Anes

  1. 1. Local anesthetics classified in amide groups are all except:
    a. Procaine b. Lidocaine c. Bupivacaine d. Mepivacaine
  2. 2. Allergic phenomenon is more common with:
    a. Ester linked local anesthetics b. Amide- linked local anesthetics c. Both d. None
  3. 3. Which of the following is an ester-linked local anesthetic:
    a. Cocaine b. Lidocaine c. Bupivcaine d. Mepivacaine
  4. 4. Significant muscle rigidity is caused by;
    a. Domperidone b. Ketamine c. Halothane d. Fentanyl
  5. 5. Which of the following drug during anesthesia, may cause muscle rigidity:
    a. Physostigmine b. Buprenorphine c. Fentanyl d. D tubocuraine
  6. 6. Which muscle relaxant does not cross the placental barrier in significant concentrations:
    a. Succinylcholine b. D tubucurarine c. Gallamine d. All of the above
  7. 7. Postoperative muscle ache is caused by:
    a. Pancuronium b. Gallamine c. Suxamethonium d. D tubocurarine
  8. 8. Succinylcholine is a muscle relaxant which acts by:
    a. Persistent depolarization b. Competitive blockade c. Mechanism of action uncertain d. A and B
  9. 9. The muscle relaxant effect of succinylcholine last for:
    a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3-5 minutes d. 10 minutes
  10. 10. Succinylcholine causes all except:
    a. Muscle pain b. Malignant hyperthermia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypokalemia
  11. 11. Succinylcholine causes…. Intraocular tension:
    a. Decreased b. Normal c. Increased d. Variable
  12. 12. Shortest acting muscle relaxant is:
    a. D tubocurarine b. Pancuronium c. Gallamine d. Succinylcholine
  13. 13. Which of the following casues postanesthetic muscle soreness:
    a. Dantrolene b. Suxamethonium c. D tubocurarine d. Gallamine
  14. 14.Malignant hyperthermia is best treated with:
    a. Dantrolene sodium b. KCI c. Atropine d. Corticosteroids
  15. 15. Muscle relaxant most commonly implicated in malignant hyperpyrexia:
    a. DTC b. Gallamine c. Succinylcholine d. Decamethonium
  16. 16.Intraocular pressure is not lowered by:
    a. Halothane b. Thiopentone c. Morphine d. Ketamine
  17. 17. Delirium and hallucination is seen with:
  18. 18. The following causes an increase in intraocular pressure:
    a. Thiopentone b. Althesin c. Ketamine d. Barbiturate
  19. 19. Which of the following causes dissociative anesthesia:
    a. Succinylcholine b. Halothane c. Ketamine d. Mivacurium
  20. 20. Intravenous dose of ketamine is … mg/kg:
    a. 10 b. 5 c. 2 d. 0.5
  21. 21. Which of the following has got maximum analgesic action:
    a. Thipentone b. Ketamine c. Propofol d. Catecholamine
  22. 22. unpleasant dreams and hallucinations occur after which anesthesia:
    a. Ketamine b. Halothane c. THiopentone d. Propofol
  23. 23. IN a patient of shock IV anesthetic agent of choice is:
    a. Althesin b. Ketamine c. Thiopentone d. Propofol
  24. 24. Not seen with ketamine:
    a. Analgesia b. Bronchospasm c. Hallucination d. Hypertension
  25. 25. Best anesthesia for status asthmaticus is:
    a. Nitrous oxide b. Ether c. KEtamine d. Thiopentones
  26. 26. True regarding physical state of thiopentone is:
    a. Acidic solution b. Green color c. Pale yellow color d. Colorless
  27. 27.Dose of thiopentone used for induction is:
    a. 1 mg/kg b. 2 mg/kg c. 5 mg/kg d. 10 mg/kg
  28. 28. Short duration of action of thiopentone is due to:
    a. Rapid absorption b. Rapid excretion c. Rapid distribution d. Rapid metabolism
  29. 29. Thiopentone is ultrashort acting because of:
    a. Fast acetylationn b. Redistribution c. Diffusion d. Hoffmann’s elimination
  30. 30. Treatment of inadvertent injection of pentothal (thiopentone) intra-arterially:
    • a. Injection of procaine into the artery b. papaverine intra-arterially
    • c. Heparin IV d. All of the above
  31. 31.Following accidental intra-arterial injection of thiopentone which should not be done:
    a. Remove the needle b. Intra arterial heparin c. Intra-arterial papaverine d. Do a stellate ganglion block
  32. 32. Intra arterial injection of thiopentone causes:
    a. Pain b. Convulsion c. Respiratory arrest d. Cardiac arrest
  33. 33. For induction…….% thiopentone is used:
    a. 4.5% b. 2.5% c. 1.5% d. 0.5%
  34. 34.Contraindication for thiopentone is:
    a. Acute intermittent porphyria b. Sarcodosis c. Diabetes d. ECT
  35. 35. Which of the following is true about barbotage:
    • a. CSF is alternatively withdrawn and re-injected under pressure
    • b. Technique used in epidural analgesia
    • c. Popular technique in caudal analgesia
    • d. Cannot be carried out under hypothermic conditions
  36. 36.Maximum dose of lignoacine with adrenaline is……. Mg/kg:
    a. 7 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3
  37. 37. Maximum dose of lignocaien (Xylocaine ) for local anesthesia with adrenaline is:
    a. 200 mg b. 250 mg c. 500 mg d. 650 mg
  38. 38. Percentage of xylocaine used in spinal anesthesia is:
    a. 1% b. 2% c. 4% d. 5%
  39. 39. in spinal anesthesia local anesthesia used is:
    a. 1% xylocaine b. 3% xylocaine c. 5% xylocaine d. 2% xylocaine
  40. 40.Liganocaine can cause :
    a. Cardiac arrest b. Apnea c. Convulsions d. All of the above
  41. 41.Postspinal headache can be prevented by:
    a. Thinner needle b. Early ambulation c. Induced hypotension d. Decrease dose of local anesthetic
  42. 42. All are false regarding postspinal headache except:
    a. Can be severe b. More common in lying down c. Associated with neck rigidity d. Decrease dose of local anesthetic
  43. 43. All are the following is the longest acting local anesthetic solution is:
    a. Lignocaine b. Chloroprocaine c. Amethocaine d. Bupivacaine
  44. 44. Which of the following is the longest acting local anesthesia:
    a. Cocaien b. Xylocaine c. Tetracaine d. Buivacaine
  45. 45. Local anesthetic agent which is shortest acting is:
    a. Bupivacaine b. Lidocaine c. Tetracaine d. Procaine
  46. 46. Not an intravenous anesthetic agent:
    a. Cyclopropane b. Etomidate c. Thiopentone d. Ketamine
  47. 47. Drugs used as IV anesthesia are:
    a. Ketamine b. Methohexitone c. Thiopentone d. All of the above
  48. 48.Bier block is used for:
    a. Sub arachnoid block b. IV regional block c. Extradural block d. Local anesthesia
  49. 49. Best method for prevention of hypotension during spinal anesthesia is:
    a. Trendelenburg’s position b. Dopamine c. Mephentermine d. Preloading with crystalloids
  50. 50. Anesthetic which is least cardiotoxic:
    a. Halothane b. Trichloroethylene c. Isoflurane d. Enflurane
  51. 51. Coronary steal phenomenon is seen with:
    a.Isoflurane b. Thiopentone c. Ketamine d. Ether
  52. 52.Anesthetic agent of choice in raised ICT is:
    a. Nitrous oxide b. Trichloroethylene c. Isoflurane d. Enflurane
  53. 53. Anesthetic agent who has got least effect on myocardial contractility is:
    a. Isoflurane b. Trilene c. Ether d. Halothane
  54. 54. During general anesthesia shivering is abolished by suppression of:
    a. Medulla b. Cerebral cortex c. Hypothalamus d. Thalamus
  55. 55. D- tubocurarine reversal is done by:
    a. Neostigmine b. Diazepam c. Atracurium d. Atropine
  56. 56. Pre-anesthetic medication is not used for:
    a. Allay anxiety b. Decrease dose of inducing agents c. Produce amnesia d. Decrease secretion
  57. 57. not a preanesthetic use of atropine :
    a. Prevent GI hypermobility b. Prevent vagal Brdycardia c. Bronchoconstriction d. Decrease secretion
  58. 58.Followign spinal anesthesia,headache is most commonly due to:
    a. Raised ICT b. CSF leak c. CSF infection d. Spinal cord injury
  59. 59. postspinal headache can least for how many days:
    a. 7-10 b. 4-5 c. 3-6 d. 1-4
  60. 60. Ceiling effect is seen with:
    a. Pethidine b. Buprenorphine c. Fentanyl d. Morphine
  61. 61. Which of the following reacts with soda lime:
    a. Cyclopropane b. Trichloroethylene c. Ketamine d. Methoxyflurane
  62. 62.Most common cranial nerve involved due to the toxic manifestation of trichloroethylene or its degradation product is:
    a. 1st b. 5th c. 3rd d. 11th
  63. 63. Anesthesia having least analgesic property is:
    a. Cyclopropane b. halothane c. Ether d. Nitrous oxide
  64. 64. shivering is most commonly seen with the use of :
    a. Halothane b. Cyclopropane c. Ether d. Thiopentone
  65. 65.Which of the following does not cause bronchospasm after anesthesia:
    a. Halothane b. post-intubation c. Aspiration d. Regurgitation
  66. 66. Bronchospasm is caused by all except:
    a. Morphine b. Halothane c. Ether d. nitrous oxide
  67. 67. Postexposure hepatitis is seen with the use of :
    a. Ether b. Succinylcholine c. Halothane d. MEthoxyflurane
  68. 68.Adrenaline is contraindicated during…. Anesthesia:
    a. Thiopentone b. Ether c. Trilene d. Halothane
  69. 69. Anesthetic agent which dissolves rubber is:
    a. Ether b. Enflurane c. Cyclopropane d. Halothane
  70. 70. False regarding halothane is:
    • a. It has got good anesthetic effect b. IT sensitize the heart for catecholamines
    • c. Causes hepatic dysfunction d. god analgesic effect
  71. 71. False regarding halothane is:
    a. Decreased blood pressure b. Low dose good analgesic c. Respiratory depressant d. Cardiac depressant
  72. 72.Postoperative jaundice is seen with the use of:
    a. Nitrous oxide b. Mmethoxyflurane c. Halothane d. Isoflurane
  73. 73. Pneumothorax is a complication of which of the following blocks:
    a. High spinal b. Epidural c. Brachial d. Axillary
  74. 74. Preferred anesthetic agent in day care surgery:
    a. Ketamine b. Isoflurane c. Nitrous oxide d. Thiopentone
  75. 75. For outpatient anesthesia narcotic of choice is:
    a. Alfentanil b. Fentanyl c. Pethidine d. Morphine
  76. 76.Mendelsohn syndrome is associated with:
    a. Aspiration of gastric contents b. Nitrous oxide overdose c. Metabolic acidosis d. High pressure air leak
  77. 77.In spinal anesthesia the first nerve to get blocked is:
    a. Autonomic preganglionic B fibers b. Tempretures c. Somatic motor fibers d. Vibratory and proprioceptive fibers
  78. 78. In spinal anesthesia the last fibers affected are;
    a. pressure b. Pain c. Temperature d. Touch]
  79. 79. Color of cylinder of oxygen is;
    a. Purple b. Back and white c. Orange d. Blue
  80. 80. Color of cyclopropane cylinder is:
    a. Blue b. Black c. Orange d. White
  81. 81. Not a treatment modality of raised ICP :
    a. positive end pressure ventilation b. Controlled hyperventilation c. IV mannitol d. IV frusemide
  82. 82. Not seen in increased intracranial tension:
    a. Increased blood pressure b. Increased pulse rate c. Decreased consciousness d. Papilledema
  83. 83.in pudendal nerve block, the nerve root blocked is:
    a. L5 s1 b. s 2,3,4 c. L 2,3,4 d. L 1,2,3
  84. 84. Epidural opoid analgesic acts on:
    a. Axonal membrane b. Block spinal sensory nerve c. Ventral horn d. Substantia gelntinosa
  85. 85. Drug commonly used for epidural analgesia is:
    a. Piroxicam b. Fentanyl c. Morphine d. Pentazocine
  86. 86.High output renal failure occurs with:
    a. Halothane b. Cyclopropane c. Trichloroethylene d. Methoxyflurane
  87. 87. Which of the following causes nephrotoxicity :
    a. Halothane b. Isoflurane c. Methoxyflurane d. Enflurane
  88. 88. MAC is :
    a. Maximum air current b. Maximum air concentration c. Maximum alveolar compression d. Minimum alveolar concentration
  89. 89. Minimum level of an anesthetic agent to produce lack of surgical reflexes in 50% of the subject is known as:
    • a. Maximum alveolar analgesic concentration b. Minimum alveolar analgesic concentration
    • c. Minimum alveolar concentration d. Maximum alveolar concentration
  90. 90.The duration of effect of bupivacaine is:
    a. 5 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 5 hours d. 50 hours
  91. 91. Which of the following is specific antidote of benzodiazepines:
    a. Flumazenil b. Naloxone c. Nalorphine d. L NAlorphine
  92. 92. Bone marrow depression is caused by which of the following inhalation agents:
    a. Ether b. Nitrous oxide c. Nitric oxide d. Nitrogen dioxide
  93. 93. Diffusion hypoxia is seen with:
    a. Nitrous oxide b. Triline c. halothane d. Ether
  94. 94. In a patient with pneumothorax which should not be inhaled;
    a. Ether b. Nitrous oxide c. Halothane d. Cyclopropane
  95. 95.Nitrous oxide should not be administered in one of the following conditions:
    a. Volvulus of gut b. Dental extraction c. Obstetric anesthesia d. Wound debridement
  96. 96. False regarding nitrous oxide is:
    a. Safe in middle ear surgery b. Causes teratogenicity c. Bone marrow depression d. Megaloblastic anemia
  97. 97.Nitrous oxide was used as an anesthetic for the first time in the year:
    a. 1844 b. 1848 c. 1850 d. 1852
  98. 98.The pin index code for nitrous oxide is;
    a. 2, 5 b. 2, 6 c. 1, 6 d. 3, 5
  99. 99. The pin index code for oxygen is:
    a. 2, 5 b. 1, 6 c. 2, 6 d. 3, 6
  100. 100. Constitution of soda lime is:
    • a. 05% NaOH + 95% Ca (OH)2 b. 95% NaOH + 05% Ca (OH)
    • c. 50% NaOH + 50% Ca (OH) d. 05% NaOH + 90% CA (OH)
  101. 101. All of the following anesthetics sensitize heart except:
    a. Chloroform b. Halothane c. Diethyl ether d. Methoxyflurine
  102. 102. Most effective muscle relaxant is:
    a. Ether b. N2 O c. Halothane d. Trichloroethylene
  103. 103. Safest anesthetic in practice is:
    a. Nitrous oxide b. Ether c. Chloroform d. Morphine
  104. 104. Ether is not used in modern surgical practice because it is:
    a. Highly explosive b. Poor anesthetic c. Expensive d. Complicated apparatus needed
  105. 105.Not a vasodilator drug:
    a. Chlororocaine b. Bipivacaine c. Cocaine d. lignocaine
  106. 106.s Vasoconstriction is caused by:
    a. Chloroprocaine b. Cocaine c. Lidocaine d. Procaine
  107. 107. In children method for anesthetic induction is;
    a. Oxygen tent b. Intravenous c. Inhalation d. Intramuscular
  108. 108.Which of the following is the most common complication of spinal anesthesia;
    a. Meningitis b. post spinal headache c. Arrhythmias d. Hypotension
  109. 109. In high spinal anesthesia the likely physiological change to happen is:
    • a. Hypertension and tachycardia b. Hypotension and bradycardia
    • c. Hypotension and tachycardia d. Hypertension and bradycardia
  110. 110. The enzyme pseudocholinesterase acts on:
    a. Decamethonium b. Tubocurarine c. Gallamine d. Suxamethonium
  111. 111.Cauda equine syndrome can be caused by;
    a. Spinal anesthesia b. Epidural anesthesia c. both d. none
  112. 112.Drug which does not cross blood-brain barrier:
    a. Neostigmine b. Physostigmine c. Atropine d. Hyoscine
  113. 113. Presence of collateral circulation of hand is demonstrated by;
    a. Swan Ganz test b. Sellick’s test c. Allen’s test d. Katy Schmidt test
  114. 114. Allen’s test :
    • a. Is preformed by occluding the radial and ulnar arteries and releasing the later while observing the capillary refill
    • b. Is considered to b normal of capillary refill is noted within 10-15 seconds
    • c. Tests the patency of the transpalmar arch
    • d. Is impossible to perform adequately in the anesthetized
  115. 115. All are the complication of epidural anesthesia except:
    a. Headache b. Nausea c. Itching d. bladder distension
  116. 116. In hepatic and renal failure neuromuscular blocker used is:
    a. Atracurium b. Decamethonium c. Tubocurarine d. Scoline
  117. 117. Atracurium is eliminated from the body by:
    a. Renal excretion b. Hepatic excretion c. Both A and B d. Hoffmann degradation
  118. 118. Diazepam produces its effects by acting on the….
    a. Ascending reticular activating system b. Hippocampus c. Amygdala d. Cerebral cortex
  119. 119. Drug which acts by persistent depolarization :
    a. Benzoquinonium b. DTC c. Succinylcholine d. Glycopyrrolate
  120. 120. Who discovered IV anesthesia :
    a. Johann Sigmund b. Humphrey c. DL Tabern d. John S lundy
  121. 121. Most common Cranial nerve affected in spinal anesthesia:
    a. 2nd b. 3rd c. 10th d. 6th
  122. 122. Sellick’s maneuver is done to:
    a. Assist respiration b. CPR c. Prevent gastric aspiration d. Removal of foreign body
  123. 123.Sellick’s maneuver :
    • a. Prevents regurgitation b. Backward pressure on the cricoids cartilage
    • c. Backward pressure on hyoid cartilage d. A and B are correct
  124. 124. Inflammable anesthetic agent is:
    a. Ether b. Halothane c. Cyclopam d. Trilene
  125. 125. Anesthetic agent which is explosive in the presence of cautery:
    a. nitrous oxide b. Ether c. Trilene d. Halothane
  126. 126. The noninflammable anesthetic agent is:
    a. Trilene b. Ether c. Ethyl chloride d. Cyclopropane
  127. 127. Bretylium interferes with the release of:
    a. Adrenaline b. NOradrenalline c. Acetylcholine d. Dopamine
  128. 128.Subarachnoid block as anesthesia is contraindicated in:
    a. Hemophilia b. Burger’s disease c. Atherosclerotic gangrene d. Full stomach
  129. 129. Sigard Anderson nomogram determines:
    a. Plasma bicarbonate b. Hypercapnia c. Hypoxia d. Respiratory alkalosis
  130. 130. Epidural morphine causes:
    a. Nausea b. Retention of urine c. abolishes pain d. All of the above
  131. 131. In which phase of anesthesia, movements of eyeball are lost:
    a. Stage 3, phase 1 b. Stage 1, phase 3 c. stage 2, phase 3 d. stage 4
  132. 132. In the second stage of anesthesia the pupils are:
    a. Constricted b. Partially dilated c. Normal in size d. Totally dilated
  133. 133. Guedel’s stages of anesthesia are seen classically with:
    a. Ether b. Chloroform c. Morphine d. Nitrous oxide
  134. 134.Pralidoxie acts in organophosphorus poisoning by:
    a. Regenerating cholinesterase b. Inhibiting cholinesterase c. Cholinergic action d. None
  135. 135.What is Brewer Luckhardt reflex;
    • a. Reflex hypotension due to pooling in spinal anesthesia
    • b. Penile engorgement due to spinal anesthesia
    • c. Reflex laryngospasm due to parasympathetic stress at a different site
    • d. Tracheal tug
  136. 136.Bain system is a modified :
    a. MApleson A system b. Mapleson B system c. Mapleson C system d. Mapleson system
  137. 137. Which of the following is a steroidal anesthetic agent:
    a. Althesin b. propandid c. Methohexitone d/. Di-isopropyl phenol
  138. 138. In renal failure which of the following muscle relaxant is contraindicated:
    a. Atracurium b. Gallamine c. Vecuronium d. D- tubocuracine
  139. 139.Which drug is mostly excreted by the kidney:
    a. Gallamine b. Sucinyl choline c. Alcuronium d. D- tubocurarine
  140. 140.Excitatory neurotransmitter in brain is:
    a. GABA b. Glycine c. Glutamate d. Dopamine
  141. 141. patients of myasthenia gravis are resistant to which of the following muscle relaxant:
    a. Vecuronium b. Atracurium c. Pancuronium d. Suxamethonium
  142. 142. Anesthetic most sensitive to patient myasthenia gravis:
    a. Suxamethonium (scoline) b. Gallamine c. Decamethonium d.. Neostigmine
  143. 143. In myasthenia, true regarding sensitivity of curare and scoline is:
    • Curare scolline
    • a. Increased decreased
    • b. Decreased increased
    • c. Decreased normal
    • d. Normal increased
  144. 144. Intravenous induction agent is;
    a. promethazine b. Midazolam c. Atracurium d. Desflurane
  145. 145. Histamine release is commonly seen with administration of:
    a. Ketamine b. Thiopentone c. Adrenaline d. Atracurium
  146. 146.Which of the following muscle is least effected by d-tubercurarine :
    a. Facial b. Diaphragm c. Ocular d. Abdominal
  147. 147. In a neonate the size of orotracheal tube should be:
    a. 5cm b. 8 cm c. 10 cm d. 15 cm
  148. 148.Negative pressure in extradural space is found in:
    a. 65% of the population b. 80% of the population c. 50% of the population d. 45% of the population
  149. 149. Epilepsy is a contraindication for:
    a. Ether b. Enflurane c. Halothane d. Isflurane
  150. 150. Sufentanil is a patient :
    a. Myocardial depressant b. Analgesic c. Anticonvulsant d. Hepatotoxin
  151. 151.Potency of an inhalation anesthetic is because of:
    a. Critical pressure b. Oil/ water solubility c. blood gas coefficient d. MAC
  152. 152. False regarding neuroleptic analgesia is:
    a. Muscle dystonia b. Hypertension c. Neuroleptic anesthesia along with nitrous oxide and oxygen d. Bradycardia
  153. 153. Mismatched blood transfusion during surgery manifests are:
    a. Increased blood loss from surgical site and hypotension b. Raised blood pressure c. Tachypnea d. Headache
  154. 154.In which of the following conditions, lumbar puncture is dangerous to perform:
    a. Intracranial tumors b. Spinal cord tumors c. Intracranial berry aneurysm d. History of seizures
  155. 155.Epidural catheter is introduced by:
    a. Mitchel needle b. Tuohy needle c. Sise introducer d. Gordh needle
  156. 156. The position of endotracheal tube in trachea is confirmed best by:
    • a. Presence of CO2 in expired air b. Absence of gurgling sounds in the epigastrium
    • c. Auscultation of the chest d. Pulse oximetry
  157. 157. Cuff in endotracheal tube is used to:
    • a. Prevent regurgitation of gastric contents b. Have air tight seal
    • c. Stablize the tube in the midline d. Prevent tube from slipping out
  158. 158. Hypoxemia is seen in:
    a. Postoperative anesthesia recovery b. Perioperatively c. Preoperatively d. During operation
  159. 159. Malignant hyperpyrexia is not caused by:
    a. Succinylcholine b. Methoxyflurane c. Nitrous oxide d. Halothane
  160. 160.Which of the following is a complication of massive blood transfusion:
    a. Acidosis b. Hyponatremia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypokalemia
  161. 161. Normal dead space is….. of tidal ventilation:
    a. 60% b. 50% c. 30% d. 40%
  162. 162.Drug contraindicated in head injury:
    a. Oxygen b. IV fluids c. Morphine d. Antibiotic
  163. 163. not used in preanesthetic medication:
    a. Vecuronium b. Diazepam c. Atropine d. Morphine
  164. 164.Vecuronium acts on :
    a. Ganglion b. Cerebrum c. Motor end plate d. Spinal cord
  165. 165. Mechanism of action of local anesthetics is:
    • a. Inhibiting sodium pump b. Blocking calcium channels of nerve membrane
    • c. Binding to calcium receptor on nerve membrane d. Forming of nerve blocks along a neuron
  166. 166.Shortest-acting nondepolarizing agent is:
    a. Vecuronium b. Succinylcholine c. Atracurium d. Mivacurium
  167. 167.Longest-acting muscle relaxant among the following is:
    a. pancuronium b. Mivacurium c. VEcuronium d. Atracurium
  168. 168.Which of the following agents was introduced in clinical practice by james simpson:
    a. Chloroform b. Nitrous oxide c. Ether d. Thiopentone
  169. 169. First successful demonstration of anesthesia was done in which of the following years:
    a. 1868 b. 1846 c. 1848 d. 1858
  170. 170.s Which of the following is false regarding nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxant :
    • a. Reversed by neostigmine b. Potentiated by volatile agents and magnesium ions
    • c. Fasciculation of muscle d. Slow onset
  171. 171.Incomplete anesthesia in a patient with muscle relaxation manifests are all except;
    a. Hiccups b. Tachycardia c. Sweating d. Miosis
  172. 172. Cranial nerve not involved in spinal anesthesia:
    a. 1st and 10th b. 3rd and 6th c. 2nd and 4th d. 7th and 8th
  173. 173. Which of the following is not a sign of soda lime exhaustion:
    • a. Increased oozing from wounds b. Rise in blood pressure followed by fall
    • c. Change of color of granules d. Slow pulse rate
  174. 174.Erliest local anesthetic used was:
    a. procaine b. Cocaine c. Xylocaine d. Lignocaiene
  175. 175. Nitrous oxide was discovered by:
    a. Joseph priestly b. Humphry davy c. Horace wells d. PC barton
  176. 176. After MI elective surgery should be performed at an interval of:
    a. 2 months b. 4 months c. 6 months d. 8 months
  177. 177. Bag and mask ventilation is not contraindicated in:
    • a. Lung malformation b. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
    • c. Meconium aspiration syndrome d. Tracheoesophageal fistula with esophageal atresia
  178. 178. Cardiac oxygen demand is increased by:
    a. Ketamine b. Nitrous oxide c. Thiopentone d. Halothane
  179. 179. intracranial pressure is increased by which of the following inducing agent:
    a. Fentanyl b. Ketamine c. Thiopentone d. Halothane
  180. 180. Drug contraindicated in raised ICT in a head injury patient is:
    a. Fentanyl b. Thiopentone sodium c. Ketamine d. Propofol
  181. 181. Position associated with least vital capacity in general anesthesia is:
    a. Left lateral b. Prone c. lithotomy d. Trendelenburg
  182. 182. In which of the following condition there is maximum loss of vital capacity:
    a. Trendelenburg’s position b. Litotomy position c. Left lateral position d. Supine position
  183. 183. The formula for calculating the size of endotracheal tube in a child less than 6 years of age is:
    • a. (age in year/3) +3.5 b. (age in year/4)+4.5
    • c. (age in year/4)+3.5 d. (age in year/5)+3.5
  184. 184. The formula for calculating the size of endotracheal tube in a child more than 6 years of age is:
    a. (age in year/3)+3.5 b. (age in year/4)+4.5 c. (age in year/4)+3.5 d. (age in year/5)+3.5
  185. 185. A patient is being given intravenous thiopentone sodium. During injection the patient complains of pain in the site. Next step should be taken is:
    a. Stop thiopentone and give lignocaine in same cannula b. Stop thiopentone and give ketamine c. Stop thiopentonme and give propofol d. Stop thiopentone and give intravenous adrenaline in same cannula
  186. 186. Sucinylcholine produces dangerous hyperkalemia in patient of:
    a. Diabetes b. ARF c. Paraplegia d. Raised intracranial tension
  187. 187.During intubation of newborn , endotracheal tube and blade of laryngoscope is:
    • a. Un-cuffed tube with curved blade b . Un-cuffed tube with straight blade
    • c. Cuffed tube with curved blade d. cuffed tube with straight blade
  188. 188. In a patient with fixed respiratory obstruction helium is used along with oxygen instead of plain oxygen because:
    a. For analgesia b. It decreases dead space c. It decreases turbulence d. It increases the flow of oxygen
  189. 189.All of the following antibiotics have some neuromuscular blocking activity except:
    a. Streptomycin b. Gentamicin c. penicillin d. Polymyxin
  190. 190. Entonox is:
    a. 50% O2 and 50% N2O b. 75% O2 and
  191. 191. Which of the following induction agents is used to produce a ‘street-fit’ person following surgery:
    a. Midazolan b. Propofol c. Alfentanil d. Thiopentone
  192. 192.In “day care surgery” induction is done by:
    a. Diazepam b. halothane c. Propofol d. Thiopentone
  193. 193.Methemoglobinemia is caused by which of the following anesthetic agent:
    a. Bupivacaine b. Prilocaien c. Cocaine d. Lignocaine
  194. 194. smoking should be stopped …. Weeks before surgery:
    a. 2-4weeks b. 4-6 weeks c. 8-10weeks d. 1-2 weeks
  195. 195. which of the following causes fasciculation:
    a. Atracurium b. Pancuronium c. Vecuronium d. Suxamethonium
  196. 196.Alloy used to make the strong body of gas cylinders used in anesthesia is:
    a. Iron and copper b. Iron c. Copper d. Molybdenum steel
  197. 197.Phase II blocker is:
    a. D-tubocurarine b. Succinylcholine c. Vecuronium d. Cocaine
  198. 198. Atropine causes:
    a. Miosis b. Mydriasis c. Bradycardia d. Increased bronchial secretion
  199. 199. In patients of asthma, which of the following inducing agents is contraindicated:
    a. Thiopentone b. Propofol c. Althesin d. ketamin
  200. 200.Bronchial asthma is precipitated with:
    a. Isoflurane b. B\nitrous oxide c. Halothane d. Thiopentone
  201. 201. Intubation dose of pancuronium is… mg/kg:
    a. 0.08 b. 0.01 c. 0.04 d. 0.02
  202. 202. A Mallampati criterion is used in which of the following :
    • a. To assess difficulty in intubation b. Free rotation
    • c. Flexion and extension of neck during endotracheal intubation d. Abdominal angular curvature
  203. 203.Whihc anesthetic agent should not be used with soda lime:
    a. Isoflurane b. Enflurane c. Sevoflurane d. Desflurane
  204. 204.Magill circuit air flow is:
    a. Equal to alveolar volume b. Half to minute volume c. Twice to minute volume d. Equal to minute volume
  205. 205. O2 content in anesthetic mixture is:
    a. 33% b. 38% c. 40% d. 50%
  206. 206.all of the following are true about succinylcholine except:
    • a. Causes persistent depiolarizing block b. Metabolized by pseudocholinesterase
    • c. Block can be reversed by neostigmine d. Has a short half-life
  207. 207. A 38 year old man is posted for extraction of last molar tooth under general anesthesia as a day care case. He wishes to resume his work after 6 hours . which 1 of the following induction agents is preferred ?
    a. thiopentone sodium b. Ketamine c. Diazepam d. propofol
  208. 208. the anesthetist orders a new attendant to bring the oxygen cylinder. He will ask the attendant to identify the correct cylinder by following color code:
    a. Sevoflurane b. Ketamine c. Propofol . Methiohexitone
  209. 209. An anesthetist orders a new attendant to bring the oxygen cylinder. He will ask the attendant to identify the correct cylinder by following color code:
    • a. black cylinder with white shoulders b. Black cylinder with gray shoulders
    • c. White cylinder with black shoulders d. Grey cylinder with white shoulders
  210. 210.Cplor-coding for nitrous oxide cylinder is:
    a. Black b. black with white shoulders c. French blue d. Gray
  211. 211. Induction agent that may cause adrenal cortex suppression is:
    a. Ketamine b. Etomidate c. Propofol d. Thiopentone
  212. 212. A 25 year old male is undergoing incision and drainage of abscess under general anesthesia with spontaneous respiration. The most efficient anesthetic circuit is:
    a. Mapleson A b. Mapleson B c. Mapleson C d. Mapleson D
  213. 213. A 5 year old boy suffering from duchenne muscular dystrophy has to undergo tendon-lengthening procedure. The most appropriate anesthetic would be :
    • a. Induction with intravenous thiopentone and N2O ;and halotone for maintenance
    • b. Induction with intravenous propofol and N2O; and oxygen for maintenance
    • c. Induction with intravenous suxamethonium and N2O; and halothane for maintenance
    • d. Inhalation induction with inhalation halothane and N2O; oxygen for maintenance
  214. 214. Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent?
    a. Neurosurgery b. Day care surgery c. In neonates d. patients with coronary artery disease
  215. 215.The ideal muscle relaxant used for a neonate undergoing porto-enterostomy for billary atresia is:
    a. Atracurium b. Vecuronium c. Pancuronium d. Rocuronium
  216. 216.At the end of a balanced anesthesia technique with non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, a patient recovered spontaneously from the effect of muscle relaxant without any reversal. Which is the most probable relaxant the patient had received?
    a. Pnacuronium b. Gallamine c. Atracurium d. Vecuronium
  217. 217.During rapid sequences induction of anesthesia:
    • a. Slick’s maneuver is not required b. Pre-oxygenation is mandatory
    • c. Suxamethonium is contraindicated d. Patient is mechanically ventilated before endotracheal incubation
  218. 218. Which among the following is an inhalant anesthetic:
    a. Etomidate b. Propofol c. Alfentanil d. Desflurane
  219. 219.Visual analogue scale(VAS) is most widely used to measure;
    a. Sleep b. Sedation c. Pain intensity d. Depth of anesthesia
  220. 220. Pin index system is a safety feature adopted in anesthesia machines to prevent :
    a. Incorrect attachment of anesthesia machines b. Incorrect attachment of anesthesia face masks c. Incorrect inhalation agent delivery d. Incorrect gas cylinder attachment
  221. 221. the pin index code of nitrous oxide is:
    a. 2,5 b. 1,5 c. 3,5 d. 2,6
  222. 222. The following combinations of agents are the most preferred for short day care surgeries:
    • a. Propofol, fentanyl, isoflurane b. Thiopentone sodium, morphine , halothane
    • c. Ketamine, pethidine, halothane d.. Propofol, morphine, halothane
  223. 223. False regarding thiopentone is:
    • a. Stage of delirium is absent b. Tendency to cause postoperative discomfort
    • c. Causes laryngospasm d. Fast recovery
  224. 224. Thiopentone is preferred as an induction agent because of:
    a. Anticonvulsant properties b. Fast elimination by liver c. Smoothness of induction d. Cardiovascular stability
  225. 225. Smooth induction anesthetic is:
    a. Halothane b. Nitrous oxide c. Thiopentone d. Diethyl ether
  226. 226. Thiopentone concentration used for anesthesia:
    a. 0.5% b. 1% c. 2.5% d. 5%
  227. 227.Post dural puncture headache is typically:
    a. A result of leakage of blood into the epidural space b. Worse when lying down than in sitting position c. Bifrontal of occipital d. Seen within 4 hours of dural puncture
  228. 228.A 6 year old boy is scheduled for examination of eye under anesthesia. The father informed that for the past 6 months the child is developing progressive weakness of both legs. His elder sibling had died at age 14 years. Which drug would you definitely avoid during anesthetic management:
    a. Succinylcholine b. Thiopentone c. Nitrous oxide d. Vecuronium
  229. 229. In a young patient who had extensive soft tissue and muscle injury, which of these muscle relaxants used for endotracheal intubation might lead to cardiac arrest:
    a. Atracurium b. Suxamethonium c. Vecuronium d. Pancuronium
  230. 230. The administration of succinylcholine to a paraplegic patient led to the appearance of dysrrhythmias, conduction abnormalities and finally cardiac arrest. The most likely cause is:
    a. Hypercalcemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Anaphylaxis d. Hypermagnesemia
  231. 231.Following spinal subarchnoid block a patient develops hypotension. This can be managed by the following means except:
    • a. Lowering the head-end b. Administration of 1000ml Ringer’s lactate before the block
    • c. Vasopressor drug like methoxamine d. Use of positive inotropic agents like dopamine
  232. 232. A patient was administered epidural anesthesia with 15ml of 1.5% lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery. He developed hypotension and respiratory depression within 3 minutes after administration of block. The most common cause would be:
    • a. allergy to drug administered b. Systemic toxicity to drug administered
    • c. Patient got vasovagal shock d. Drug has entered the subarachnoid space
  233. 233. Which one of the following is the shortest acting intravenous analgesic:
    a. Remifentanil b. Fentanyl c. Alfentanil d. Sufentanil
  234. 234. During laryngoscopy and endotracheal intubation which of the following maneuver is not performed :
    • a. Flexion of the neck b. Extension of head at the atlano-occipital joint
    • c. The laryngoscope is lifted upwards levering over the upper incisors
    • d. In a straight blade laryngoscope the epiglottis is lifted by the trip
  235. 235. Which of the following statements is not correct for vecuronium:
    a. It has high incidence of cardiovascular side effects b. It has short duration of neuromuscular block c. In usual doses dose adjustment is not required in kidney disease d. it has high lipophilic property
  236. 236. Which of the following local anesthetic causes vasoconstriction on application?
    a. Bupivacaine b. Cocaine c. Dibucaine d. Ether
  237. 237. Which of the following inducing agents is contraindicated in raised intracranial tension?
    a. Ketamine b. Propofol c. Thiopentone d. Alfentanil
  238. 238.With the use of D-tubocurarine which of the following occurs first:
    a. Ptosis b. Diplopia c. Abdominal wall relaxation d. Diaphragmatic relaxation
  239. 239.False regarding arterial blood gas analysis:
    • a. Sample should be preserved in a cool environment
    • b. Syringe should be sealed with cork or a cap
    • c. Syringe should be flushed with heparin and emptied completely
    • d. Glass syringe should be used
  240. 240. Risk factor for liver toxicity by halothane is:
    a. Male sex b. Recent halothane use c. Associated liver pathology d. Old age
  241. 241. Which of the following is not different in males and females?
    a. Expiratory reserve volume b. Residual volume c. Vital capacity d. Tidal volume
  242. 242. in renal failure muscle relaxant of choice is:
    a. Vecuronium b. Doxacurium c. Atracurium d. Pancuronium
  243. 243. in which of the following positions lumbar puncture is done:
    a. sitting with hand below flexed knees b. Left lateral c. Right lateral d. All of the above
  244. 244.Which of the following a successful satellite ganglion block can produce?
    a. Hemi facial anesthesia b. Brachial plexus involvement c. Horne’s syndrome d. Hypotension
  245. 245.Whihc of the following is a safe, rapid and smooth inducing agent for children?
    a. Sevoflurane b. Halothane c. Ether d. Suxamethonium
  246. 246. Rapid induction of anesthesia occurs with which of the following inhalation anesthetics:
    a. Isoflurane b. Halothane c. Desflurane d. Sevoflurane
  247. 247. ASA classification is done for:
    a. Status of patient b. Risk c. Pain d. Lung disease
  248. 248. Nerve fiber affected first by the local anesthesia is:
    a. Type II B b. Type C c. Type II d. Type A
  249. 249. Agent used in giving general anesthesia to a 50 year old alcoholic patient with liver failure is:
    a. Isoflurane b. Methoxyflurane c. Halothane d. Ether
  250. 250. In case of multiple injuries first step to be taken is:
    a. X-ray skull b. Urgent CT c. Urgent MRI d. Maintain airway
  251. 251. A 5 year old child is scheduled for strabismus (squint)correction. Induction of anesthesia is uneventful after conjunctival incision as the surgeon grasps the medial rectus, the anesthesiologist looks at the cardiac monitor. Why he did that:
    a. He wanted to check the depth of anesthesia b. He wanted to be sure that the blood pressure did not fall c. He wanted to see if there was an oculocardiac reflex d. He wanted to make sure wereno ventricular dysrrhythmias which normally accompany incision
  252. 252. the topical use of which of the following local anesthetic is not recommended:
    a. Lignocaine b. Bupivacaine c. Cocaine d. Dibucaine
  253. 253. Nitric oxide is used in management of:
    a. Head injury b. Buerger’s disease c. ARDS d. Acute paraplegia
  254. 254. Increased dose of spinal anesthetic is required if the patient has:
    • a. Obesity b. Pregnant c. Increased height of patient d.
    • Ascites
  255. 255. All of the following factors decrease the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) of an inhalation anesthetic agent except:
    a. Hypothermia b. Hyponatremia c. Hypocalcemia d. Anemia
  256. 256. Interscalene approach to branchial plexus block does not provide optimal surgical anesthesia in the area of distribution of which of the following nerve:
    a. Musculocutaneous b. Ulnar c. Radial d. Median
  257. 257. Which of the following decides dosage of inhalation anesthetic agent:
    a. MAC b. Partial pressure in brain c. Alveolar exchange d. Lipid solubility
  258. 258. At the end of anesthesia after discontinuation of nitrous oxide and removal of endotracheal tube , 100% oxygen is administered to the patient to prevent:
    a. Diffusion hypoxia b. Second gas effect c. Hyperoxia d. Bronchospasm
  259. 259.Which of the following volatile anesthetic agents should be preferred for induction of anesthesia in children?
    a. Sevoflurane b. Desflurane c. Isoflurane d. Enflurane
  260. 260. Which of the following inhalation agent is contraindicated in a patient with history of epilepsy?
    a. Isoflurane b. Enflurane c. Halothane d. Sevoflurane
  261. 261.All of the following are suitable anesthetic circuits for both controlled and assisted ventilation, except:
    a. Mapleson A b. Mapleson B & C c. Mapleson D d. Mapleson E
  262. 262. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA ) is used for:
    a. Maintenance of the airway b. Facilitating laryngeal surgery c. Prevention of aspiration d. Removing oral secretions
  263. 263. A lower segment cesarean section (LSCS)can be carried out under all of the following techniques of anesthesia except:
    a. General anesthesia b. Spinal anesthesia c. Caudal anesthesia d. Combined spinal epidural anesthesia
  264. 264.The laryngeal mask airway used for securing airway of a patient in all of the following conditions, except:
    • a. In a difficult intubation b. In cardiopulmonary resuscitation
    • c. In a child undergoing an elective /routine eye surgery d. In a patient with a large tumor in the oral cavity
  265. 265. Which of the following cause a rise in the intracranial pressure?
    a. Sevoflurane b. Thiopental sodium c. Lignocaine d. Propofol
  266. 266. All of the following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children except:
    a. Ketamine b. Ondansetron c. Propofol d. Dexamethasone
  267. 267. All of the following modes of ventilation may not be used for weaning off patients from mechanicl ventilation:
    • a. Controlled mechanical ventilation b. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation
    • c. Pressure cupport ventilation d. Assist control ventilation
  268. 268. The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneously breathing infant during anesthesia is:
    • a. Jackson-Rees modification of Ayre’s T-piece b. Mapleson A or Magill’s circuit
    • c. Mapleson C or Waters to and fro canister d. Brains circuit
  269. 269.A 70 year old patient for a surgery, which is likely to last for 4 to 6 hours. The best inhalation agent of choice for maintenance of anesthesia in this case is:
    a. Methoxyflurane b. Ether c. Trichloroethylene d. Desflurane
  270. 270. Which of the following statements regarding desflurane is correct?
    • a. It causes severe myocardial depression b. It is structural analogue of isoflurane
    • c. It has very high blood and tissue gas partition coefficients d. It is metabolically unstable
  271. 271. A 6 year old child is posted for elective urology surgery under GA. He refuses to allow the anesthetist an IV access. The inhalational agent of choice for induction of anesthesia is:
    a. Sevoflurane bb. Methoxyflurane c. Desflurane d. Isdoflurane
  272. 272. A 21 year old lady with a history of hypersensitivity to neostigmine is posted for an elective cesarean section under GA. The muscle relaxant of choice in this patient should be;
    a. Pancuronium b.. Atracurium c. Rocuronium d. Vecuronium
  273. 273. all of the following drug are eliminated by kidney, except:
    a. Pancuronium bromide b. Atracurium bestylate c. Vecuronium bromide d. Pipecuronium
  274. 274.A 30 year old lady is to undergo surgery under IV regional anesthesia for left trigger finger. Which one of the following should not be used for this patient?
    a. Lignocaine b. Bupivacaine c. Prilocaine d. Lignocaine +ketorolac
  275. 275. Which one of the following local anesthetics is highly cardiotoxic?
    a. Lignocaine b. Procaine c. Mepivacaine d. Bupivacaine
  276. 276. Which of the following local anesthetic is most likely to produce an allergic raction ?
    a. Prilocaine b. Ropivacaine c. Etidocaine d. Benzocaine
  277. 277.Which of the following opioids has maximum plasma protein binding capacity:
    a. Morphine b. Sufentanil c. Fentanyl d. Pethidine
  278. 278. Which of the following does not represent a significant anesthetic problem in the morbidly obese patient?
    • a. Difficulties in endotracheal intubation b. suboptimal arterial oxygen tension
    • c. Increased metabolism of volatile agents d. Decreased cardiac output relative to total body mass
  279. 279. Drug that is Not suitable for patients with acute porphyria for IV induction:
    a. Thiopentone sodium b. Propofol c. Midazolam d. Etomidate
  280. 280.Trendelenburg position produces decrease in all of the following except:
    a. Vital capacity b. Functional residual capacity c. Compliance d. Respiratory rate
  281. 281.All of the following are false about the treatment of prolonged suxamethonium apnea due to plasma cholinesterase deficiency after a single dose of suxamethonium except:
    • a. Reversal with incremental doses of neostigmine
    • b. Continue anesthesia and mechanical ventilation till recovery
    • c. Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma d. plasmapheresis
  282. 282. Which of the following device provides fixed performance oxygen therapy?
    a. Nasal cannula b. Ventimask c. Oxygen-T-piece d. Edinburgh mask
  283. 283. A 52 year old man diagnosed as triple vessel coronary artery disease with poor left ventricular function. Coronary artery bypass grafting surgery was decided. During maintenance of anesthesia which of the following agents should be preferred?
    a. IV opioids b. Isoflurane c. Halothane d. Nitrous oxide
Author
itsdanni
ID
356619
Card Set
Anes
Description
Updated