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  1. 1. Best method of diagnosiing acute appendicitis is:
    a. Barium meal b. History c. X-ray abdomen d. Physical examination
  2. 2. True regarding pott’s puffy “ tumor” is:
    a. Frontal bone osteomyelitis with overlying soft tissue swelling_x000D_b. Swelling of ankle associated with pott’s fracture _x000D_c. Swelling associated with pott’s spine _x000D_d. Malignant tumor of scalp
  3. 3. Ramsdt’s operation is done for:
    a. Annular pancreas b. Achalasia cardia _x000D_c.carcinma stomach d. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis of infants
  4. 4. Projective vomiting and visible peristalsis in upper abdomen in the 1st month of life is most commonly due to:
    a. Duodenal ileus b. Annular pancreas _x000D_c.Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d. Malrotation of gut
  5. 5. In infancy pyloric stenosis should be treated with:
    a. Heller’s myotomy b. Medical treatment c. Ramstedt’s operation d. Gastrojejunostomy
  6. 6. Bilious vomiting is not seen in:
    a. Pyloric stenosis b. Duodenal atresia _x000D_c.Volvulus of small intestine d. Jejunal atresia
  7. 7. A 26 year old infant presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting, constipation and rabbit like pellet stol. He has:
    a. Choledichal cyst b. Esophageal atresia c. Duodenal atresia d. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
  8. 8. False regarrding hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is:
    a. X-ray abdomen shows gastric dilation and minimum air in small intestine_x000D_b. Usg is not helpful in diagnosis _x000D_c. Common in boys _x000D_d. Usually presents between 2-8 years
  9. 9. Hypertrophic Pyloric stenosis is ideally treated with:
    a. Ryle’s tube and fluids b. Wait and watch c. Pyloromyotomy d. Pyloroplasty
  10. 10. In which of the following conditions, triad of pain in abdomen , jaundice and melena is seen :
    a. Acute pancreatitis b. Hemobilia c. Gallbladdr carcinoma d. Acute cholecystitis
  11. 11. Not a feature of hemobilia :
    a. Jaundice b. Abdominal pain c. Gastrointestinal bleeding d. Fever
  12. 12. Hemobilia occurs most commonly due to:
    a. Cholengitis b. Gallstone c. Trauma d. Liver abscess
  13. 13. In 3rd degree piles, the treatment of choice is:
    a. Hemorrhoidectomy b. Cryosurgery c. Banding d. Injection treatment
  14. 14. Th etreatment of choice of 2nd degree piles is:
    a. Surgery b. Banding c. Cryosurgery d. Sclerotherapy
  15. 15. Most common cause of bleeding per rectum in men between 20-40 years of age is:
    a. Fissure in ano b. Internal heemorrhoids c. Rectal polyp d. Rectal carcinoma
  16. 16. Following hemorrhoidectomy th emost common complication is:
    a. Urinary retention b. Infection c. Hemorrhage d. Fecal impaction
  17. 17. False regarding hemorrhoids is:
    a. They are arterriolar dilatations _x000D_b. They are common causes of painless bleeding _x000D_c. They cannot be palpated per rectally_x000D_d. Discharge, pain and anemia are other symptoms
  18. 18. A neonate presents with dribbling of saliva. The diagnosis is:
    a. Choanal atresia b. Tracheoesophageal fistula _x000D_c.Duodenal atresia d. Esophageal atresia
  19. 19. A neonate regurgitates first and subsequent feeds. Diagnosis is:
    a. Presbyoesophagus b. Scleroderma c. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d. Esophageal atresia
  20. 20. Which of the following is the most common type of congential atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula:
    a. Both segment ends blindly_x000D_b. Both segment opening into trachea _x000D_c. Upper ssegment opening into trachea and lower end is blind_x000D_d. Lower segment opening into trachea and upper end is blind
  21. 21. In which of the following condition, nicoladoni’s of Branham’s sign is seen:
    a. Arteriovenous fistula(AVF) b. Deep vein thrombosis_x000D_c.Raynaud’s diasease d. Buerger’s disease
  22. 22. Common cause of uniteral hypertrophy and local gigantism is:
    a. Lipomatosis b. Bone tumor c. AV fistula d. Neurofibromatosis
  23. 23. In which fo the following carcinoma of thyroid, lymphatic node metastasis is seen:
    a. Anaplastic b. Follicular c. Medullar d. Papillary
  24. 24. In which of the following carcinoma of thyroid, lympatic involvement is common;
    a. Anaplastic b.Follicular c. Papillary d. Medullary
  25. 25. Most common carcinoma of thyroid is:
    a. Mdullary b. Anaplastic c. Follicular d. Papillary
  26. 26. In carcinoma of breast, a secondaries deposit is most common in:
    a. Bone b. Brain c. Liver d. Lung
  27. 27. In carcinoma breast , most common sit eof bony metastatis is:
    a. Sacral vertebra b. Lumber vertebra c. Thoratic vertebra d. Cervical vertebra
  28. 28. Not a feature of charcot’s triad:
    a. Vomiting b. Jaundice c. Fever d. Pain
  29. 29. In cholangitis the most common organism is:
    a. Streptococcus b. Clostridium c. Eschericha coli d. Entamoeba histolytica
  30. 30. Charcot’s triad is seen in :
    a. Gangrene of gallbladder b. Acute appendicitis c. Acute cholecystitis d. Cholangitis
  31. 31. Not seen in cholangitis:
    a. Septic shock b. Fever c. Jaundice d. Biliary colic
  32. 32. Potato tumor is a :
    a. Carotid body tumor b. Sternomastoid tumor c. cystic hygroma d. Brancial cyst
  33. 33. False regarding Meckel’s diverticulum is:
    a. 60cm From the ileocecal valve b. Arise from mesenteric border_x000D_c.intussusception d. Bleeding
  34. 34. Most common somplication of Meckel’s diverticulum is:
    a. Intussusception b. Obstruction c. Bleeding d. Diverticulitis
  35. 35. Complication s of meckel’s diverticulum include:
    a. Intussusception b. Intestinal obstruction c. Hemorrhage d. All of the above
  36. 36. False regarding Meckel’s diverticulum is:
    a. Always contains gastric tissue _x000D_b. True diverticulum _x000D_c. Antimesenteric border _x000D_d. Present in 2 % population
  37. 37. A 30 –year-old woman is accidentally found to have a wide mouthed Meckel’s diverticulum during laparotomy. Best method of treatment :
    a. Diverticulectomy _x000D_b. Leave it alone _x000D_c. Resection of diverticulum with a short segment of ileum and anastomoses_x000D_d. Resection of diverticulum and stump is invaginated
  38. 38. In which of the following condition , theirsch operation is done:
    a. Incontinence b. Rectal prolapse c. hemorrhoids d. Fissure in ano
  39. 39. For which of the following condition, delorme’s operation is done;
    a. Rectal carcinoma b. Fissure in ano c. Fistula in ano d. Rectal prolapse
  40. 40. False about cystic hygroma is:
    a. Aspiration contains cholesterol crystals b. Ruminant of 2nd brancial cleft_x000D_c.Brilliantly transucent d. Brilliantly transilluminant
  41. 41. cystic hygroma:
    a. Manifests in 2nd -3rd decade b. Spontaneous regression _x000D_c. Excision of the cyst at an early age d. Should be left alone
  42. 42. Which of the following is brilliantly translucent:
    a. Seaceous cyst b. dErmoid cyst c. Cystic hygroma d. Branchial cyst
  43. 43. Cystic hygroma is a :
    a. Hemangioma b. Sebaceous gland tumor c. Meningioma d. Lymphangioma
  44. 44. After birth, th eearliest tumor to occur is:
    a. Lymphoma b. Branchial cyst c. Cystic hygroma d. Sternomastoid tumor
  45. 45. In mallory –weises syndrome where is the mucosal tear located;
    a. Near gastric pylorus b. Gastroesophageal junction _x000D_c. upper end of esophagus d. Gastric antrum
  46. 46. False regarding mallory- weiss syndrome is:
    a. Present with history of retching or vomiting _x000D_b. Alcohol is not a predisposing factor _x000D_c. Hematemesis is usually self limited _x000D_d. Nonpenetrating mucosal tear at gastroesophageal junction
  47. 47. Sengstaken tube must maintain a pressure of… mmHg above what was recrded before insertion, to stop bleeding from varices:
    a. 35 b. 45 c. 25 d. 20
  48. 48. In which of th efollowing conditon , sengstaken tube is used:
    a. Biliary cirrhosis b. Hepatic aneurysm c. Blunt trauma d. Bleeding varices
  49. 49. In blunt injury to abdomen, organ commonly involved is;
    a. Appendix b. Intestine c. Liver d. Spleen
  50. 50. Most common cause of a portal hypertension is situated at:
    a. Postthepatic b. Prehapatic c. Intrahepatic d. Equal in all of the above
  51. 51. Medical treatment of gallbladder stone is possible in;
    a. nonfunctioning gallbladdr b. Radiopaque stones_x000D_c. Size of stone is <15 mm d. Calcium oxalate stones
  52. 52. Oral ursodeoxycholic acid therapy is ineffctive in dissolving which of the following type of stones:
    a. Radiopaque b.Sixe <15 mm c. Cholesterol or mixed d. Radiolucent gallstones
  53. 53. Medical treatment of gallstones is useful in all except:
    a. Functioning of gallbladder b. Size ,15 mm c. Pigmented stone d. Cholesterol stone
  54. 54. Pseudopolyposis is a feature of which of the following disease:
    a. Tuberculosis colitis b. Typhoid enteritis c. Chron’s disease d. ulcerative colitis
  55. 55. Sulphonamide is a feature of which of the following disease:
    a. Sulphacetamide b. Sulphasalazine c. Sulphamethizole d. Sulphadiazine
  56. 56. True regarding ulcerative colitis:
    a. Rectum is almost always involved b. Fistulas are common _x000D_c. Skip lesions are seen d. String sign of kantor positive
  57. 57. Not a complication of ulceratve colitis:
    a. Sclerosing cholangitis b. Peptic ulcer c. Toxic megacolon d. Arthiritis
  58. 58. In which of the following condition, pyoderma gangrenosum is seen:
    a. Ischemic colitis b./ Ulcerative colitis c.Chron’s disease d. Amebic colitis
  59. 59. “signof emptying” is seen in:
    a. Salmon patch b. Port wine stain c. Plexiform angioma d. Strawberry angioma
  60. 60. Red discoloration on eyeld which disappears by one year is:
    a. Venous hemangioma b. Strawberry hemangioma _x000D_c. Port wine stain d. Salmon patch
  61. 61. Tuft of hairs is seen in :
    a. Spina bifida b. Spina aperta c. Sacrococcygeal teratoma d. Meylomeningocele
  62. 62. Meningomyelocele most commonly occurs at:
    a. Skull b. Thoratic spine c. Lumbosacral spine d. Cervical spine
  63. 63. IN Hodgkin’s lymphoma, the malignant cell is:
    a. Recticulum cells b. Histocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Reed sternnerg cells
  64. 64. Most common site of enlargement of lymmph nodes in Hodkin’s lymphoma is:
    a. Abdominal b. Cevical c. Axillary d. Mediastinal
  65. 65. Most common presentation of Hodkin’s lymphoma is;
    a. Leukocytosis b. Fever c. Painless enlargement of lymph nodes d. Pruritus
  66. 66. Hodkin’s ;ymphoma with right sided neck nodes and left inguimal node without fever is of:
    a. Stage Ia b. Stage IIIa c. stage Iia d. Stage Iva
  67. 67. Not a type B symptom of Hodkin’s lymphoma:
    a. Pruritus b. Headache c. Weight loss d. Fever
  68. 68. In a patient with Hodkin’s lymphoma with unilateral lymph node involvement, treatment of choice is :
    a. Irradiation b. Single drug chemotherapy c. Neck dessection d. Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy
  69. 69. Worst prognosis Hodkin’s lymphoma is:
    a. Lymphocyte depketed b. Mixed cellularity _x000D_c. Lymphocyte predominance d. Nodular sclerosis
  70. 70. In polycystic kidney cysts are seen in all of the following organs except:
    a. Pancreas b. Lungs c. Brain d. Liver
  71. 71. The treatment of choice in polycystic kidney;
    a. Nephrectomy b. Renal transplanation c. Dialysis d. Removal of cyst
  72. 72. Liver cyst in polycystic kidney occurs in:
    a. 10% b. 58% c. 18% d. 85%
  73. 73. In which of the following ‘spider leg’ appearance of calyces in intracenous urography is seen :
    a. Hydronephrosis b. Horse shoe kidney c. Congenital cystic kidneys d. Hypernephroma
  74. 74. Secondaries of which of the following does not cause osteolytic lesion:
    a. Thyroid b. prostate c. Breast d. Bronchus
  75. 75. In which of the following osteoblastic secondaries are seen:
    a. neuroblastoma b. Thyroid c. Breast d. Prostate
  76. 76. Heller’s operation is done in :
    a. carcinoma esophagus b. Peptic ulcer c. Achalasia cardia d. Pyloric stenosis
  77. 77. True regarding achalasia cardia is:
    a. Congenital dilatation b. Caused by scleroderma c. Sensory distrubance d. A motor distrubance
  78. 78. For achalasia cardia, the best investigation is:
    a. Esophagscopy b. Sccintigraphy c. Barium meal d. Manometry
  79. 79. False regarding achalasia cardia is:
    a. X-ray finding of dilated wesophagus with a narrow end_x000D_b. Macholyl test is hyposensitive _x000D_c. Aspiration pneumonitis _x000D_d. dysphagia
  80. 80. Predisposing factor for testicular tumor is:
    a. Abdominal testis b. Chronic orchitis c. Torsion d. Trauma
  81. 81. In stage I seminoma, the treatment of choice is:
    a. Medical b. Surgical c. Chemotherapy d. Radiotherapy
  82. 82. From which of the following glomus tumor originates:
    a. Endoderm b. Mesoderm c. Neuroectoderm d. Ectoderm
  83. 83. False regarding glomus tumor is:
    a. Regulation of temperature of skin b. Resection is curative _x000D_c. Distal extremity d. Mass
  84. 84. In renal cell carcinoma, which of the following endocrine manifestation may occur:
    a. Peptic ulcer b. Renin related hypertension _x000D_c. Gynecomastia d. Cushing’s syndrome
  85. 85. Most common metastasis in renal cell carcinoma is to:
    a. Lung b. Bone c. Adrenal d. Liver
  86. 86. Solitary ‘Pulsatile’ bone secondaries are most likely from:
    a.Carcinoma of breast b. Carcinom aof prostate_x000D_c. Carcinoma of kidney d. Carcinom aof adrenal
  87. 87. Not a feature of renal cell carcinoma:
    a. Renal vein thrombosis b. Hypertension c. Increased CEA d. Polythemia
  88. 88. Thyroglossal fistula develops due to which of the following :
    a. Inflammatory disorder b. Incomplete removal of thyroglossla cyst _x000D_c. Injury d. Developmental anomaly
  89. 89. Sistrunk’s operation is done in:
    a. Branchial fistula b. Thyroglossal cyst _x000D_c. Paratoid tumor d. Thyroiglossal fistula
  90. 90. Which of the following has close proximity to hyoid bone:
    a. Enlarged sbmandibular lymph nodes b. Thyroglossal fistula _x000D_c. Aneurysm of carotid artery d. Brancial cyst
  91. 91. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid arises from:
    a. Stroma of gland cell b. Capsule of thyroid _x000D_c. Parafollicular cells d. Cells lining the acini
  92. 92. Which of the following is the marker for medullary carcinoma of thyroid :
    a. Phosphorus b. Thyroxine c. Parathormone d. Calcitonin
  93. 93. False regarding varicocele:
    a. Testicular veins involved b. More common on the right side_x000D_c. may be first feature of a renal tumor d. Feels like a bag of worms
  94. 94. Varococele is common in left tests. The reason of this is:
    a. Compression of testicular vein by rectum _x000D_b. Left testis is lower situated _x000D_c. Left testicular veins drains into renal vein which has high pressure _x000D_d. Left testicuar vein drains int IVC which has high pressure
  95. 95. Most common malignant tumor of spleen is:
    a. Squamous cell carcinom a b. Adenocarcinoma c. Hemangioma d. Lymphoma
  96. 96. Which of the following is the most common tumor of spleen:
    a. Sarcoma b. secondaries from kidney c. Hemangioma d. Lymphoma
  97. 97. In which of the following condition Goodsall’s rule is used:
    a. Hernia b. Hemorrhoids c. Fistula in ano d. Rectal prolapse
  98. 98. All are false regarding diverticulitis of colon except:
    a. Asymptomatic b. Treatment is only consarvative _x000D_c. Seen in >40 years of age d. Precancerous lesion
  99. 99.. Dumping syndrome is because of:
    a. Reduced gastric capacity b. Vagotomy_x000D_c. Hypertonic content in small intestine d. Diarrhea
  100. 100. Strcture not excised in radicla neck dissection ;
    a. Submandibular salivary gland b. Internal jugular vein _x000D_c. Vagus nerve d. Sternomastoid muscle
  101. 101. Structure not removed in classi radical neck dissextion:
    a. Internal jugular vein b. Submandibular gland_x000D_c. Phrenic nerve d. Accessory nerve
  102. 102. Structure not saved in radical neck dissection is:
    a. Lower brachial plexus b. Vagus nerve c. Spinal accessory nerve d. Hypoglossal nerve
  103. 103. False regarding vertebral hemangioma is:
    a. Usually found in 2-5% of population _x000D_b. Hyper-intense in T image in MRI_x000D_c. Usually associated with liver hemangioma and carcinoma_x000D_d. Usually asymptomatic
  104. 104. Toxic megacolon is seen in which of the following disease:
    a. Ulcerative colitis b. Carcinoma colon c. Carcinoid d. Gastrocolic fistula
  105. 105. Not a feature of esophageal rupture:
    a. Low blood pressure b. Bradycardia c. Fever d. Pain
  106. 106. In which of the following hydradenitis suppurativa occurs:
    a. Eccrine gland b. Sebaceous gland c. Apocrine gland d. Hair follicles
  107. 107. Not a feature of deep vein thrombosis in lower limb:
    a. Discoloration b. Claudication c. Tender calf muscle d. Swelling
  108. 108. In which of the following condition , malignant changes in testis occurs:
    a. Pyocele b. Hydrocele c. Trauma d. Crytorchidism
  109. 109. In which of the following condition, meconium ileus is seen ;
    a. Hirschsprung’s disease b. Pyloric stenosis_x000D_c. Fibrocystic disease of pancreas d. Duodenal atresia
  110. 110. Most common site of lymphoma in GI tract is:
    a. Ileum b. Colon c. Duodenum d. Stomach
  111. 111. A parient with pituitary tumor, pheochromocytoma, and hyperthyroidism is most likely to have;
    a. Follicular carcinoma thyroid _x000D_b. Papillary carcinoma thyroid _x000D_c. Medullary carcinoma thyroid _x000D_d. Anplastic carcinoma thyroid
  112. 112. MEN II is seen with which of the following thyroid carcinoma:
    a. Follicular b. Anaplastic c. Medullary d. Papillary
  113. 113. Not an indication for splenectomy:
    a. primary splenic tumor b. Hereditary spherocytosis _x000D_c. Splenic abscess d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  114. 114. not included in basic life support:
    a. Intracardiac adrenaline b. Expiratory air ventilation_x000D_c. Cardiac massage d. Airway
  115. 115. Most common primary brain tumor is:
    a. Pituitary adenoma b. Craniopharyngioma_x000D_c. Abdominoperineal resection d. Meningioma
  116. 116. A 70 year old male presented with carcinoma rectum 3cm From anal verge. Treatment of choice is :
    a. Distal sigmoid colostomy b. Dysfunctional surgery_x000D_c. Abdominoperineal resection d. None of the above
  117. 117. In carcinoma of rectum 12cm from anal verge, the treatment of choice is:
    a. Anterior resection b. Dysfunctional resection _x000D_c. Hartmann’s operation d. None of the above
  118. 118. Prognosis of carcinoma rectum is best assessed by:
    a. Site of tumor b. histological grading c. Size of tumor d. Duration of symptoms
  119. 119. Earliest symptom of carcinoma rectum:
    a. Pain b. Alteration of bowel habits c. Bleeding per rectum d. Tenesmus
  120. 120. Duhamel operation is done for which of the following condition;
    a. Congenital pyloric stenosis b. Hiatus hernia _x000D_c. Achalasia cardia d. Hirschsprung’s disease
  121. 121. In Hischsprung’s disease, common aganglionic part is:
    a. Rectum b. Jejunum c. Ileum d. Duodenum
  122. 122. All are false ragarding Hischsprung’s disease except:
    a. Regular ddilation effective b. Rectal biopsy is diagnostic _x000D_c. Presentation is within 3 days d. More common in females
  123. 123. Which of the following is the most common cause of parotid swelling :
    a. Tuberculosis of aparatoid lymph nodes b. Warthin’s tumor _x000D_c. Muco epidemoid tumor d. Pleomorphic adenoma
  124. 124. Pleomorphic adenoma of parotid is treated with:
    a. Total removal b. Deep lobe removal _x000D_c. Redical removal d. Hemi superficial parotidectomy
  125. 125. Parotid tumor which is most commonly seen :
    a. Sarcoma b. Adenocystic carcinoma _x000D_c. Pleomorphic adenoma d. Adenocarcinoma
  126. 126. Pleomorphic ladenoma most commonly occurs at:
    a. Minor salivary gland b. Sublingual gland _x000D_c. Submandibular gland d. Parotid gland
  127. 127. True regarding pleomorphic tumor is:
    a. 80% of benign tumors are of pleomorphic origin_x000D_b. Treatment is enucleation _x000D_c. They are commonly associated with nerve involvement _x000D_d. Pleomorphic tumors over period of time give rise to warthin’s adenoma
  128. 128. A patient has swelling in parotid which pushes the tonsil medially. Histologically it is pleomorphic adenoma. This should be treated with:
    a. Parotidectomy with leaving behind facial nerve and radical neck dissection_x000D_b. Total parotidectomy _x000D_c. Conservative parotidectomy _x000D_d. Superficial parotidectomy
  129. 129. False regarding pseudopancreatic cyst is:
    a. Mostly present in head of pancreas b. Incresed serum amylase_x000D_c. Presents as abdominal mass d. Common after acute pancreatitis
  130. 130. In pdeudopancreatic cyst the treatment of choice is:
    a. Cystojejunostomy b. External drainage c. excision of cyst d. None of the above
  131. 131. False regarding pseudopancreatic cyst is:
    a. Epigastric mass b. Increase amylase_x000D_c. Cystojejunostomy is the treatment of choice _x000D_d. Percutaneous aspiration is the treatment of choice
  132. 132. In pseudopancreatic cyst , collection of fluid occurs in :
    a. Hepato-renal pouch b. Greater sac c. Lesser sac d. Between intestinal loops
  133. 133. Pseudocyst of pancreas most commonly occurs after:
    a. Pancreatic malignancy b. Pancreatic surgery _x000D_c. Acute pancreatitis d. Trauma
  134. 134. 5 cm umcomplicated pancreatic pseudocyst of 6 weeks duration should be managed by:
    a. Serial USG b. Internal drainage c. External drainage d. Removal with limited pancreatic resection and duct closure
  135. 135. A 65 year old man has recurrent thrombophlebitis in upper arm for the last 6 months. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Osteosarcoma b. Oral carcinoma c. Pancreatic carcinoma d. Prostatic carcinoma
  136. 136. IN which of the following carcinoma, migratory thrombophlebitis is seen:
    a. Carcinoma of kidney b. Carcinoma of lung _x000D_c. Carcinoma of nasopharynx d. Carcinoma of liver
  137. 137. Cleft lip is due to nonfusion of:
    a. Maxillary process with lateral nasal process_x000D_b. Maxillary process with medial nasal process_x000D_c. Maxillary process with mandibular process_x000D_d. All of the above
  138. 138. Cleft lip is due to nonfusion of:
    a. 2 years b. 12-18 months c. 6-8 months d. 3-6 months
  139. 139. Most common type of cleft lip is:
    a. Unilateral (right sided) b. Unilateral ( left sided)_x000D_c. Bilateral d. Midline
  140. 140.Carcinoid tumor most commonly occurs at:
    a. Adrenal b. Bronchus c. Small intestine d. Appendix
  141. 141. Hamman’s sign is typically seen in:
    a. Pneumomediastinum b. Pneumopericardium _x000D_c. Pneumothorax d. Subcutaneous emphysema
  142. 142.Most common site of carcinoma stomach is:
    a. GAstroesophageal junction b. CARdia c.Body d. Antrum
  143. 143. Carcinoma stomach is associated with which of the following blood group:
    a. A b. B c. AB d. O
  144. 144. False regarding carcinoma of stomach is:
    a. Most common site for neoplasm is pre-pyloric region _x000D_b. Troisier’s sign present_x000D_c. Gastric carcinoma is common in people of blood Group O_x000D_d. Superficial spreading type has best prognosis
  145. 145.In which of the following condition, hyperbaric oxygen is used:
    a. Gangrene b. Anaerobic infection c. CO poisoning d. Ventilation failure
  146. 146. In subclavian steal syndrome, blood flow in vertebral artery is:
    a. Reversed b. Increased c. Decreased d. Not seen
  147. 147. Cutaneous malignancy which does not metastasize to lymphatics is:
    a. Kaposi sarcoma b. Melanoma c. basal cell carcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
  148. 148. In basal cell carcinoma at inner canthus of eye, the treatment of choice is:
    a. Surgery +Radiotherapy b. Chemotherapy_x000D_c. Radiotherapy d. Wide excision and reconstruction
  149. 149.Most common site of rodent ulcer is;
    a. Trunk b. abdomen c. Face d. Limbs
  150. 150.FNAC is not useful in which of the following thyroid carcinoma:
    a. Medullary b. Follicular c. Papillary d. Anasplastic
  151. 151. Ideal treatment of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is:
    a. Subtotal thyroidectomy b. Steroids c. Thyroxine d. TSH
  152. 152. False regarding hashimoto’s thyroiditis is:
    a. Autoimmune thyroiditis b. papillary carcinoma of thyroid_x000D_c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis d. Agranulomaous thyroiditis
  153. 153. In which of the following condition, hurthle cells are seen:
    a. Thyroimmune cyst b. papillary carcinoma of thyroid_x000D_c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis d. Agranulomatous thyroiditis
  154. 154. Symptom most frequently seen in patients of primary biliary cirrhosis is:
    a. Gastrointestinal bleeding b. Jaundice c. Splenomegaly d. Pruritus
  155. 155. A chronic alcoholic has liver cirrhosis, presented with mass in liver, and raised AFP . most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Secondary from carcinoma colon b. Hepatic adenoma _x000D_c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. hepatocellular carcinoma
  156. 156. in which of the following condition, α fetoprotein is increased:
    a. Cervix carcinoma b. Urinary bladder carcinoma _x000D_c. Lung carcinoma d. Hepatocellular carcinoma
  157. 157. Gallstone which is most commonly found is:
    a. Calcium oxalate b. Pure cholesterol c. Mixed stone d. Pigment stone
  158. 158. not a component of “saint’s” triad;
    a. Gallstones b. Renal stones c. Hiatus hernia d. Diverticulosis
  159. 159. Percentage of gallstones which are radiopaque:
    a. 10% b. 20% c. 30 % d. 50%
  160. 160. Fistula in ano is most commonly caused by:
    a. Anal gland infection b. Crohn’s disease c. Ulcerative colitis d. Tuberculosis
  161. 161. In fistula in ano, treatment of choice is:
    a. Fistulotomy b. fistulectomy c. Anal dilatation d. Fissurectomy
  162. 162. A patient presents with regurgitation of food which he ingested 3 days ago, foul smelling breath and intermittent dysphagia for solid foods. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Pyloric stenosis b. Diabetic gastroparesis _x000D_c. Zenker’s diverticulum d. Achalasia cardia
  163. 163. All are false regarding Zenker’s diverticulum except;
    a. It occurs in children b. Treatment is cricopharyngeal myotomy _x000D_c. Occurs in mid esophagus d. Asymptomatic
  164. 164. Which of the following is the best source of split skin graft:
    a. Xenograft b. Isograft c. Homograft d. Autograft
  165. 165. isograft is:
    a. Transfer of tissue between monozygotic twins_x000D_b. Transfer of tissue between different species _x000D_c. Transfer of tissue between two individuals _x000D_d. Transfer of tissue between brothers
  166. 166.All are false regarding renal trauma except:
    a. Renal artery aneurysm is common _x000D_b. Lumbar approach to kidney _x000D_c. Exploration of kidney to be done in all cases_x000D_d. Urgent IVP is indicated
  167. 167.True ragarding thiersch’s graft is:
    a. Pedcle graft b. Muscle flap c. Full thickness d. Partial thickness
  168. 168.In gastrojejunocolic fistula, diarrhea is due to:
    a. Decreased absorption b. Blind loop syndrome_x000D_c. Peptic digestion of colonic mucosa d. Acid digestion of colonic mucosa
  169. 169. Treatment of paget’s disease of nipple is;
    a. Chemotherapy b. Biopsy and simple mastectomy_x000D_c. Radical mastectomy d. Radiotheray
  170. 170. Not a mid line swelling in neck:
    a. Branchial cyst b. Ludwwig’s angina c. Sub hyoid bursitis d. Thyroglossal cyst
  171. 171.False about mannitol:
    a. Sugar with high molecular weight b. Prevents ARF in shock_x000D_c. Used in crush syndrome d. Used in Obstructive jaundice surgeries
  172. 172. Not a feature of crush syndrome:
    a. Dialysis may be life saving in uremia b. oligemic shock _x000D_c. Myoglobinemia d. Cardiac tamponade
  173. 173. Not a cause of choledochal cyst:
    a. Due to both intrinsic defect and obstruction _x000D_b. Congenital anomaly of bite duct_x000D_c. Iinspissated bile _x000D_d. Pancreased- biliary anatomical anomaly
  174. 174.Choledochal cyst should be treated with:
    a.Transplantation b. Excision of cyst of choledochocystojejunostomy_x000D_c. Cystojejunostomy d. Gastrojejunostomy
  175. 175.All are false regarding choledochal cyst except:
    a. Best treatment is choledochocystojejunostomy_x000D_b. Jaundice is present _x000D_c. Usually asymptomatic _x000D_d. Usually suoraduodenal
  176. 176.Klatskin tumor is located at:
    a. The junction of bile duct bb. Vater’s ampulla _x000D_c. Bile duct d. Junction of cystic duct and bile duct
  177. 177.In which of the following conditin, cullen’s sign is seen:
    a. Blunt injury to abdomen b. Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis_x000D_c. Acute appndicitis d. Acute cholecystitis
  178. 178.In multiple myeloma, hyponatremia is:
    a. Relative b. Pseudo c. True d. Absolute
  179. 179.Not a feature of vanBuchem’s disease:
    a. Increased acid phosphate b. Facial palsy _x000D_c. Overgrowth d. Distortion of mandible
  180. 180.Thyroid carcinoma which has best prognosis is:
    a. Follicular b. Anaplastic c. Medullary d. Papillary
  181. 181.Characteristic feature of peyronie’s disease is:
    a. Unpredictable history b. Pain on erection c. Bend on erection d. All are true
  182. 182.Peyronie’s disease affects the:
    a. Breast b. Vagina c.Scrotum d. Penis
  183. 183. In bilateral adrenal hyerplasia, the treatmetn of choice is:
    a. Follow up b. Pitutary irradiation c. Bilateral adrenalectomy d. Unilateral adrenalectomy
  184. 184.McBurney’s point is siteuated at:
    a. Umbilicus liver junction _x000D_b. Junction of lateral 1/3rd and medial 2/3rd line_x000D_c. Junction of lateral 2/3rd and medial 1/3rd line _x000D_d. Middle of right spino-umbilical line
  185. 185.True regarding cancrum oris is:
    a. Pus accumulates in the floor of mouth b. Cheek carcinoma_x000D_c. Localized Gngrene of check d. Multiple oral ulceration
  186. 186.Content of Richter’s hernia is;
    a. Sigmoid colon b. Meckel’s diverticulum c. Bladder d.. Portion of intestine
  187. 187.In which of the following condition, very high level of alkaine phosphatase is seen;
    a. Tuberculous liver b. Metastatic liver carcinoma_x000D_c. primary biliary cirrhosis d. All of the above
  188. 188.Most common site of anorectal abscess is:
    a. Perianal b. Pelvirectal c. Submucous d. Ischiorectal
  189. 189.True regarding decubitus ulcer is:
    a. Arterial ischemia b. Venous congestion c. Pressuree sores d. All of the above
  190. 190.Not seen in subacute thyroiditis:
    a. Fever b. Increased radioiodine uptake c. Increased ESR d. Pain
  191. 191.Not seen in de Quervain’s thyroiditis:
    a. Fever b. Increased radioiodine uptake c. Increased ESR d. Pain
  192. 192.Strangulation is most common with which hernia:
    a. Inguinal b. Epigastric c. Obturator d. Femoral
  193. 193.In hernia en-glissade , the most common content is:
    a. Omentum b.Urinary bladder c.Caecum d. Sigmoid colon
  194. 194.Most common hernia of abdominal wall is;
    a. Femoral b. Umbilical c. Inguinal d. Ventral
  195. 195.Not an indication for liver transplantation;
    a. Biliary atresia b. Alcoholic hepatitis c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Cirrhosis
  196. 196.In rectum most malignant polyp is;
    a. Pseudopolyps b. Juvenile polyp c. Tubular polyp d. Vilous adenoma
  197. 197.Carcinoma seen in anal canal is:
    a. Basal cell carcinoma b. Transitional cell carcinoma_x000D_c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Adenocarcinoma
  198. 198.Primary vesical calculus is seen with which of the following :
    a. Infected urine b. Sterile urine c. Alkain urine d. Acidic urine
  199. 199.Ranula is:
    a. Retention cyst of sublingual gland _x000D_b. Retention cyst of submandibular gland_x000D_c. Extravasation cyst of sublingual glands_x000D_d. Extravasation cyst of submandibular glands
  200. 200.In which of the following, ranula lies:
    a. Digastric triangle b. Supraclavicular region_x000D_c. Tip of tongue d. Floor of mouth
  201. 201.Charateristic feature of wound healing by secondary intention is:
    a. Soft line scar b. Hypertrophic scar c. Thick collagenous scar d. Wound gap
  202. 202.Lung abscess is most commonly caused by:
    a.Trauma b. Direct spread of liver _x000D_c. Aspiration of infected material d. Hematogenous spread
  203. 203.Most common cause of surgical obstructive jaundice among the following is:
    a. Chronic cholecystitis b. Liver carcinoma _x000D_c. Sclerosing cholangitis d. Common bile duct stone
  204. 204.Buccal mucosa carcinoma commonly drains to ehich of the following lymph node:
    a. Cervical b. Jugulodigastric c. Submandibular d. Supraclavicular
  205. 205.Secondaries first go to which of the following organ in carcinoma of buccal mucosa;
    a. Regional lymph nodes b. Lung c. Liver d. Brain
  206. 206.Cause of ureterocele is:
    a. Congeital atresia of ureteric orifice _x000D_b. Ureters crossing behind the artery_x000D_c. Renal calculus _x000D_d. Congenital intramural malformation
  207. 207.False regarding horse shoe kidney is:
    a. Horseshoe kidney isnot a contraindication to pregnancy _x000D_b. Urogram shows lower pole calyces on both sides being directed towards the midline_x000D_c. Associated with nephrolithiasis _x000D_d. Asymptomatic
  208. 208.Correct incidence of renal ectopia is:
    a. 1 in 800 b. 1 in 1000 c. 1 in 10,000 d. 1 in 1,00,000
  209. 209.Most common congenital anomaly seen in upper renal tract is:
    a. Post-caval ureter b. Agencies of one of the kidneys_x000D_c. Duplication of renal kidney d. Ectopic kidney
  210. 210.’Flower vase’ appearance in IVP is seen in;
    a. Polycystic kidney disease b. Hydronephrosis c. Horseshoe kidney d. Ectopic kidney
  211. 211.Diverticulitis most commonly occurs at:
    a. Sigmoid colon b. Splenic flexure c. Ascending colon d. Descending colon
  212. 212.A 75 year old male presented with massive bleeding per rectum. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Rectal polyposis b. Hemorrhoids c. Diverticulosis d. Colon carcinoma
  213. 213.Most common site of branchia cyst is:
    a. Lower 2/3rd of sternocleidomastoid b. Upper 2/3rd of sternocleidomastoid_x000D_c. lower 1/3rd of sternocleidomastoid d. Upper 1/3rd of sternocleidomastoid
  214. 214. In branchial cyst, the external opening is situated at;
    a. Lateral pharyngeal wall b. Behind the tonsil _x000D_c. lower 2/3rd of neck d. upper 1/3rd of neck
  215. 215.False regarding esophageal carcinoma is;
    a. Barrett’s esophagus predisposes to it_x000D_b. Tobacco abuse is a predisposing factor _x000D_c. Adenocarcinoma is the most common form worldwide_x000D_d. Commonly involves middle third
  216. 216. Esophageal carcinoma most commonly occurs at:
    a. Postcricoid region b. Lower third c. Middle third d. upper third
  217. 217. Gastrin levels are raised in:
    a. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome b. Pernicious anemia _x000D_c. Gastric ulcer d. All of the above
  218. 218. Medical treatment of ZOllinger-Ellison syndrome is:
    a. Cimetidine b. Renitidine c. Famotidine d. Omeprazole
  219. 219. Zollinger-Ellison sundrome is caused by tumor of;
    a. Non-beta islet cell tumors cells b. Beta cells _x000D_c. Alpha Cells d.. PP cells
  220. 220. Treatment of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome type II is:
    a. Total gastroctomy with removal of tumor _x000D_b. Partial gastrectomy_x000D_c. Excision of tumor alone _x000D_d. H2 receptor antagonists
  221. 221.Diarrhea in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is due to:
    a. Secretion of large amounts of HCI b. Secretin _x000D_c. Pentagastrin d. Enterokinase
  222. 222. Not a charccteristic feature of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome :
    a. Massive increase in HCI in response to histamine injection _x000D_b. Severe diarrhea _x000D_c. Recurrent duodenal ulcer _x000D_d. Multiple ulcers
  223. 223. In which of the following condition mustarde operation is done:
    a. Blepharoplasty b. Mentoplasty c. Otoplasty d. Rhinoplasty
  224. 224.In surgery of hand the “ No man’s land” is :
    a. Wrist b. Between distal palmer crease and proximal interphalangeal joint _x000D_c. Distal phalanx d. Proximal phalanx
  225. 225.In which of the following anchovy sauce pus is seen ;
    a. Pancreatic abscess b. Splenic abscess _x000D_c. Amebic liver abscess d. Splenic abscess
  226. 226. Amebic abscess ruptures most commonly into:
    a. Pleural cavity b. Peritoneal cavity c. Lumen of intestine d. Right lung
  227. 227. Not a feature of hypovolemic shock:
    a. Oliguria b. Bradycardia c. Hypotension d. Acidosis
  228. 228. Feature which is most specific for shock is;
    a. Serum LDH b. Oliguria c. Decreased blood pressure d. Tachycardia
  229. 229. Warthin’s tumor is:
    a. Malignant neoplasm b. Rapidly growing _x000D_c. Gives a hot pertechnetate scan d. Cold pertechnetate scan
  230. 230. For warthin’s tumor is;
    a. chemotherapy b. Radiotherapy c. Excision d. Partial parotidectomy
  231. 231. In which of the following condition, Heller’s operation is done:
    a. Esophagus carcinoma b. Peptic ulcer c. Achalasia cardia d. Pyloric stenosis
  232. 232. Ainhum is construction ring appearing at;
    a. Base of the toe b. Base of the finger c. Base of thumb d. Ankle joint
  233. 233. A 65 year old man presents with bleeing on initiation of micturition . most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Bladder tumor b. Ureteric stone c. Urethral stone d. Benign prostone hypertrophy
  234. 234. Most common presenting symptom of carcinoma bladder is;
    a. Frequency of micturition b. Hesitancy c. Hematuria d. Dysuria
  235. 235. X-ray should be taken in which of the following position, to know the position of opening in a congenital anorectal malformation:
    a. Supine b. Upside down c. Anti-trendelenburg d. Trendelenburg
  236. 236. Invertogram should be done …. Hours after birth:
    a. 6 b.4 c. 5 d. 1
  237. 237. prognosis depends upon which of the following, in soft tissue sarcoma:
    a. Therapeutic embolization b. Chemotherapy_x000D_c. Radiotherapy d. Wide excision
  238. 238.Soft tissue sarcoma is ideally treated with:
    a. Therapeutic embolization b. Chemotherapy c. Radiotherapy d. Wide excision
  239. 239. For gallstone, the investigation of choice is:
    a. Cholecystography b. Plain X-ray c. CT scan d. Ultrasonography
  240. 240.Most common cause of amebic lung abscess is;
    a. Hematologic spread b. Aspiration of infected material _x000D_c. Rupture of pericardial abscess d. Extension from liver abscess
  241. 241.Gallbladder fistula is seen with:
    a. Stomach b. Colon c. Jejunum d. Duodenum
  242. 242.Not a tumor marker :
    a. Alpha fetoprotein b. Carcinoembryonic antigen_x000D_c. HPL d. Human chorinic gonadotropin
  243. 243.most common cause of blood discharge from nipple is:
    a. Fibroadenoma b. Fibro-adenoma c. Ductal papiloma d. Ductul carcinoma
  244. 244.In which of the following condition, bleeding dischage of nipple is seen;
    a. Cystosarcoma phylloides b.chronic cystic mastitis _x000D_c. Duct carcinoma d. Intraductal papilloma
  245. 245.Greenish discharge from nipple indicate;
    a. Carcinoma b. Duct papilloma c. Duct carcinoma d. Fibroadenosis
  246. 246.Carcinoma of breast which has best prognosis is:
    a. Mastitis carcinomatosa b. Medullary carcinoma _x000D_c. Infiltrating lobular d. Adenoid cyst
  247. 247.In flail chest with altered results of blood gas analysis, the treatment of choice is:
    a. Trendelenburg’s position b. Towel clip operation _x000D_c. Tracheostomy d. IPPR
  248. 248.Which of the Following is the most direct complication of splenectomy:
    a. Anemia b. Agranulocytosis c. Lymphoma d. Hemorrhage
  249. 249.Characteristic feature of tuberculosis pyelonephritis is;
    a. Alkaline pyuria with organism _x000D_b. Alkaline sterile pyuria _x000D_c. Acidic pyuria with organisms_x000D_d. Acid sterile pyuria
  250. 250.Staghorn calculate is made up of:
    a. Oxalate b. Phosphate c. Uric acid d. Cysteine
  251. 251.In which of the following condition, Rovsing’s sign is positive:
    a. Acute cholecystitis b. Pancreatitis c. Acute appendicitis d. None of the above
  252. 252.Nevus with malignant potential is:
    a. Intradermal nevus b. Junctional nevus c. Dermal nevus d. Compound nevus
  253. 253.In which of the following carcinoma of thyroid ‘psammoma bodies’ are seen:
    a. Follicular b. Medullary c. Papillary d. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
  254. 254.Splenectomy is not done in :
    a. Thalassemia major b. Hereditary spherocytosis _x000D_c. Sickle cell anemia d. Chronic ITP
  255. 255.Treatment of nonremitting acute cholecystitis is :
    a. Antibiotics b. IV vancomycin_x000D_c. Cholecystectomy with common bile duct exploration d. Observation
  256. 256.Not a complication of total thyroidectomy :
    a. Hypercalcemia b. Hoarseness of voice_x000D_c. Hemorrhage d. Hypocalcemia
  257. 257.Most common route of infection in kidney tuberculosis is:
    a. Direct invasion b. Lymphatic spread c. Hematogenous spread d. Ascending spread
  258. 258.In renal tuberculosis, earliest manifestation is:
    a. Mass b. Pyuria c. Painless hematuria d. Frequency
  259. 259.Solitary nodule in thyroid is most commonly caused by:
    a. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis b. adenoma c. Carcinoma d. Adenomatous goiter
  260. 260.Solitary nodule in thyroid is most commonly seen in:
    a. Hurthle cell tumor b. Follicular carcinoma _x000D_c. Follicular adenoma d. Papillary carcinoma
  261. 261.A young woman with solitary toxic thyroid nodule should be treated with:
    a. Iodine salt b. Surgery c. Radioiodine d. Anti-thyroid drug
  262. 262.In acute cholescystitis diagnostic method of choice is:
    a. Operative Cholangiography b. Radionuclide scan_x000D_c. ERCP d. Oral cholescystography
  263. 263.Cause of pyogenic liver abscess is:
    a. Septicemia b. Trauma c. Hematogenous d. Ascending infection
  264. 264.Pyogenic liver abscess is most commonly cause by:
    a. hematogenous b. Latrogenic c. Ascending cholengitis d. Crytogenic
  265. 265.In villious adenoma of rectum which of the following is seen :
    a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypochloremic alkalosis d. Hyponatremia
  266. 266.Not seen in villous adenoma:
    a. Bleeding b. Profuse watery diarrhea c. Hypoproteinemia d. Hyperkalemia
  267. 267.Which of the following is true regarding branchial fistula;
    a. It opens near tonsil b. Excision by single transverse incision_x000D_c. Midline in position d. Third cleft defect
  268. 268.A neonate presented with scaphoid abdomen and respiratory distress. The diagnosis is:
    a. Wilms; tumor b. Volvulus neonatorum _x000D_c. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Congenitaal pyloric stenosis
  269. 269.All are false regarding diaphragmatic hernia except:
    a. Early vomiting b. Chest X-ray is not diagnostic _x000D_c. Pulmonary hypoplasia is seen d. More common in right side
  270. 270.A 9 year old infant presented with features of intestinal obstruction. On barium enema, the diagnosis was confirmed to be intussusceptions. Most likely cause is:
    a. Lipoma b. Mucosal polyp c. Hypertrophic peyer’s patch d. Meckel’s diverticulum
  271. 271. Intussusception is most commonly of… type:
    a. Ileo- ileo- colic b. Colocolic c. Ileoileal d. Ileocolic
  272. 272.Most common cause of nonhealing ulcer over medial malleolus is:
    a. Buerger’s disease b. Venous stasis c. Tropical ulcer d. Diabetes
  273. 273.Most common site of venous ulcer is:
    a. Toes b. Instep of foot b. lower 2/3rd of leg d. lower 1/3rd of leg and ankle
  274. 274. Burns involving head, face, and trunk constitutes how much percentage:
    a. 45% b. 55% c. 60% d. 65%
  275. 275.Calculate the burn involving front of chest and abdomen :
    a. 36.5% b. 18% c. 27% d.50%
  276. 276.Burn of head and neck accounts for… in adult;
    a. 11% b. 18% c. 09% d. 13.5%
  277. 277. Rule of nine to estimate surface area of a burnt patient was introduced by:
    a. Mortiz Kaposi b. Alexander Wallace c. Joseph Lister d. Thomas Barclay
  278. 278.Most common primary liver tumor among the following is:
    a. Neurofibroma b. Hemangioma c. Lipoma d. Hamrtoma
  279. 279.Spread through blood does not occur in:
    a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Hepatocellular carcinoma _x000D_c. Osteosarcoma d. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
  280. 280.Metastasis to bone is not seen in:
    a. Cystosarcoma phylloides b. Bronchogenic carcinoma _x000D_c. Thyroid carcinoma d. Breast carcinoma
  281. 281.In which of the following carcinoma bone metastasis is not common:
    a. Prostate b. Testis c. Breast d. Lung
  282. 282.Covering over an omphalocele is:
    a. Skin b. Amniotic membrane c. Chorionic membrane d. None
  283. 283. All are false regarding umbilical hernia (omphalocele major) except:
    a. Incidence is 1:4000 b. Occurs due to failure of part of midgut to return to the coelom_x000D_c. Spontaneous closure is seen d. Common in premature births
  284. 284.Most common pancreatic malignancy is:
    a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Adenosquamous carcinoma _x000D_c. Insulinoma d. Ductal adenocarcinoma
  285. 285.Tmoxifen is used in treatment of carcinoma of:
    a. Breast b. Lung c. Prostate d. Testis
  286. 286.CAsoni’s intradermal test is positive in … % of cases of hydatid disease:
    a. 75 b. 25 c. 50 d. 85
  287. 287.In children most common bladder tumor is:
    a. Rhabdomyosarcoma b. Hemangioma c. Adenoma d. Papilloma
  288. 288.Most common malignancy of oral cavity is:
    a. Columnar cell carcinoma b. Transitional cell carcinoma _x000D_c. Squamous cell carcinoma d.Adenocarcinoma
  289. 289.Malignant transformation is most common in;
    a. postbulbar ulcer b. Stromal ulcer c. Gastric ulcer d. Chronic duodenal ulcer
  290. 290.In hemolytic anemia, gallstones are;
    a. Oxalate stone b. Mixed stone c. Cholesterol stone d. Pigment stone
  291. 291.In keloid, best treatment is;
    a. Wide excision b. Wide excision and radiotherapy_x000D_c. Intralesional steroid d. Intralesional excision
  292. 292.True regarding keloid is;
    a. Common in old people b. Continues to get worse even after 1 year _x000D_c. Appears few days after surgery d. Appears immediately after surgery
  293. 293. What percent of patients with perforated peptic ulcer will show free gas under the diaphragm;
    a. 100 b. 70 c. 50 d. 90
  294. 294.In peptic ulcer perforation the investigation of choice is;
    a. Ct scan b. Ultrasonography c. X-ray abdomen d. Paracentesis
  295. 295. not a treatment modality of carcinoma prostate:
    a. Flutamide b. Leuprolide c. Bicalutamide d. Somatostain analogue
  296. 296.patients with neurofibromatosis are not prone to;
    a. Meningioma b. Schwannoma c. Retinoblastoma d. Gliomas
  297. 297.Sigmoidoscope finding in acute diverticulitis of colon is:
    a. Sigmoidoscope cannot pass beyond 15cm b. Saw-tooth appearance _x000D_c. Minute diverticula are seen d. Mucosa is inflamed
  298. 298.Thyroglossal cyst is most common at:
    a. Floor of mouth b. Beneath the foramen caecum_x000D_c. Suphyoid d. Suprahyoid
  299. 299.Swelling which moves the movement of tongue is…. Cyst;
    a. Branchial cyst b. Thyroglossal cyst _x000D_c. Dermoid cyst d. Thyroid cyst
  300. 300. In which of the following disease, rhagades is seen ;
    a. Congenital syphilis b. Toxoplasmosis _x000D_c. Herpes simplex d. Secondary syphilis
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