Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: improve bolus flow through the pharynx by improving tongue base-to-pharyngeal wall contact
C) Effortful or hard swallow
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: prevent advancement of the bolus beyond the valleculae; reduce distance of tongue base to-pharyngeal wall contact
C) Chin down/chin tuck
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: head is typically turned to the ________ side in an effort to direct the bolus to the stronger side of the pharynx allowing for better clearance of the bolus
B) Weak
This is the definition of head turn.
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: head is tilted toward the _______ side to improve oral control of the bolus
A) Both
This is the definition of head tilt.
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: improve vocal fold closure to prevent aspiration
A) Supraglottic swallow
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: improve vocal fold closure and arytenoids-to-epiglottic petiole contact to improve airway closure during the swallow
C) Super-supraglottic swallow
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: improve bolus control by slowing the bolus
B) Thickened liquids
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: reduced friction; improve bolus passage to esophagus
D) Thin liquids
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: indicated for tight UES
D) Thin liquids
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: indicated for impaired/delayed vocal fold closure
A) Supraglottic swallow
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: indicated for impaired/reduced vocal fold and laryngeal closure
D) Super-supraglottic swallow
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: indicated for pharyngeal weakness, except
D) Head tilt
Head tilt is indicated for oral weakness and reduced sensation.
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: indicated for oral weakness and reduced sensation
B) Head tilt
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: indicated for reduced tongue base retraction
D) Effortful/hard swallow
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: indicated for tongue base retraction
A) Chin down/chin tuck
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: indicated for bolus control
B) Thickened liquids
Therapeutic and Compensatory Techniques for Managing Patients with Dysphagia: indicated for delayed initiation of pharyngeal swallow
D) Chin down/chin tuck
Classification System for Degree of Hearing Loss: 71-90 dB HL
A) Severe
Pure Tone Average
Classification
0-15 dB HL
Normal
16-25 dB HL
Slight
26-40 dB HL
Mild
41-55 dB HL
Moderate
56-70 dB HL
Moderately severe
71-90 dB HL
Severe
91 dB HL and above
Profound
Classification System for Degree of Hearing Loss: 26-40 dB HL
D) Mild
Pure Tone Average
Classification
0-15 dB HL
Normal
16-25 dB HL
Slight
26-40 dB HL
Mild
41-55 dB HL
Moderate
56-70 dB HL
Moderately severe
71-90 dB HL
Severe
91 dB HL and above
Profound
Classification System for Degree of Hearing Loss: moderately severe
D) 56-70 dB HL
Pure Tone Average
Classification
0-15 dB HL
Normal
16-25 dB HL
Slight
26-40 dB HL
Mild
41-55 dB HL
Moderate
56-70 dB HL
Moderately severe
71-90 dB HL
Severe
91 dB HL and above
Profound
Rehabilitation Medications Affecting Sexual Functioning: all of the following medications cause decreased sex drive, arousal dysfunction, and ejaculatory or orgasmic dysfunction, except:
C) Anticonvulsants
Anticonvulsants cause decreased sex drive and arousal dysfunction.
How does digoxin, H2-blockers, and anticonvulsants affect sexual functioning?
A) Decreased sex drive and arousal dysfunction
All of the following drugs cause arousal dysfunction and ejaculatory or orgasmic dysfunction, except:
E) Antihypertensives
Antihypertensives cause decreased sex drive, arousal dysfunction, ejaculatory or orgasmic dysfunction.
Sex suppressant, especially orgasm
B) SSRIs
Central sympatholytic/peripheral a-blocker
D) Antihypertensives
↓Testosterone levels and/or ↑prolactin levels: with chronic use, sex suppressant, except:
B) Anticonvulsants
Anticonvulsants decrease arousal.
May suppress sexual reflexes
D) Antispasmodics
↓Testosterone and LH and ↑estrogen
C) Digoxin
Indomethacin causes fertility problems; gabapentin causes variable effects; and marijuana decreases testosterone and increases prolactin levels.
Can cause reversible spermatogenic suppression
A) H2 blockers
All of the following are modifiable risk factors for stroke, except:
A) Decreased fibrinogen
It should be elevated fibrinogen.
Least common cause of stroke
C) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Cause
%
Large vessel occlusion, infarction
32%
Embolism
32%
Small vessel occlusion, lacunar
18%
Intracerebral hemorrhage
11%
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
7%
Which of the following is not a possible source of cerebral embolism?
6.) Coagulopathy - deficiencies in antithrombin III, protein C, and protein S
7.) Homocystinuria
8.) Oral contraceptives
9.) Postpartum
10.) Drug-induced
This aphasia test produces a classification of the aphasic features observed in a patient. Besides classifying the aphasia, it also provides a score of severity of the aphasia, which can be compared to aphasic patients in general.
B) Boston Diagnostic Aphasia Examination
This aphasia test is somewhat similar to Boston. It measures various parameters of spontaneous speech and examines comprehension, fluency, object naming, and repetition.
C) Western Aphasia Battery
This aphasia test is different from the other tests in that it evaluates verbal, gestural, and graphic responses. It is very structured in its format and must be given by a trained professional. It provides a useful statistical summary of the details of the language impairments and offers outcome prediction.
A) Porch Index of Communication Ability
This aphasia test is not diagnostic; the score indicates the severity and can be useful indicator of recovery.
A) Functional Communication Profile
Brunnstrom Stages of Motor Recovery: no activation of the limb
C) Stage 1
Brunnstrom Stages of Motor Recovery: spasticity appears, and weak basic flexor and extensor synergies are present
D) Stage 2
Brunnstrom Stages of Motor Recovery: spasticity is prominent; the patient voluntarily moves the limb, but muscle activation is all within the synergy patterns
A) Stage 3
Brunnstrom Stages of Motor Recovery: the patient begins to activate muscles selectively outside the flexor and extensor synergies
C) Grade 4
Brunnstrom Stages of Motor Recovery: Spastic decreases, most muscle activation is selective and independent from the limb synergies
B) Grade 5
Brunnstrom Stages of Motor Recovery: isolated movements are performed in a smooth, phasic, well-coordinated manner
B) Stage 6
Most common medical complication during post acute stroke rehabilitation
E) All of these
Least common medical complication is pressure ulcer.
Least common neurologic complication during post acute stroke rehabilitation
B) Seizure
Most common neurologic complication is toxic or metabolic encephalopathy.
Glasgow Outcome Scale-Extended: no cerebral function that can be judged by behavior (not able to follow simple commands or communicate)
A) 2
2 is vegetative state.
Glasgow Outcome Scale-Extended: 5
A) Independent in ADLs; can shop and travel independently on public transportation, but has not returned to previous position or lifestyle
Grade
Description
1
Dead
2
Vegetative state: no cerebral function can be judged by behavior (unable to follow simple commands or communicate
3
Lower severe disability: needs full assistance throughout the day
4
Upper severe disability: needs assistance/supervision in ADLs, but can be alone for >8 h/d
5
Lower moderate disability: independent in ADLs, can shop and travel independently on public transportation, but unable to return to previous position or lifestyle
6
Upper moderate disability: able to return to previous position or lifestyle with alternative/modified duties or part-time due to injury
7
Lower good recovery: able to return to previous position or lifestyle (may be modified), but reporting some problems
8
Upper good recovery: able to return to previous position or lifestyle with no reported problems
Not a positive phenomenon in PD:
C) Bradykinesia
Bradykinesia is a negative phenomenon in PD.
Not a negative phenomenon in PD:
B) Rigidity
Rigidity is a positive phenomenon.
Most common symptom in PD
D) Tremor
Not true about tremor in PD
B) Proximal involvement
It should be distal involvement.
Not true about rigidity in PD:
C) Decreases if contralateral limb is engaged in volition
Rigidity in PD increases if the contralateral limb is engaged in volition.
On EMG, bradykinesia will manifest as:
B) All of these
Loss of postural reflexes in PD will result in:
E) All of these
Not true about shuffling gait pattern in patients with PD
E) None of these
Shuffling gait is associated with bradykinesia, hypokinesia, and movement initiation and execution impairment.
Festination is associated with all of the following impairments, except:
C) Rigidity
Rigidity is associated with stooped (flexed) posture and cautious gait (fear of falling).
Which of the following impairments is not associated with freezing or "start hesitation"?
C) Impaired postural responses
Which of the following PD medications causes St. Anthony's fire?
D) Bromocriptine
St. Anthony's fire refers to red, inflamed skin which is reversible on drug discontinuation.
Which of the following areas should not be stimulated during DBS procedures in patients with PD?
D) Globus pallidus pars externa
It should be globus pallidus pars interna.
Brief, rapid, forceful, dysrhythmic, discrete, purposeless, flinging of the limb
B) Chorea
Slow, writhing movements and inability to maintain position of limb or body part
B) Athetosis
Large amplitude, flinging movement of limb (usually proximal)
A) Hemiballismus
Sustained muscle contraction that leads to repetitive twisting movement of variable speed and abnormal posture
B) Dystonia
Rhythmic, oscillatory movements of a body part
D) Tremor
Intermittent, repetitive, stereotypical, abrupt, jerky, typically affecting the head and face
D) Tic
Purposeless, uniformly repetitive, voluntary movement of the whole body areas
B) Stereotypy
Subjective restlessness, compulsion to move about
B) Akathisia
Sudden, brief, irregular contraction of a group of muscles
B) Myoclonus
The level at which, by radiological examination, the greatest vertebral damage is found
A) Skeletal level
Sensory level is the most caudal dermatome to have normal sensation (2/2) for both pinprick /dull and light touch on both sides.
Motor level is the most caudal key muscle group that is graded 3/5 or greater with the segments cephalad graded 5/5.
Neurological level of injury is the most caudal level at which both sensory and motor modalities are intact.
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: BFO (mobile arm support)
E) C1-C4
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: resting hand splint, except
C) C7
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: long opponens splint
D) C5
Long opponens splint is indicated for C1-C5 SCI.
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: spiral splint
B) Both
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: powered tenodesis splint
C) C5
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: wrist-driven tenodesis splint
C) C6
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: ratchet tenodesis splint
E) C5
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: short opponens splint
C) C6
Short opponens splint is indicated for C6-C7 SCI.
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: universal cuff, except
B) C8-T1
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: lumbrical bar
D) C8-T1
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: mouth stick
E) C1-C4
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: power/mechanical lift, except:
C) C7
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: transfer board
C) All of these
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: manual wheelchair
D) All of these
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: power wheelchair
C) C6
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: power wheelchair with tilt/recline
A) Both
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: power wheelchair assist
D) C5
Power wheelchair assist is indicated in C5-C6 SCI.
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: utensils with built-up handles
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: dressing equipment (pant loops, sock aide, dressing stick, long shoe horn, etc.)
C) C6
Dressing equipment is indicated for C6-C7 SCI.
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: gooseneck mirror
B) All of these
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: computer, except:
B) C8-T1
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: book holder, except:
B) C8-T1
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: grab bars, except:
C) C5
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: reci shower or commode chair
A) C1-C4
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: tub seat/shower chair (padded), except
D) C1-C4
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: handheld spray attachment
F) All of these
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: full electric hospital bed, except:
B) C7
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: full specialized mattress
C) Both
Suggested equipment for complete tetraplegic: overlay mattress
C) Neither
Overlay mattress is indicated for C6-C7 SCI.
Modified International Classification for Individuals with Tetraplegia: in motor group 5, all of the following muscles are functional (grade of 4 or 5), except:
D) Finger extensors
Motor Group
Functional Muscles
0
Weak or absent BR (grade 3 or less)
1
BR
2
BR, ECRL
3
BR, ECRL, ECRB
4
BR, ECRL, ECRB, PT
5
BR, ECRL, ECRB, PT, FCR
6
BR, ECRL, ECRB, PT, FCR, finger extensors
7
BR, ECRL, ECRB, PT, FCR, finger extensors, thumb extensors
7.) Muscle biopsy with muscle fiber necrosis and regeneration with central nuclei
Age of onset: childhood or early adolescence
D) BMD
Age of onset in DMD is childhood <age 5.
Pattern of weakness: proximal
B) Both
Wheelchair dependence: late childhood/early adolescence
B) DMD
Wheelchair dependence in BMD occurs during late adolescence or later.
Scoliosis: severe and progressive
C) DMD
Scoliosis in BMD is mild.
Cardiac involvement: significant
C) Both
Pulmonary dysfunction: usually mild
A) BMD
Pulmonary dysfunction in DMD is severe and progressive
Cognitive involvement: unusual
D) BMD
Cognitive involvement in DMD is frequent.
Which of the following is not a biological effect of viscosupplements?
A) Immediate restoration and maintenance of synovial fluid rheologic properties
Immediate restoration and maintenance of synovial fluid rheologic properties (viscosity and elasticity) and antinociceptive effects are rheological effects of viscosupplements. Cartilage and chondrocyte anabolic effects include increased biosynthesis and proliferation, as well as decreased degradation and apoptosis.
Types of Scoliosis and Typical Ages of Onset: idiopathic
D) Infancy to adolescence
Pathophysiological Type of Scoliosis
Typical Age of Onset
Idiopathic
Infancy to adolescence
Neuromuscular
Childhood to adolescence
Bone or ligamentous dysfunction
Childhood
Traumatic/posttraumatic
All ages
Infectious or neoplastic
All ages
Degenerative
Middle age to seniors
Types of Scoliosis and Typical Ages of Onset: all ages
E) All of these
Pathophysiological Type of Scoliosis
Typical Age of Onset
Idiopathic
Infancy to adolescence
Neuromuscular
Childhood to adolescence
Bone or ligamentous dysfunction
Childhood
Traumatic/posttraumatic
All ages
Infectious or neoplastic
All ages
Degenerative
Middle age to seniors
Moe-Nash Classification of Spinal Rotation: pedicles are seen symmetrically positioned at the lateral border of the vertebral bodies
D) Grade 0
Moe-Nash Classification of Spinal Rotation: slight asymmetry
C) Grade 1
Moe-Nash Classification of Spinal Rotation: one pedicle is almost out of view
A) Grade 2
Moe-Nash Classification of Spinal Rotation: one pedicle is seen, positioned at the center of the vertebral body
D) Grade 3
Moe-Nash Classification of Spinal Rotation: only one pedicle is seen, positioned lateral to the center of the vertebral body
B) Grade 4
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: age of onset is 10 y-skeletal maturity
A) Adolescent
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: age of onset is <3 y
C) Infantile
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: age of onset is 3-10 y
B) Juvenile
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: 1% of all idiopathic scoliosis
B) Infantile
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: 12%-21% of all idiopathic scoliosis
C) Juvenile
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: 80%-90% of all idiopathic scoliosis
A) Adolescent
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: male:female ratio is 1:5
C) Adolescent
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: male:female ratio is equal until 6 y then 1:8
A) Juvenile
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: male:female ratio is male > female
B) Infantile
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: common curve pattern is T or T-L
C) Infantile
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: common curve pattern is T, double major, T-L
B) Both
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: usual side of curve vertex is L
A) Infantile
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: usual side of curve vertex is R
B) Juvenile
The usual side of curve vertex in infantile scoliosis is L, while the usual side of curve vertex in juvenile and adolescent scolioses is R.
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: may spontaneously resolve
C) Infantile
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: usually will not spontaneously resolve
B) Juvenile
Types of Idiopathic Scoliosis: dependent on age of onset and size of curve
B) Adolescent
Role of Orthotic Management in Spinal Deformity of Different Etiologies: role of orthotic management is to correct and prevent progression
C) Idiopathic
Role of Orthotic Management in Spinal Deformity of Different Etiologies: role of orthotic management is limited since it cannot stop progression
D) Myopathic/lower motor neuron
Role of Orthotic Management in Spinal Deformity of Different Etiologies: role of orthotic management is for comfort and support but will not likely affect curve
D) Degenerative
Role of Orthotic Management in Spinal Deformity of Different Etiologies: role of orthotic management is to slow or stop progression in long flexible curves
A) Congenital bony dysfunction
Role of Orthotic Management in Spinal Deformity of Different Etiologies: role of orthotic management is to slow progression in seated patients
C) Upper motor neuron
Role of Orthotic Management in Spinal Deformity of Different Etiologies: rigid orthosis is used in the following types of scoliosis, except:
B) Ligamentous dysfunction
Soft orthosis is used in scoliosis secondary to ligamentous dysfunction.
Role of Orthotic Management in Spinal Deformity of Different Etiologies: rigid or semirigid orthosis
D) Degenerative
Ligament Sprains: minimal pain and swelling
B) First degree
Ligament Sprains: no ligamentous instability
B) First degree
Ligament Sprains: minimal localized tenderness
A) First degree
Ligament Sprains: significant pain and swelling
B) Second degree
Ligament Sprains: subtle structural instability
C) Second degree
Ligament Sprains: occasional joint effusion
B) Second degree
Ligament Sprains: marked swelling and hemoarthrosis
Classification of Tendon Injuries: inflammation of paratenon with associated pain, swelling, and tenderness
C) Tenosynovitis
Tenosynovitis is also known as paratenonitis.
Classification of Tendon Injuries: inflammation of tendon with associated vascular disruption and inflammation
D) Tendinitis
Classification of Tendon Injuries: intratendinous atrophy and degeneration with a relative absence of inflammation; a palpable nodule may be present over a tendon
C) Tendinosis
Classification of Tendon Injuries: acute inflammation superimposed on chronic tendinitis
B) Paratenonitis with tendinosis
Classification of Tendon Injuries: acute inflammation superimposed on chronic inflammation with tendinosis
E) Partial or complete rupture
Which of the following is not a goal in rehabilitation of soft tissue injuries?
D) None of these
Goals of Rehabilitation of Soft Tissue Injuries:
1.) Prescribe activity-specific training
2.) Correct functional deficiencies
3.) Improve strength, flexibility, and general conditioning
4.) Address structural deficiencies
5.) Promote healing
6.) Control pain and inflammation
7.) Establish correct diagnosis
Tendon Injuries (Functional Scale): pain after exercise, subsiding within 24h
A) Grade 1
Tendon Injuries (Functional Scale): minimal discomfort during exercise; without activity limitation
D) Grade 2
Tendon Injuries (Functional Scale): pain interferes with exercise
A) Grade 3
Tendon Injuries (Functional Scale): pain interferes with activities of daily living
C) Grade 4
Tendon Injuries (Functional Scale): rest pain interfering with sleep
A) Grade 5
All of the following are intrinsic variables in overuse injuries, except:
E) Training errors/poor. technique
Intrinsic variables:
1.) Age
2.) Flexibility imbalance
3.) Muscle imbalance/weakness
4.) Anatomic malalignment
5) Genetic predisposition
Extrinsic variables:
1.) Training error/poor technique
2.) Environmental factors
3.) Equipment factors
Tests Used in the Diagnosis of Shoulder pain: inferior translation force at the humerus with retraction of soft tissue above the humeral head
D) Sulcus sign
Tests Used in the Diagnosis of Shoulder pain: laxity in inferior capsule
C) Sulcus sign
Not true about apprehension and relocation test
E) None of these
Tests Used in the Diagnosis of Shoulder pain: elbow is flexed and forearm supinated
B) Yergason's test
If Yergason's test is positive, it is indicative of bicipital tendonitis.
Tests Used in the Diagnosis of Shoulder pain: arm is flexed with elbow straight and supinated; resistance is applied to arm flexors
A) Speed's
If Speed's test is positive, it is indicative of bicipital tendonitis.
Tests Used in the Diagnosis of Shoulder pain: arm is abducted to 90 degrees and internally rotated, causing pain
B) None of these
This is Hawkin's test and if it is positive, it is indicative of impingement of supraspinatus tendon.
Tests Used in the Diagnosis of Shoulder pain: arm is flexed to 90 degrees and internally rotated, patient resists downward force
E) Neer's
Tests Used in the Diagnosis of Shoulder pain: pain noted on abduction from 60 to 120 degrees
B) Painful arc
If painful arc is positive, it is indicative of supraspinatus tendonitis.
Tests Used in the Diagnosis of Shoulder pain: arm placed in full abduction and patient is asked to lower arm slowly; arm drops from midabduction
E) Drop arm
If drop arm test is positive, it is indicative of supraspinatus full-thickness tear.
Tests Used in the Diagnosis of Shoulder pain: translation of humerus over the edge of labrum
E) Clunk
If clunk test is positive, it is indicative of glenohumeral instability or possibly labral tear.
Tests Used in the Diagnosis of Shoulder pain: pulse is palpated, and a drop in the pulse may be noted during inhalation, coupled with rotation of the head activating the scalene muscles
C) Adson's
If Adson's test is positive, it is indicative of thoracic outlet syndrome.
Tests Used in the Diagnosis of Shoulder pain: hands repetitively opened and closed with arms abducted and elbows bent increasing vascular demand
C) Roos'
If Roos' test is positive, it is indicative of thoracic outlet syndrome.
Differential Diagnosis of Lateral Elbow Pain: articular, except:
B) Annular and lateral ligament sprains
Annular and lateral ligament sprains affect soft tissues.
Articular:
1.) Radiohumeral joint disease
2.) Radioulnar joint disease
3.) Ectopic calcification
4.) Periostitis
5.) Panner's osteochondrosis
6.) Fibrillation of the radial head
Differential Diagnosis of Lateral Elbow Pain: soft tissue, except:
D) Rupture of common flexor origin
It should be rupture of common extensor origin.
Differential Diagnosis of Lateral Elbow Pain: soft tissue, except:
B) Anterior interosseous nerve compression
It should be posterior interosseous nerve compression.
Special Diagnostics Tests Associated with CTD: pain with full passive shoulder flexion
C) Neer's
Special Diagnostics Tests Associated with CTD: tapping of ulnar nerve at cubital tunnel in flexed elbow
D) Tinel's
Special Diagnostics Tests Associated with CTD: internal rotation and abduction of shoulder with elbow flexed at 90 degrees
D) Hawkin's
Special Diagnostics Tests Associated with CTD: resistance to shoulder extension with the subject's elbow fully extended and the fist directed such that the thumb is pointing toward the ground
C) Empty can
Special Diagnostics Tests Associated with CTD: shoulder flexion with the arm in supinated position and the elbow flexed to 15 degrees
C) Speed's
Special Diagnostics Tests Associated with CTD: passive ulnar deviation of the hand with the thumb fully flexed in a closed fist
C) Finkelstein's
Special Diagnostics Tests Associated with CTD: resistance of wrist extension and radial deviation with the subject's arm in pronated position
A) Cozen's
EMG findings in carpal tunnel syndrome, except:
A) Prolonged distal latency of median motor, possible sensory
It should be prolonged distal latency of median sensory, possible motor.
Not a cause of carpal tunnel syndrome
C) Indirect trauma
It should be direct trauma.
Diagnosis and Treatment of Hand Disorders: locking of digits in flexion, snapping, popping, tender nodules, and crepitus
C) Trigger finger
Diagnosis and Treatment of Hand Disorders: radial wrist pain, positive Finkelstein's
D) de Quervain's
Diagnosis and Treatment of Hand Disorders: superficial palmar nodules; painless flexion contractures
B) Dupuytren's
Diagnosis and Treatment of Hand Disorders: nighttime hand paresthesias, positive Tinel's, carpal tunnel compression, and Phalen's
A) None these
These are signs and symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome.
Diagnosis and Treatment of Hand Disorders: ulnar hand pain and paresthesias, positive Tinel's at elbow, possible interosseous weakness
E) Cubital tunnel syndrome
Diagnosis and Treatment of Hand Disorders: pain at base of the thumb, positive grind maneuver
B) Basilar thumb degenerative disease
Not included in the prescription for trigger finger
B) Splint
Splint is used in de Quervain's, carpal tunnel syndrome, and basilar thumb degenerative disease.
Not included in the prescription for de Quervain's tenosynovitis
C) Rest
Rest is indicated for trigger finger.
Dupuytren's contracture prescription, except:
D) Cortisone injection
It should be collagenase injection.
Carpal tunnel syndrome prescription, except:
A) Rest
Rest is indicated for trigger finger.
Not a part of prescription for cubital tunnel syndrome
D) Cortisone injection
Cortisone injection is indicated for trigger finger, de Quervain's tenosynovitis, and carpal tunnel syndrome.
Basilar thumb degenerative joint disease prescription, except:
E) Surgical release
Surgical reconstruction is indicated for basilar thumb degenerative joint disease, while surgical release is indicated for carpal and cubital tunnel syndromes, as well as Dupuytren's contracture.
Diagnosis and Treatment of Hand Disorders: cortisone injection, except:
E) Cubital tunne syndrome
Diagnosis and Treatment of Hand Disorders: activity modification, except:
D) de Quervain's tenosynovitis
Lisfranc's Dislocation Classification: all metatarsals are displaced in the same direction
A) Homolateral
Lisfranc's Dislocation Classification: metatarsals are displaced in multiple planes and differing directions
B) Divergent
Lisfranc's Dislocation Classification: one or more metatarsals displaced and separated
B) Isolated
Lisfranc's Dislocation Classification: total incongruity of entire Lisfranc's complex in sagittal or transverse planes
A) Type A total
Lisfranc's Dislocation Classification: medial displacement of 1st metatarsal in isolation or in combination with one or more of the adjacent metatarsals
B) Type B partial (medial)
Lisfranc's Dislocation Classification: lateral displacement of one or more of the lateral metatarsals with the 1st metatarsal unaffected
A) Type B partial (lateral)
Lisfranc's Dislocation Classification: 1st metatarsal displaced medially, with one or more of the lateral 4 metatarsals displaced laterally in any number of planes
E) Type C divergent (partial)
Lisfranc's Dislocation Classification: 1st metatarsal displaced medially, with all lateral 4 metatarsals displaced laterally in any number of planes
C) Type C divergent (total)
Midfoot Sprain Classification: pain at Lisfranc's ligament complex, no displacement on weight-bearing anteroposterior x-ray plus bone
A) Stage I
Midfoot Sprain Classification: 1st and 2nd metatarsal bone diastasis of 1-5 mm on weight-bearing anteroposterior x-ray; no evidence of loss of arch height on lateral x-ray
C) Stage II
Midfoot Sprain Classification: 1st and 2nd metatarsal bone diastasic >5 mm on weight-bearing anteroposterior x-ray; loss of arch height on lateral x-ray
A) Stage III
Ulcer Classification: intact skin may have bony deformity or limited skin mobility
E) Grade 0
Ulcer Classification: localized superficial ulcer of the skin
C) Grade 1
Ulcer Classification: deep ulcer extending to bone, tendon, ligament, or joint
E) Grade 2
Ulcer Classification: deep ulcer with abscess or osteomyelitis
B) Grade 3
Ulcer Classification: forefoot gangrene
C) Grade 4
Ulcer Classification: gangrene of the entire foot
A) Grade 5
Defining Bone Loss by BMD: BMD is within 1 SD of a “young normal” adult (T-score ≥ −1)
C) Normal
Defining Bone Loss by BMD: BMD is within 1 and 2.5 SDs below that of a "young normal" adult (T-score between -1.0 and -2.5)
A) Osteopenia
Defining Bone Loss by BMD: BMD is 2.5 SDs or more below that of a "young normal" adult (T-score ≤ 2.5)
C) Osteoporosis
Which of the following events has the greatest loss of quality of life years in osteoporosis (hip fracture)?
B) Nonmedical home care (6 mo)
Which of the following events has the greatest loss of quality of life years in osteoporosis?
C) Hip fracture
Meanwhile, vertebral fracture has the least loss of QALYs.
All of the following medications can cause secondary osteoporosis, except:
B) Antipsychotics
Which of the following malignancies is not associated with secondary osteoporosis?
C) Lung cancer
Which of the following is not a risk factor for osteoporotic fractures?
D) None of these
Other risk factors for osteoporotic fractures are:
1.) Personal history of low-impact fracture
2.) Current low BMD
3.) Caucasian race
4.) Advanced age
5.) Female sex
6.) Recurrent falls
7.) Inadequate physical activity
8.) Current smoker
9.) Low body weight
10.) Estrogen deficiency
11.) Corticosteroid use
12.) Vitamin D deficiency
13.) Low lifetime calcium intake
14.) Impaired eyesight despite correction
Laboratory Tests in Disorders of Calcium Metabolism: increased serum calcium, except:
D) Renal osteodystrophy
Renal osteodystrophy, vitamin D deficiency, and primary hypoparathyroidism have decreased serum calcium.
Laboratory Tests in Disorders of Calcium Metabolism: increased PTH, except:
C) Hypercalcemia of malignancy
Hypercalcemia of malignancy and primary hypoparathyroidism have decreased PTH.
Laboratory Tests in Disorders of Calcium Metabolism: normal vitamin D, except:
D) Primary hyperparathyroidism
Primary hyperparathyroidism has increased vitamin D, while renal osteodystrophy and primary hypoparathyroidism have decreased vitamin D.
Laboratory Tests in Disorders of Calcium Metabolism: increased urine calcium
E) Hypercalcemia of malignancy
Primary hyperparathyroidism has normal urine calcium, while the other choices have decreased calcium urine.
Laboratory Tests in Disorders of Calcium Metabolism: decreased renal function
A) None of these
Renal osteodystrophy has decreased renal function.
Recommended Daily Calcium Intake: 0-6 months
C) 210 mg/d
Recommended Daily Calcium Intake: 7-12 months
B) 270 mg/d
Recommended Daily Calcium Intake: 1-3 years
C) 500 mg/d
Recommended Daily Calcium Intake: 4-8 years
B) 800 mg/d
Recommended Daily Calcium Intake: 9-18 years
C) 1300 mg/d
Recommended Daily Calcium Intake: 19-50 years
C) 1000 mg/d
Recommended Daily Calcium Intake: >50 years
B) 1200 mg/d
Recommended Daily Calcium Intake: pregnant or lactating women ≤18 years
B) 1300 mg/d
Recommended Daily Calcium Intake: pregnant or lactating women 19-50 years
A) 1000 mg/d
Which of the following food has the highest amount of calcium?
B) Plain yogurt, nonfat
Vanilla ice cream has the least amount of calcium.
Which of the following biphosphonates decreases spine and hip fractures?
B) Alendronate
Which of the following biphosphonates does not decrease spine, non spine, and hip fractures
B) Ibandronate
Ibandronate only decreases spine fractures.
Which of the following biphosphonates is not used for treatment of glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis?
E) Ibandronate
Ibandronate is used for prevention and treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis.
Which of the following biphosphonates cannot be used for treatment of men with osteoporosis?
D) Ibandronate
Which of the following biphosphonates is used for post-hip fragility fracture?
C) Zoledronic acid
Which of the following biphosphonates cannot be used to prevent postmenopausal osteoporosis?
C) Zoledronic acid
Nutritional and Pharmacologic Treatments for Osteoporosis: decreased bone resorption, except:
B) Teriparatide
Teriparatide increases bone mineralization.
Nutritional and Pharmacologic Treatments for Osteoporosis: side effects are esophageal irritation, jaw osteonecrosis, and atypical femoral fractures
A) Biphosphonates
Nutritional and Pharmacologic Treatments for Osteoporosis: side effects are possible increased risk of cancer, high blood pressure, deep vein thrombosis, stroke, heart disease, and thromboembolic disease
A) Estrogen with or without progesterone
Nutritional and Pharmacologic Treatments for Osteoporosis: side effects are hot flashes, leg cramps, and deep vein thrombosis
B) Estrogen agonist/antagonist
Nutritional and Pharmacologic Treatments for Osteoporosis: side effects are musculoskeletal pain, elevated cholesterol, and cystitis pancreatitis.
D) RANKL inhibition
Nutritional and Pharmacologic Treatments for Osteoporosis: side effect is nasal irritation
D) Calcitonin
Synovial Fluid Analysis: pale yellow, transparent, high viscosity, and good mucin clot
Wenger Protocol: increased resistance, walking to bathroom, standing ADL, up to 1h long group meeting
A) Step 6
Wenger Protocol: walking to 100 ft, standing, warm-up exercises
A) Step 7
Wenger Protocol: increased walking, walk down stairs (not up) , continued education
A) Step 8
Wenger Protocol: increased exercise program, review energy conservation, and pacing techniques
C) Step 9
Wenger Protocol: increased exercises with light weights and ambulation, begin education on home exercise program
B) Step 10
Wenger Protocol: increased duration of activities
A) Step 11
Wenger Protocol: walk down two flights of stairs, continue to increase resistance in exercises
D) Step 12
Wenger Protocol: continue activities, education, and home exercise program teaching
A) Step 13
Wenger Protocol: walk up and down two flights of stairs, complete instruction on home exercise program and in energy conservation and pacing techniques
A) Step 14
Activity Classification: no known heart disease
B) Class A
Activity Classification: <40 years old
E) Class A
Activity Classification: no symptoms of heart disease
A) Class A
Activity Classification: normal ETT
D) Class A
Activity Classification: healthy individuals, not needing cardiac rehabilitation program
E) Class A
Activity Classification: known stable heart disease
C) Both
Activity Classification: low risk from cardiac exercise
Activity Classification: no clinical heart failure
D) Class B
Classes B and C have no clinical heart failure.
Activity Classification: no ischemia or angina at rest or on ETT at ≤6 METs
B) Both
Activity Classification: appropriate rise in BP with exercise
B) Both
Activity Classification: no high-grade ventricular ectopy
C) Both
Activity Classification: individualized activity guidelines with exercise prescription by qualified personnel or restricted to walking
C) Class B
Activity Classification: ECG and BP monitoring only during prescriptive exercises, usually 6-12 per session
A) Both
Activity Classification: medical supervision for prescriptive sessions; nonmedical supervision for other exercise prescriptions
A) Class B
Medical supervision for prescriptive sessions and nonmedical supervision for other exercise prescriptions are indicated for class B and C.
Activity Classification: medical supervision for prescriptive sessions; nonmedical supervision for other exercise prescriptions
C) Class B
Medical supervision for prescriptive sessions and nonmedical supervision for other exercise prescriptions are indicated for classes B and C.
Activity Classification: unable to understand prescribed activity levels
D) Class C
Activity Classification: individualized activity guidelines with exercise prescription by qualified personnel and supervised by nonmedical personnel trained in CPR
C) Class C
Activity Classification: moderate to high risk for complications during exercise
A) Class D
Activity Classification: ETT abnormalities not directly related to ischemia
E) Class D
Activity Classification: previous V-Fib or sudden death not related to acute ischemia or cardiac procedure
D) Class D
Activity Classification: high grade ventricular arrhythmias that are uncontrolled at mild to moderate work intensities
A) Class D
Activity Classification: left main disease or three vessel disease
Activity Classification: severe symptomatic aortic stenosis
B) Class E
Activity Classification: other conditions that can be aggravated by exercise
E) Class E
Activity Classification: no activity is recommended for conditioning purposes
A) Class E
Self-monitoring guidelines, except:
B) Wait 1h after meals
It should be wait 2h after meals.
Which of the following is not a benefit cardiac rehabilitation after bypass surgery?
B) Decreased ischemic threshold
It should be increased ischemic threshold. Cardiac rehabilitation also decreases platelet aggregation, increases fibrinolysis, and improves psychological status.
Relative Cardiovascular Response to UE and LE exercise: UE<LE during maximal exercise, except:
A) Heart rate
In heart rate and SBP, there are equal increases in maximal UE and LE exercises.
Relative Cardiovascular Response to UE and LE exercise: UE=LE during submaximal exercise
E) Heart rate
Relative Cardiovascular Response to UE and LE exercise: UE>LE during submaximal exercise, except:
B) Stroke volume
Stroke volume increases more in LE exercise at submaximal intensity.
Management of Patients with SCI: tracheostomy intermittent positive pressure ventilation (TIPPV) for both daytime and nocturnal
A) Above C1
Management of Patients with SCI: electrophenic pacing for daytime
B) C2-C3
Management of Patients with SCI: nasal or mouthpiece intermittent positive pressure ventilation (N/MIPPV) for nocturnal
E) C2-C3 and below C2
Management of Patients with SCI: intermittent abdominal pressure ventilator (IAPV) during daytime
Burn Severity Classifications: blistering, moist, weeping, blanches with pressure, painful
C) Second degree (superficial)
Burn Severity Classifications: no blisters, wet or waxy dry, variable color, less painful, at risk for conversion to full-thickness because of marginal blood supply
A) Second degree (deep)
Burn Severity Classifications: white waxy to leathery gray to charred black, insensate to pain, does not blanch to pressure
D) Third degree
Burn Severity Classifications: black (eschar), exposed bones, ligaments, and tendons
D) Fourth degree
Burn Severity Classifications: exfoliation, heals spontaneously in 1 wk, no scarring
E) First degree
Burn Severity Classifications: reepithelialization in 7-20 days
A) Second degree (superficial)
Burn Severity Classifications: reepithelialization in weeks to months; skin grafting may speed recovery; associated with scarring
B) Second degree (deep)
Burn Severity Classifications: reepithelialization does not occur; requires skin grafting; associated with scarring
B) Third degree
Burn Severity Classifications: may require amputation or extensive deep debridement
E) Fourth degree
American Burn Association Criteria for Referral to a Burn Center, except:
A) Partial-thickness burn greater than 20% TBSA
It should be partial-thickness burn greater than 10% TBSA.
American Burn Association Criteria for Referral to a Burn Center, except:
C) Burned adults in hospitals without qualified personnel or equipment
It should be burned children in hospitals without qualified personnel or equipment.
Preferred position for axillary burns:
C) Both
Preferred position for elbow burns:
B) Extension 5 degrees
Preferred position for forearm burns:
B) Supination
Preferred position for wrist burns:
C) Neutral
The preferred position for wrist burns is neutral or slight extension.
Preferred position for hand burns, except:
C) None of these
Preferred position for hip burns:
D) Both
Preferred position for knee burns:
A) Extension
Positioning devices for neck burns, except:
C) None of these
Positioning devices for axillary burns, except:
B) Wedge positioning to adduction
It should be wedge positioning to abduction.
Positioning devices for elbow burns, except:
B) Neither
Positioning devices for hand burns, except:
A) Intrinsic minus hand splint
It should be intrinsic plus hand splint.
Localized Neuropathies and Associated Risk Factors: not a risk factor for brachial plexus neuropathy
D) Neither
Localized Neuropathies and Associated Risk Factors: not a risk factor for ulnar nerve neuropathy
C) Supination
It should be pronation.
Localized Neuropathies and Associated Risk Factors: tourniquet paralysis, except:
A) Brachial plexus
Localized Neuropathies and Associated Risk Factors: resting on side rails, hanging over edge of operating table, tourniquet paralysis, wrist restraints
B) Radial nerve
Localized Neuropathies and Associated Risk Factors: not a risk factor for median nerve neuropathy
C) Prolonged or repeated wrist hyperflexion
It should be prolonged or repeated wrist hyperextension.
Localized Neuropathies and Associated Risk Factors: not a risk factor for peroneal nerve neuropathy
E) Tourniquet paralysis
Torniquet paralysis is a risk factor for ulnar, radial, and median nerve neuropathies.
Localized Neuropathies and Associated Risk Factors: not a risk factor for femoral nerve neuropathy
D) Neither
Karnofsky Scale: normal, no complaints, no evidence of disease
D) 10
Karnofsky Scale: able to carry on normal activity; minor signs or symptoms of disease
B) 9
Karnofsky Scale: normal, no complaints, no evidence of disease
A) 8
Karnofsky Scale: able to carry on normal activity; no special care is needed, except:
A) 7
Karnofsky Scale: cares for self; unable to carry on normal activity or do active work
C) 7
Karnofsky Scale: requires occasional assistance, but is able to care for most of own needs
C) 6
Karnofsky Scale: requires considerable assistance and frequent medical care
C) 5
Karnofsky Scale: unable to work, able to live at home; cares for most personal needs; varying amounts of assistance is needed, except
D) 4
Karnofsky Scale: disabled; requires special care and assistance
D) 4
Karnofsky Scale: severely disabled; hospitalization is indicated, although death is not imminent
D) 3
Karnofsky Scale: very sick; hospitalization necessary; active supportive treatment necessary
B) 2
Karnofsky Scale: moribund; fatal process progressing rapidly
A) 1
Karnofsky Scale: dead
A) 0
Pharmacologic Management of Pain in Cancer: side effects are gastritis and tinnitus
E) Aspirin
Pharmacologic Management of Pain in Cancer: side effect is hepatotoxicity
E) Acetaminophen
Pharmacologic Management of Pain in Cancer: side effect is gastritis
E) NSAIDs
Pharmacologic Management of Pain in Cancer: side effects are sedation, nausea, and constipation
E) Tramadol
Pharmacologic Management of Pain in Cancer: side effects are sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, confusion, and pruritus
D) Morphine
Pharmacologic Management of Pain in Cancer: causes constipation (often more severe than other opioids)
D) Hydrocodone
Pharmacologic Management of Pain in Cancer: used for breakthrough pain
A) Fentanyl
Harrington's Classification of Vertebral Metastases: no significant neurological involvement
A) I
Harrington's Classification of Vertebral Metastases: involvement of bone without collapse or instability
A) II
Harrington's Classification of Vertebral Metastases: major neurological involvement without significant bone involvement
C) III
Harrington's Classification of Vertebral Metastases: vertebral collapse without neurological impairment
A) IV
Harrington's Classification of Vertebral Metastases: vertebral collapse with neurologic impairment
Diagnostic Arterial Testing: does not evaluate aneurysm
E) Continuous wave Doppler
Diagnostic Arterial Testing: does not determine location of stenosis or occlusion, except:
C) Duplex scan
Duplex scan, computed tomography, magnetic resonance angiography, contrast angiography, continuous wave doppler, and pulse volume recording determine the location of stenosis or occlusion.
Diagnostic Arterial Testing: does not monitor disease progression
C) Photopletysmography
Diagnostic Arterial Testing: not accurate in the presence of non compressible calcified arteries
B) Ankle-bracheal index
Diagnostic Venous Tests: assesses obstruction in acute DVT only
Rejection Symptoms: T-cell mediated anti graft inflammatory infiltrate
A) Hyperacute
B) Acute chronic
B) Acute chronic
Rejection Symptoms: organ replacement is the treatment of choice
A) Hyperacute
B) Acute chronic
B) Acute chronic
Rejection Symptoms: which of the following is not an acute chronic rejection symptom?
C) None of these
Which of the following is not an early cardiovascular change associated with cardiac transplantation?
C) Heart rate increases before stroke volume increases during exercise
Following cardiac transplantation, stroke volume increases before heart rate increases during exercise.
Which of the following is not a late cardiovascular change associated with cardiac transplantation?
B) Improvement of parasympathetic tone to transplanted organ
It should be improvement of sympathetic tone to transplanted organ.
Classification of HIV: AIDS, except:
E) None of these
A3, B3, C1, C2, and C3 are all considered as AIDS.
Classification of HIV: acute HIV
C) Group A
Classification of HIV: asymptomatic
B) Group A
Classification of HIV: generalized lymphadenopathy
B) Group A
Classification of HIV: symptomatic
B) Group B
Classification of HIV: indicator conditions present
A) Group C
Anatomical Classification of Contractures: not a primary cause of arthrogenic contracture
E) Immobility
Immobility is a secondary cause of arthrogenic contracture.
Anatomical Classification of Contractures: not an intrinsic cause of myogenic contracture
C) Muscle imbalance
Muscle imbalance is an extrinsic cause of myogenic contracture. Other extrinsic causes are faulty positioning in bed or chair and spasticity.
Primary chronic neurobiological disease with genetic psychosocial and environmental factors influencing its development and manifestations
C) Addiction
Addiction is also known as psychological dependence.
Characterized by behaviors that include one or more of the following: impaired control over drug use, compulsive use, continued use despite armed craving
C) Addiction
Addiction is also known as psychological dependence.
Adaptation that is manifested by a drug class-specific withdrawal syndrome that can be produced by abrupt sensation, rapid dose reduction, decreasing blood level of the drug, and/or administration of antagonist
A) Physical dependence
State of adaptation in which exposure to a drug induces change that results in diminution of one or more of the drugs effects over time
D) Tolerance
Illegal use or inappropriate use of medications
A) Diversion
Commonly Used Oral Medications for Spasticity: presynaptic inhibition of GABAB receptors.; active both presynaptically and postsynaptically; hyperpolarizes cell membrane
B) Baclofen
Commonly Used Oral Medications for Spasticity: facilitates postsynaptic effects of GABAA by opening chloride channels in membranes resulting in increased presynasptic inhibition secondary to hyperpolarzation
C) Diazepam
Commonly Used Oral Medications for Spasticity: facilitates postsynaptic effects of GABAA by opening chloride channels in membranes resulting in increased presynasptic inhibition secondary to hyperpolarzation
E) Diazepam
Commonly Used Oral Medications for Spasticity: interferes with calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum
A) Dantrolene
Commonly Used Oral Medications for Spasticity: decreases tonic facilitation by locus coeruleus and in spinal cord enhances presynaptic inhibition
A) Clonidine
Commonly Used Oral Medications for Spasticity: blocks release of excitatory neurotransmitters and facilitates inhibitory neurotransmitters; antinociceptive and reduces spinal reflexes
E) Tizanidine
Commonly Used Oral Medications for Spasticity: oldest class of medications used for spasticity that is still in common use
B) Diazepam
Commonly Used Oral Medications for Spasticity: only true peripherally acting oral agent
B) Dantrolene
Commonly Used Oral Medications for Spasticity: risk of withdrawal seizures and hallucinations
C) Baclofen
Commonly Used Oral Medications for Spasticity: dose must be adjusted with renal disease
E) Baclofen
Commonly Used Oral Medications for Spasticity: primary use in SCI population
E) Clonidine
Commonly Used Oral Medications for Spasticity: slow titration reduces sedation side effect that is major limiting factor
B) Tizanidine
Comparison of Different Treatment Modalities for Spasticity: indicated for generalized tone, spasms, no focal region of spasticity
C) Oral medications
Botulinum toxins and phone are indicated for focal areas of spasticity.
Comparison of Different Treatment Modalities for Spasticity: potential improvement in passive or active ADLs
C) Orthopedics procedure
Comparison of Different Treatment Modalities for Spasticity: indicated for significant tone not treated by other modalities
E) ITB
Comparison of Different Treatment Modalities for Spasticity: disadvantages of phenol, except:
A) Expensive
Phenol is cheaper and longer lasting than botulinum toxin.
Not an extrinsic risk factor in pressure ulcer development
B) Impaired mobility
Impaired mobility is an intrinsic risk factor for pressure ulcer development.
Not an intrinsic risk factor for pressure ulcer development
B) Psychosocial
Psychosocial is an extrinsic risk factor for pressure ulcer development.
Classes of Available Dressings: indicated for scabbed over wounds
D) Gauze
Gauze is nonselective and may remove granulation tissue.
Classes of Available Dressings: indicated for stage I, II pressure ulcers with no drainage
A) Occlusive
There may be excessive moisture retention if occlusive dressings are used on wounds that drain excessively.
Classes of Available Dressings: indicated for stage II, III, and IV with little to no drainage
B) Gel
Classes of Available Dressings: indicated for stage II, III, and IV ulcers with little to great drainage
C) Foam
Classes of Available Dressings: indicated for stage III and IV ulcers with moderate to great drainage
C) Alginates
Classes of Available Dressings: transparent film dressing that are semipermeable
E) Occlusive
Classes of Available Dressings: hydrophilic polymer that comes in sheet, granules, or liquid gel forms
B) Gel
Classes of Available Dressings: dressings containing gel-forming agents, often combined with elastomers and adhesives
B) Hydrocolloid
Classes of Available Dressings: highly absorbent, biodegradable dressings derived from seaweed
D) Alginates
Classes of Available Dressings: polyurethane dressing that comes in sheets or fillers
E) Foam
Cushion Material Characteristics: excellent pressure relief
D) Flotation
Cushion Material Characteristics: good pressure relief
C) Gel
Cushion Material Characteristics: poor to good pressure relief
A) Viscoelastic foam
Cushion Material Characteristics: poor to medium pressure relief
D) Foam
Cushion Material Characteristics: poor postural control
C) Flotation
Cushion Material Characteristics: medium to good postural control
C) Foam
Viscoelastic foam and gel have good postural control.
Phases of Sports Rehabilitation: resolving pain and inflammation
A) I
Phases of Sports Rehabilitation: restoring range of motion
C) II
Phases of Sports Rehabilitation: strengthening
C) III
Phases of Sports Rehabilitation: proprioceptive training
E) IV
Phases of Sports Rehabilitation: sports/task-specific activities
C) V
Which of the following is not true about concussion?
E) It results in a graded set of clinical syndromes that involves LOC.
Concussion results in a graded set of clinical syndromes that may or may not involve LOC. Resolution of the clinical and cognitive symptoms typically follows a sequential course.
It should be SBP ≥140 mm Hg or DBP ≥90 mm Hg, confirmed by measurements on at least two separate occasions.
Coronary Artery Disease Risk Factor Thresholds: not true about dyslipedemia
B) Total serum cholesterol >150 mg/dl
Total serum cholesterol should be >200 mg/dl.
Coronary Artery Disease Risk Factor Thresholds: not true about obesity
A) Waist/hip ratio of ≥0.90 in women
Waist/hip ratio should be ≥0.86 in women.
Coronary Artery Disease Risk Factor Thresholds: not a positive risk factor for CAD
B) High serum HDL
High serum HDL is >60 mg/dl.
Medical examination and clinical exercise testing prior to exercise participation is not necessary in the following conditions, except:
D) Moderate risk, vigorous exercise
Medical examination and clinical exercise testing is recommended for high risk, moderate exercise; moderate risk, vigorous exercise; and high risk, vigorous exercise.
