-
1. Best method of diagnosiing acute appendicitis is:
a. Barium meal b. History c. X-ray abdomen d. Physical examination
-
2. True regarding pott’s puffy “ tumor” is:
- a. Frontal bone osteomyelitis with overlying soft tissue swelling
- b. Swelling of ankle associated with pott’s fracture
- c. Swelling associated with pott’s spine
- d. Malignant tumor of scalp
-
3. Ramsdt’s operation is done for:
- a. Annular pancreas b. Achalasia cardia
- c.carcinma stomach d. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis of infants
-
4. Projective vomiting and visible peristalsis in upper abdomen in the 1st month of life is most commonly due to:
- a. Duodenal ileus b. Annular pancreas
- c.Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d. Malrotation of gut
-
5. In infancy pyloric stenosis should be treated with:
a. Heller’s myotomy b. Medical treatment c. Ramstedt’s operation d. Gastrojejunostomy
-
6. Bilious vomiting is not seen in:
- a. Pyloric stenosis b. Duodenal atresia
- c.Volvulus of small intestine d. Jejunal atresia
-
7. A 26 year old infant presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting, constipation and rabbit like pellet stol. He has:
a. Choledichal cyst b. Esophageal atresia c. Duodenal atresia d. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
-
8. False regarrding hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is:
- a. X-ray abdomen shows gastric dilation and minimum air in small intestine
- b. Usg is not helpful in diagnosis
- c. Common in boys
- d. Usually presents between 2-8 years
-
9. Hypertrophic Pyloric stenosis is ideally treated with:
a. Ryle’s tube and fluids b. Wait and watch c. Pyloromyotomy d. Pyloroplasty
-
10. In which of the following conditions, triad of pain in abdomen , jaundice and melena is seen :
a. Acute pancreatitis b. Hemobilia c. Gallbladdr carcinoma d. Acute cholecystitis
-
11. Not a feature of hemobilia :
a. Jaundice b. Abdominal pain c. Gastrointestinal bleeding d. Fever
-
12. Hemobilia occurs most commonly due to:
a. Cholengitis b. Gallstone c. Trauma d. Liver abscess
-
13. In 3rd degree piles, the treatment of choice is:
a. Hemorrhoidectomy b. Cryosurgery c. Banding d. Injection treatment
-
14. Th etreatment of choice of 2nd degree piles is:
a. Surgery b. Banding c. Cryosurgery d. Sclerotherapy
-
15. Most common cause of bleeding per rectum in men between 20-40 years of age is:
a. Fissure in ano b. Internal heemorrhoids c. Rectal polyp d. Rectal carcinoma
-
16. Following hemorrhoidectomy th emost common complication is:
a. Urinary retention b. Infection c. Hemorrhage d. Fecal impaction
-
17. False regarding hemorrhoids is:
- a. They are arterriolar dilatations
- b. They are common causes of painless bleeding
- c. They cannot be palpated per rectally
- d. Discharge, pain and anemia are other symptoms
-
18. A neonate presents with dribbling of saliva. The diagnosis is:
- a. Choanal atresia b. Tracheoesophageal fistula
- c.Duodenal atresia d. Esophageal atresia
-
19. A neonate regurgitates first and subsequent feeds. Diagnosis is:
a. Presbyoesophagus b. Scleroderma c. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d. Esophageal atresia
-
20. Which of the following is the most common type of congential atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula:
- a. Both segment ends blindly
- b. Both segment opening into trachea
- c. Upper ssegment opening into trachea and lower end is blind
- d. Lower segment opening into trachea and upper end is blind
-
21. In which of the following condition, nicoladoni’s of Branham’s sign is seen:
- a. Arteriovenous fistula(AVF) b. Deep vein thrombosis
- c.Raynaud’s diasease d. Buerger’s disease
-
22. Common cause of uniteral hypertrophy and local gigantism is:
- a. Lipomatosis b. Bone tumor c. AV fistula d. Neurofibromatosis
- 23. In which fo the following carcinoma of thyroid, lymphatic node metastasis is seen:
- a. Anaplastic b. Follicular c. Medullar d. Papillary
-
24. In which of the following carcinoma of thyroid, lympatic involvement is common;
a. Anaplastic b.Follicular c. Papillary d. Medullary
-
25. Most common carcinoma of thyroid is:
a. Mdullary b. Anaplastic c. Follicular d. Papillary
-
26. In carcinoma of breast, a secondaries deposit is most common in:
a. Bone b. Brain c. Liver d. Lung
-
27. In carcinoma breast , most common sit eof bony metastatis is:
a. Sacral vertebra b. Lumber vertebra c. Thoratic vertebra d. Cervical vertebra
-
28. Not a feature of charcot’s triad:
a. Vomiting b. Jaundice c. Fever d. Pain
-
29. In cholangitis the most common organism is:
a. Streptococcus b. Clostridium c. Eschericha coli d. Entamoeba histolytica
-
30. Charcot’s triad is seen in :
a. Gangrene of gallbladder b. Acute appendicitis c. Acute cholecystitis d. Cholangitis
-
31. Not seen in cholangitis:
a. Septic shock b. Fever c. Jaundice d. Biliary colic
-
32. Potato tumor is a :
a. Carotid body tumor b. Sternomastoid tumor c. cystic hygroma d. Brancial cyst
-
33. False regarding Meckel’s diverticulum is:
- a. 60cm From the ileocecal valve b. Arise from mesenteric border
- c.intussusception d. Bleeding
-
34. Most common somplication of Meckel’s diverticulum is:
a. Intussusception b. Obstruction c. Bleeding d. Diverticulitis
-
35. Complication s of meckel’s diverticulum include:
a. Intussusception b. Intestinal obstruction c. Hemorrhage d. All of the above
-
36. False regarding Meckel’s diverticulum is:
- a. Always contains gastric tissue
- b. True diverticulum
- c. Antimesenteric border
- d. Present in 2 % population
-
37. A 30 –year-old woman is accidentally found to have a wide mouthed Meckel’s diverticulum during laparotomy. Best method of treatment :
- a. Diverticulectomy
- b. Leave it alone
- c. Resection of diverticulum with a short segment of ileum and anastomoses
- d. Resection of diverticulum and stump is invaginated
-
38. In which of the following condition , theirsch operation is done:
a. Incontinence b. Rectal prolapse c. hemorrhoids d. Fissure in ano
-
39. For which of the following condition, delorme’s operation is done;
a. Rectal carcinoma b. Fissure in ano c. Fistula in ano d. Rectal prolapse
-
40. False about cystic hygroma is:
- a. Aspiration contains cholesterol crystals b. Ruminant of 2nd brancial cleft
- c.Brilliantly transucent d. Brilliantly transilluminant
-
41. cystic hygroma:
- a. Manifests in 2nd -3rd decade b. Spontaneous regression
- c. Excision of the cyst at an early age d. Should be left alone
-
42. Which of the following is brilliantly translucent:
a. Seaceous cyst b. dErmoid cyst c. Cystic hygroma d. Branchial cyst
-
43. Cystic hygroma is a :
a. Hemangioma b. Sebaceous gland tumor c. Meningioma d. Lymphangioma
-
44. After birth, th eearliest tumor to occur is:
a. Lymphoma b. Branchial cyst c. Cystic hygroma d. Sternomastoid tumor
-
45. In mallory –weises syndrome where is the mucosal tear located;
- a. Near gastric pylorus b. Gastroesophageal junction
- c. upper end of esophagus d. Gastric antrum
-
46. False regarding mallory- weiss syndrome is:
- a. Present with history of retching or vomiting
- b. Alcohol is not a predisposing factor
- c. Hematemesis is usually self limited
- d. Nonpenetrating mucosal tear at gastroesophageal junction
-
47. Sengstaken tube must maintain a pressure of… mmHg above what was recrded before insertion, to stop bleeding from varices:
a. 35 b. 45 c. 25 d. 20
-
48. In which of th efollowing conditon , sengstaken tube is used:
a. Biliary cirrhosis b. Hepatic aneurysm c. Blunt trauma d. Bleeding varices
-
49. In blunt injury to abdomen, organ commonly involved is;
a. Appendix b. Intestine c. Liver d. Spleen
-
50. Most common cause of a portal hypertension is situated at:
a. Postthepatic b. Prehapatic c. Intrahepatic d. Equal in all of the above
-
51. Medical treatment of gallbladder stone is possible in;
- a. nonfunctioning gallbladdr b. Radiopaque stones
- c. Size of stone is <15 mm d. Calcium oxalate stones
-
52. Oral ursodeoxycholic acid therapy is ineffctive in dissolving which of the following type of stones:
a. Radiopaque b.Sixe <15 mm c. Cholesterol or mixed d. Radiolucent gallstones
-
53. Medical treatment of gallstones is useful in all except:
a. Functioning of gallbladder b. Size ,15 mm c. Pigmented stone d. Cholesterol stone
-
54. Pseudopolyposis is a feature of which of the following disease:
a. Tuberculosis colitis b. Typhoid enteritis c. Chron’s disease d. ulcerative colitis
-
55. Sulphonamide is a feature of which of the following disease:
a. Sulphacetamide b. Sulphasalazine c. Sulphamethizole d. Sulphadiazine
-
56. True regarding ulcerative colitis:
- a. Rectum is almost always involved b. Fistulas are common
- c. Skip lesions are seen d. String sign of kantor positive
-
57. Not a complication of ulceratve colitis:
a. Sclerosing cholangitis b. Peptic ulcer c. Toxic megacolon d. Arthiritis
-
58. In which of the following condition, pyoderma gangrenosum is seen:
a. Ischemic colitis b./ Ulcerative colitis c.Chron’s disease d. Amebic colitis
-
59. “signof emptying” is seen in:
a. Salmon patch b. Port wine stain c. Plexiform angioma d. Strawberry angioma
-
60. Red discoloration on eyeld which disappears by one year is:
- a. Venous hemangioma b. Strawberry hemangioma
- c. Port wine stain d. Salmon patch
-
61. Tuft of hairs is seen in :
a. Spina bifida b. Spina aperta c. Sacrococcygeal teratoma d. Meylomeningocele
-
62. Meningomyelocele most commonly occurs at:
a. Skull b. Thoratic spine c. Lumbosacral spine d. Cervical spine
-
63. IN Hodgkin’s lymphoma, the malignant cell is:
a. Recticulum cells b. Histocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Reed sternnerg cells
-
64. Most common site of enlargement of lymmph nodes in Hodkin’s lymphoma is:
a. Abdominal b. Cevical c. Axillary d. Mediastinal
-
65. Most common presentation of Hodkin’s lymphoma is;
a. Leukocytosis b. Fever c. Painless enlargement of lymph nodes d. Pruritus
-
66. Hodkin’s ;ymphoma with right sided neck nodes and left inguimal node without fever is of:
a. Stage Ia b. Stage IIIa c. stage Iia d. Stage Iva
-
67. Not a type B symptom of Hodkin’s lymphoma:
a. Pruritus b. Headache c. Weight loss d. Fever
-
68. In a patient with Hodkin’s lymphoma with unilateral lymph node involvement, treatment of choice is :
a. Irradiation b. Single drug chemotherapy c. Neck dessection d. Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy
-
69. Worst prognosis Hodkin’s lymphoma is:
- a. Lymphocyte depketed b. Mixed cellularity
- c. Lymphocyte predominance d. Nodular sclerosis
-
70. In polycystic kidney cysts are seen in all of the following organs except:
a. Pancreas b. Lungs c. Brain d. Liver
-
71. The treatment of choice in polycystic kidney;
a. Nephrectomy b. Renal transplanation c. Dialysis d. Removal of cyst
-
72. Liver cyst in polycystic kidney occurs in:
a. 10% b. 58% c. 18% d. 85%
-
73. In which of the following ‘spider leg’ appearance of calyces in intracenous urography is seen :
a. Hydronephrosis b. Horse shoe kidney c. Congenital cystic kidneys d. Hypernephroma
-
74. Secondaries of which of the following does not cause osteolytic lesion:
a. Thyroid b. prostate c. Breast d. Bronchus
-
75. In which of the following osteoblastic secondaries are seen:
a. neuroblastoma b. Thyroid c. Breast d. Prostate
-
76. Heller’s operation is done in :
a. carcinoma esophagus b. Peptic ulcer c. Achalasia cardia d. Pyloric stenosis
-
77. True regarding achalasia cardia is:
a. Congenital dilatation b. Caused by scleroderma c. Sensory distrubance d. A motor distrubance
-
78. For achalasia cardia, the best investigation is:
a. Esophagscopy b. Sccintigraphy c. Barium meal d. Manometry
-
79. False regarding achalasia cardia is:
- a. X-ray finding of dilated wesophagus with a narrow end
- b. Macholyl test is hyposensitive
- c. Aspiration pneumonitis
- d. dysphagia
-
80. Predisposing factor for testicular tumor is:
a. Abdominal testis b. Chronic orchitis c. Torsion d. Trauma
-
81. In stage I seminoma, the treatment of choice is:
a. Medical b. Surgical c. Chemotherapy d. Radiotherapy
-
82. From which of the following glomus tumor originates:
a. Endoderm b. Mesoderm c. Neuroectoderm d. Ectoderm
-
83. False regarding glomus tumor is:
- a. Regulation of temperature of skin b. Resection is curative
- c. Distal extremity d. Mass
-
84. In renal cell carcinoma, which of the following endocrine manifestation may occur:
- a. Peptic ulcer b. Renin related hypertension
- c. Gynecomastia d. Cushing’s syndrome
-
85. Most common metastasis in renal cell carcinoma is to:
a. Lung b. Bone c. Adrenal d. Liver
-
86. Solitary ‘Pulsatile’ bone secondaries are most likely from:
- a.Carcinoma of breast b. Carcinom aof prostate
- c. Carcinoma of kidney d. Carcinom aof adrenal
-
87. Not a feature of renal cell carcinoma:
a. Renal vein thrombosis b. Hypertension c. Increased CEA d. Polythemia
-
88. Thyroglossal fistula develops due to which of the following :
- a. Inflammatory disorder b. Incomplete removal of thyroglossla cyst
- c. Injury d. Developmental anomaly
-
89. Sistrunk’s operation is done in:
- a. Branchial fistula b. Thyroglossal cyst
- c. Paratoid tumor d. Thyroiglossal fistula
-
90. Which of the following has close proximity to hyoid bone:
- a. Enlarged sbmandibular lymph nodes b. Thyroglossal fistula
- c. Aneurysm of carotid artery d. Brancial cyst
-
91. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid arises from:
- a. Stroma of gland cell b. Capsule of thyroid
- c. Parafollicular cells d. Cells lining the acini
-
92. Which of the following is the marker for medullary carcinoma of thyroid :
a. Phosphorus b. Thyroxine c. Parathormone d. Calcitonin
-
93. False regarding varicocele:
- a. Testicular veins involved b. More common on the right side
- c. may be first feature of a renal tumor d. Feels like a bag of worms
-
94. Varococele is common in left tests. The reason of this is:
- a. Compression of testicular vein by rectum
- b. Left testis is lower situated
- c. Left testicular veins drains into renal vein which has high pressure
- d. Left testicuar vein drains int IVC which has high pressure
-
95. Most common malignant tumor of spleen is:
a. Squamous cell carcinom a b. Adenocarcinoma c. Hemangioma d. Lymphoma
-
96. Which of the following is the most common tumor of spleen:
a. Sarcoma b. secondaries from kidney c. Hemangioma d. Lymphoma
-
97. In which of the following condition Goodsall’s rule is used:
a. Hernia b. Hemorrhoids c. Fistula in ano d. Rectal prolapse
-
98. All are false regarding diverticulitis of colon except:
- a. Asymptomatic b. Treatment is only consarvative
- c. Seen in >40 years of age d. Precancerous lesion
-
99.. Dumping syndrome is because of:
- a. Reduced gastric capacity b. Vagotomy
- c. Hypertonic content in small intestine d. Diarrhea
-
100. Strcture not excised in radicla neck dissection ;
- a. Submandibular salivary gland b. Internal jugular vein
- c. Vagus nerve d. Sternomastoid muscle
-
101. Structure not removed in classi radical neck dissextion:
- a. Internal jugular vein b. Submandibular gland
- c. Phrenic nerve d. Accessory nerve
-
102. Structure not saved in radical neck dissection is:
a. Lower brachial plexus b. Vagus nerve c. Spinal accessory nerve d. Hypoglossal nerve
-
103. False regarding vertebral hemangioma is:
- a. Usually found in 2-5% of population
- b. Hyper-intense in T image in MRI
- c. Usually associated with liver hemangioma and carcinoma
- d. Usually asymptomatic
-
104. Toxic megacolon is seen in which of the following disease:
a. Ulcerative colitis b. Carcinoma colon c. Carcinoid d. Gastrocolic fistula
-
105. Not a feature of esophageal rupture:
a. Low blood pressure b. Bradycardia c. Fever d. Pain
-
106. In which of the following hydradenitis suppurativa occurs:
a. Eccrine gland b. Sebaceous gland c. Apocrine gland d. Hair follicles
-
107. Not a feature of deep vein thrombosis in lower limb:
a. Discoloration b. Claudication c. Tender calf muscle d. Swelling
-
108. In which of the following condition , malignant changes in testis occurs:
a. Pyocele b. Hydrocele c. Trauma d. Crytorchidism
-
109. In which of the following condition, meconium ileus is seen ;
- a. Hirschsprung’s disease b. Pyloric stenosis
- c. Fibrocystic disease of pancreas d. Duodenal atresia
-
110. Most common site of lymphoma in GI tract is:
a. Ileum b. Colon c. Duodenum d. Stomach
-
111. A parient with pituitary tumor, pheochromocytoma, and hyperthyroidism is most likely to have;
- a. Follicular carcinoma thyroid
- b. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
- c. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
- d. Anplastic carcinoma thyroid
-
112. MEN II is seen with which of the following thyroid carcinoma:
a. Follicular b. Anaplastic c. Medullary d. Papillary
-
113. Not an indication for splenectomy:
- a. primary splenic tumor b. Hereditary spherocytosis
- c. Splenic abscess d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
-
114. not included in basic life support:
- a. Intracardiac adrenaline b. Expiratory air ventilation
- c. Cardiac massage d. Airway
-
115. Most common primary brain tumor is:
- a. Pituitary adenoma b. Craniopharyngioma
- c. Abdominoperineal resection d. Meningioma
-
116. A 70 year old male presented with carcinoma rectum 3cm From anal verge. Treatment of choice is :
- a. Distal sigmoid colostomy b. Dysfunctional surgery
- c. Abdominoperineal resection d. None of the above
-
117. In carcinoma of rectum 12cm from anal verge, the treatment of choice is:
- a. Anterior resection b. Dysfunctional resection
- c. Hartmann’s operation d. None of the above
-
118. Prognosis of carcinoma rectum is best assessed by:
a. Site of tumor b. histological grading c. Size of tumor d. Duration of symptoms
-
119. Earliest symptom of carcinoma rectum:
a. Pain b. Alteration of bowel habits c. Bleeding per rectum d. Tenesmus
-
120. Duhamel operation is done for which of the following condition;
- a. Congenital pyloric stenosis b. Hiatus hernia
- c. Achalasia cardia d. Hirschsprung’s disease
-
121. In Hischsprung’s disease, common aganglionic part is:
a. Rectum b. Jejunum c. Ileum d. Duodenum
-
122. All are false ragarding Hischsprung’s disease except:
- a. Regular ddilation effective b. Rectal biopsy is diagnostic
- c. Presentation is within 3 days d. More common in females
-
123. Which of the following is the most common cause of parotid swelling :
- a. Tuberculosis of aparatoid lymph nodes b. Warthin’s tumor
- c. Muco epidemoid tumor d. Pleomorphic adenoma
-
124. Pleomorphic adenoma of parotid is treated with:
- a. Total removal b. Deep lobe removal
- c. Redical removal d. Hemi superficial parotidectomy
-
125. Parotid tumor which is most commonly seen :
- a. Sarcoma b. Adenocystic carcinoma
- c. Pleomorphic adenoma d. Adenocarcinoma
-
126. Pleomorphic ladenoma most commonly occurs at:
- a. Minor salivary gland b. Sublingual gland
- c. Submandibular gland d. Parotid gland
-
127. True regarding pleomorphic tumor is:
- a. 80% of benign tumors are of pleomorphic origin
- b. Treatment is enucleation
- c. They are commonly associated with nerve involvement
- d. Pleomorphic tumors over period of time give rise to warthin’s adenoma
-
128. A patient has swelling in parotid which pushes the tonsil medially. Histologically it is pleomorphic adenoma. This should be treated with:
- a. Parotidectomy with leaving behind facial nerve and radical neck dissection
- b. Total parotidectomy
- c. Conservative parotidectomy
- d. Superficial parotidectomy
-
129. False regarding pseudopancreatic cyst is:
- a. Mostly present in head of pancreas b. Incresed serum amylase
- c. Presents as abdominal mass d. Common after acute pancreatitis
-
130. In pdeudopancreatic cyst the treatment of choice is:
a. Cystojejunostomy b. External drainage c. excision of cyst d. None of the above
-
131. False regarding pseudopancreatic cyst is:
- a. Epigastric mass b. Increase amylase
- c. Cystojejunostomy is the treatment of choice
- d. Percutaneous aspiration is the treatment of choice
-
132. In pseudopancreatic cyst , collection of fluid occurs in :
a. Hepato-renal pouch b. Greater sac c. Lesser sac d. Between intestinal loops
-
133. Pseudocyst of pancreas most commonly occurs after:
- a. Pancreatic malignancy b. Pancreatic surgery
- c. Acute pancreatitis d. Trauma
-
134. 5 cm umcomplicated pancreatic pseudocyst of 6 weeks duration should be managed by:
a. Serial USG b. Internal drainage c. External drainage d. Removal with limited pancreatic resection and duct closure
-
135. A 65 year old man has recurrent thrombophlebitis in upper arm for the last 6 months. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Osteosarcoma b. Oral carcinoma c. Pancreatic carcinoma d. Prostatic carcinoma
-
136. IN which of the following carcinoma, migratory thrombophlebitis is seen:
- a. Carcinoma of kidney b. Carcinoma of lung
- c. Carcinoma of nasopharynx d. Carcinoma of liver
-
137. Cleft lip is due to nonfusion of:
- a. Maxillary process with lateral nasal process
- b. Maxillary process with medial nasal process
- c. Maxillary process with mandibular process
- d. All of the above
-
138. Cleft lip is due to nonfusion of:
a. 2 years b. 12-18 months c. 6-8 months d. 3-6 months
-
139. Most common type of cleft lip is:
- a. Unilateral (right sided) b. Unilateral ( left sided)
- c. Bilateral d. Midline
-
140.Carcinoid tumor most commonly occurs at:
a. Adrenal b. Bronchus c. Small intestine d. Appendix
-
141. Hamman’s sign is typically seen in:
- a. Pneumomediastinum b. Pneumopericardium
- c. Pneumothorax d. Subcutaneous emphysema
-
142.Most common site of carcinoma stomach is:
a. GAstroesophageal junction b. CARdia c.Body d. Antrum
-
143. Carcinoma stomach is associated with which of the following blood group:
a. A b. B c. AB d. O
-
144. False regarding carcinoma of stomach is:
- a. Most common site for neoplasm is pre-pyloric region
- b. Troisier’s sign present
- c. Gastric carcinoma is common in people of blood Group O
- d. Superficial spreading type has best prognosis
-
145.In which of the following condition, hyperbaric oxygen is used:
a. Gangrene b. Anaerobic infection c. CO poisoning d. Ventilation failure
-
146. In subclavian steal syndrome, blood flow in vertebral artery is:
a. Reversed b. Increased c. Decreased d. Not seen
-
147. Cutaneous malignancy which does not metastasize to lymphatics is:
a. Kaposi sarcoma b. Melanoma c. basal cell carcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
-
148. In basal cell carcinoma at inner canthus of eye, the treatment of choice is:
- a. Surgery +Radiotherapy b. Chemotherapy
- c. Radiotherapy d. Wide excision and reconstruction
-
149.Most common site of rodent ulcer is;
a. Trunk b. abdomen c. Face d. Limbs
-
150.FNAC is not useful in which of the following thyroid carcinoma:
a. Medullary b. Follicular c. Papillary d. Anasplastic
-
151. Ideal treatment of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is:
a. Subtotal thyroidectomy b. Steroids c. Thyroxine d. TSH
-
152. False regarding hashimoto’s thyroiditis is:
- a. Autoimmune thyroiditis b. papillary carcinoma of thyroid
- c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis d. Agranulomaous thyroiditis
-
153. In which of the following condition, hurthle cells are seen:
- a. Thyroimmune cyst b. papillary carcinoma of thyroid
- c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis d. Agranulomatous thyroiditis
-
154. Symptom most frequently seen in patients of primary biliary cirrhosis is:
a. Gastrointestinal bleeding b. Jaundice c. Splenomegaly d. Pruritus
-
155. A chronic alcoholic has liver cirrhosis, presented with mass in liver, and raised AFP . most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Secondary from carcinoma colon b. Hepatic adenoma
- c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. hepatocellular carcinoma
-
156. in which of the following condition, α fetoprotein is increased:
- a. Cervix carcinoma b. Urinary bladder carcinoma
- c. Lung carcinoma d. Hepatocellular carcinoma
-
157. Gallstone which is most commonly found is:
a. Calcium oxalate b. Pure cholesterol c. Mixed stone d. Pigment stone
-
158. not a component of “saint’s” triad;
a. Gallstones b. Renal stones c. Hiatus hernia d. Diverticulosis
-
159. Percentage of gallstones which are radiopaque:
a. 10% b. 20% c. 30 % d. 50%
-
160. Fistula in ano is most commonly caused by:
a. Anal gland infection b. Crohn’s disease c. Ulcerative colitis d. Tuberculosis
-
161. In fistula in ano, treatment of choice is:
a. Fistulotomy b. fistulectomy c. Anal dilatation d. Fissurectomy
-
162. A patient presents with regurgitation of food which he ingested 3 days ago, foul smelling breath and intermittent dysphagia for solid foods. Most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Pyloric stenosis b. Diabetic gastroparesis
- c. Zenker’s diverticulum d. Achalasia cardia
-
163. All are false regarding Zenker’s diverticulum except;
- a. It occurs in children b. Treatment is cricopharyngeal myotomy
- c. Occurs in mid esophagus d. Asymptomatic
-
164. Which of the following is the best source of split skin graft:
a. Xenograft b. Isograft c. Homograft d. Autograft
-
165. isograft is:
- a. Transfer of tissue between monozygotic twins
- b. Transfer of tissue between different species
- c. Transfer of tissue between two individuals
- d. Transfer of tissue between brothers
-
166.All are false regarding renal trauma except:
- a. Renal artery aneurysm is common
- b. Lumbar approach to kidney
- c. Exploration of kidney to be done in all cases
- d. Urgent IVP is indicated
-
167.True ragarding thiersch’s graft is:
a. Pedcle graft b. Muscle flap c. Full thickness d. Partial thickness
-
168.In gastrojejunocolic fistula, diarrhea is due to:
- a. Decreased absorption b. Blind loop syndrome
- c. Peptic digestion of colonic mucosa d. Acid digestion of colonic mucosa
-
169. Treatment of paget’s disease of nipple is;
- a. Chemotherapy b. Biopsy and simple mastectomy
- c. Radical mastectomy d. Radiotheray
-
170. Not a mid line swelling in neck:
a. Branchial cyst b. Ludwwig’s angina c. Sub hyoid bursitis d. Thyroglossal cyst
-
171.False about mannitol:
- a. Sugar with high molecular weight b. Prevents ARF in shock
- c. Used in crush syndrome d. Used in Obstructive jaundice surgeries
-
172. Not a feature of crush syndrome:
- a. Dialysis may be life saving in uremia b. oligemic shock
- c. Myoglobinemia d. Cardiac tamponade
-
173. Not a cause of choledochal cyst:
- a. Due to both intrinsic defect and obstruction
- b. Congenital anomaly of bite duct
- c. Iinspissated bile
- d. Pancreased- biliary anatomical anomaly
-
174.Choledochal cyst should be treated with:
- a.Transplantation b. Excision of cyst of choledochocystojejunostomy
- c. Cystojejunostomy d. Gastrojejunostomy
-
175.All are false regarding choledochal cyst except:
- a. Best treatment is choledochocystojejunostomy
- b. Jaundice is present
- c. Usually asymptomatic
- d. Usually suoraduodenal
-
176.Klatskin tumor is located at:
- a. The junction of bile duct bb. Vater’s ampulla
- c. Bile duct d. Junction of cystic duct and bile duct
-
177.In which of the following conditin, cullen’s sign is seen:
- a. Blunt injury to abdomen b. Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis
- c. Acute appndicitis d. Acute cholecystitis
-
178.In multiple myeloma, hyponatremia is:
a. Relative b. Pseudo c. True d. Absolute
-
179.Not a feature of vanBuchem’s disease:
- a. Increased acid phosphate b. Facial palsy
- c. Overgrowth d. Distortion of mandible
-
180.Thyroid carcinoma which has best prognosis is:
a. Follicular b. Anaplastic c. Medullary d. Papillary
-
181.Characteristic feature of peyronie’s disease is:
a. Unpredictable history b. Pain on erection c. Bend on erection d. All are true
-
182.Peyronie’s disease affects the:
a. Breast b. Vagina c.Scrotum d. Penis
-
183. In bilateral adrenal hyerplasia, the treatmetn of choice is:
a. Follow up b. Pitutary irradiation c. Bilateral adrenalectomy d. Unilateral adrenalectomy
-
184.McBurney’s point is siteuated at:
- a. Umbilicus liver junction
- b. Junction of lateral 1/3rd and medial 2/3rd line
- c. Junction of lateral 2/3rd and medial 1/3rd line
- d. Middle of right spino-umbilical line
-
185.True regarding cancrum oris is:
- a. Pus accumulates in the floor of mouth b. Cheek carcinoma
- c. Localized Gngrene of check d. Multiple oral ulceration
-
186.Content of Richter’s hernia is;
a. Sigmoid colon b. Meckel’s diverticulum c. Bladder d.. Portion of intestine
-
187.In which of the following condition, very high level of alkaine phosphatase is seen;
- a. Tuberculous liver b. Metastatic liver carcinoma
- c. primary biliary cirrhosis d. All of the above
-
188.Most common site of anorectal abscess is:
a. Perianal b. Pelvirectal c. Submucous d. Ischiorectal
-
189.True regarding decubitus ulcer is:
a. Arterial ischemia b. Venous congestion c. Pressuree sores d. All of the above
-
190.Not seen in subacute thyroiditis:
a. Fever b. Increased radioiodine uptake c. Increased ESR d. Pain
-
191.Not seen in de Quervain’s thyroiditis:
a. Fever b. Increased radioiodine uptake c. Increased ESR d. Pain
-
192.Strangulation is most common with which hernia:
a. Inguinal b. Epigastric c. Obturator d. Femoral
-
193.In hernia en-glissade , the most common content is:
a. Omentum b.Urinary bladder c.Caecum d. Sigmoid colon
-
194.Most common hernia of abdominal wall is;
a. Femoral b. Umbilical c. Inguinal d. Ventral
-
195.Not an indication for liver transplantation;
a. Biliary atresia b. Alcoholic hepatitis c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Cirrhosis
-
196.In rectum most malignant polyp is;
a. Pseudopolyps b. Juvenile polyp c. Tubular polyp d. Vilous adenoma
-
197.Carcinoma seen in anal canal is:
- a. Basal cell carcinoma b. Transitional cell carcinoma
- c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Adenocarcinoma
-
198.Primary vesical calculus is seen with which of the following :
a. Infected urine b. Sterile urine c. Alkain urine d. Acidic urine
-
199.Ranula is:
- a. Retention cyst of sublingual gland
- b. Retention cyst of submandibular gland
- c. Extravasation cyst of sublingual glands
- d. Extravasation cyst of submandibular glands
-
200.In which of the following, ranula lies:
- a. Digastric triangle b. Supraclavicular region
- c. Tip of tongue d. Floor of mouth
-
201.Charateristic feature of wound healing by secondary intention is:
a. Soft line scar b. Hypertrophic scar c. Thick collagenous scar d. Wound gap
-
202.Lung abscess is most commonly caused by:
- a.Trauma b. Direct spread of liver
- c. Aspiration of infected material d. Hematogenous spread
-
203.Most common cause of surgical obstructive jaundice among the following is:
- a. Chronic cholecystitis b. Liver carcinoma
- c. Sclerosing cholangitis d. Common bile duct stone
-
204.Buccal mucosa carcinoma commonly drains to ehich of the following lymph node:
a. Cervical b. Jugulodigastric c. Submandibular d. Supraclavicular
-
205.Secondaries first go to which of the following organ in carcinoma of buccal mucosa;
a. Regional lymph nodes b. Lung c. Liver d. Brain
-
206.Cause of ureterocele is:
- a. Congeital atresia of ureteric orifice
- b. Ureters crossing behind the artery
- c. Renal calculus
- d. Congenital intramural malformation
-
207.False regarding horse shoe kidney is:
- a. Horseshoe kidney isnot a contraindication to pregnancy
- b. Urogram shows lower pole calyces on both sides being directed towards the midline
- c. Associated with nephrolithiasis
- d. Asymptomatic
-
208.Correct incidence of renal ectopia is:
a. 1 in 800 b. 1 in 1000 c. 1 in 10,000 d. 1 in 1,00,000
-
209.Most common congenital anomaly seen in upper renal tract is:
- a. Post-caval ureter b. Agencies of one of the kidneys
- c. Duplication of renal kidney d. Ectopic kidney
-
210.’Flower vase’ appearance in IVP is seen in;
a. Polycystic kidney disease b. Hydronephrosis c. Horseshoe kidney d. Ectopic kidney
-
211.Diverticulitis most commonly occurs at:
a. Sigmoid colon b. Splenic flexure c. Ascending colon d. Descending colon
-
212.A 75 year old male presented with massive bleeding per rectum. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Rectal polyposis b. Hemorrhoids c. Diverticulosis d. Colon carcinoma
-
213.Most common site of branchia cyst is:
- a. Lower 2/3rd of sternocleidomastoid b. Upper 2/3rd of sternocleidomastoid
- c. lower 1/3rd of sternocleidomastoid d. Upper 1/3rd of sternocleidomastoid
-
214. In branchial cyst, the external opening is situated at;
- a. Lateral pharyngeal wall b. Behind the tonsil
- c. lower 2/3rd of neck d. upper 1/3rd of neck
-
215.False regarding esophageal carcinoma is;
- a. Barrett’s esophagus predisposes to it
- b. Tobacco abuse is a predisposing factor
- c. Adenocarcinoma is the most common form worldwide
- d. Commonly involves middle third
-
216. Esophageal carcinoma most commonly occurs at:
a. Postcricoid region b. Lower third c. Middle third d. upper third
-
217. Gastrin levels are raised in:
- a. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome b. Pernicious anemia
- c. Gastric ulcer d. All of the above
-
218. Medical treatment of ZOllinger-Ellison syndrome is:
a. Cimetidine b. Renitidine c. Famotidine d. Omeprazole
-
219. Zollinger-Ellison sundrome is caused by tumor of;
- a. Non-beta islet cell tumors cells b. Beta cells
- c. Alpha Cells d.. PP cells
-
220. Treatment of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome type II is:
- a. Total gastroctomy with removal of tumor
- b. Partial gastrectomy
- c. Excision of tumor alone
- d. H2 receptor antagonists
-
221.Diarrhea in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is due to:
- a. Secretion of large amounts of HCI b. Secretin
- c. Pentagastrin d. Enterokinase
-
222. Not a charccteristic feature of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome :
- a. Massive increase in HCI in response to histamine injection
- b. Severe diarrhea
- c. Recurrent duodenal ulcer
- d. Multiple ulcers
-
223. In which of the following condition mustarde operation is done:
a. Blepharoplasty b. Mentoplasty c. Otoplasty d. Rhinoplasty
-
224.In surgery of hand the “ No man’s land” is :
- a. Wrist b. Between distal palmer crease and proximal interphalangeal joint
- c. Distal phalanx d. Proximal phalanx
-
225.In which of the following anchovy sauce pus is seen ;
- a. Pancreatic abscess b. Splenic abscess
- c. Amebic liver abscess d. Splenic abscess
-
226. Amebic abscess ruptures most commonly into:
a. Pleural cavity b. Peritoneal cavity c. Lumen of intestine d. Right lung
-
227. Not a feature of hypovolemic shock:
a. Oliguria b. Bradycardia c. Hypotension d. Acidosis
-
228. Feature which is most specific for shock is;
a. Serum LDH b. Oliguria c. Decreased blood pressure d. Tachycardia
-
229. Warthin’s tumor is:
- a. Malignant neoplasm b. Rapidly growing
- c. Gives a hot pertechnetate scan d. Cold pertechnetate scan
-
230. For warthin’s tumor is;
a. chemotherapy b. Radiotherapy c. Excision d. Partial parotidectomy
-
231. In which of the following condition, Heller’s operation is done:
a. Esophagus carcinoma b. Peptic ulcer c. Achalasia cardia d. Pyloric stenosis
-
232. Ainhum is construction ring appearing at;
a. Base of the toe b. Base of the finger c. Base of thumb d. Ankle joint
-
233. A 65 year old man presents with bleeing on initiation of micturition . most likely diagnosis is:
a. Bladder tumor b. Ureteric stone c. Urethral stone d. Benign prostone hypertrophy
-
234. Most common presenting symptom of carcinoma bladder is;
a. Frequency of micturition b. Hesitancy c. Hematuria d. Dysuria
-
235. X-ray should be taken in which of the following position, to know the position of opening in a congenital anorectal malformation:
a. Supine b. Upside down c. Anti-trendelenburg d. Trendelenburg
-
236. Invertogram should be done …. Hours after birth:
a. 6 b.4 c. 5 d. 1
-
237. prognosis depends upon which of the following, in soft tissue sarcoma:
- a. Therapeutic embolization b. Chemotherapy
- c. Radiotherapy d. Wide excision
-
238.Soft tissue sarcoma is ideally treated with:
a. Therapeutic embolization b. Chemotherapy c. Radiotherapy d. Wide excision
-
239. For gallstone, the investigation of choice is:
a. Cholecystography b. Plain X-ray c. CT scan d. Ultrasonography
-
240.Most common cause of amebic lung abscess is;
- a. Hematologic spread b. Aspiration of infected material
- c. Rupture of pericardial abscess d. Extension from liver abscess
-
241.Gallbladder fistula is seen with:
a. Stomach b. Colon c. Jejunum d. Duodenum
-
242.Not a tumor marker :
- a. Alpha fetoprotein b. Carcinoembryonic antigen
- c. HPL d. Human chorinic gonadotropin
-
243.most common cause of blood discharge from nipple is:
- a. Fibroadenoma b. Fibro-adenoma c. Ductal papiloma d. Ductul carcinoma
- 244.In which of the following condition, bleeding dischage of nipple is seen;
- a. Cystosarcoma phylloides b.chronic cystic mastitis
- c. Duct carcinoma d. Intraductal papilloma
-
245.Greenish discharge from nipple indicate;
a. Carcinoma b. Duct papilloma c. Duct carcinoma d. Fibroadenosis
-
246.Carcinoma of breast which has best prognosis is:
- a. Mastitis carcinomatosa b. Medullary carcinoma
- c. Infiltrating lobular d. Adenoid cyst
-
247.In flail chest with altered results of blood gas analysis, the treatment of choice is:
- a. Trendelenburg’s position b. Towel clip operation
- c. Tracheostomy d. IPPR
-
248.Which of the Following is the most direct complication of splenectomy:
a. Anemia b. Agranulocytosis c. Lymphoma d. Hemorrhage
-
249.Characteristic feature of tuberculosis pyelonephritis is;
- a. Alkaline pyuria with organism
- b. Alkaline sterile pyuria
- c. Acidic pyuria with organisms
- d. Acid sterile pyuria
-
250.Staghorn calculate is made up of:
a. Oxalate b. Phosphate c. Uric acid d. Cysteine
-
251.In which of the following condition, Rovsing’s sign is positive:
a. Acute cholecystitis b. Pancreatitis c. Acute appendicitis d. None of the above
-
252.Nevus with malignant potential is:
a. Intradermal nevus b. Junctional nevus c. Dermal nevus d. Compound nevus
-
253.In which of the following carcinoma of thyroid ‘psammoma bodies’ are seen:
a. Follicular b. Medullary c. Papillary d. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
-
254.Splenectomy is not done in :
- a. Thalassemia major b. Hereditary spherocytosis
- c. Sickle cell anemia d. Chronic ITP
-
255.Treatment of nonremitting acute cholecystitis is :
- a. Antibiotics b. IV vancomycin
- c. Cholecystectomy with common bile duct exploration d. Observation
-
256.Not a complication of total thyroidectomy :
- a. Hypercalcemia b. Hoarseness of voice
- c. Hemorrhage d. Hypocalcemia
-
257.Most common route of infection in kidney tuberculosis is:
a. Direct invasion b. Lymphatic spread c. Hematogenous spread d. Ascending spread
-
258.In renal tuberculosis, earliest manifestation is:
a. Mass b. Pyuria c. Painless hematuria d. Frequency
-
259.Solitary nodule in thyroid is most commonly caused by:
a. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis b. adenoma c. Carcinoma d. Adenomatous goiter
-
260.Solitary nodule in thyroid is most commonly seen in:
- a. Hurthle cell tumor b. Follicular carcinoma
- c. Follicular adenoma d. Papillary carcinoma
-
261.A young woman with solitary toxic thyroid nodule should be treated with:
a. Iodine salt b. Surgery c. Radioiodine d. Anti-thyroid drug
-
262.In acute cholescystitis diagnostic method of choice is:
- a. Operative Cholangiography b. Radionuclide scan
- c. ERCP d. Oral cholescystography
-
263.Cause of pyogenic liver abscess is:
a. Septicemia b. Trauma c. Hematogenous d. Ascending infection
-
264.Pyogenic liver abscess is most commonly cause by:
a. hematogenous b. Latrogenic c. Ascending cholengitis d. Crytogenic
-
265.In villious adenoma of rectum which of the following is seen :
a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypochloremic alkalosis d. Hyponatremia
-
266.Not seen in villous adenoma:
a. Bleeding b. Profuse watery diarrhea c. Hypoproteinemia d. Hyperkalemia
-
267.Which of the following is true regarding branchial fistula;
- a. It opens near tonsil b. Excision by single transverse incision
- c. Midline in position d. Third cleft defect
-
268.A neonate presented with scaphoid abdomen and respiratory distress. The diagnosis is:
- a. Wilms; tumor b. Volvulus neonatorum
- c. Diaphragmatic hernia d. Congenitaal pyloric stenosis
-
269.All are false regarding diaphragmatic hernia except:
- a. Early vomiting b. Chest X-ray is not diagnostic
- c. Pulmonary hypoplasia is seen d. More common in right side
- 270.A 9 year old infant presented with features of intestinal obstruction. On barium enema, the diagnosis was confirmed to be intussusceptions. Most likely cause is:
- a. Lipoma b. Mucosal polyp c. Hypertrophic peyer’s patch d. Meckel’s diverticulum
-
271. Intussusception is most commonly of… type:
a. Ileo- ileo- colic b. Colocolic c. Ileoileal d. Ileocolic
-
272.Most common cause of nonhealing ulcer over medial malleolus is:
a. Buerger’s disease b. Venous stasis c. Tropical ulcer d. Diabetes
-
273.Most common site of venous ulcer is:
a. Toes b. Instep of foot b. lower 2/3rd of leg d. lower 1/3rd of leg and ankle
-
274. Burns involving head, face, and trunk constitutes how much percentage:
a. 45% b. 55% c. 60% d. 65%
-
275.Calculate the burn involving front of chest and abdomen :
a. 36.5% b. 18% c. 27% d.50%
-
276.Burn of head and neck accounts for… in adult;
a. 11% b. 18% c. 09% d. 13.5%
-
277. Rule of nine to estimate surface area of a burnt patient was introduced by:
a. Mortiz Kaposi b. Alexander Wallace c. Joseph Lister d. Thomas Barclay
-
278.Most common primary liver tumor among the following is:
a. Neurofibroma b. Hemangioma c. Lipoma d. Hamrtoma
-
279.Spread through blood does not occur in:
- a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Hepatocellular carcinoma
- c. Osteosarcoma d. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
-
280.Metastasis to bone is not seen in:
- a. Cystosarcoma phylloides b. Bronchogenic carcinoma
- c. Thyroid carcinoma d. Breast carcinoma
-
281.In which of the following carcinoma bone metastasis is not common:
a. Prostate b. Testis c. Breast d. Lung
-
282.Covering over an omphalocele is:
a. Skin b. Amniotic membrane c. Chorionic membrane d. None
-
283. All are false regarding umbilical hernia (omphalocele major) except:
- a. Incidence is 1:4000 b. Occurs due to failure of part of midgut to return to the coelom
- c. Spontaneous closure is seen d. Common in premature births
-
284.Most common pancreatic malignancy is:
- a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Adenosquamous carcinoma
- c. Insulinoma d. Ductal adenocarcinoma
-
285.Tmoxifen is used in treatment of carcinoma of:
a. Breast b. Lung c. Prostate d. Testis
-
286.CAsoni’s intradermal test is positive in … % of cases of hydatid disease:
a. 75 b. 25 c. 50 d. 85
-
287.In children most common bladder tumor is:
a. Rhabdomyosarcoma b. Hemangioma c. Adenoma d. Papilloma
-
288.Most common malignancy of oral cavity is:
- a. Columnar cell carcinoma b. Transitional cell carcinoma
- c. Squamous cell carcinoma d.Adenocarcinoma
-
289.Malignant transformation is most common in;
a. postbulbar ulcer b. Stromal ulcer c. Gastric ulcer d. Chronic duodenal ulcer
-
290.In hemolytic anemia, gallstones are;
a. Oxalate stone b. Mixed stone c. Cholesterol stone d. Pigment stone
-
291.In keloid, best treatment is;
- a. Wide excision b. Wide excision and radiotherapy
- c. Intralesional steroid d. Intralesional excision
-
292.True regarding keloid is;
- a. Common in old people b. Continues to get worse even after 1 year
- c. Appears few days after surgery d. Appears immediately after surgery
-
293. What percent of patients with perforated peptic ulcer will show free gas under the diaphragm;
a. 100 b. 70 c. 50 d. 90
-
294.In peptic ulcer perforation the investigation of choice is;
a. Ct scan b. Ultrasonography c. X-ray abdomen d. Paracentesis
-
295. not a treatment modality of carcinoma prostate:
a. Flutamide b. Leuprolide c. Bicalutamide d. Somatostain analogue
-
296.patients with neurofibromatosis are not prone to;
a. Meningioma b. Schwannoma c. Retinoblastoma d. Gliomas
-
297.Sigmoidoscope finding in acute diverticulitis of colon is:
- a. Sigmoidoscope cannot pass beyond 15cm b. Saw-tooth appearance
- c. Minute diverticula are seen d. Mucosa is inflamed
-
298.Thyroglossal cyst is most common at:
- a. Floor of mouth b. Beneath the foramen caecum
- c. Suphyoid d. Suprahyoid
-
299.Swelling which moves the movement of tongue is…. Cyst;
- a. Branchial cyst b. Thyroglossal cyst
- c. Dermoid cyst d. Thyroid cyst
-
300. In which of the following disease, rhagades is seen ;
- a. Congenital syphilis b. Toxoplasmosis
- c. Herpes simplex d. Secondary syphilis
-
301. In which of the following condition, infant has dome shaped skull with high forehead and “Olympian brow”:
a. Arnoid-chiari syndrome b. Rickets c. Congenital syphilis d. Marasmus
-
302.Moon’s molar is seen in:
a. Syphilis b. Leprosy c. Amyloidosis d. Actinomycosis
-
303. Secondaries in neck with no obvious primary malignancy are most often due to carcinoma of:
a. Thyroid b. Nasopharynx c. Larynx d. Stomach
-
304.Gasless abdomen in X-ray is a sign of:
a. Gastroentritis b. Normal finding c. Pancreatitis d. All of the above
-
305. Association of carcinom agallbladder with gallstones is about:
a. 50% b. 70% c. 90% d. 20%
-
306. Earliest manifestation of upper limb ischemia is:
a. Rest pain b. Gangrene of fingers c. Caludication d. Pain in the passive hyperextension of finger
-
307.Furnier’s gangrene occurs in the :
a. Toes b. Scrotum c. Fingers d. Muscles
-
308. Paget’s disease of nipple should be treated with:
a. Irradiation b. Mastectomy c. 5 FU d. Antibiotic cream
-
309.Definitive operation for transposition of great vessels was:
- a. Rashkind procedure b. Mustard’s procedure
- c. Aortic pulmonary window d. Tausig blalock procedure
-
310.Not a feature of bulbar urethra injury :
a. Fracture of pelvic b. Retention of urine c. Urethral hemorrhage d. Perineal hemantoma
-
311. Deficiency of which of the following element is not seen with hyperalimentation :
a. Magnesium b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Phosphate
-
312.Tietze’s syndrome usually develops at which of the following costal cartilage:
a. 2nd b. 6th c. 8th d. 4th
-
313.Virchow’s ;ymph nodes are:
a. mediastinal b. Axillary c. right supraclavicular d. Left supraclavicular
-
314. In which of the following condition, “ strawberry gallbladdr” is seen:
a. Cholesterolosis b. Adenomyomatosis c. Porcelain gallbladder d. Gangrene of gallbladdr
-
315. Brust abdomen most commonly occurs on the:
a. 2nd day b. 5th day c. 7th day d. 9th day
-
316. Milroy’s disease is:
- a. Edema due to filariasis b. Postcellulitis lymphedema
- c. Congenital lymphedema d. Lymphedema following surgery
-
317.Nerve commonly affected by plexiform neurofibromatosis is:
a. Glossopharyngeal b. Peripheral c. Trigeminal d. Facial
-
318. False regarding plummer-vinson syndrome is:
- a. Webs are common in lower esophagus
- b. Common in iron deficiency anemia
- c. Esophagus is involved
- d. Increased tendency to postcricoid cancer
-
319.Most common site of tongue carcinoma is:
- a. Posterior 1/3rd b. Tip
- c. Lateral border of anterior 2/3rrd d. Dorsal border of anterior 2/3rd
-
320.In sarcoidosis th edrug of choice is:
a. Cyclosporine b. Presnisolone c. Methotrexate d. Cyclophosphamide
-
321. In silent gallbladder stones the treatment of choice is:
a. Lithotripsy b. Observation c. Chenodeoxycholic acid d. Cholecystectomy
-
322.A 25- year old man nandu presented with a mass in right iliac fossa. Laparotomy revealed a carcinoid of 2.5 cm diameterr. Next step in management should be:
a. Appebdectomy b. Segmental resection c. Right hamicolectomy d. Yearly 5 HIAA
-
323.Surgery for carcinoid of appendix less than 2 cm not involving the lymph nodes or cecal wall:
- a. Right hemicolectomy b. Appendicetomy
- c. Limited resection of right colon d. Right hemicolectomy with 6 inches of the nodes or ileum also
-
324. Treatment of choice for a patient with appendicular carcinoid of 2.5 cm is:
- a. a. Right hemicolectomy b. Appendectomy with yearly CT scan
- c. Appendectomy with 24 hours urinary HIAA d. Appendectomy
-
325. Most common site of calculus formation in salivary gland is:
a. Palatal gland b. Sublingual gland c. Submandibular gland d. parotid gland
-
326. Submandibular salivary gland duct calculi should be treated with:
- a. Excision of gland and duct b. Opening the duct and removal of calculus
- c. Opening the duct at frenulum d. Excision of submandibular gland
-
327. Splenectomy should be done in:
- a. Hereditary spherocytosis b. Megaloblastic anemia
- c. Sickle cell anemia d. Typhoid
-
328. Most common site for splenunculi is:
a. Greater omentum b. Lesser omentum c.Hilum d. Tail of pancreas
-
329. In a patient fracture of 10-12th ribs, the cause of hypotension is:
a.Intercostal artery damage b. Aortic damage c. pulmonary contusion d. Abdominal viscera injury
-
330. Not a radiological sign of splenic rupture :
- a. Elecated left dome of diaphragm b. Obliterration of splenic shadow
- c. Obliteration of psoas shadow d. Upper rib fracture
-
331. False regarding malignant melanoma is:
- a. Most common type is superficial spreading melanoma
- b. Stage IIB has satellite deposits
- c. Acral –lentiginous melanoma has good prognosis
- d. Lentigo maliga melanoma is least common
-
332. Which of the following is the most severe from of malignant melanoma:
- a. Those in choroid b. Those arising in lower limb
- c. Nodular infiltrating type d. Superficially spreading
-
333. Not used in graduation of coma in Glasgow coma scale:
a. Bladder function b. Verbal response c. Motor response d. Eye opening
-
334. Which of the following is not removed in radical neck dissection:
- a. Inferior phrenic nerve b. Submandibular gland
- c. Internal jugular d. Sternocleiddomastoid muscle
-
335. A 20 year old man has pain in eopigastrium radiating to the back for 7 hours with nausea and vomiting . he has been to a party on the previous night with similar episodes previously . most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Acute diverticulitis b. Acute pancreatitis
- c. Acute appendicitis d. Acute cholecystitis
-
336. postsplenectomy infection is most commonly caused by:
- a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Pseudimonas
- c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Streptococcus pneumonia
-
337. A 30 year old farmer who is a chronic smoker develops gangrene of foot. Most common cause of this is:
- a. MI b. Thromboangitis obliterans
- c. Atherosclerosis d. Raynaud’s disease
-
338.Which of the following is spared in radical mastectomy:
- a. Supraclavicular lymph node b. Axillary lymph nodes
- c. Pectoralis major d. Pectoralis minor
-
339. False regarding cholelithiasis is:
- a. USG is useful in diagnosis
- b. Mixed stones account for 90% of all gallstones
- c. Common in male aged between 30-50 years
- d. Cause carcinoma gallbladder
-
340. Not a cause of cholanglocarcinoma ;
- a. Primary sclerosing cholangitis b. Ulcerative colitis
- c. Clonorchis sinesis d. Common bile duct stone
-
341. Most common type of gallstone is;
a. Combined b. Mixed c. Pure cholesterol d. Pigment
-
342.ureterosignoidostomy leads to which of the following condition:
- a. Hyperchloremic alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis
- c. Hypochloremic acidosis d. Hyperchloremic acidosis
-
343. Biochemicla change not associated with urinary diversion:
a. Hypochloremia b. Acidosis c. Uremia d. Hypokalemia
-
344. Varicose veins are most commonly seen in:
- a. Obturator vein b. Innominate vein
- c. Long saphenous veins d. .Facial vein
-
345.Epulis arises from:
a. Mucous membrane b. Gums c. Enamel d. Root of teeth
-
346. kaposi’s sarcoma is seen in:
a. Leukemia b. Lymphoma c. AIDS d. Cytomegalovirus infections
-
347. Budd-chiari syndrome can be caused by:
a. Thrombosis of hepatic veins b. Polycythemia c. Drinking herbal tea d. All of the above
-
348. Budd-chiari syndrome the occlusion is at the:
a. IVC b. Renal vein c. Hepatic vein d. Splenic vein
-
349. In neonates, most common cause of acute intestinal obstruction is:
a. Volvulus of midgut b. Acute intussuscception c. Jejunal atresia d. Duodenal atresia
-
350.Most common site of metastasis of Wilm’s tumor is:
a. Brain b. Lung c. Bones d. Liver
-
351. All are false regarding Wilm’s tumor except:
- a. Unilateral is common b. Very commonly metastasis to liver
- c. Bone metastasis d. Worst prognosis among infants
-
352.Good prognosis in wilms’ tumor is seen in:
a. 2-5 years b. <1 year c. Male child d. Female child
-
353.Triad of Wilms’ tumor does not include:
a. Gematuria b. Mass abdomen c. Pain d. Fever
-
354.False regarding Wilm’s tumor:
- a. Preoperative use of actinomycin D b. postoperative radiotherapy
- c. Good prognosis in infants d. Neuroblastoma is the most common differential diagnosis
-
355. Which among the following is the most common tumor of posterior cranial fossa:
a. Oligodebdroglioma b. Meningioma c. Medulloblastoma d. Glioma
-
356.Which of the following should be done in a patient of pelvis fracture with perineal hematoma and inability to pass urine:
- a. Rectal examination b. Intraurethral catheterization
- c. IVP d. IV fluid
-
357. Hemangioma which resolves spontaneously is:
a. Plexiform angioma b. Cavernous angioma c. port wine stain d. Strawberry angioma
-
358. Most common site of primary of Krukenberg’s tumor is:
a. Breast b. Colon c. Stomach d. Small intestine
-
359. Acanthosis nigricans is commonly seen in:
a. Carcinoma breast b. Carcinoma thyroid c. Carcinoma stomach d. Carcinoma cervix
-
360.Ischemic colitis most commonly occurs at:
a. Anterior flexure b. Transverse flexure c. Splenic flexure d. Hepatic flexure
-
361. “Thumb printing” sign is seen in:
a.ulcerative colitis b. Ischemic colitis c. Crohn’s disease d. Toxic megacolon
-
362. Which is a non- absorbable a suture:
a. polypropylene b. Catgut c. Vicryl d. Collagen
-
363. In vascular surgery the suture used is:
a./ Dexon b. Polypropylene c. Catgut d. Vicryl
-
364. “skip lesion” is seen in which of the following condition;
a. Crohn’s disease b. Ulcerative colitis c. Hodgkin’s disease d. Sarcoidosis
-
365. In which of the following condition, “string” sign of kantor is seen:
- a. Carcinoid syndrome b. Regional ileitis(enteritis)
- c. Ulcerative colitis d. Ileocecal tuberculosis
-
366. “Thimble bladder” is seen in :
a. Acute tuberculosis b. Schistosomiasis c. Neurogenic bladder d. Chronic tuberculosis
-
367.In which of the following condition, calcificatin of prostate is seen :
a. Alkatonuria b. Osteogenesis imperfecta c. Maple syrup urine disease d. Phenylketonuria
-
368.In which of the following condition,”motheaten alopecia” is seen:
a. Cylindroma b. Fungal infection c. Syphilis d. Leprosy
-
369.EBV infection is usually associated with all of the following diseases except:
- a. Burkitt’s lmphoma b. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
- c. T-cell lymphoma d. infectious mononucleosis
-
370.Not a cause of hypophosphatemic syndrome :
a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Respiratory insufficiency c. Cardiomyopathy d. Rhabdomyolysis
-
371. Dentigerous cyst arises from:
- a. An unerupted tooth b. Apex of an infected tooth
- c. Nasopalatine cysts d. Solitary bone cyst
-
372. Most common form of actinomycosis is:
a. Faciocervical b. Thoracic c. Right iliac fossa d. Liver
-
373. The period duct is also known as:
a. Wharton’s duct b. Stensen’s duct c. Duct of Santorini d. Duct of Wirsung
-
374. Not a feature of emphysematous cholecystitis:
- a. Clostridium welchii is the infecting organism
- b. Elderly male patients
- c. Diabetic patients
- d. Good prognosis
-
375. Rectal polyps most commonly presents as:
a. Changes into malignancy b. Infection c. Bleeding d. Obstruction
-
376. In children most common cause of fresh blood in stools is:
a. Carcinoma colon b. Intussusception c. Rectal polyp d. Ulcerative colitis
-
377. Extradural hemorrhage is managed with:
a. Observation b. Antibiotics c. Evacuation after 24 hours d. Immediate evacuation
-
378.In which of the following condition, immediate surgery is indicated:
a. Brain laceration b. Intracerebral c. Extradural d. Subdural
-
379.After head injury a patient becomes temporarily unconscious, regains consciousness and then passes into deep coma. Most probable diagnosis is:
a. Fracture of skill base b. intracerebral hemorrhage c. Extradural hemorrhage d. Subdural hemorrhage
-
380. Tamoxifen is used for which of the following breast cancer:
- a. Presence of bone metastasis b. Presence of lymph node
- c. Estrogen receptor positive tumor d. Premenopausal women
-
381. Most common intraabdominal tumor in children under 2 years of age is:
a. Lymphoma b. Hepatoblastoma c. Neuroblastoma d. Wilms’ tumor
-
382. In which of the following condition, Blalock-Tausing shunt is used:
a. VSD b. PDA c. TOF d. TAPVC
-
383. Uncinate epilepsy is seen in tumors of…lobe:
a. Occipital b. Temporal c. Parietal d. Frontal
-
384. In which of the following condition, rectal examination should not be done:
a. Anal stenosis b. Prolapsed piles with bleeding c. Fistula in ano d. Anal fissure
-
385. In which of the following condition,intractable peptic ulceration wit renal stones is seen :
- a. MEN I syndrome b. Milk alkali syndrome
- c. Parathyroid adenoma d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
-
386.False regarding pyonephrosis is;
- a. It is bilateral b. It may follow renal calculi
- c. It follows acute pyelonephritis d. It is a complication of hydronephrosis
-
387.In which of the following condition, subcapsular nephrectomy is indicated:
- a. Solitary adenocarcinoma b. pyonephrosis
- c. Hydronephrosis d. Perinephric abscess
-
388.not a predisposing factor for carcinoma bladder;
- a. Tuberculosis cystitis b. Schistosoma hemantobium
- c. Aniline dyes d. Cyclophosphamide
-
389.Intra peritoneal abscess most commonly occurs at:
a. Pelvic b. Paracolic c. Subphrenic d. Subhepatic
-
390.In acute lymphangitis , treatment of choice is:
a. Penicillin b. Cephalexin c. Septran d. Erythromycin
-
391. False regarding aberrant renal artery is:
- a. More common on left side b. Cannot be divided with impunity
- c. Bilateral d. They are functional end arteries
-
392. In which of the following condition hour glass deformity of stomach is seen:
a. Corrosive stricture b. Gastric lymphoma c. Gastric ulcer d. Gastric carcinoma
-
393.Foley’s catheter is numbered:
- a. According to radius b. According to circumference
- c. According to inner diameter d. According to outer diameter
-
394. Which of the following is the most common cause of cervical lymph node enlargement:
a. Carcinoma thyroid b. Glottic carcinoma c. Carcinoma tongue d. Subglottic carcinoma
-
395. Not a criterion for determining the prognosis of acute pancreatitis:
a. Increased LDH>400IU b. Hypercalcemia c. Leukocytosis .16,000 d. Hypoxemia
-
396.Most common site of appendix is:
a. postileal b. Paracecal c. Preileal d. Retrocecal
-
397.Not included in the triad of sign of ruptured bulbar urethra:
a. pelvic fracture b. Retention of urine c. Perineal hemantoma d. Urethral hemorrhage
-
398.Rhytidectomy operation involves;
- a. Correction of nasal defect b. Removal of wrinkles in forehead
- c. Straightening of curved penis d. Correction of protruding lips
-
399.Stippled calcification of the adrenals is seen in:
a. Tay-Sach’s disease b. Gaucher’s disease c. Fabry’s disease d. Wolman’s disease
-
400. Enthesopathy is characteristic of ;
- a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Ankylosing apondylitis
- c. Tuberculous arthritis d. Osteoarthritis
-
401.in which of the following metastasis to bone generally does not occur:
- a. Carcinoma breast b. Carcinoma thyroid
- c. carcinoma rectum d. Renal cell carcinoma
-
402. Early step in treatment of gas gangrene is:
a. Corticosteroid b. Hypobaric oxygen c. Debridement d. Prophylactic immunization
-
403. open treatment is useful in burns of:
a. Hands b. Chest c. Face and neck d. Legs
-
404.In which of the following carcinoma of thyroid metastasis to bone occurs;
a. Medullary b. Hurthle cell tumor c. Papillary d. Follicular
-
405. Benign stricture in common bile duct is most commonly caused by:
a. Stones b. Malignancy c. Postoperative d.Cholangitis
-
406.Femoral hernia is differentiated from inguinal hernia by which of the following :
- a. Mid inguinal ligament b. Inferior epigastric artery
- c. Femoral artery d. Pubic tubercle
-
407.Femoral hernia is comparison to pubic tubercle is;
a. Inferolateral b.inferomedial c. Superomedial d. Superolateral
-
408.False regarding denete line in anal canal is:
- a. Haustral folds one cm below b. Anal mucous glands open
- c. 2cm from anal verge d. Transitional epithelium above line
-
409.Most common site of lymphoma of GI tract is:
a. Ileum b. Colon c. Stomach d. Duodenum
-
410.premalignant lesion of gallbladder is;
- a. Minamata disease b. Cholecystitis glandular proliferation
- c. Acalculus cholecystitis d. Porcelain gallbladder
-
411. Courvoisier’s law is related to:
- a. Portal hypertension b. Length of skin flap in skin grafting
- c. Ureteric calculi d. Jaundice
-
412.Carcinoma of which of the following has best prognosis:
a. Cheek b. Tongue c. Lip d. Esophagus
-
413.Reactionary hemorrhage occurs after… hours;
a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. within 24 hours d. after 7 days
-
414.injury to which of the following nerve during parotid swelling results in Frey’s syndrome:
a. Buccal nerve b. MAndibular nerve c. Great auricular nerve d. Aurilotemporal nerve
-
415. Frey’s syndrome constitutes;
- a. pain over distributin of auriculotemporal region during meal
- b. Redness and sweating over the auriculotemporal region during meal
- c. Hyperhidrosis, enophthalmos and miosis
- d. Anhidrosis, enophthalmos and miosis
-
416.A 65 year old man has low back pain and retention of urine. Best investigation modality for this condition is;
a. USG b. Alkaline phosphatase c. Serum calcium d. Acid phosphatase
-
417.Secretomotor fiber to parotid gland is via which of the following nerve:
a. Maxillary b. Trigeminal c. Auriculotemporal d. Facial
-
418.in pyriform sinus, a malignant tumor;
- a. Causes pain in hand b. causes pain in hip
- c. Often presents first as an enlarged lymph node behind the angle of jaw
- d. Commonly presents with pain in area concerned
-
419.Whipple’s triad is seen in which of the following condition;
a. Carcinoma pancreas b. Somatostatinoma c. Insulinoma d. Glucagonoma
-
420.Whipple’s triad in insulinoma includes;
- a. Hypoglycemia below 45mg%
- b. An attack of hypoglycemia in fasting stage
- c. Symptoms relieved by glucose
- d. all of the above
-
421.Most common quadrant site breast carcinoma is:
a. Lower inner b. Lower outer c. upper inner d. Upper outer
-
422. Which of the following is not a premalignant ulcer;
- a. Radiodermatitis b. Marjolin’s ulcer c. Bazin’s disease d. Paget’s disease of nipple
- 423.Correct daily replacement dose of thyroxine in an adult is;
- a. 1-2 mg b. 0.1-0.2 mg c. 4-5 mg d. 6-7mg
-
424.Witzelsucht syndrome(pathological joking) is seen in:
a. Frontal lobe tumors b. Parietal lobe tumors c. Temporal lobe tumors d. IV ventricular tumor
-
425.Treatment of choice of umbilical adenoma in a newborn is:
a. Occlusion with a coin b. Ligature c. Surgery d. Cyst of epididyml
-
426. Posterior urethral valves are most commonly situated:
- a. Above verumontanum b. At verumontanum
- c. Below verumontanum d. Bladder neck
-
427. Most common benign tumor of stomach is;
a. Adenoma b. Lipoma c. Hamartoma d. Leiomyoma
-
428. Idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis involves first:
a. Ureter b. Kidney c. Stomach d. Duodenum
-
429.Ormond’s disease is;
- a. Idiopathic lymphadenopathy b. Retractile testis
- c. Retroperitoneal fibrosis d. Idiopathic mediastinitis
-
430.Lateral aberrant thyroid is;
- a. Metastatic carcinoma b. Anatomic abnormality
- c. Lingual thyroid d. Developmental abnormality
-
431.In which of the following condition, widening of duodenal C loop is seen ;
- a. Carcinoma head of pancreas b. Peri-ampullary carcinoma
- c. Chronic pancreatitis d. All of the above
-
432.At which of the following site, the wound healing is worst :
a. Sternum b. Lips c. Eyelid d. Anterior neck
-
433. Which of the following salivary gland tumors shows perineural spread ;
- a. Warthin’s tumor b. Adenocystic carcinoma
- c. Carcinoma in pleomorphic adenoma d. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
-
434.Most common route of spread of follicular carcinoma of thyroid is:
- a. Perineural invasion b. hematogenous spread
- c. Lymphatic spread d. Local invasion
-
435.Morhahni hernia is;
- a. Hernia through inguinal canal
- b. Hernia through the lumbar triangle
- c. Hernia between the costal and sterna part of diaphragm
- d. Hernia through the foramen of morgagni
-
436. marlon’s disease occurs due to;
- a. Obstruction to the neck of bladder
- b. Fibrosis of the neck of bladder
- c. Vesicular diverticula
- d. Vesicular calculi
-
437.Bile is concentrated in Gallbladder to;
a. 52 times b. 10 times c. 20 times d. 50 times
-
438.Felon is:
- a. Mid palmar space infection b. Terminal pulp space infection
- c. Infection of ulnar bursa d. Ulnar bursa infection
-
439.Most common infection of the hand is:
- a. Acute paronychia b. Web space infection
- c. Palmar abscess d. Felon
-
440.Workers of dye industry are prone to:
a. Carcinoma liver b. Carcinoma urinary bladder c. Carcinoma lung d. Carcinoma kidney
-
441. Oliguria is defined as…ml urine/2 hours;
a. 600 b. 500 c. 300 d. 200
-
442. Dercum’s disease is most common in;
a. Face b. Arm c. Back d. Knee
-
443. Most common form of anthrax is;
a. Wool sorter’s disease b. Alimentary type c. Cutaneous type d. None
-
444. Nerve lying close to Wharton’s duct is;
a. Hypoglossal b. Alveolar c. Facial d. Lingual
-
445. True regarding von Graefe’s sign:
- a. Lagging behind of the upper eyelid
- b. Retraction of the upper eyelid with infrequent wrinking
- c. Absence of wrinking of the fore head
- d. Convergence of the eyes is difficult
-
446. Carotid sheath does not contain:
- a. Carotid artery b. Internal jugular vein
- c. Vagus nerve d. Phrenic nerve
-
447. Musculoskeletal abnormality in neurofibromatosis is:
a. pseodoarthrosis b. Scoliosis c. Café au lait spots d. All of the above
-
448. Term ‘universal tumor’ refers to:
a. Adenoma b. Papilloma c. Fibroma d. Lipoma
-
449. Percentage of renal stones which are radiopaque is;
a. 10 b. 90 c. 37 d. 25
-
450.Delhi boil is caused by;
a. Bilharzias b. Schistosoma mansoni c. Leishmania tropica d. Leishmania donovani
-
451.Vincent’s angina affects;
a. Pharynx b. Heart c. Gums d. Larynx
-
452. Hepatocellular carcinoma is a complication of:
a. Hemochromatosis b. Aflatoxina c. Hepatitis A d. Hepatitis B
-
453. Ulceration of peyer’s patches is seen in;
a. Amebiasis b. Crohn’s disease c. Calmonella infection d. Clostridium difficile
-
454. Sjogren’s syndrome is associated with:
- a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Systemic lupus erythematosus
- c. Scleroderma d. All of the above
-
455. Raised serum alkaline phosphatase indicates:
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Paget’s disease c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Hemolytic jaundice
-
456. Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with bladder cancer is;
a. peripheral neuritis b. Sclerosing cholamgitis c. Hypercalcemia d. Cushing’s disease
-
457. Pseudolymphoma is seen in:
a. PSS b. Sjogren syndrome c. MCTD d. Behcet’s syndrome
-
458. Which of the following has got malignant potential :
- a. Which of the following has got malignant potential :
- a. Turcot’s syndrome b. Gardner’s syndrome c. Familial polyposis d. All of the above
-
459.Leukoencephalopathy is seen with use of:
a. 5-FU b. Methotrexate c. Vincristine d. Cyclophosphamide
-
460.Ochsner-sherren regimen is used in management of;
a. Appendicular abscess b. Chronic appendicitis c. Appendicular mass d. Acute appendicitis
-
461. Bisgaard regimen is used for treatment of:
a. Venous ulcer b. Arterial ulcer c. Both d. None
-
462. Triad of renal colic, swelling in loin which disappears after micturition is;
a. Dietl’s crisis b. Saint’s triad c. Kohler’s triad d. Charcot’s triad
-
463.Dietl’s crisis is seen in:
a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Hydronephrosis c. Pyonephrosis d. Liver abscess
-
464. In pediatric age group, jejuna biopsy is diagnostic for:
a. Giardiasis . Abetalipoproteinemia c.Tropical sprue d. Celiac disease
-
465. True regarding Milroy’s disease is:
a. Congenital b. Follows filariasis c. Follows erysipelas d. Sequel to white leg
-
466.Troisle’s sign is;
- a. Right supraclavicular lymph node enlargement
- b. Left supraclavicular lymph node enlargement
- c. Carpopedal spasm
- d. Migrating thrombophlebitis
-
467.In which of the following brain tumor, metastasis outside the brain occurs:
a. Hemangioblastoma b. Medulloblastoma c. Craniopharyngioma d. Glioblastoma
-
468.Troisier’s sign is not seen in:
a. Liposarcoma b. Stomach carcinoma c. Bronchus carcinoma d. Pancreatic carcinoma
-
469.Cushing syndrome may occur in:
a. Wilms’ tumor b. Bronchogenic carcinoma c. Breast carcinoma d. Thyroid carcinoma
-
470.In which of the following condition “ lemon on match sticks” like contour is seen:
a. Wilms’ tumor b. Ganglinoneuroma c. pheochromocytoma d. Cushing syndrome
-
471. Most common site of obstruction in gallstone is:
a. Transverse colon b. Ileocecal valve c. proximal ileum d. Distal ileum
-
472.Which of the following is the most common site of gallstone impaction:
- a. Colon b. Distal to ileocecal junction
- c. Proximal to ileocecal junction d. Duodeno-jejunal junction
-
473.Cause of acute mesenteric lymphadenitis is:
a. Escherichia coli b. Virus c. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis d. alpha hemolytic streptococci
-
474.For acute cholecystitis, the chemical mediator is:
- a. Cholic acid b. Cholesterol c. Bilirubin d. Lysolecithin
- 475.Bilious vomiting in an infant may be due to:
- a. Malrotation gut b. Atresia of 3rd part of duodenum
- c. Esophageal atresia d. Pyloric stenosis
-
476.True regarding mondor’s disease is;
- a. Filariasis of breast b. Premalignant condition of breast
- c. Breast carcinoma d. Thrombosis of breast vein
-
477.A child presents with proptosis, multiple skeletal limb secondaries and sutural separation. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Retinoblastoma b. Neuroblastoma c. Medulloblastoma d. None of the above
-
478.Medullary carcinoma of thyroid may manifest as;
a. Flushing b. Diarrhea c. Dysphagia d. Hoarseness of voice
-
479.Most common tumor of urinary bladder is:
- a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Transitional cell carcinoma
- c. Adenocarcinoma d. Papilloma
-
480.Wound healing is not impaired by;
a. Hypoproteinemia b. Jaundice c. Deficiency of vitamin B complex d. Malignancy
-
481. Which of the following is common in intradural extramedullary location;
a. Neurofibroma b. Astrocytoma c. Metastasis d. Ependymoma
-
482. Which of the following metastatic tumor does not cause compression of spinal cord:
a. Meningioma b. lymphoma c. Breast carcinoma d. lung carcinoma
-
483. Lithogenic bile has:
- a. Decreased cholesterol and bile salt ratio
- b. Decreased cholesterol ratio only
- c. Decreased bile salt and cholesterol ratio
- d. Equal bile salt and cholesterol ratio
-
484.Battle’s sign indicates:
- a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Posterior cranial fossa hemorrhage
- c. Middle cranial fossa hemorrhage d. Anterior cranial fossa hemorrhage
-
485. Spigelian hernia is seen in which of the following region:
a. Supraumbilical b. Subumbilical c. Paraumbilical d. Lumbar triangle
-
486.True regarding spigelian hernia is:
- a. Through femoral ring b. Through obturator triangle
- c. Lateral border of obturator internus d. lateral border of rectus abdominis
-
487.in which of the following condition, splenectomy ismost successful:
- a. Aplastic anemia b. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
- c. Chronic myeloid leukemia d. Hereditary spherocytosis
-
488.After severe trauma, response to intravenous fluid is best monitored by:
a. Hemoglobin estimation b. CVP c. pulse d. Packed cell volume
-
489.In treatment of shock which of the following parameter is used:
a. Reflex b. Eye opening c. CVP d. Urine out put
-
490.Treatment of choice for carcinoma peritonei is:
- a. Radioactive gold b. Radioactive silver
- c. Radioactive uranium d. Radioactive phosphorus
-
491.Ideal treatment for large carcinoma of anal canal is:
- a.Chemotheraphy alone b. Chemotheraphy and radiotherapy
- c. Abdominoperineal resection d. pelvic exenteration
-
492.Treatment of annular pancreas is:
a. Gastrjejunostomy b. External drainage c. Duodenojejunostomy d. Gastroduodenostomy
-
493.DIC is not seen with:
- a. kasabach-merritt syndrome b. Kala-azar
- c. Amniotic fluid embolism d. Over dosage with vitamin K
-
494.Lemght of CBD is…..cm:
a. 5 b. 8 c. 7.5 d. 9.5
-
495.Half-life of factor VIII is …. Hours:
a. 7 b. 8 c. 34 d. 48
-
496.False regarding paralytic ileus is:
- a. Due to pperitonitis b. Always required surgical intervention
- c. Fractures of spine or ribs d. Seen in abdominal surgery
-
497.Raised level of carcinoembryonic antigen is seen in all except:
a. Carcinoma colon b. Carcinoma stomach c. Carcinoma lung d. Carcinoma ovary
-
498.Majority of primary infections of urinary tract are caused by:
- a. Streptococcus faecalis b. Escherichia coli
- c. Proteus d. Pseudomonas
-
499.Drug of choice for carries of diphtheria is:
a. Penicillin b. Septran c. Tetracycline d. Erythromycin
-
500.Cracked nipple may be;
- a. Due to syphilitic chancre b. Cause of retention cyst
- c. Paget’s disease of nipple d. Foreunner of acute infective mastitis
-
501.Post-traumatic epilepsy should be treated with;
- a. Mannitol infusion b. Immediate corticosteroids
- c. Long-term anticonvulsants d. Long-term corticosteroids
-
502. Fordyce spots are;
- a. Ectopic sebaceous glands b. Ectopic eccrine
- c. Ectopic apocrine d. Ectopic mucosal glands
-
503.Deficiency of which of the following seen in pendred’s syndrome:
a. Iodinase b. Peroxidase c. thyroglobulin d. Iodine
-
504.Most common histological variety of bronchogenic carcinoma is;
- a. Adenocarcinoma b. Small cell carcinoma
- c. Oat cell carcinoma d. Adenosquamous carcinoma
-
505.Hyoid bone is closely associated with;
a. Custic hygroma b. Branchial cyst c. Bronchogenic cyst d. Thyroglossal cyst
-
506.Which of the following is an abslute contraindication of IVP :
- a. Renal tumor b. Blood urea more than 200 mg
- c. Multiple myeloma d. Allergy to drug
-
507.A 45 year old senior manager develops hematemesis at home. He was brought to hospital where he again had a bout of hemantemesis. Total blood loss is around 2 liters. Diagnosis is;
a. Carcinoma stomach b. GAstrics c. Esophageal varices d. Peptic ulcer bleeding
-
508.Following modes of treatment are used in Esophageal varices except:
- a. Balloon tamponade c. Percutaneous resection of varices
- c. Injection sclerotherapy on endoscopy d. Banding on endoscopy
-
509.Gynecomazia is not seen in:
a. Teratoma of testis b. Cryptorchidism c. Liver cirrhosis d. Klinefelter’s syndrome
-
510.False regarding Paterson-Brown –Kelly syndrome is;
- a. Premalignant b. Common in adult females
- c. lower esophageal web d. iron deficiency anemia
-
511.Gleason’s staging is done in carcinoma of:
a. Kidney b. Pancreas c. Cervix d. Prostate
-
512.In intestinal obstruction , the main cause of distended abdomen is;
a. Swallowed air b. Bacterial action c. Fermentation of residua food d. Diffusion of gas form blood
-
513.A 6 year old patient has diffuse toxic goiter.the treatment of choice is:
- a. Antithyroid drugs first followed by surgery b. Radioiodine
- c. Antithyroid drugs d. Surgery
-
514.Presenting feature of endemic goiter is:
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypothyroidism c. large diffuse swelling d. Multinodular swelling
-
515.Endemic goiter most commonly prsents with;
a. Solitary nodule b. Hyperthyroid c. Diffuse goiter d. Hypothyroid
-
516.For the diagnosis of which of the followinng condition, thyroid scan is most useful;
a. Goiter b. Toxic adenoma of thyroid c. Cysts of thyroi d. Thyroid malignancies
-
517.A 9 year old boy has abdominal pain with recurrent UTI.IVP showed duplication of left ureter. The most likely site of opening is;
a. Vas deference b. Prostatic urethra c. Ejaculatory duct d. Seminal vesicle
-
518.Carcinoma which is femilial ;
a. Vaginal b. Cervix c. Breast d. prostate
-
519.False regarding congenital lymphedema:
- a. May be associated with pierre robin syndrome
- b. Always presents around puberty
- c. Mainly involves lower limbs
- d. Usually bilateral
-
520.in skin graft transfer the word ‘take’ of graft referrs to:
- a. Healing of graft b. Vascularisation of graft
- c. Dense attachment of graft to surrounding tissue
- d. Epithelial ingrowth in the margins
-
521.Most specific tumor marker for prostate is;
a. Acid phosphatase b.. Alkaline phosphatase c. Prostate-specific antigen d. HCG
-
522.In a smoker a tumor with central cavitation is found. This is most likely to be;
- a. Adenocarcinoma b. Alveolar carcinoma
- c. Small cell carcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
-
523.Renal stone which is radiolucent;
a. Calcium oxalate b. Uric acid c. Cysteine d. Calcium phosphate
-
524.True regarding collar stud abscess;
a. Spontaneous regression b.Aspiration c. Pyogenic d. Tuberculous
-
525.Most common type of mesentric cyst is;
a. Enterogenous b. Chylolymphatic c. Dermoid d. Urogenital remnant
-
526.A patient with hyperparathroidism with pheochromocytoma develops a thyroid swelling. Most likely the cause is:
- a. Follicular carcinoma b. Medullary carcinoma
- c. Papillary carcinoma d. Anaplastic carcinoma
-
527.Boil is:
- a. Staphulococcal infection of epidermis
- b. Staphylococcal infection of sweat gland
- c. Staphylococcal infection of hair follicle
- d. Staphylococcal infection of subcutaneous tissue
-
528.Stone impaction near the ampulla of vater is ideally treated by:
- a. Choledochojejunostomy
- b. Endoscopic choledochojejunostomy
- c. Endoscope sphincterotomy
- d. Transduodenal sphincterotomy
-
529.Tnel’s sign indicates:
a. Rgeneration of nerves b. Neuroma c. Injury to nerves d. Atrophy of nerve:
-
530.In which of the following condition, corkscrew esophagus is:
a. Esophageal carcinoma b. Barrett’s esophagus c. Esophageal spasm d. Achalasia cardia
-
531.For diagnosing Hodgkin’s disease the investigation of choice is:
a.X-ray cervical region b. Splenic pulp biopsy c. Bone marrow examination d. Lymph node biopsy
-
532.True regarding nephrocalcinosis is:
- a. Congenital disease of renal medulla
- b. Secondary to tuberculosis of lung or bone
- c. Deposition of calcium within renal substance
- d. Tumors of childhood
-
533.False regarding Raynaud’s disease is:
- a. Radial pulse is absent b. Vasospastic condition
- c. Upper limb is most commonly affected d. seen in young females
-
534.False regarding Raynaud’s disease is:
- a. Atherosclerosis of vessels b. More common in females
- c. Spasm of vessels d. Exposure to cold aggravate
- 535.Raynaud’s phenomenon is not seen in:
- a. Juvenile arthritis b. Burger’s disease c. Scleroderma d. Atherosclerosis
-
536.False regarding Raynaud’s phenomenon is:
- a. Treat the main cause b. Seen in scleroderma
- c. Sjogren’s syndrome d. Radial pulse always absent
-
537.In which of the following procedures, nerve of Kuntz is an important landmark:
- a. Splanchnicectomy b. Obturator neurectomy c. Cervicodorsal sympathectomy
- d. Lumbar sympathectomy
-
538.Most common site of peptic ulcer is:
- a. Pylorus of stomach b. Distal 1/3rd of stomach
- c. 1st part of duodenum d. 2nd part of duodenum
-
539.Formation of gallbladder stone is not influenced by:
a. Truncal vagotomy b. Primary biliary cirrhosis c. Ileal resection d. Clofibrate therapy
-
540.Not a common site for Cushing’s tumor ulcer is:
a. Distal duodenum b. Fundus c. Esophagus d. Stomach
-
541.Curling’s ulcer is seen in:
- a. Burn patients b. Patients with head injury
- c. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome d. Analgesic drug abuse
-
542.Most common tumor occurring in undescended testis is;
a. Seminoma b. Teratoma c. Embryonal cell carcinoma d. Interstitial cell tumor
-
543.A 6-week infant has undescended testes in right side and normal testes on left side.he should be treated;
a. Immediately b. Orchiopexy at 2 years c. Puberty d. 5 years age before going to school
-
544.Epitheloid granuloma are characteristic of:
a. Tuberculosis b. Mycosis fungoides c. Sarcoidosis d. Eosinophilic granuloma
-
545.Clicking jaw occurs due to:
- a. Lax temporomandibular joint b. Fracture of maxilla
- c. Fracture of mandible d. Dislocation of symphysis
-
546.Keratoacanthoma is;
- a. A type of basal cell carcinoma b. Infected sebaceous cyst
- c. Self healing nodular lesion with central ulceration d. Premalignant disease
-
547.Dupuytren’s contracture of hand commonly starts in:
- a. Thumb b. index finger c. Middle finger d. Ring finger
- 548.In carcinoid syndrome metabolite increased in urine is:
- a. VMA b. 5-HIAA c. MEtanephrines d. Serotonin
-
549.Arachnodactyly is:
- a. Over development of bones or an extremity
- b. Concerned with infective condition of brain
- c. Maldevelopment of an anatomic part
- d. Disease of bone related to a defect
-
550.Not seen in Meigs’ syndrome:
a. Ascites b. Hydrothorax c. Benign ovarian tumor d. Malignant ovarian tumor
-
551.False regarding carbuncle is:
- a. Infective gangrene of subcutaneous tissue
- b. Caused by staphulococcus
- c. Diabetics are more prone
- d. Caused by streptococcus
-
552.Metabolic disturbances seen in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is:
- a. Metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine
- b. Metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria
- c. Metabolic acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis
-
553.In vertebralcanal most common site of chondroma is;
a. Sacrococcygeal b. Lumber c. Thoracic d. Cervical
-
554.Epithelium of Barrett’s mucosa is:
a. Squamous b. Stratified squamous c. Columnar d. Ciliated columnar
-
555.True adenocarcinoma of esophagus is most likely to be due to:
- a. Achalasia b.Barrett’s esophagus c. Patterson Brown-Kelly –Syndrome
- d. Scleroderma
-
556.Which of the following is a syndrome of medullary sponge kidney:
a. UTI b. Anemia c. Nocturia d. Azotemia
-
557.Treatment modality of achalasia which has maximum probability of causing a recurrence is:
a. Open surgical myotomy b. Botulinum toxin c. Laparoscopic myotomy d. Pneumtic dilation
-
558.In gastric obstruction in a patient of duodenal ulcer, the site of obstruction is most likely to be:
a. Pyloric canal b. Pylorus c. Duodenum d. Antrum
-
559.A patient with external hemorrhoids develops pain while passing stools.Nerve mediating this pain is:
- a. Sympathetic plexus b. Splanchnic visceral nerve
- c. Pudendal nerve d. Hypogastric nerve
-
560.True about Maffucci’s syndrome is:
- a. Multiple lipomatosis b. Skeletal enchondromatosis , Soft tissue hemangioma, phleboliths
- c. Soft tissue hemangioma d. Multipe enchondromatosis
-
561.Dysphagia lusoria is due to obstruction of which of the following :
a. Foreign body b. Vascular rings c. Psychogenic d. None
-
562.Fascia of Denovilliers is:
- a. Posterior layer of perirenal fascia
- b. Fascia between he rectal ampulla and prostate and seminal vesicle
- c. Membranous layer of fascia of thigh
- d. Perirenal fascia
-
563.Inussuscipiens is made up of;
a. Entering tube b. Returning tube c. Outer wall of obstruction d. All of the above
-
564.in prune-belly syndrome there is:
- a. Cryptorchidism, urinary dilatation, absent abdominal musculature
- b. Urinary dilatation,absent abdominal musculature
- d. Crytorchidism
-
565.MArjolin’s ulcer is seen in:
a. Tuberculosis b. Head injury c. Fracture d. Scars
-
566.Which of the following is the most common tumor of liver:
- a. Lymphangioma b. Hepatocellural carcinoma
- c. Metastatic spread d. Hemangioma
-
567.Froment’s sign tests:
- a. Abductor digiti minimi b. Abductor digiti minimi
- c. Abductor pollicis d. Abductor pollicis
-
568.Which of the following is the most common type of diaphragmatic hernia:
a. Hiatus hernia b. Hernia through dome c. Morgagni hernia d. Bochdalek hernia
-
569.Not seen in solitary rectal ulcer syndrome;
- a. Most common site is posterior wall b. 20% multiple sites
- c. Associated with rectal prolapse d. Most common cause is digital reposition
-
570.Stone in lower third of ureter should be treated with:
a. ureteroscopic method b. Ureterolithotomy c. Push bang d. Diuretics
-
571.Full thickness graft means:
- a. Only epidermis b. Epidermis and superficial dermis
- c. Epidermis+ whole dermis d. Epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous tissue
-
572.Wolfe graft is;
a. Epidermal graft b. Slit thickness graft c. Partial thickness graft d. Full thickness graft
-
573.Not seen in Wilm’s tumor:
- a. Hemihypertrophy of body b. Arthrogryposis multiplex congenital(AMC)
- c. Male pseudohermaphroditism d. Aniridia
-
574. Benign prostatic hyperplasia occurs in the:
- a. Periurethral transitional zone b. Cortix
- c. Posterior lobe d. Prostate gland proper
-
575.Prostatic carcinoma commonly arises from;
a. Anterior zone b. Transitional zone c. Central zone d. Peripheral zone
-
576.Transplantation of a kidney from mother to son is an example of:
a. Autograft b. Allograft c. Isograft d. Xenograft
-
577.β2 microglobulin is a marker for the prognosis of which of the following disease:
a. AIDS b. Systemic lupus erythematosus c. Multiple myeloma d. Chronic pancreatitis
-
578.All are true regarding ureteric stone except:
- a. Should be removed immediately b. Pain is referred to tip of penis in intramural stone
- c. Source is always kidney d. Urine is infected
-
579.Smoking is related to following carcinoma except:
a. Kidney b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Urinary bladder
-
580.False refgarding papillary thyroid carcinoma:
- a. Metastasis to bone on early stage b. Multicentric
- c. Slow growing d. Metastasis to lymph nodes is common
-
581. Carcinoma of prostate , most commonly metastasize to:
a. Brain b. Lung c. Liver d. Pelvis
-
582.A patient of benign prostate hypertrophy underwent TURP after which he developed cerebral symptoms. Most likely electrolyte imbalance is:
a. Hypernatremia b. Hyponatremia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyperkalemia
-
583.A 48 year old woman underwent subtotal thyrodectomy. She has a vague family history of malignant hyperthermia. She develops agitation, restlessness, fever, tremor, shivering, and tachypnea. Thyrotoxic crises can be best distinguished from malignant hyperthermia by estimating:
a. Temperature variation b. Increased CPKK levels c.LDH d. Muscular rigidity
-
584.On USG an stone is seen in CBD dilated >1cm . Next investigation in this case should be:
- a. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
- b. Endoscopic retrograde cholanpancreatography (ERCP)
- c. HIDA scan d. Repeated USG
-
585.In which of the following condition there is maximum risk of colon malignancy;
a. Gardner’s syndrome b. Familial polyposis c. Crohn’s disease d. Ulcerative colitis
-
586.False regarding familial adenomatous polyposis :
- a. Total colectomy earlyin childhood is the treatment of choice
- b. Equal incidence in males and females
- c. Adenomatous polyps occur in colon
- d. 100% chances of malignancy over a period of time
-
587.Organ which contains appendices epiplocae is;
a. Colon b. Appendix c. Jejunum d. Small intestine
-
588.A 75 year old man underwent TURP operation.Biopsy revealed foci of adenocarcinoma . Next step of management is:
- a. Surgery followed by radiotherapy b. No treatment is required
- c. Hormonal replacement therapy d. Radiotherapy
-
589.A 30 year old female of rural are of assam has been taking betel nut for last 11 years .later she developed difficulty in opening of mouth.examination revealed a pale mucosa on the side of the tongue and diffuse thickening. Most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Chronic aphthous ulcer b. Infiltrating carcinoma of oral cavity
- c. Submucous fibrosis d. Keratosis pharyngitis
-
590.Actinic keratosis leads to:
a. Basal cell carcinoma b. Freckles c. Melanoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
-
591.Most common complication following hemorrhoidectomy is:
a. Hemorrhage b. Infection c. Fecal impaction d. Urinary retention
-
592.Peroneus brevis is inserted to:
a. Base of 5th metatarsal b. Base of 1st metatarsal c. Head of 3rd metatarsal d. Head of 2nd metatarsal
-
593.Not a feature of Horner’s syndrome ;
a. Ptosis b. Miosis c. Mydriasis d. Anhidrosis
-
594.Human bite spreads which of the following infection:
a. Virus b. Gram-ve cocci c. Anaerobic species d. Gram-ve-bacilli
-
595.False regarding erysipelas is;
- a. Streptococcal infection b. contagious and infections
- c. Margins are raised d. Flaccid bullae may develop
-
596.False regarding carbuncle is:
- a. Staphylococcus infection b. Painful condition
- c. Males more commonly affected d. Common before age of 40
-
597.Pentagastrin fast achlorhydria in patient with gastric ulcer indicates:
a. Antral ulcer b. Malignant ulcer c. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome d. Gastric lymphoma
-
598.Treatment of acute embolus is;
- a. Warfarin b. Heparin and immediate embolectomy
- c. Conservative management d. embolectomy after 5 days bedrest
-
599.Most common stomach tumor which bleeds:
a. Adenocarcinoma b. Squamous carcinoma c. Fibrosarcoma d. Leiomyossarcoma
-
600.True regarding glomous jugulare is:
- a. Males predominantly b. Highly vascular
- c.Arises from para-gangliomic cells d. Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice
-
601.Cause of Barrett’s ulcer is;
a. Reflux esophagitis b. Bile reflux c. Ectopic gastric mucosa d. Ischemia
-
602.In gallstone ileus, the impaction occurs at:
a. Colon b. Terminal ileum c. 1st part of duodenum d. 2nd part of duodenum
-
603.Gallstone causes intestinal obstruction when it gets impacted in which part of the intestine commonly :
a. Jejunum b. duodenum c. Distal ileum d. Proximal ileum
-
604.In which of the following condition, strangulated intestinal obstruction is not seen:
a. Intussusception b. volvulus c. Gallstone ileus d. Mesenteric vascular occlusion
-
605.In lumbar sympathectomy which of the following ganglia is spread;
a. L4 b. L3 c. L1 d. L2
-
606.Most common tumor of retroperitoneal region among the following is:
a. Rhabdomyosarcoma b. Lipoma c. Liposarcoma d. Neurofibroma
-
607.Extralobar pulmonary sequestration is usually discovered by:
a. Angiography b. MRI c. CT d. X-ray
-
608.Most common site of duplication of GI tract is;
a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Ileum d. Colon
-
609.True regarding rupture of urinary bladder is:
- a. Rupture of bulbous urethra is more common
- b. More common extraperitoneal
- c. More common intraperitoneal
- d. Not commonly seen
-
610.Not a cause of pancreatitis:
a. CBD stone b. Hypocalcemia c. Chronic alcoholism d. Cystic fibrosis
-
611.An 8 year old boy presented with lump in epigastrium and non-bilious vomiting.most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Ileal atresia b. Jejuno jejuna intussusceptions
- c. Choledochal cyst d. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
-
612.Not a clinical feature of gastric ulcer:
- a. Epigastric pain b. Decreaded appetite c. Hematemesis and melena
- d. Periodicity
-
613.A newborn presenting with intestinal obstruction showed. On abdominal X-ray, multiple air fluid levels . most likely diagnosis is:
a. Ladd’s bands b. Ileal atresia c. Duodenal atresia d. Pyloric obstruction
-
614.False regarding short bowel syndrome:
- a. Steatorrhea is seen b. Nutritional deficiency present
- c. Up to 70% of resection is tolerated d. None of the above
-
615.False regarding short bowel syndrome :
a. Steatorrhea is seen b. Diarrhea c. Weight loss d. Hypogastrinemia
-
616.not a biochemical abnormality in pyloric obstruction :
a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Hypernatremia c. Hypochloremia d. Hypokalemia
-
617.Metabolic change likely to be seen in a 1 year old child with gastric outlet (pyloric)obstruction:
- a. Hyperkalemia, hypiochloremic metabolic alkalosis with aciduria
- b. Hyperkalemia, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with alkaliuria
- c. Hypokalemia, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis and paradoxical aciduria
- d. Hypokalemia, hypochloremic metabolic acidosis
-
618. In infants not a clinical feature of pyloric stenosis;
a. Metabolic acidosis b. Retarded growth c. abdominal lump d. Constipation
-
619.False regarding hypospadias is;
- a. Circumcisison should not be done in infancy
- b. Chordee is reversed after 5 years
- c. Glandular type needs no treatment
- d. Surgical correction is good treatment
-
620.False regarding hypospadias is:
- a. Cryptorchidism b. No treatment is required for glandular variety
- c. Hooded prepuce d. Chordee
-
621.False regarding hypospadias is:
- a. Hooded prepuce b. Circumcision should be done during operation
- c. Surgery done to improve sexual function and for cosmetic region
- d. Most severe type is perineal hypospadias
-
622.False regarding hypospadias is:
- a. Penis is curve in a downward direction b. Glandular variety needs no treatment
- c. 1st stage of surgery at 2 years of age d. Chordee treated at puberty
-
623.Most common type of hypospadias is:
a. Glandular b. Penile c. Coronal d. Scrotal
-
624.Meckel’s diverticulum is a derivative of which of the following:
a. Ductus arteriousus b. Ventral mesogastrrium c. Vitelline duct d. Allantoic diverticulum
-
625.In meckel’s diverticulum, ectopic gastric tissue is diagnosed by:
a. Radiocuclide scan b. Endoscopy c. Ultrasound d. RBC tagged scanning
-
626.Not a constituent of Virchow’s triad:
a. Abnormal vessel wall b. Trauma c. Hypercoagulability d. Statis
-
627.Least common complication in pseudocyst of pancreas is:
a. Carcinomatous change b. Infection c. Rupture d. Hemorrhage
-
628.False regarding skin graft is;
- a. Full thickness has good cosmetic value and superior to partial thickness graft
- b. Full thickness graft covers large area
- c. full thickness includes epidermis with dermis
- d. Partial thickness includes epidermis with dermis
-
629.Best method for diagnosing gastro-oesphageal reflux disease is;
a. 24 hour PH recording b. Barium meal c..Endoscopy d. USG
-
630.Whihc of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal;
a. Pudendal nerve b. Internal pudendal artery c. Internal pudenda vein d. Nerve to obturator internus
-
631.Angle formed by the shaft and neck of the femur is:
a. 115 b. 125 c. 135 d. 145
-
632.Condyloma acuminatum is produced by which type of human papiloma virus;
a. HPV 6,16 b. HPV 6. 11 c. HPV 16, 18 d. HPV 11, 18
-
633.False regarding blind loop syndrome is:
- a. Due to proliferation of abnormal bacterial flora
- b. Anemia in high and steatorrhea in low loop
- c. Antibiotics relives temporarily
- d. Surgery is the treatment of choice
-
634.Which of the following is not seen in meniere’s disease;
a. Vertigo b. Tinnitus c. Conductive deafness d. Sensorineural deafness
-
635.In duodenal ulcer most common site of perforation is;
a. Middle b. Posterolateral c. Anterior d. Posterior
-
636.Sphenoid dysplasia is seen in :
- a. Von Hippel-Landau’s disease b. Sturge- Weber syndrome
- c. Neurofibromatosis d. Bourneville’s disease
-
637.Investigation of choice for posterior urethral valve is:
a. Vlding cystourethrography b. MCU c. IVP d. USG
-
638.iliac “Hornia” are seen in:
- a. Nail patella syndrome b. Ankylosing spondylitis
- c. Eagle Barrett syndrome d. Ivemask syndrome
-
639.In …. Pneumothorax , immediate surgical intervention is required:
a. Spontaneous b. Closed c. Tension d. open
-
640.Which of the following is the most premalignant lesion;
a. Dysplasia b. Metaplasia c. Erythroplakia d. Leukoplakia
-
641.Most common complication of tracheostomy is:
a. Pneumotharax b. surgical emphysema c. injury to the large vessels d. Injury to esophagus
-
642.klumpke’s paralysis is;
a. C5, C8 b. C6, C7 c. C8, T1 d.T1 , T2
-
643.Not a content of Ringer’s lactase;
a. CI b. Na c. Hco3 d. K+
-
644.Most common carcinoma of paranasal sinuses is;
- a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma
- c. Transtional cell carcinoma d. Basal cell carcinoma
-
645.Brawny swelling below the angle of mandible likely diagnosis is:
a. Vincent’s angina b. Ludwig’s angina c. Ranula d. Hydrocele of neck
-
646.Backwash ileitis is seen in;
a. Crohn’s diseases b. Ulcerative colitis c. Excessive use of enemas d. Preoperative washing of gut
-
647.Hypertensive bleed mostly occurs in:
a. Putamen b. pons c. Cotex d. Thalamus
-
648.Most common organism causing spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is;
- a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Salmonella typhi
- c. Streptococcus pneumonia d. Moraxella catarrhalis
-
649.Oral hairy leukoplakia and whitish plaque in the tongue and palate gives clue to most likely diagnosis of:
a. HIV infection b. HTLV-1 c. Infectious mononucleous d. Submucous fibrosis
-
650.Which of the following is not a phakomatoses;
- a. Von Hipple-Lindau disease b. Neurofibromatosis
- c. Tuberous sclerosis d. Prune-belly syndrome
-
651.In a patient with solitary of thyroid , investigation of choice is ;
a. FNAC b. USG c. CT d. Radioisotope scan
-
652.Best investigation to diagnose subphrenic abscess is;
- a. USG b. Gallium labeled radioisotope study
- c. MRI d. Laparoscopy
-
653.Meconium plug syndrome occurs in:
- a. Meconium ileus b. Hirchsprung’s disease
- c. Ileocolic pouch d. Intussuception
-
654.Testicular seminoma secretes;
a. AFP b. CEA c. HCG d. CA 125
-
655.Most common site of thyroiglossal cyst is;
- a. Midline b. Above the hyoid bone c. In the region of thyroid cartilage d. Beneath the hyoid
- 656.Following are true of hormone leptin except:
- a. It is found in increased levels in obese persons
- b. Its site of action is hypothalamus
- c. It is produced by adipose tissue
- d. It increase appetite
-
657.Alexithymia is:
- a. Inability to identify and articulate feelings
- b. Inability to interpret the written words
- c. Inability to interpret the speech
- d. Inability to recognize people
-
658.Mucormycosis is seen in;
- a. Renal tubular acidosis b. uncontrolled diabetics
- c. Pregnancy d. Use of broad spectrum antibiotics
-
659.Treatment of carcinoma thyroid using radioactive iodine is:
a. I123 b. I125 c. I 133 d. I 420
-
660. In fracture shaft of femur, which nail is commonly used for ORIF:
- a. Kuntscher nail b. Austin moore prosthesis
- c. Kirscher wire d. Smith Peterson nail
-
661.Cells are most susceptible to radiation in which phase:
a. M phase b. G2 Phase c. G1 phase d. S phase
-
662.in down syndrome most common cause of intestinal obstruction:
a. Intestinal atresia b. Rectal atresia c. Duodenal atresia d. Esophageal atresia
-
663.Function of brown fat is;
a. Glycogenosis b. Gluconeogenesis c. Thermoregulation d. Storage of energy
-
664.A chronic smoker presents with dry, non productive cough and hemoptysis with mormal CXR. CT scan shows mass near distal trachea. Diagnosis is;
- a. Small cell carcinoma b. Mucoepidermoid ca
- c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Adenocarcinoma
-
665.most common cause of upper limb lymphadema is:
a. Postmastectomy b. Hypoproteinemia c. Filariasis d. Tuberculosis
-
666.True regarding cock’s “peculiear” tumor is:
a. It is a dermoid cyst b. It is a sebaceous cyst c. It is scalp hemantuma d. Seen in osteomyelitis
-
667.Tetany after thyroidectomy should be immediately treated by:
- a. Calcitonin b. Vitamin D c. Oral calcium d. IV calcium gluconate
- 668.While bathing a six months old child, his mother noticed that there is a swelling in the abdomen towards the left side . examination revealed andominal mass which showed calcification near left kidney. Most probable diagnosis is:
- a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Neuroblastoma c. Leukemia d. Lymphoma
-
669.von Willebrands disease; most common pattern of inheritance;
- a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive
- c. Sex linked d. Idiopahtic
-
670.For amebic ulcer, the most common site is;
a. Cecum b. Sugmoid colon c. Descending colon d. Ascending colon
-
671.Hospices refer to:
- a. Professionals who help terminally ill patients b. Euthanasia given to cancer patients
- c. Pain relief d. Colostomy patients association in America
-
672.False regarding strawberry hemangioma is:
- a. Grows between 3-12 months b. Complete resolution occurs by the age of 9 years
- c. Most common tumor of infancy d. Present at birth
-
673.Malignant cells in urine indicate;
- a. Hypernephroma b. Wilms’ tumor
- c. Transitional cell tumors d. Prostatic carcinoma
-
674.Not a treatment of fat embolism:
a. heparin b. Oxygen c. IV dexxtran d. Streptokinase
-
675.In which of the following condition, acetyl cholinesterase enzymes is increased:
- a. Esophageal atresia b. Diaphragmatic hernia
- c. Neural tube defect d. Cardiac defect
-
676.Whihc figures are very important to the endoscopists;
a. 10, 20, 30 b. 15, 25, 40 c. 20, 30, 40 d. 25, 35, 45
-
677.LInitis plastic is most commonly seen in which of the following condition;
a. Lymphoma b. Chronic atrophic gastritis c. Peptic ulcer d. Carcinoma stomach
-
678.Most common neoplasm of appendix is;
a. Argentaffinoma b. Leiomyosarcoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Lymphoma
-
679.Most common site of postgonorrheal stricture is:
a. Bulbar urethra b. Postmeatal c. Peno-scrotal junction d. Membranous urethra
-
680.Whihc of the following is measured by swan Ganz catheter:
a. Right ventricular pressure b. Central venous pressure c. Right arterial flow d. Pulmonary wedge pressure
-
681.Strangulation is most common in;
a. Richter hernia b. Epigastric hernia c. Femoral hernia d. Inguinal hernia
-
682.In which of the following condition, melphalan is useful:
a. Schwannoma b. Neuroblastoma c. Retinoblastoma d. Multiple myeloma
-
683.Whihc of the following nerve is involved in trasal tunnel syndrome;
a. Lateral planter b. Medial planter c. Posterior tibial d. Anterior tibial
-
684.In Wegner’s granulomatosis , the treatment of choice is:
a. Radiotherapy b. Steroids c. Cycllophosphamide d. Cyclosporine
-
685.False regarding intestinal tuberculosis is:
- a. ATT is the treatment of choice b. Surgery is the treatment of choice
- c. Present with mass in right iliac fossa d. Most common site is ileocecal region
-
686.Organism most commonly associated with epidural abscess is;
a. Meningococcus b. Pneumococcus c. Streptococcus d. Staphylococcus
-
687.Bleeding in duodenal ulcer commonly occurs from:
a. Superior pancreaticoduodenal artery b. Gastric artery c. Gastrodudenal artery d. Gastroepiplic artery
-
688.False regarding exstropsy of bladder is:
- a. Bilataeral inguinal hernia b. Posterior bladder wall protrudes through the defect
- c. Cloacal membrane is present d. Epispadias
-
689.All are false regarding axial flap except;
a. Nerve in it b. Transverse flap c. Vessels within it d. Kept in limb
-
690.In India most common cancer is of:
a. Lung b. Cervix c. Oral cavity d. Breast
-
691.Fasle regarding typhoid choleycystitis:
- a. Acute cholecystitis is seen b. Gallstone always present
- c. Cholecystectom is done d. Patient becomes chronic carrier
-
692.Which of the following is raised if there is stone in bile duct:
a. SGPT b. Amylase c. Bilirubin d. Bile salts
-
693.Transpyloric plain passes through which of the following region:
a. T10 b. L1 c. L5 d. T2
-
694.First successful human heart transplant was performed by:
- a. Barnard b. Shumway c. Lower d. Kussmaul
- 695.Trotter’s triad consists of all except:
- a. Conductive deafness b. Cortical blindness
- c. Pain in same side of head d. Elevation and immobility of ipsilateral soft palate
-
696.Bernstein test is useful in the diagnosis of cause of;
a. pyrosis b. Odynophagia c. Dysphagia d. Dyspepsia
-
697.False regarding hernia is:
- a. Femoral hernia is lateral to and below the pubic tubercle
- b. indirect hernia is medial to inferior epigastric blood vessels
- c. Contents of the sac are anterolateral to the cord
- d. Ovary and fallopian tubes may prolapsed into inguinal canal as hernia
-
698.Not a feature of hepatocellular carcinoma:
a. Jaundice b. Raised alkaline phosphate c. Raised α fetoprotein d. Hepatomagaly
-
699.Not seen in sudden onset peripheral arterial occlusion:
a. pain b. Ruber c. Pallor d. Anesthesia
-
700.Not seen in sudden onset peripheral arterial occlusion:
a. Pain b. Ruber c. Pallor d. Anesthesia
-
701.Organism causing breast abscess is:
a. Bacillus b. Neisseria gonorrhea c. proteus d. Staphylococcus
-
702.In breast abscess, the treatment of choice is:
a. Hot fomentation b. Stop breastfeeding c. Incision and drainage d. Antibiotics
-
703.In breast , the carcinomatous change is seen is:
a. Cyst b. Stroma c. Duct d. Lobule
-
704. Prognosis of which of the following carcinoma of breast is good:
a. Ductal b. Lobular c. Colloid d. Intraductal
-
705.Breast carcinoma which is most often bilateral;
a. Paget’s disease b. Ductal adenocarcinoma c. Lobular carcinoma d. Medullary carcinoma
-
706.Prognosis depends on which of the following, breast carcinoma metastasis:
a. Site of tumor b. Size of tumor c. Estrogen receptor d. Axillary lymph node
-
707.Adverse side effect of which of the following drug is focal toxic myopathy:
a. Penicillin b. Insulin c. Narcotice d. Aminoglycosides
-
708.Gastric malignancy is predisposed with:
- a. Blood group O b. Intestinal metaplasia c. Gastric hyperplasia d. Duodenal ulcer
- 709.kehr’s sign in splenic rupture over:
- a. Left shoulder b. Right shoulder c. Renal angle d. Periumbilical region
-
710.Peritoneal seedlings into the abdominal cavity in a patient with peritoneal carcinoma is due to:
a. Microvascular angiogenesis b. Chemotaxis c. Gravity d. Capillary action
-
711.Hydradenitis supprativa is due to infection of:
- a. Apocrine sweat glands of axilla b. Subcutaneous tissues
- c. Sebaceous glands d. Stomach
-
712.Emergency procedure for esophageal variceal bleeding is:
a. Esophageal transaction b. Portosystemic shunt c. Both d. None
-
713.All of the following are true about sliding hernia except:
- a. The bladder may be the part of the hernia
- b. Can be a large inguinal hernia extending up to the scrotum
- c. Requires meticulous dissection from the posterior wall before repair
- d. Usually seen in elderly patients
-
714.MArjolin’s ulcer is a:
- a. Malignant ulcer found on the scar of burn
- b. Malignant ulcer found on infected foot
- c. Tropic ulcer d. Meleney’s gangrene
-
715.Marjolin’s ulcer is charcacterized by all except:
a. Development in a scar b. Slow growth c. Painless nature d. Spreads to lymph nodes
-
716.Froment’s sign is seen in:
- a. Axillary nerve injury b. Ulnar nerve injury
- c. Redial nerve injury d. Median nerve injury
-
717.The most common type of lung cancer is:
a. Adenocarcinoma b. squamous cell carcinoma c. Small cell carcinoma d. Alveolar cell carcinoma
-
718.Pancoast’s tumor involves:
- a. Pseodotumor cerebri b. Apical part of upper lobe of lung
- c. Lower part of lung d. Hilum
-
719.The following is not in the differential diagnosis of an ‘anterior’ mediastinal mass:
a. Teratoma b. Neurogenic tumor c. Thymoma d. Lymphoma
-
720.Anterior mediastinal tumor are all except:
a. Thymoma b. Neurogenic tumors c. Thyroid tumor d. Lymphomas
-
721.Thymoma is associate with which of the following diseases:
a. Ulcerative colitis b. Addison’s disease c. Pheumatoid arthiritis d. Myasthenia gravis
-
722.The Tumor more commonly found in the ‘posterior’ mediastinum is:
a. lymphoma b. Thymoma c. Germ cell tumor d. Neurofibroma
-
723.The term rodent ulcer is used for:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Basal cell carcinoma c. Syphilitic ulcer d. Ulcerr due to burns
-
724.Most common type of basal cell carcinoma is:
a. Non-ulcerated b. Cystic c. Morphic d. Pigmented
-
725.Chronic parocychia is caused by:
- a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Improper treatment of acute paronychia
- c. Fungal infection d. Repeated trauma
-
726.Kanavel sign is seen in;
a. Acute tenosynovitis b. Pancreatitis c. Appendicitis d. Ectopic pregnancy
-
727.Kanavel sign is seen in:
- a. Flexor tendon sheath infection b. Pulp space infection
- c. Mid palmar space infection d. Web space infection
-
728.CAusalgia in a limb sequel to :
a. Arterial spasm b. Venous insufficiency c. Nerve injury d. All of the above
-
729.The most common malignant tumor of adult males in India is:
a. Lung cancer b. Oroparyngeal carcinoma c. Colorectal carcinoma d. Gastric carcinoma
-
730. Which of the following is content of Littre’s hernia:
a. Sigmoid colon b. Urinary bladder c. Meckel’s diverticulum d. Ileus
-
731.Most common tumor of the appendix is:
a. Adenocarcinoma b. CArcinoid c. Squamous d. Metastasis
-
732.Acute pancreatitis is most commonly caused by:
a. Gallstones b. Alcohol c. Trauma d. Drugs
-
733.Most common parotid tumor is:
a. Plemorphich adenoma b. ADenocarcinoma c. Warthin’s tumor d. Squamous cell carcinoma
-
734.Alpha waves are of which of the following frequencies:
- a. 8-13 Hz b. 10-20Hz c. 15-25 Hz d. 4-5 Hz
- 735.All of the following are seen in Horner’s syndrome except:
- a. Ptosis b. Miosis c. Proptosis d. Anhydrosis
-
736.The management of fat embolism includes all of the following except:
a. Heparinization b. Oxygen c. Pulmonary embolectomy d. Low molecular weight dextran
-
737.Fecal fistula at the umbilicus is due to:
- a. Patent urachus b. Patent vitelointestinal duct
- c. Omphalocele d. Infection
-
738.The gold standard for definitive diagnosis of extrahepatic biliary atresia is:
- a. Per operative cholangography b. Hepatobiliary scintigraphy
- c. Alkaline phosphates level d. Liver biopsy
-
739.Corkscrew esophagus is seen in:
- a. Achalasia cardia b. Diffuse esophageal spasm
- c. Corrosive stricture of esophagus d. Carcinoma esophagus
-
740.Which of the following lasers is used for treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia as well as urinary calculi?
a. CO2 laser b. Excimer laser c. Ho:YAG laser d. nd:YAG laser
-
741.Hamman’s sign is seen in:
- a. Achalasia cardia b. Diffuse esophageal spasm
- c. Esophageal perforation d. Carcinoma esophagus
-
742.Most common cause of infection in surgical wounds is;
- a. Staphylococcus epidermidis b. Staphylococcus aureus
- c. Pseudomonas d. Streptococci
-
743.Whihc of the following is an absolute indication for surgery in cases of benign prostatic hyperplasia :
- a. Bilateral hydroureteronephrosis b. Nocturnal frequency
- c. Recurrent urinary tract infection d. Voiding bladder pressure >50 cm of water
-
744.A 70 year old patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia underwent transurethral resection of prostate(TURP) under spinal anesthesia.One hour later, he developed vomiting and altered sensorium.the most probable cause is:
- a. Over dosage of spinal anesthetic agent b. Rupture of bladder
- c. Hyperkalemia d. Water intoxication
-
745.The best treatment for cystic hygroma is:
a. Surgical excision b. Radiotherapy c. Sclerotherapy d. Chemotherapy
-
746.Premalignant all except:
a. Ulcerative colitis b. Villous adenoma c. Peutz-jeghers syndrome d. FAP
-
747.Chromosome 5 has gene for:
- a. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
- b. Reatinoblastoma
- c. Neurofibromatosis
- d. MArfan’s syndrome
-
748.The differential diagnosis of rectal prolapse in a child is:
a. Intussusception b. Rectull polyp c. Hemorrhoids d. Tumor
-
749.Most common site of urethral rupture is;
a. Prostatic b. Penile c. Bulbar d. Membranous
-
750.Most common surgical complication of typhoid is:
a. Myocarditis b. Cholecystitis c. Hemorrhage d. Ileal perforation
-
751.The most common cause of multiple stricture in the small intestine is:
a. Tuberculosis b. Ischemic enteritis c. Crohn’s disease d. Ulcerative colitis
-
752.What is most characteristic of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?
- a. Affects the first-born female child b. The pyloric tumor is best felt during feeding
- c. The patient is commonly marasmic d. Loss of appetite occurs early
-
753.The metabolic derangement in congenital pyloric stenosis is;
- a. Hypochloremic alkalosis b. Hyperchloremic alkalosis
- c. Hyperchloremic acidosis d. Hypochloremic acidosis
-
754.Hypochloremia, hypokalemia alkalosis are seen in:
- a. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis b. Hirschsprung’s disease
- c. Esophageal atresia d. Jejunal atresia
-
755.A 65 year old male smoker presents with gross total painless hematuria. The most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Carcinoma urinary bladder b. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
- c. Carcinoma prostate d. Cystolithiasis
-
756.Renal common cause of painless hematuria is:
a. Renal cell carcinoma b. Cystitis c. Renal calculi d. Bladder polyps
-
757.Radiation exposures during infancy has been linked to which 1 of the following carcinoma:
a. Breast b. Melanoma c. Thyroid d. Lung
-
758.Treatmetn of squamous cell carcinoma of anal canal is;
- a. Cisplatin based chemotherapy followed by radical radiotherapy
- b. Abdoominoperineal resection
- c. Radical radiotherapy
- d. Radical radiotherapy followed by mitomycin C based chemotherapy
-
759.Treatment of anal carcinoma is;
a. Radiotherapy b. Surgery c. Chemotherapy d. Chemo radiation
-
760.Tumor, which is relatively more benign as compared to the rest, is:
a. Seminoma b .Teratoma c. Leydig cell tumor d. Endodermal sinus tumor
-
761.Most radiosensitive tumor:
a. Seminoma b. Teratoma c. Seri cell tumor d. Choricarcinoma
-
762.True regarding seminoma is:
- a. Tumor marker is alpha-fetoprotein b. Can spread by hematogenous route
- c. It is not radiosensitive d. Cut section is homogenous in appearance
-
763.Regarding testicular tumors, the following are false except:
- a. They are the commonest malignancy in older men
- b. Seminoma is radiosensitive
- c. Only 25% of stage 1 teratomas are cured by surgery alone
- d. Chemotherapy rarely produces a cure in those with metastatic disease
-
764.A 40 year old male had undergone splenectomy 20 years ago. Peripheral blood smear examination would show the presence of:
- a. Dohle bodies b. Hyper-segmented neutrophils
- c. Spherocytes d. Howell-jolly bodies
-
765.An increased incidence of cholangiocarcinoma is seen in all of the following except:
- a. Hydatid cyst of liver b. polycystic disease of liver
- c. Sclerosing cholangitis d. Liver flukes
-
766. Strong correlation with colorectal cancer is seen in;
- a. Peutz-jeghers polyp b. Familial polyposis coli
- c. Juveline polyposis d. Hyperplastic polyp
-
767.Pancreatitis, pulmonary tumor and pheochromocytoma may be associated with:
- a. Madullary carcinoma of the thyroid
- b. Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
- c. Anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid
- d. Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid
-
768.A 60 year old man with diabetes mellitus presents with ‘painless’ swollen right ankle joint. Radiographs of the ankle show ‘destroyed’ joint with large number of loose bodies. The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Charcot’s joint b. Clutton’s joint c. Osteoarthritis d. Rheumatoid arthritis
-
769.The drug of choice for thoratic actinomycosis is:
a. Amphoterricin B b. Penicillin c. Cotrimoxazole d. Itraconazole
-
770.Which of the following is not a component of crush syndrome?
- a. Myoglobinuria b. massive crushing of muscles
- c. Acute tubular necrosis d. Bleeding diasthesis
-
771.The most common organism causing cellulitis is:
- a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Streptococcus faecalis
- c. Streeptococcus viridians d. Microaerophilic streptococci
-
772.The most likely diagnosis in a newborn that has radio opaque shadow with an air fluid level in the chest along in the chest along with hemi-vertebra of the 6th thoratic vertebra on plain X-ray is:
- a. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia b. Esophageal duplication cyst
- c. Bronchogenic cyst d. Staphylococcal pneumonia
-
773.Infant with blood in stools & mass in abdomen, diagnosis is:
a. Intussusception b. Volvulus c. Idiopathic abdominal epilepsy d. Hirschsprung’s diasease
-
774.The best time for surgery of hypospadias is:
- a. 1-4 months of age b. 6-10 months of age
- c. 12-18 months of age d. 2-4 years of age
-
775.Swan-Ganz catheter is mainly used to measure:
- a. The right ventricular pressure b. The right heart pressure
- c. Left ventricular pressure d. The pulmonary capillary pressure
-
776.Pott’s puffy tumor is:
- a. Frontal osteomyelitis with soft tissue swelling
- b. Malignant disease of the odontoids
- c. Calcifying epithelioma
- d. Infected sebaceous cyst over the scalp
-
777.Following entrapment of a nerve rise to pronator syndrome. The nerve involved is:
a. Radial nerve b. Median nerve c. posterior interosses nerve d. Ulnar nerve
-
778.Which among the following is true about the meckel’s diverticulum:
- a. it is a remnant of the urachus
- b. It has all the layers of the gut
- c. It is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery
- d. It is present at the junction of the mid-hut and the hind-gut
-
779.True regarding achalasia cardia are all of the following except:
a. Dysphagia b. Odynophagia c. Regurgitation d. Pre-malignant
-
780.The transformation of squamous cells to columnar cells in Barrett’s esophagus is an example of:
a. Atrophy b. Dysplasia c. Metaplasia d. Hamartoma
-
781.Peau d’ orange skin over breast is due to:
- a.Subcutaneous lumphatic obstruction b. Direct skin invasion
- c. Angiogenesis d. All
-
782.Sutre material most commonly used for intestine repair is:
a. Catgut b. PDS c. Vicryl d. Silk
-
783.Bleeding in subdural hemantoma (SDH) is from:
a. Bridging veins b. Emissary veins c. Middle meningeal artery d. Dual sinuses
-
784.A 45 year old hypertensive male presented with sudden onset severe headache , vomiting and neck stiffness. On examination he didn’t have any focal neurologic deficit. His CT scan showed blood in the sylvian fissure. The probable diagnosis is:
a. Meningitis b. Ruptured aneurysm c. Hypertensive bleed d. Stroke
-
785.The most commoncause of subrachnoid hemorrhage is:
- a. Berry aneurysms around the circle of willis
- b.Hypertensive intracerebral bleeds
- c. infection
- d. Basilar artery ectasia
-
786.Which of the following is the causative agent of nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
a. HBV b.CMV c.EPV d.HPV
-
787.True about carcinoma nasopharynx is:
- a. It commonly arises in association with HPV
- b. It can be easily treated by surgery
- c. It has a high rate of spread to neck nodes
- d. It is a adenocarcinoma of the nasopharynx
-
788.All of the following are true about the stomach cancer except:
- a. The incidence of stomach cancer is decreasing in recent years
- b. Linitis plastic type is most common type
- c. Primary lymphoma is more common in the stomach as compared to the rest of the GIT
- d. Helicobacter pylori increases susceptibility
-
789.All of the following are true about hemorrhoids except:
- a. Are a common cause of lower GI bleeding
- b.External hemorrhoids are not associated with anal sphincter spasm
- c. For internal hemorrhoids the treatment is surgical excision of the clot
- d. Internal hemorrhoids are painless
-
790.ulcerative colitis is known to cause all of the following except:
- a. Hepatocellular carcinoma b. Erythema nodosum
- c. Iritis d. Sclerosing cholangitis
-
791.True regarding the ulcers seen in typhoid is:
- a. The complication are most common in the 1st week
- b. They are commonly penetrating and cause sesvere local granuloma formation
- c. the ulcers are longitudinally oriented
- d. The disease is more common in the elderly
-
792.The aorta opens in the diaphragm at the level of:
a.T-8 b. T-10 c. T-12 d. L-1
-
793.The most common site of intestinal obstruction in gallstone ileus is:
a. Jejunum b. Transverse colon c. Sigmoid colon d. Ileum
-
794.One unit of fresh blood raises the HB% concentration by:
a. 0.1 gm% b. 1gm% c. 2 gm% d. 2.2gm%
-
795.Pseudoclaudication is due to the compression of:
a. Femoral artery b. Femoral nerve c. Cauda equine d. Popliteal arteryz
-
796.Polydioxanone is absorbed in how many days:
a. 7 b. 21 c. 100 d. 250
-
797.Karyotype in testicular feminization syndrome is:
a. 46XY b. 46XX c. 47XXY d. 45XY
-
798.Treatmetn of acute variceal bleeding include all except:
a. Somatostatin b. Vasopressin c. Nitroglycerin d. Propranolol
-
799.all of the following form radio-lucent stones except:
a. Xanthine b. cysteine c. Allopurinol d. Orotic acid
-
800.A ‘malignant pustule’ is a term used for;
- a. An infected malignant melanoma b. A rapidly spreading rodent ulcer
- c. A carbuncle d. Anthrax of the skin
-
801.A warthin’s tumor is;
- a. An adenolympoma of parotid gland b. A pleomorphic adenoma of parotid gland
- c. A carcinoma of the parotid d. A carcinoma of the submandibular salivary Gland
-
802.A newborn baby had normal APGAR score at birth and development excessive frothing and choking on attempted feeds. The investigation of choice is:
- a. Esophagoscopy b. Bronchoscopy
- c. X-ray chest and abdomen with the red rubber catheter passed per orally into esophagus
- d. MRI chest
-
803. A newborn baby has been referred to the casualty as a café of congenital diaphragmatic hernia. The first clinical intervention is of:
- a. Insert a central venous pressure line b. Bag and mask ventilation
- c. Insert a nasogastric tube d. Ventilate with high frequency ventrilator
-
804.Cells from the neural crest are involved in all except:
- a. Hirschsprung’s disease b. .Neuroblastoma
- c. Primitive neurroctodermal tumor d. Wilms’ tumor
-
805.Which of the following imaging modality is most sensitive to defect early renal tuberculosis:
a. Intravenous urography b. Ultrasound c. Computed tomography d. Magnetic resonance imaging
-
806.Which of the following is not true of gas gangrene:
- a. it is caused by clostridium perfringens
- b. Clostridium perfringens is a gram- negative spore bearing bacillus
- c. Gas gangrene is characterized by severe local pain, crepitus and signs of toxemia
- d. High dose penicillin and aggressive debridement of affected tissue is the treatment of establishment infection
-
807.In a blast injury, which of the following organ is the least vulnerable to the blast wave:
a. GI tract b. Lungs c. Liver d. Ear-Drum
-
808.The term post-traumatic epilepsy refers to seizures occurring:
- a. Within moments of head injury
- b. Within 7 days of head injury
- c. Several weeks to months after head injury
- d. Many years after head injury
-
809.Most common cause of bladder rupture is?
a. Full bladder b. pelvic trauma c. Surgery d. Idiopathic
-
810.The random flap derives its blood supply from;
- a. From the nearby named arteries b. From the passing deeper vessels
- c. Subcutaneous vascular plexus d. Directly from the bed of the wound
-
811.Parotid tumor, which is characterized by perineural spread is:
- a. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma b. Epidermoid carcinoma
- c. Carcinoma of pleomorphic adenoma d. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
-
812.Pancreaticoduodenectomy is the treatment of choice for:
- a. Duodenal carcinoma b. Pancreatic carcinoma
- c. Gallbladder carcinoma d. Gastric carcinoma
-
813.Most common ‘artery’ used for coronary artery bypass graft is:
- a. Internal mammary artery b. Intercostal artery
- c. Radial artery d. Dorsalis pedis artery
-
814. pes cavus is caused by:
- a. Weakness of intrinsic muscles of the foot
- b. Excessive tone of intrinsic muscles
- c. Collapse of the arch
- d. Fracture of calcaneum
-
815.Deficiency of adenosine deaminase is a marker of:
- a. Combined immunodeficiency b. Ataxia telangiectasia
- c. Wiskott-aldrich syndrome d. IgA deficiency
-
816.ACTH production by a pituitary tumor can be differentiated fro ectopic ACTH production :
- a. Dexamethasone suppression test b. Petrosal sinus sampling of blood
- c. Serum ACTH levels d. CT-scan
-
817.A patient with thyroid nodule has enlarged neck lymph node on same side. On needle aspiration amyloid is found. Diagnosis is:
- a. Meduallary carcinoma b. Follicular carcinoma
- c. Lymphoma d. Toxic goiter
-
818.A patient with thyroid nodule has enlarged neck lymph node on same side.on needle aspiration , amyloid is found. Treatment of choice is:
- a. Total thyroidectomy +radical neck dissection
- b. Lubular thyroidectomy with removal of isthmus
- c. Lobular thyroidectomy + removal of isthmus and radical neck dissection
- d. Lobectomy + removal of involved lymph node
-
819.Degloving injury is:
- a. Surgeon made wound b. Lacerated wound
- c. Blunt injury d. Avulsion injury
-
820.Chronically lymphoedematous limb is predisposed to all of the following except:
- a. Sarcoma b. Marjolin’s ulcer
- c. Recurrent soft tissue infections d. Thickening of the skin
-
821.In Budd-Chiari syndrome, the site of venous thrombosis is:
- a. Infrahepatic inferior vena cava b. Infrarenal inferior vena cava
- c. Hepatic veins d. Portal vein
- 822.Polycystic disease of the kidney may have cysts in all of the following organs except:
- a. Lung b. Spleen c. Pancreas d. Liver
-
823.Injection sclerotherapy is ideal for the following :
- a. Strangulated hemorrhoids b. Prolapsed hemorrhoids
- c. Internal hemorrhoids d. External hemorrhoids
-
824.Which of the following types of pancreatitis has the best prognosis?
- a. Alcoholic pancreatitis b. Gallstone pancreatitis
- c. postoperative pancreatitis d. Idiopathic pancreatitis
-
825.Which of the following is not an important cause of hyponatremia?
- a. Gastric fistula b. Excessive vomiting
- c. Excessive sweating d. Prolonged Ryle’s tube aspiration
-
826.Unilateral undescended testis is ideally operated around:
a. 24 months of age b. 12 months of age c. 6 months of age d. 2 months of age
-
827.A 69 year old male patient having coronary artery disease was found to have gallbladder stones while undergoing a routine ultrasound of the abdomen. There was no history of biliary colic or jaundice at any time. What is the best treatment advice for such a patient for his gallbladder stones?
- a. ERCP and bile duct stone extraction b. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
- c. No surgery for gallbladder stones d. ERCP and removal of gallbladder stones
-
828.A 50 year old woman presented with recurrent episodes of right upper abdominal pain for the last one year. She presented to casualty with history of jaundice and fever for 4 days. On examination, the patient appeared toxic and had a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. She was started on intravenous antibiotics. Ultrasound of the abdomen showed presence of stones in the common bile duct. What would be the best treatment option for her?
- a. ERCP and bile duct stone extraction b. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
- c. Open surgery and bile duct stone extraction d. Lithotrispy
-
829.A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates:
a. Breast abscess b. Fibroadenoma c. Duct papilloma d. Fat necrosis of breast
-
830.Dysphagia lusoria is due to:
- a. Esophageal diverticulum b. Aneurysm of aorta
- c. Esophageal web d. Compression by aberrant blood vessel
-
831.Hypoparathyroidism following thyroid surgery commonly occurs within:
a. 24 hours b. 2-5days c. 7-10 days d. 2-3 days
-
832.Investigation of choice to diagnose HIrschsprung’s disease is:
a. Rectal manometry b. Barium enema c. Rectal biopsy d. Laparotomy
-
833.Which of the following malignant diseases of children has the best prognosis?
a. wilm’s tumor b. Neuroblastoma c. Rhabdomyosarcoma d. primitive neuroectodermal tumor
-
834.Which of the following substances is not used as an irrigant during transurethral resection of the prostate?
a. Normal saline b. 1.5% glycine c. 5% dextrose d. Distilled water
-
835.The treatment of choice for a mucocele of gallbladder is:
a. Aspiration of mucous b. Cholecystectomy c. Observation d. Antibotics
-
836.Carcinoid tumor is most common in :
a. Esophagus b. Stomach c. Jejunum d. Appendix
-
837.A 13 year old boy presents with acute right scrotal pain. The pain is not relieved on elevation of the scrotum and he has no fever or dysuria. The testis is enlarged and tender. His routine urinary examination is normal. There is no history of trauma. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
- a. Immediate exploration b. Antibiotics
- c. psychiatric evaluation d. Antibiotics and scrotal elevation
-
838.During bilateral adrenalectomy, intraoperative dose of hydrocortisons should be given after:
- a. opening the abdomen b. Ligation of left adrenal vein
- c. Ligation of right adrenal vein d. Excision of both adrenal glands
-
839.A newborn presented with bloated abdomen shortly after birth with passing of less meconium. A full thickness biopsy of the rectum was carried out. Which of the following is most likely to be present ?
- a. Fibrosis of submucosa b. Hyalinization of the muscular coat
- c. Thickened muscularis propria d. Lac of ganglion cells
-
840.Lumbar sympathectomy is of value in the management of:
- a. Intermittent claudication b. distal ischemia affecting the skin of the toes
- c. Arteriovenous fistula d. Back pain
-
841.A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates one of the following:
a. breast b. Fibroadenoma c. Duct ectasia d. Fat necrosis of breast
-
842.In which of the following conditions splenctomy is not useful?
a. Hereditary spherocytosis b. Porphyria c. Thalassemia d. Sickle cell disease with large spleen
-
843.The following is ideal for the treatment with injection of sclerosing agents:
- a. External hemorrhoids b. Internal hemorrhoids
- c. Prolapsed hemorrhoids d. Strangulated hemorrhoids
-
844. In which of the following locations, carcinoid tumor is most common ?
a. Esophagus b. Stomach c. Small bowel d. Appendix
-
845.Parathyroid hyperplasia and pheochromocytoma may be associated with:
- a. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid b. papillary carcinoma of thyroid
- c. Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid d. Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
-
846.Whihc of the following usually produces osteoblastic secondaries?
a. Carcinoma lung b. Carcinoma breast c. Carcinoma urinary bladder d. Carcinoma prostate
-
847.Gardener’s syndrome is a rare hereditary disorder involving the colon. It is characterized by:
- a. Polyposis colon, cancer thyroid, skin tumors
- b. Polyposis in jejunum, pituitary adenoma and skin tumors
- c. Polyposis colon, osteomas, epidermal inclusion cysts and fibrous tumors in the skin
- d. Polyposis of gastrointestinal tract, cholangiocarcinoma and skin tumors
-
848.All of the following are true for patients of ulcerative colitis associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) except:
- a. They may develop biliary cirrhosis
- b. May have raised alkaline phosphatase
- c. Increased risk of hilar cholangiocarcinoma
- d. PSC reverts after a total colectomy
-
849.Which one of the following is not used as a tumor marker in testicular tumors?
a. AFP b. LDH c. hCG d. CEA
-
850.According to the Glasgow coma scale (GCS), a verbal score of 1 indicates;
- a. No response b. inappropriate words
- c. Incomprehensible sounds d. Disoriented response
-
851.Which one of the following is not a feature of liver histology in noncirrhotic portal fibrosis(NCPF)
- a. Fibrosis in and around the portal tracts
- b. Thrombosis of the medium and small portal vein branches
- c. Nonspecific inflammatory cell infiltrates in the portal tracts
- d. Bridging fibrosis
-
852.The most common complication seen in hiatus hernia is:
a.. Esophagitis b. Aspiration pneumonia c. Volvulus d. Esophageal stricture
-
853.A young woman met with an accident and had mild quadriparesis. Her lateral X-ray cervical spine revealed C5-C6 fracture –dislocation. Which of the following is the best line of management:
- a. Immediate anterior decompression
- b. Cervical traction by instruction fixation
- c. Hard cervical collar and bed rest
- d. Cervical laminectomy
-
854.The most common cancer affecting Indian urban women in Delhi, Mumbai and Chennai is:
a. Cervical cancer b. Ovarian cancer c. Breast cancer d. Uterine cancer
-
855.in which of the following diseases, screening procedure increases the overall survival?
a. prostate cancer b. Lung cancer c. Colon cancer d. Ovarian cancer
-
856. Hypoparathyroidism following thyroid surgery occurs within:
a. 24 hours b. 2-5 days c. 7-14 days d. 2-3 weeks
-
857.The tissue of origin of the kaposi’s sarcoma is:
a. Lymphoid b. Vascular c. Neural d. Muscular
-
858.All of the following hereditary conditions, predispose to CNS tumors, except:
- a. Neurofibromatosis b. Tuberous sclerosis
- c. von Hippel-Lindau syndrome d. Xeroderma pigmentosum
-
859.All of the following clinicopathologic features are seen more often in seminomas ascompared to non seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis except:
- a. Tumors remain localized t testis for a long time
- b. They are radiosensitive
- c. They metastasize predominantly by Lymphatics
- d. They are often associatd with raised levels of serum APF and hCG
-
860.Which of the following is the most common type of pituitary adenoma?
a. Thyrotrophinoma b. Gonadotrophinoma c. Prolactinoma d. Corticotroponoma
-
861.Nelson’s sundrome is most likely seen after:
a. Hypophysectomy b. Adrenalectomy c. THyroidectomy d. Orchidectomy
-
862.The most common site of intestinal obstruction in gallstone ileus is:
a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Sigmoid colon d. Ileum
-
863.Treatment of choice for medullary carcinoma of thyroid is:
- a.total thyroidectomy b. partial thyroidectomy
- c. 131I ablation d. Hemithyroidectomy
-
864.Complications of total thyroidectomy include all, except:
a. Hoarseness b. Airway obstruction c. Hemorrhage d. Hypercalcemia
-
865.Which of the following is the most radiosensitive tumor?
a. Ewing’s tumor b. Hodgkin’s disease c. Carcinoma cervix d. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
-
866.Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis usually presents:
- a. within 2 days after birth b. Around 1 week after birth
- c. Around 2 weeks after birth d. Around 2 months after birth
-
867.Whihc is the most common site of metastatic disease?
a. Lung b. Bone c. Liver d. Brain
-
868.Treatment of choice in renal cell carcinoma with tumor of les than 4 cm in size is:
- a. Partial nephrectomy b. Radical nephrectomy
- c. Radical nephrectomy + postoperative radiotherapy
- d. Radical nephrectomy + chemotherapy
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