Hg. He has prominent aortic ejection click and murmurs heard over the ribs on both sides anteriorly and over the back posteriorly. In addition , the pulses in the lower extremities are feeble and he complains of mild claudication with exertion . the most likely diagnosis is:
a. ASD b. Aortic stenosis b. Coarctatiuon aorta d. Cardiomyopathy
-
1732. A 62 year old diabetic female patient presented with history of progressive right sided weakness of one-month duration . the patient was also having speech difficulty. Fundus examination showed papilledema. Two months ago, she also had a fall in her bathroom and struck her head against a wall. The most likely clinical diagnosis is:
- a. Alzhemer’s disease b. Left parietal glioma c. Left MCA territory stroke d. Left chronic subdural
- hematoma
-
1733. All of the following can cause hyeprcalcemia , except:
a. Prolonged immunobilization b. Tumor lysis syndrome c. Sarcoidosis d. Multiple melanoma
-
1734. Humoral immunodeficiency is suspected in a patient and he is under investigation. Which of the following infections would not be consistent with the diagnosis?
a. Giardiasis b. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia c. Recurrent sinusitis d. Recurrent subcutaneous abscesses
-
1735. In a ptient with listeria meningitis who is allergic to penicillin , the antimicrobial of choice is:
a. Vancomycin b. Gentamicin c. Trimethoprin-Sulfamethoxazole d. Ceftriaxone
-
1736. Migratory thrombophlebitis is associated with the following malignancies except:
- a. Lung cancer b. Prostate cancer c. Pancreas cancer d. Gastrointestinal cancer
- 1737. Which of the following is the most common extra-renal involvement in autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?
- a. Mitral valve prolapse b. Hepatic cysts c. splenic cyst d. Colonic diverticulosis
-
1738. Which of the following is generally not seen in ITP?
a. More common in females b. Petechiae, ecchymosis and bleeding c. Palpabe splenomegaly d. Increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow
-
1739. Which of the following arbovirus diseases has not been reported in India?
a. Japanese encephalitis b. Yellow fever c. Chikungunya fever d. KFD
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