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1. Local anesthetics classified in amide groups are all except:
a. Procaine b. Lidocaine c. Bupivacaine d. Mepivacaine
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2. Allergic phenomenon is more common with:
a. Ester linked local anesthetics b. Amide- linked local anesthetics c. Both d. None
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3. Which of the following is an ester-linked local anesthetic:
a. Cocaine b. Lidocaine c. Bupivcaine d. Mepivacaine
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4. Significant muscle rigidity is caused by;
a. Domperidone b. Ketamine c. Halothane d. Fentanyl
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5. Which of the following drug during anesthesia, may cause muscle rigidity:
a. Physostigmine b. Buprenorphine c. Fentanyl d. D tubocuraine
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6. Which muscle relaxant does not cross the placental barrier in significant concentrations:
a. Succinylcholine b. D tubucurarine c. Gallamine d. All of the above
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7. Postoperative muscle ache is caused by:
a. Pancuronium b. Gallamine c. Suxamethonium d. D tubocurarine
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8. Succinylcholine is a muscle relaxant which acts by:
a. Persistent depolarization b. Competitive blockade c. Mechanism of action uncertain d. A and B
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9. The muscle relaxant effect of succinylcholine last for:
a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3-5 minutes d. 10 minutes
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10. Succinylcholine causes all except:
a. Muscle pain b. Malignant hyperthermia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypokalemia
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11. Succinylcholine causes…. Intraocular tension:
a. Decreased b. Normal c. Increased d. Variable
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12. Shortest acting muscle relaxant is:
a. D tubocurarine b. Pancuronium c. Gallamine d. Succinylcholine
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13. Which of the following casues postanesthetic muscle soreness:
a. Dantrolene b. Suxamethonium c. D tubocurarine d. Gallamine
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14.Malignant hyperthermia is best treated with:
a. Dantrolene sodium b. KCI c. Atropine d. Corticosteroids
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15. Muscle relaxant most commonly implicated in malignant hyperpyrexia:
a. DTC b. Gallamine c. Succinylcholine d. Decamethonium
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16.Intraocular pressure is not lowered by:
a. Halothane b. Thiopentone c. Morphine d. Ketamine
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17. Delirium and hallucination is seen with:
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18. The following causes an increase in intraocular pressure:
a. Thiopentone b. Althesin c. Ketamine d. Barbiturate
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19. Which of the following causes dissociative anesthesia:
a. Succinylcholine b. Halothane c. Ketamine d. Mivacurium
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20. Intravenous dose of ketamine is … mg/kg:
a. 10 b. 5 c. 2 d. 0.5
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21. Which of the following has got maximum analgesic action:
a. Thipentone b. Ketamine c. Propofol d. Catecholamine
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22. unpleasant dreams and hallucinations occur after which anesthesia:
a. Ketamine b. Halothane c. THiopentone d. Propofol
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23. IN a patient of shock IV anesthetic agent of choice is:
a. Althesin b. Ketamine c. Thiopentone d. Propofol
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24. Not seen with ketamine:
a. Analgesia b. Bronchospasm c. Hallucination d. Hypertension
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25. Best anesthesia for status asthmaticus is:
a. Nitrous oxide b. Ether c. KEtamine d. Thiopentones
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26. True regarding physical state of thiopentone is:
a. Acidic solution b. Green color c. Pale yellow color d. Colorless
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27.Dose of thiopentone used for induction is:
a. 1 mg/kg b. 2 mg/kg c. 5 mg/kg d. 10 mg/kg
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28. Short duration of action of thiopentone is due to:
a. Rapid absorption b. Rapid excretion c. Rapid distribution d. Rapid metabolism
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29. Thiopentone is ultrashort acting because of:
a. Fast acetylationn b. Redistribution c. Diffusion d. Hoffmann’s elimination
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30. Treatment of inadvertent injection of pentothal (thiopentone) intra-arterially:
- a. Injection of procaine into the artery b. papaverine intra-arterially
- c. Heparin IV d. All of the above
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31.Following accidental intra-arterial injection of thiopentone which should not be done:
a. Remove the needle b. Intra arterial heparin c. Intra-arterial papaverine d. Do a stellate ganglion block
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32. Intra arterial injection of thiopentone causes:
a. Pain b. Convulsion c. Respiratory arrest d. Cardiac arrest
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33. For induction…….% thiopentone is used:
a. 4.5% b. 2.5% c. 1.5% d. 0.5%
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34.Contraindication for thiopentone is:
a. Acute intermittent porphyria b. Sarcodosis c. Diabetes d. ECT
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35. Which of the following is true about barbotage:
- a. CSF is alternatively withdrawn and re-injected under pressure
- b. Technique used in epidural analgesia
- c. Popular technique in caudal analgesia
- d. Cannot be carried out under hypothermic conditions
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36.Maximum dose of lignoacine with adrenaline is……. Mg/kg:
a. 7 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3
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37. Maximum dose of lignocaien (Xylocaine ) for local anesthesia with adrenaline is:
a. 200 mg b. 250 mg c. 500 mg d. 650 mg
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38. Percentage of xylocaine used in spinal anesthesia is:
a. 1% b. 2% c. 4% d. 5%
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39. in spinal anesthesia local anesthesia used is:
a. 1% xylocaine b. 3% xylocaine c. 5% xylocaine d. 2% xylocaine
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40.Liganocaine can cause :
a. Cardiac arrest b. Apnea c. Convulsions d. All of the above
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41.Postspinal headache can be prevented by:
a. Thinner needle b. Early ambulation c. Induced hypotension d. Decrease dose of local anesthetic
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42. All are false regarding postspinal headache except:
a. Can be severe b. More common in lying down c. Associated with neck rigidity d. Decrease dose of local anesthetic
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43. All are the following is the longest acting local anesthetic solution is:
a. Lignocaine b. Chloroprocaine c. Amethocaine d. Bupivacaine
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44. Which of the following is the longest acting local anesthesia:
a. Cocaien b. Xylocaine c. Tetracaine d. Buivacaine
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45. Local anesthetic agent which is shortest acting is:
a. Bupivacaine b. Lidocaine c. Tetracaine d. Procaine
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46. Not an intravenous anesthetic agent:
a. Cyclopropane b. Etomidate c. Thiopentone d. Ketamine
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47. Drugs used as IV anesthesia are:
a. Ketamine b. Methohexitone c. Thiopentone d. All of the above
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48.Bier block is used for:
a. Sub arachnoid block b. IV regional block c. Extradural block d. Local anesthesia
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49. Best method for prevention of hypotension during spinal anesthesia is:
a. Trendelenburg’s position b. Dopamine c. Mephentermine d. Preloading with crystalloids
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50. Anesthetic which is least cardiotoxic:
a. Halothane b. Trichloroethylene c. Isoflurane d. Enflurane
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51. Coronary steal phenomenon is seen with:
a.Isoflurane b. Thiopentone c. Ketamine d. Ether
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52.Anesthetic agent of choice in raised ICT is:
a. Nitrous oxide b. Trichloroethylene c. Isoflurane d. Enflurane
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53. Anesthetic agent who has got least effect on myocardial contractility is:
a. Isoflurane b. Trilene c. Ether d. Halothane
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54. During general anesthesia shivering is abolished by suppression of:
a. Medulla b. Cerebral cortex c. Hypothalamus d. Thalamus
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55. D- tubocurarine reversal is done by:
a. Neostigmine b. Diazepam c. Atracurium d. Atropine
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56. Pre-anesthetic medication is not used for:
a. Allay anxiety b. Decrease dose of inducing agents c. Produce amnesia d. Decrease secretion
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57. not a preanesthetic use of atropine :
a. Prevent GI hypermobility b. Prevent vagal Brdycardia c. Bronchoconstriction d. Decrease secretion
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58.Followign spinal anesthesia,headache is most commonly due to:
a. Raised ICT b. CSF leak c. CSF infection d. Spinal cord injury
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59. postspinal headache can least for how many days:
a. 7-10 b. 4-5 c. 3-6 d. 1-4
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60. Ceiling effect is seen with:
a. Pethidine b. Buprenorphine c. Fentanyl d. Morphine
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61. Which of the following reacts with soda lime:
a. Cyclopropane b. Trichloroethylene c. Ketamine d. Methoxyflurane
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62.Most common cranial nerve involved due to the toxic manifestation of trichloroethylene or its degradation product is:
a. 1st b. 5th c. 3rd d. 11th
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63. Anesthesia having least analgesic property is:
a. Cyclopropane b. halothane c. Ether d. Nitrous oxide
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64. shivering is most commonly seen with the use of :
a. Halothane b. Cyclopropane c. Ether d. Thiopentone
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65.Which of the following does not cause bronchospasm after anesthesia:
a. Halothane b. post-intubation c. Aspiration d. Regurgitation
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66. Bronchospasm is caused by all except:
a. Morphine b. Halothane c. Ether d. nitrous oxide
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67. Postexposure hepatitis is seen with the use of :
a. Ether b. Succinylcholine c. Halothane d. MEthoxyflurane
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68.Adrenaline is contraindicated during…. Anesthesia:
a. Thiopentone b. Ether c. Trilene d. Halothane
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69. Anesthetic agent which dissolves rubber is:
a. Ether b. Enflurane c. Cyclopropane d. Halothane
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70. False regarding halothane is:
- a. It has got good anesthetic effect b. IT sensitize the heart for catecholamines
- c. Causes hepatic dysfunction d. god analgesic effect
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71. False regarding halothane is:
a. Decreased blood pressure b. Low dose good analgesic c. Respiratory depressant d. Cardiac depressant
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72.Postoperative jaundice is seen with the use of:
a. Nitrous oxide b. Mmethoxyflurane c. Halothane d. Isoflurane
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73. Pneumothorax is a complication of which of the following blocks:
a. High spinal b. Epidural c. Brachial d. Axillary
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74. Preferred anesthetic agent in day care surgery:
a. Ketamine b. Isoflurane c. Nitrous oxide d. Thiopentone
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75. For outpatient anesthesia narcotic of choice is:
a. Alfentanil b. Fentanyl c. Pethidine d. Morphine
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76.Mendelsohn syndrome is associated with:
a. Aspiration of gastric contents b. Nitrous oxide overdose c. Metabolic acidosis d. High pressure air leak
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77.In spinal anesthesia the first nerve to get blocked is:
a. Autonomic preganglionic B fibers b. Tempretures c. Somatic motor fibers d. Vibratory and proprioceptive fibers
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78. In spinal anesthesia the last fibers affected are;
a. pressure b. Pain c. Temperature d. Touch]
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79. Color of cylinder of oxygen is;
a. Purple b. Back and white c. Orange d. Blue
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80. Color of cyclopropane cylinder is:
a. Blue b. Black c. Orange d. White
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81. Not a treatment modality of raised ICP :
a. positive end pressure ventilation b. Controlled hyperventilation c. IV mannitol d. IV frusemide
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82. Not seen in increased intracranial tension:
a. Increased blood pressure b. Increased pulse rate c. Decreased consciousness d. Papilledema
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83.in pudendal nerve block, the nerve root blocked is:
a. L5 s1 b. s 2,3,4 c. L 2,3,4 d. L 1,2,3
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84. Epidural opoid analgesic acts on:
a. Axonal membrane b. Block spinal sensory nerve c. Ventral horn d. Substantia gelntinosa
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85. Drug commonly used for epidural analgesia is:
a. Piroxicam b. Fentanyl c. Morphine d. Pentazocine
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86.High output renal failure occurs with:
a. Halothane b. Cyclopropane c. Trichloroethylene d. Methoxyflurane
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87. Which of the following causes nephrotoxicity :
a. Halothane b. Isoflurane c. Methoxyflurane d. Enflurane
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88. MAC is :
a. Maximum air current b. Maximum air concentration c. Maximum alveolar compression d. Minimum alveolar concentration
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89. Minimum level of an anesthetic agent to produce lack of surgical reflexes in 50% of the subject is known as:
- a. Maximum alveolar analgesic concentration b. Minimum alveolar analgesic concentration
- c. Minimum alveolar concentration d. Maximum alveolar concentration
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90.The duration of effect of bupivacaine is:
a. 5 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 5 hours d. 50 hours
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91. Which of the following is specific antidote of benzodiazepines:
a. Flumazenil b. Naloxone c. Nalorphine d. L NAlorphine
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92. Bone marrow depression is caused by which of the following inhalation agents:
a. Ether b. Nitrous oxide c. Nitric oxide d. Nitrogen dioxide
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93. Diffusion hypoxia is seen with:
a. Nitrous oxide b. Triline c. halothane d. Ether
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94. In a patient with pneumothorax which should not be inhaled;
a. Ether b. Nitrous oxide c. Halothane d. Cyclopropane
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95.Nitrous oxide should not be administered in one of the following conditions:
a. Volvulus of gut b. Dental extraction c. Obstetric anesthesia d. Wound debridement
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96. False regarding nitrous oxide is:
a. Safe in middle ear surgery b. Causes teratogenicity c. Bone marrow depression d. Megaloblastic anemia
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97.Nitrous oxide was used as an anesthetic for the first time in the year:
a. 1844 b. 1848 c. 1850 d. 1852
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98.The pin index code for nitrous oxide is;
a. 2, 5 b. 2, 6 c. 1, 6 d. 3, 5
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99. The pin index code for oxygen is:
a. 2, 5 b. 1, 6 c. 2, 6 d. 3, 6
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100. Constitution of soda lime is:
- a. 05% NaOH + 95% Ca (OH)2 b. 95% NaOH + 05% Ca (OH)
- c. 50% NaOH + 50% Ca (OH) d. 05% NaOH + 90% CA (OH)
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101. All of the following anesthetics sensitize heart except:
a. Chloroform b. Halothane c. Diethyl ether d. Methoxyflurine
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102. Most effective muscle relaxant is:
a. Ether b. N2 O c. Halothane d. Trichloroethylene
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103. Safest anesthetic in practice is:
a. Nitrous oxide b. Ether c. Chloroform d. Morphine
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104. Ether is not used in modern surgical practice because it is:
a. Highly explosive b. Poor anesthetic c. Expensive d. Complicated apparatus needed
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105.Not a vasodilator drug:
a. Chlororocaine b. Bipivacaine c. Cocaine d. lignocaine
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106.s Vasoconstriction is caused by:
a. Chloroprocaine b. Cocaine c. Lidocaine d. Procaine
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107. In children method for anesthetic induction is;
a. Oxygen tent b. Intravenous c. Inhalation d. Intramuscular
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108.Which of the following is the most common complication of spinal anesthesia;
a. Meningitis b. post spinal headache c. Arrhythmias d. Hypotension
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109. In high spinal anesthesia the likely physiological change to happen is:
- a. Hypertension and tachycardia b. Hypotension and bradycardia
- c. Hypotension and tachycardia d. Hypertension and bradycardia
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110. The enzyme pseudocholinesterase acts on:
a. Decamethonium b. Tubocurarine c. Gallamine d. Suxamethonium
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111.Cauda equine syndrome can be caused by;
a. Spinal anesthesia b. Epidural anesthesia c. both d. none
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112.Drug which does not cross blood-brain barrier:
a. Neostigmine b. Physostigmine c. Atropine d. Hyoscine
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113. Presence of collateral circulation of hand is demonstrated by;
a. Swan Ganz test b. Sellick’s test c. Allen’s test d. Katy Schmidt test
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114. Allen’s test :
- a. Is preformed by occluding the radial and ulnar arteries and releasing the later while observing the capillary refill
- b. Is considered to b normal of capillary refill is noted within 10-15 seconds
- c. Tests the patency of the transpalmar arch
- d. Is impossible to perform adequately in the anesthetized
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115. All are the complication of epidural anesthesia except:
a. Headache b. Nausea c. Itching d. bladder distension
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116. In hepatic and renal failure neuromuscular blocker used is:
a. Atracurium b. Decamethonium c. Tubocurarine d. Scoline
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117. Atracurium is eliminated from the body by:
a. Renal excretion b. Hepatic excretion c. Both A and B d. Hoffmann degradation
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118. Diazepam produces its effects by acting on the….
a. Ascending reticular activating system b. Hippocampus c. Amygdala d. Cerebral cortex
-
119. Drug which acts by persistent depolarization :
a. Benzoquinonium b. DTC c. Succinylcholine d. Glycopyrrolate
-
120. Who discovered IV anesthesia :
a. Johann Sigmund b. Humphrey c. DL Tabern d. John S lundy
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121. Most common Cranial nerve affected in spinal anesthesia:
a. 2nd b. 3rd c. 10th d. 6th
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122. Sellick’s maneuver is done to:
a. Assist respiration b. CPR c. Prevent gastric aspiration d. Removal of foreign body
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123.Sellick’s maneuver :
- a. Prevents regurgitation b. Backward pressure on the cricoids cartilage
- c. Backward pressure on hyoid cartilage d. A and B are correct
-
124. Inflammable anesthetic agent is:
a. Ether b. Halothane c. Cyclopam d. Trilene
-
125. Anesthetic agent which is explosive in the presence of cautery:
a. nitrous oxide b. Ether c. Trilene d. Halothane
-
126. The noninflammable anesthetic agent is:
a. Trilene b. Ether c. Ethyl chloride d. Cyclopropane
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127. Bretylium interferes with the release of:
a. Adrenaline b. NOradrenalline c. Acetylcholine d. Dopamine
-
128.Subarachnoid block as anesthesia is contraindicated in:
a. Hemophilia b. Burger’s disease c. Atherosclerotic gangrene d. Full stomach
-
129. Sigard Anderson nomogram determines:
a. Plasma bicarbonate b. Hypercapnia c. Hypoxia d. Respiratory alkalosis
-
130. Epidural morphine causes:
a. Nausea b. Retention of urine c. abolishes pain d. All of the above
-
131. In which phase of anesthesia, movements of eyeball are lost:
a. Stage 3, phase 1 b. Stage 1, phase 3 c. stage 2, phase 3 d. stage 4
-
132. In the second stage of anesthesia the pupils are:
a. Constricted b. Partially dilated c. Normal in size d. Totally dilated
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133. Guedel’s stages of anesthesia are seen classically with:
a. Ether b. Chloroform c. Morphine d. Nitrous oxide
-
134.Pralidoxie acts in organophosphorus poisoning by:
a. Regenerating cholinesterase b. Inhibiting cholinesterase c. Cholinergic action d. None
-
135.What is Brewer Luckhardt reflex;
- a. Reflex hypotension due to pooling in spinal anesthesia
- b. Penile engorgement due to spinal anesthesia
- c. Reflex laryngospasm due to parasympathetic stress at a different site
- d. Tracheal tug
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136.Bain system is a modified :
a. MApleson A system b. Mapleson B system c. Mapleson C system d. Mapleson system
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137. Which of the following is a steroidal anesthetic agent:
a. Althesin b. propandid c. Methohexitone d/. Di-isopropyl phenol
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138. In renal failure which of the following muscle relaxant is contraindicated:
a. Atracurium b. Gallamine c. Vecuronium d. D- tubocuracine
-
139.Which drug is mostly excreted by the kidney:
a. Gallamine b. Sucinyl choline c. Alcuronium d. D- tubocurarine
-
140.Excitatory neurotransmitter in brain is:
a. GABA b. Glycine c. Glutamate d. Dopamine
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141. patients of myasthenia gravis are resistant to which of the following muscle relaxant:
a. Vecuronium b. Atracurium c. Pancuronium d. Suxamethonium
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142. Anesthetic most sensitive to patient myasthenia gravis:
a. Suxamethonium (scoline) b. Gallamine c. Decamethonium d.. Neostigmine
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143. In myasthenia, true regarding sensitivity of curare and scoline is:
- Curare scolline
- a. Increased decreased
- b. Decreased increased
- c. Decreased normal
- d. Normal increased
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144. Intravenous induction agent is;
a. promethazine b. Midazolam c. Atracurium d. Desflurane
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145. Histamine release is commonly seen with administration of:
a. Ketamine b. Thiopentone c. Adrenaline d. Atracurium
-
146.Which of the following muscle is least effected by d-tubercurarine :
a. Facial b. Diaphragm c. Ocular d. Abdominal
-
147. In a neonate the size of orotracheal tube should be:
a. 5cm b. 8 cm c. 10 cm d. 15 cm
-
148.Negative pressure in extradural space is found in:
a. 65% of the population b. 80% of the population c. 50% of the population d. 45% of the population
-
149. Epilepsy is a contraindication for:
a. Ether b. Enflurane c. Halothane d. Isflurane
-
150. Sufentanil is a patient :
a. Myocardial depressant b. Analgesic c. Anticonvulsant d. Hepatotoxin
-
151.Potency of an inhalation anesthetic is because of:
a. Critical pressure b. Oil/ water solubility c. blood gas coefficient d. MAC
-
152. False regarding neuroleptic analgesia is:
a. Muscle dystonia b. Hypertension c. Neuroleptic anesthesia along with nitrous oxide and oxygen d. Bradycardia
-
153. Mismatched blood transfusion during surgery manifests are:
a. Increased blood loss from surgical site and hypotension b. Raised blood pressure c. Tachypnea d. Headache
-
154.In which of the following conditions, lumbar puncture is dangerous to perform:
a. Intracranial tumors b. Spinal cord tumors c. Intracranial berry aneurysm d. History of seizures
-
155.Epidural catheter is introduced by:
a. Mitchel needle b. Tuohy needle c. Sise introducer d. Gordh needle
-
156. The position of endotracheal tube in trachea is confirmed best by:
- a. Presence of CO2 in expired air b. Absence of gurgling sounds in the epigastrium
- c. Auscultation of the chest d. Pulse oximetry
-
157. Cuff in endotracheal tube is used to:
- a. Prevent regurgitation of gastric contents b. Have air tight seal
- c. Stablize the tube in the midline d. Prevent tube from slipping out
-
158. Hypoxemia is seen in:
a. Postoperative anesthesia recovery b. Perioperatively c. Preoperatively d. During operation
-
159. Malignant hyperpyrexia is not caused by:
a. Succinylcholine b. Methoxyflurane c. Nitrous oxide d. Halothane
-
160.Which of the following is a complication of massive blood transfusion:
a. Acidosis b. Hyponatremia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypokalemia
-
161. Normal dead space is….. of tidal ventilation:
a. 60% b. 50% c. 30% d. 40%
-
162.Drug contraindicated in head injury:
a. Oxygen b. IV fluids c. Morphine d. Antibiotic
-
163. not used in preanesthetic medication:
a. Vecuronium b. Diazepam c. Atropine d. Morphine
-
164.Vecuronium acts on :
a. Ganglion b. Cerebrum c. Motor end plate d. Spinal cord
-
165. Mechanism of action of local anesthetics is:
- a. Inhibiting sodium pump b. Blocking calcium channels of nerve membrane
- c. Binding to calcium receptor on nerve membrane d. Forming of nerve blocks along a neuron
-
166.Shortest-acting nondepolarizing agent is:
a. Vecuronium b. Succinylcholine c. Atracurium d. Mivacurium
-
167.Longest-acting muscle relaxant among the following is:
a. pancuronium b. Mivacurium c. VEcuronium d. Atracurium
-
168.Which of the following agents was introduced in clinical practice by james simpson:
a. Chloroform b. Nitrous oxide c. Ether d. Thiopentone
-
169. First successful demonstration of anesthesia was done in which of the following years:
a. 1868 b. 1846 c. 1848 d. 1858
-
170.s Which of the following is false regarding nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxant :
- a. Reversed by neostigmine b. Potentiated by volatile agents and magnesium ions
- c. Fasciculation of muscle d. Slow onset
-
171.Incomplete anesthesia in a patient with muscle relaxation manifests are all except;
a. Hiccups b. Tachycardia c. Sweating d. Miosis
-
172. Cranial nerve not involved in spinal anesthesia:
a. 1st and 10th b. 3rd and 6th c. 2nd and 4th d. 7th and 8th
-
173. Which of the following is not a sign of soda lime exhaustion:
- a. Increased oozing from wounds b. Rise in blood pressure followed by fall
- c. Change of color of granules d. Slow pulse rate
-
174.Erliest local anesthetic used was:
a. procaine b. Cocaine c. Xylocaine d. Lignocaiene
-
175. Nitrous oxide was discovered by:
a. Joseph priestly b. Humphry davy c. Horace wells d. PC barton
-
176. After MI elective surgery should be performed at an interval of:
a. 2 months b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 8 months
-
177. Bag and mask ventilation is not contraindicated in:
- a. Lung malformation b. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
- c. Meconium aspiration syndrome d. Tracheoesophageal fistula with esophageal atresia
-
178. Cardiac oxygen demand is increased by:
a. Ketamine b. Nitrous oxide c. Thiopentone d. Halothane
-
179. intracranial pressure is increased by which of the following inducing agent:
a. Fentanyl b. Ketamine c. Thiopentone d. Halothane
-
180. Drug contraindicated in raised ICT in a head injury patient is:
a. Fentanyl b. Thiopentone sodium c. Ketamine d. Propofol
-
181. Position associated with least vital capacity in general anesthesia is:
a. Left lateral b. Prone c. lithotomy d. Trendelenburg
-
182. In which of the following condition there is maximum loss of vital capacity:
a. Trendelenburg’s position b. Litotomy position c. Left lateral position d. Supine position
-
183. The formula for calculating the size of endotracheal tube in a child less than 6 years of age is:
- a. (age in year/3) +3.5 b. (age in year/4)+4.5
- c. (age in year/4)+3.5 d. (age in year/5)+3.5
-
184. The formula for calculating the size of endotracheal tube in a child more than 6 years of age is:
a. (age in year/3)+3.5 b. (age in year/4)+4.5 c. (age in year/4)+3.5 d. (age in year/5)+3.5
-
185. A patient is being given intravenous thiopentone sodium. During injection the patient complains of pain in the site. Next step should be taken is:
a. Stop thiopentone and give lignocaine in same cannula b. Stop thiopentone and give ketamine c. Stop thiopentonme and give propofol d. Stop thiopentone and give intravenous adrenaline in same cannula
-
186. Sucinylcholine produces dangerous hyperkalemia in patient of:
a. Diabetes b. ARF c. Paraplegia d. Raised intracranial tension
-
187.During intubation of newborn , endotracheal tube and blade of laryngoscope is:
- a. Un-cuffed tube with curved blade b . Un-cuffed tube with straight blade
- c. Cuffed tube with curved blade d. cuffed tube with straight blade
-
188. In a patient with fixed respiratory obstruction helium is used along with oxygen instead of plain oxygen because:
a. For analgesia b. It decreases dead space c. It decreases turbulence d. It increases the flow of oxygen
-
189.All of the following antibiotics have some neuromuscular blocking activity except:
a. Streptomycin b. Gentamicin c. penicillin d. Polymyxin
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190. Entonox is:
a. 50% O2 and 50% N2O b. 75% O2 and
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191. Which of the following induction agents is used to produce a ‘street-fit’ person following surgery:
a. Midazolan b. Propofol c. Alfentanil d. Thiopentone
-
192.In “day care surgery” induction is done by:
a. Diazepam b. halothane c. Propofol d. Thiopentone
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193.Methemoglobinemia is caused by which of the following anesthetic agent:
a. Bupivacaine b. Prilocaien c. Cocaine d. Lignocaine
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194. smoking should be stopped …. Weeks before surgery:
a. 2-4weeks b. 4-6 weeks c. 8-10weeks d. 1-2 weeks
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195. which of the following causes fasciculation:
a. Atracurium b. Pancuronium c. Vecuronium d. Suxamethonium
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196.Alloy used to make the strong body of gas cylinders used in anesthesia is:
a. Iron and copper b. Iron c. Copper d. Molybdenum steel
-
197.Phase II blocker is:
a. D-tubocurarine b. Succinylcholine c. Vecuronium d. Cocaine
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198. Atropine causes:
a. Miosis b. Mydriasis c. Bradycardia d. Increased bronchial secretion
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199. In patients of asthma, which of the following inducing agents is contraindicated:
a. Thiopentone b. Propofol c. Althesin d. ketamin
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200.Bronchial asthma is precipitated with:
a. Isoflurane b. B\nitrous oxide c. Halothane d. Thiopentone
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201. Intubation dose of pancuronium is… mg/kg:
a. 0.08 b. 0.01 c. 0.04 d. 0.02
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202. A Mallampati criterion is used in which of the following :
- a. To assess difficulty in intubation b. Free rotation
- c. Flexion and extension of neck during endotracheal intubation d. Abdominal angular curvature
-
203.Whihc anesthetic agent should not be used with soda lime:
a. Isoflurane b. Enflurane c. Sevoflurane d. Desflurane
-
204.Magill circuit air flow is:
a. Equal to alveolar volume b. Half to minute volume c. Twice to minute volume d. Equal to minute volume
-
205. O2 content in anesthetic mixture is:
a. 33% b. 38% c. 40% d. 50%
-
206.all of the following are true about succinylcholine except:
- a. Causes persistent depiolarizing block b. Metabolized by pseudocholinesterase
- c. Block can be reversed by neostigmine d. Has a short half-life
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207. A 38 year old man is posted for extraction of last molar tooth under general anesthesia as a day care case. He wishes to resume his work after 6 hours . which 1 of the following induction agents is preferred ?
a. thiopentone sodium b. Ketamine c. Diazepam d. propofol
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208. the anesthetist orders a new attendant to bring the oxygen cylinder. He will ask the attendant to identify the correct cylinder by following color code:
a. Sevoflurane b. Ketamine c. Propofol . Methiohexitone
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209. An anesthetist orders a new attendant to bring the oxygen cylinder. He will ask the attendant to identify the correct cylinder by following color code:
- a. black cylinder with white shoulders b. Black cylinder with gray shoulders
- c. White cylinder with black shoulders d. Grey cylinder with white shoulders
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210.Cplor-coding for nitrous oxide cylinder is:
a. Black b. black with white shoulders c. French blue d. Gray
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211. Induction agent that may cause adrenal cortex suppression is:
a. Ketamine b. Etomidate c. Propofol d. Thiopentone
-
212. A 25 year old male is undergoing incision and drainage of abscess under general anesthesia with spontaneous respiration. The most efficient anesthetic circuit is:
a. Mapleson A b. Mapleson B c. Mapleson C d. Mapleson D
-
213. A 5 year old boy suffering from duchenne muscular dystrophy has to undergo tendon-lengthening procedure. The most appropriate anesthetic would be :
- a. Induction with intravenous thiopentone and N2O ;and halotone for maintenance
- b. Induction with intravenous propofol and N2O; and oxygen for maintenance
- c. Induction with intravenous suxamethonium and N2O; and halothane for maintenance
- d. Inhalation induction with inhalation halothane and N2O; oxygen for maintenance
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214. Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent?
a. Neurosurgery b. Day care surgery c. In neonates d. patients with coronary artery disease
-
215.The ideal muscle relaxant used for a neonate undergoing porto-enterostomy for billary atresia is:
a. Atracurium b. Vecuronium c. Pancuronium d. Rocuronium
-
216.At the end of a balanced anesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversal. Which is the most probable relaxant the patient had received?
a. Pnacuronium b. Gallamine c. Atracurium d. Vecuronium
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217.During rapid sequences induction of anesthesia:
- a. Slick’s maneuver is not required b. Pre-oxygenation is mandatory
- c. Suxamethonium is contraindicated d. Patient is mechanically ventilated before endotracheal incubation
-
218. Which among the following is an inhalant anesthetic:
a. Etomidate b. Propofol c. Alfentanil d. Desflurane
-
219.Visual analogue scale(VAS) is most widely used to measure;
a. Sleep b. Sedation c. Pain intensity d. Depth of anesthesia
-
220. Pin index system is a safety feature adopted in anesthesia machines to prevent :
a. Incorrect attachment of anesthesia machines b. Incorrect attachment of anesthesia face masks c. Incorrect inhalation agent delivery d. Incorrect gas cylinder attachment
-
221. the pin index code of nitrous oxide is:
a. 2,5 b. 1,5 c. 3,5 d. 2,6
-
222. The following combinations of agents are the most preferred for short day care surgeries:
- a. Propofol, fentanyl, isoflurane b. Thiopentone sodium, morphine , halothane
- c. Ketamine, pethidine, halothane d.. Propofol, morphine, halothane
-
223. False regarding thiopentone is:
- a. Stage of delirium is absent b. Tendency to cause postoperative discomfort
- c. Causes laryngospasm d. Fast recovery
-
224. Thiopentone is preferred as an induction agent because of:
a. Anticonvulsant properties b. Fast elimination by liver c. Smoothness of induction d. Cardiovascular stability
-
225. Smooth induction anesthetic is:
a. Halothane b. Nitrous oxide c. Thiopentone d. Diethyl ether
-
226. Thiopentone concentration used for anesthesia:
a. 0.5% b. 1% c. 2.5% d. 5%
-
227.Post dural puncture headache is typically:
a. A result of leakage of blood into the epidural space b. Worse when lying down than in sitting position c. Bifrontal of occipital d. Seen within 4 hours of dural puncture
-
228.A 6 year old boy is scheduled for examination of eye under anesthesia. The father informed that for the past 6 months the child is developing progressive weakness of both legs. His elder sibling had died at age 14 years. Which drug would you definitely avoid during anesthetic management:
a. Succinylcholine b. Thiopentone c. Nitrous oxide d. Vecuronium
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229. In a young patient who had extensive soft tissue and muscle injury, which of these muscle relaxants used for endotracheal intubation might lead to cardiac arrest:
a. Atracurium b. Suxamethonium c. Vecuronium d. Pancuronium
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230. The administration of succinylcholine to a paraplegic patient led to the appearance of dysrrhythmias, conduction abnormalities and finally cardiac arrest. The most likely cause is:
a. Hypercalcemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Anaphylaxis d. Hypermagnesemia
-
231.Following spinal subarchnoid block a patient develops hypotension. This can be managed by the following means except:
- a. Lowering the head-end b. Administration of 1000ml Ringer’s lactate before the block
- c. Vasopressor drug like methoxamine d. Use of positive inotropic agents like dopamine
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232. A patient was administered epidural anesthesia with 15ml of 1.5% lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery. He developed hypotension and respiratory depression within 3 minutes after administration of block. The most common cause would be:
- a. allergy to drug administered b. Systemic toxicity to drug administered
- c. Patient got vasovagal shock d. Drug has entered the subarachnoid space
-
233. Which one of the following is the shortest acting intravenous analgesic:
a. Remifentanil b. Fentanyl c. Alfentanil d. Sufentanil
-
234. During laryngoscopy and endotracheal intubation which of the following maneuver is not performed :
- a. Flexion of the neck b. Extension of head at the atlano-occipital joint
- c. The laryngoscope is lifted upwards levering over the upper incisors
- d. In a straight blade laryngoscope the epiglottis is lifted by the trip
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235. Which of the following statements is not correct for vecuronium:
a. It has high incidence of cardiovascular side effects b. It has short duration of neuromuscular block c. In usual doses dose adjustment is not required in kidney disease d. it has high lipophilic property
-
236. Which of the following local anesthetic causes vasoconstriction on application?
a. Bupivacaine b. Cocaine c. Dibucaine d. Ether
-
237. Which of the following inducing agents is contraindicated in raised intracranial tension?
a. Ketamine b. Propofol c. Thiopentone d. Alfentanil
-
238.With the use of D-tubocurarine which of the following occurs first:
a. Ptosis b. Diplopia c. Abdominal wall relaxation d. Diaphragmatic relaxation
-
239.False regarding arterial blood gas analysis:
- a. Sample should be preserved in a cool environment
- b. Syringe should be sealed with cork or a cap
- c. Syringe should be flushed with heparin and emptied completely
- d. Glass syringe should be used
-
240. Risk factor for liver toxicity by halothane is:
a. Male sex b. Recent halothane use c. Associated liver pathology d. Old age
-
241. Which of the following is not different in males and females?
a. Expiratory reserve volume b. Residual volume c. Vital capacity d. Tidal volume
-
242. in renal failure muscle relaxant of choice is:
a. Vecuronium b. Doxacurium c. Atracurium d. Pancuronium
-
243. in which of the following positions lumbar puncture is done:
a. sitting with hand below flexed knees b. Left lateral c. Right lateral d. All of the above
-
244.Which of the following a successful satellite ganglion block can produce?
a. Hemi facial anesthesia b. Brachial plexus involvement c. Horne’s syndrome d. Hypotension
-
245.Whihc of the following is a safe, rapid and smooth inducing agent for children?
a. Sevoflurane b. Halothane c. Ether d. Suxamethonium
-
246. Rapid induction of anesthesia occurs with which of the following inhalation anesthetics:
a. Isoflurane b. Halothane c. Desflurane d. Sevoflurane
-
247. ASA classification is done for:
a. Status of patient b. Risk c. Pain d. Lung disease
-
248. Nerve fiber affected first by the local anesthesia is:
a. Type II B b. Type C c. Type II d. Type A
-
249. Agent used in giving general anesthesia to a 50 year old alcoholic patient with liver failure is:
a. Isoflurane b. Methoxyflurane c. Halothane d. Ether
-
250. In case of multiple injuries first step to be taken is:
a. X-ray skull b. Urgent CT c. Urgent MRI d. Maintain airway
-
251. A 5 year old child is scheduled for strabismus (squint)correction. Induction of anesthesia is uneventful after conjunctival incision as the surgeon grasps the medial rectus, the anesthesiologist looks at the cardiac monitor. Why he did that:
a. He wanted to check the depth of anesthesia b. He wanted to be sure that the blood pressure did not fall c. He wanted to see if there was an oculocardiac reflex d. He wanted to make sure wereno ventricular dysrrhythmias which normally accompany incision
-
252. the topical use of which of the following local anesthetic is not recommended:
a. Lignocaine b. Bupivacaine c. Cocaine d. Dibucaine
-
253. Nitric oxide is used in management of:
a. Head injury b. Buerger’s disease c. ARDS d. Acute paraplegia
-
254. Increased dose of spinal anesthetic is required if the patient has:
- a. Obesity b. Pregnant c. Increased height of patient d.
- Ascites
-
255. All of the following factors decrease the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of an inhalation anesthetic agent except:
a. Hypothermia b. Hyponatremia c. Hypocalcemia d. Anemia
-
256. Interscalene approach to branchial plexus block does not provide optimal surgical anesthesia in the area of distribution of which of the following nerve:
a. Musculocutaneous b. Ulnar c. Radial d. Median
-
257. Which of the following decides dosage of inhalation anesthetic agent:
a. MAC b. Partial pressure in brain c. Alveolar exchange d. Lipid solubility
-
258. At the end of anesthesia after discontinuation of nitrous oxide and removal of endotracheal tube , 100% oxygen is administered to the patient to prevent:
a. Diffusion hypoxia b. Second gas effect c. Hyperoxia d. Bronchospasm
-
259.Which of the following volatile anesthetic agents should be preferred for induction of anesthesia in children?
a. Sevoflurane b. Desflurane c. Isoflurane d. Enflurane
-
260. Which of the following inhalation agent is contraindicated in a patient with history of epilepsy?
a. Isoflurane b. Enflurane c. Halothane d. Sevoflurane
-
261.All of the following are suitable anesthetic circuits for both controlled and assisted ventilation, except:
a. Mapleson A b. Mapleson B & C c. Mapleson D d. Mapleson E
-
262. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA ) is used for:
a. Maintenance of the airway b. Facilitating laryngeal surgery c. Prevention of aspiration d. Removing oral secretions
-
263. A lower segment cesarean section (LSCS)can be carried out under all of the following techniques of anesthesia except:
a. General anesthesia b. Spinal anesthesia c. Caudal anesthesia d. Combined spinal epidural anesthesia
-
264.The laryngeal mask airway used for securing airway of a patient in all of the following conditions, except:
- a. In a difficult intubation b. In cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- c. In a child undergoing an elective /routine eye surgery d. In a patient with a large tumor in the oral cavity
-
265. Which of the following cause a rise in the intracranial pressure?
a. Sevoflurane b. Thiopental sodium c. Lignocaine d. Propofol
-
266. All of the following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children except:
a. Ketamine b. Ondansetron c. Propofol d. Dexamethasone
-
267. All of the following modes of ventilation may not be used for weaning off patients from mechanicl ventilation:
- a. Controlled mechanical ventilation b. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation
- c. Pressure cupport ventilation d. Assist control ventilation
-
268. The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneously breathing infant during anesthesia is:
- a. Jackson-Rees modification of Ayre’s T-piece b. Mapleson A or Magill’s circuit
- c. Mapleson C or Waters to and fro canister d. Brains circuit
-
269.A 70 year old patient for a surgery, which is likely to last for 4 to 6 hours. The best inhalation agent of choice for maintenance of anesthesia in this case is:
a. Methoxyflurane b. Ether c. Trichloroethylene d. Desflurane
-
270. Which of the following statements regarding desflurane is correct?
- a. It causes severe myocardial depression b. It is structural analogue of isoflurane
- c. It has very high blood and tissue gas partition coefficients d. It is metabolically unstable
-
271. A 6 year old child is posted for elective urology surgery under GA. He refuses to allow the anesthetist an IV access. The inhalational agent of choice for induction of anesthesia is:
a. Sevoflurane bb. Methoxyflurane c. Desflurane d. Isdoflurane
-
272. A 21 year old lady with a history of hypersensitivity to neostigmine is posted for an elective cesarean section under GA. The muscle relaxant of choice in this patient should be;
a. Pancuronium b.. Atracurium c. Rocuronium d. Vecuronium
-
273. all of the following drug are eliminated by kidney, except:
a. Pancuronium bromide b. Atracurium bestylate c. Vecuronium bromide d. Pipecuronium
-
274.A 30 year old lady is to undergo surgery under IV regional anesthesia for left trigger finger. Which one of the following should not be used for this patient?
a. Lignocaine b. Bupivacaine c. Prilocaine d. Lignocaine +ketorolac
-
275. Which one of the following local anesthetics is highly cardiotoxic?
a. Lignocaine b. Procaine c. Mepivacaine d. Bupivacaine
-
276. Which of the following local anesthetic is most likely to produce an allergic raction ?
a. Prilocaine b. Ropivacaine c. Etidocaine d. Benzocaine
-
277.Which of the following opioids has maximum plasma protein binding capacity:
a. Morphine b. Sufentanil c. Fentanyl d. Pethidine
-
278. Which of the following does not represent a significant anesthetic problem in the morbidly obese patient?
- a. Difficulties in endotracheal intubation b. suboptimal arterial oxygen tension
- c. Increased metabolism of volatile agents d. Decreased cardiac output relative to total body mass
-
279. Drug that is Not suitable for patients with acute porphyria for IV induction:
a. Thiopentone sodium b. Propofol c. Midazolam d. Etomidate
-
280.Trendelenburg position produces decrease in all of the following except:
a. Vital capacity b. Functional residual capacity c. Compliance d. Respiratory rate
-
281.All of the following are false about the treatment of prolonged suxamethonium apnea due to plasma cholinesterase deficiency after a single dose of suxamethonium except:
- a. Reversal with incremental doses of neostigmine
- b. Continue anesthesia and mechanical ventilation till recovery
- c. Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma d. plasmapheresis
-
282. Which of the following device provides fixed performance oxygen therapy?
a. Nasal cannula b. Ventimask c. Oxygen-T-piece d. Edinburgh mask
-
283. A 52 year old man diagnosed as triple vessel coronary artery disease with poor left ventricular function. Coronary artery bypass grafting surgery was decided. During maintenance of anesthesia which of the following agents should be preferred?
a. IV opioids b. Isoflurane c. Halothane d. Nitrous oxide
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