-
1. Best method of diagnosiing acute appendicitis is:
a. Barium meal b. History c. X-ray abdomen d. Physical examination
-
2. True regarding pott’s puffy “ tumor” is:
- a. Frontal bone osteomyelitis with overlying soft tissue swelling
- b. Swelling of ankle associated with pott’s fracture
- c. Swelling associated with pott’s spine
- d. Malignant tumor of scalp
-
3. Ramsdt’s operation is done for:
- a. Annular pancreas b. Achalasia cardia
- c.carcinma stomach d. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis of infants
-
4. Projective vomiting and visible peristalsis in upper abdomen in the 1st month of life is most commonly due to:
- a. Duodenal ileus b. Annular pancreas
- c.Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d. Malrotation of gut
-
5. In infancy pyloric stenosis should be treated with:
a. Heller’s myotomy b. Medical treatment c. Ramstedt’s operation d. Gastrojejunostomy
-
6. Bilious vomiting is not seen in:
- a. Pyloric stenosis b. Duodenal atresia
- c.Volvulus of small intestine d. Jejunal atresia
-
7. A 26 year old infant presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting, constipation and rabbit like pellet stol. He has:
a. Choledichal cyst b. Esophageal atresia c. Duodenal atresia d. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
-
8. False regarrding hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is:
- a. X-ray abdomen shows gastric dilation and minimum air in small intestine
- b. Usg is not helpful in diagnosis
- c. Common in boys
- d. Usually presents between 2-8 years
-
9. Hypertrophic Pyloric stenosis is ideally treated with:
a. Ryle’s tube and fluids b. Wait and watch c. Pyloromyotomy d. Pyloroplasty
-
10. In which of the following conditions, triad of pain in abdomen , jaundice and melena is seen :
a. Acute pancreatitis b. Hemobilia c. Gallbladdr carcinoma d. Acute cholecystitis
-
11. Not a feature of hemobilia :
a. Jaundice b. Abdominal pain c. Gastrointestinal bleeding d. Fever
-
12. Hemobilia occurs most commonly due to:
a. Cholengitis b. Gallstone c. Trauma d. Liver abscess
-
13. In 3rd degree piles, the treatment of choice is:
a. Hemorrhoidectomy b. Cryosurgery c. Banding d. Injection treatment
-
14. Th etreatment of choice of 2nd degree piles is:
a. Surgery b. Banding c. Cryosurgery d. Sclerotherapy
-
15. Most common cause of bleeding per rectum in men between 20-40 years of age is:
a. Fissure in ano b. Internal heemorrhoids c. Rectal polyp d. Rectal carcinoma
-
16. Following hemorrhoidectomy th emost common complication is:
a. Urinary retention b. Infection c. Hemorrhage d. Fecal impaction
-
17. False regarding hemorrhoids is:
- a. They are arterriolar dilatations
- b. They are common causes of painless bleeding
- c. They cannot be palpated per rectally
- d. Discharge, pain and anemia are other symptoms
-
18. A neonate presents with dribbling of saliva. The diagnosis is:
- a. Choanal atresia b. Tracheoesophageal fistula
- c.Duodenal atresia d. Esophageal atresia
-
19. A neonate regurgitates first and subsequent feeds. Diagnosis is:
a. Presbyoesophagus b. Scleroderma c. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d. Esophageal atresia
-
20. Which of the following is the most common type of congential atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula:
- a. Both segment ends blindly
- b. Both segment opening into trachea
- c. Upper ssegment opening into trachea and lower end is blind
- d. Lower segment opening into trachea and upper end is blind
-
21. In which of the following condition, nicoladoni’s of Branham’s sign is seen:
- a. Arteriovenous fistula(AVF) b. Deep vein thrombosis
- c.Raynaud’s diasease d. Buerger’s disease
-
22. Common cause of uniteral hypertrophy and local gigantism is:
- a. Lipomatosis b. Bone tumor c. AV fistula d. Neurofibromatosis
- 23. In which fo the following carcinoma of thyroid, lymphatic node metastasis is seen:
- a. Anaplastic b. Follicular c. Medullar d. Papillary
-
24. In which of the following carcinoma of thyroid, lympatic involvement is common;
a. Anaplastic b.Follicular c. Papillary d. Medullary
-
25. Most common carcinoma of thyroid is:
a. Mdullary b. Anaplastic c. Follicular d. Papillary
-
26. In carcinoma of breast, a secondaries deposit is most common in:
a. Bone b. Brain c. Liver d. Lung
-
27. In carcinoma breast , most common sit eof bony metastatis is:
a. Sacral vertebra b. Lumber vertebra c. Thoratic vertebra d. Cervical vertebra
-
28. Not a feature of charcot’s triad:
a. Vomiting b. Jaundice c. Fever d. Pain
-
29. In cholangitis the most common organism is:
a. Streptococcus b. Clostridium c. Eschericha coli d. Entamoeba histolytica
-
30. Charcot’s triad is seen in :
a. Gangrene of gallbladder b. Acute appendicitis c. Acute cholecystitis d. Cholangitis
-
31. Not seen in cholangitis:
a. Septic shock b. Fever c. Jaundice d. Biliary colic
-
32. Potato tumor is a :
a. Carotid body tumor b. Sternomastoid tumor c. cystic hygroma d. Brancial cyst
-
33. False regarding Meckel’s diverticulum is:
- a. 60cm From the ileocecal valve b. Arise from mesenteric border
- c.intussusception d. Bleeding
-
34. Most common somplication of Meckel’s diverticulum is:
a. Intussusception b. Obstruction c. Bleeding d. Diverticulitis
-
35. Complication s of meckel’s diverticulum include:
a. Intussusception b. Intestinal obstruction c. Hemorrhage d. All of the above
-
36. False regarding Meckel’s diverticulum is:
- a. Always contains gastric tissue
- b. True diverticulum
- c. Antimesenteric border
- d. Present in 2 % population
-
37. A 30 –year-old woman is accidentally found to have a wide mouthed Meckel’s diverticulum during laparotomy. Best method of treatment :
- a. Diverticulectomy
- b. Leave it alone
- c. Resection of diverticulum with a short segment of ileum and anastomoses
- d. Resection of diverticulum and stump is invaginated
-
38. In which of the following condition , theirsch operation is done:
a. Incontinence b. Rectal prolapse c. hemorrhoids d. Fissure in ano
-
39. For which of the following condition, delorme’s operation is done;
a. Rectal carcinoma b. Fissure in ano c. Fistula in ano d. Rectal prolapse
-
40. False about cystic hygroma is:
- a. Aspiration contains cholesterol crystals b. Ruminant of 2nd brancial cleft
- c.Brilliantly transucent d. Brilliantly transilluminant
-
41. cystic hygroma:
- a. Manifests in 2nd -3rd decade b. Spontaneous regression
- c. Excision of the cyst at an early age d. Should be left alone
-
42. Which of the following is brilliantly translucent:
a. Seaceous cyst b. dErmoid cyst c. Cystic hygroma d. Branchial cyst
-
43. Cystic hygroma is a :
a. Hemangioma b. Sebaceous gland tumor c. Meningioma d. Lymphangioma
-
44. After birth, th eearliest tumor to occur is:
a. Lymphoma b. Branchial cyst c. Cystic hygroma d. Sternomastoid tumor
-
45. In mallory –weises syndrome where is the mucosal tear located;
- a. Near gastric pylorus b. Gastroesophageal junction
- c. upper end of esophagus d. Gastric antrum
-
46. False regarding mallory- weiss syndrome is:
- a. Present with history of retching or vomiting
- b. Alcohol is not a predisposing factor
- c. Hematemesis is usually self limited
- d. Nonpenetrating mucosal tear at gastroesophageal junction
-
47. Sengstaken tube must maintain a pressure of… mmHg above what was recrded before insertion, to stop bleeding from varices:
a. 35 b. 45 c. 25 d. 20
-
48. In which of th efollowing conditon , sengstaken tube is used:
a. Biliary cirrhosis b. Hepatic aneurysm c. Blunt trauma d. Bleeding varices
-
49. In blunt injury to abdomen, organ commonly involved is;
a. Appendix b. Intestine c. Liver d. Spleen
-
50. Most common cause of a portal hypertension is situated at:
a. Postthepatic b. Prehapatic c. Intrahepatic d. Equal in all of the above
-
51. Medical treatment of gallbladder stone is possible in;
- a. nonfunctioning gallbladdr b. Radiopaque stones
- c. Size of stone is <15 mm d. Calcium oxalate stones
-
52. Oral ursodeoxycholic acid therapy is ineffctive in dissolving which of the following type of stones:
a. Radiopaque b.Sixe <15 mm c. Cholesterol or mixed d. Radiolucent gallstones
-
53. Medical treatment of gallstones is useful in all except:
a. Functioning of gallbladder b. Size ,15 mm c. Pigmented stone d. Cholesterol stone
-
54. Pseudopolyposis is a feature of which of the following disease:
a. Tuberculosis colitis b. Typhoid enteritis c. Chron’s disease d. ulcerative colitis
-
55. Sulphonamide is a feature of which of the following disease:
a. Sulphacetamide b. Sulphasalazine c. Sulphamethizole d. Sulphadiazine
-
56. True regarding ulcerative colitis:
- a. Rectum is almost always involved b. Fistulas are common
- c. Skip lesions are seen d. String sign of kantor positive
-
57. Not a complication of ulceratve colitis:
a. Sclerosing cholangitis b. Peptic ulcer c. Toxic megacolon d. Arthiritis
-
58. In which of the following condition, pyoderma gangrenosum is seen:
a. Ischemic colitis b./ Ulcerative colitis c.Chron’s disease d. Amebic colitis
-
59. “signof emptying” is seen in:
a. Salmon patch b. Port wine stain c. Plexiform angioma d. Strawberry angioma
-
60. Red discoloration on eyeld which disappears by one year is:
- a. Venous hemangioma b. Strawberry hemangioma
- c. Port wine stain d. Salmon patch
-
61. Tuft of hairs is seen in :
a. Spina bifida b. Spina aperta c. Sacrococcygeal teratoma d. Meylomeningocele
-
62. Meningomyelocele most commonly occurs at:
a. Skull b. Thoratic spine c. Lumbosacral spine d. Cervical spine
-
63. IN Hodgkin’s lymphoma, the malignant cell is:
a. Recticulum cells b. Histocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Reed sternnerg cells
-
64. Most common site of enlargement of lymmph nodes in Hodkin’s lymphoma is:
a. Abdominal b. Cevical c. Axillary d. Mediastinal
-
65. Most common presentation of Hodkin’s lymphoma is;
a. Leukocytosis b. Fever c. Painless enlargement of lymph nodes d. Pruritus
-
66. Hodkin’s ;ymphoma with right sided neck nodes and left inguimal node without fever is of:
a. Stage Ia b. Stage IIIa c. stage Iia d. Stage Iva
-
67. Not a type B symptom of Hodkin’s lymphoma:
a. Pruritus b. Headache c. Weight loss d. Fever
-
68. In a patient with Hodkin’s lymphoma with unilateral lymph node involvement, treatment of choice is :
a. Irradiation b. Single drug chemotherapy c. Neck dessection d. Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy
-
69. Worst prognosis Hodkin’s lymphoma is:
- a. Lymphocyte depketed b. Mixed cellularity
- c. Lymphocyte predominance d. Nodular sclerosis
-
70. In polycystic kidney cysts are seen in all of the following organs except:
a. Pancreas b. Lungs c. Brain d. Liver
-
71. The treatment of choice in polycystic kidney;
a. Nephrectomy b. Renal transplanation c. Dialysis d. Removal of cyst
-
72. Liver cyst in polycystic kidney occurs in:
a. 10% b. 58% c. 18% d. 85%
-
73. In which of the following ‘spider leg’ appearance of calyces in intracenous urography is seen :
a. Hydronephrosis b. Horse shoe kidney c. Congenital cystic kidneys d. Hypernephroma
-
74. Secondaries of which of the following does not cause osteolytic lesion:
a. Thyroid b. prostate c. Breast d. Bronchus
-
75. In which of the following osteoblastic secondaries are seen:
a. neuroblastoma b. Thyroid c. Breast d. Prostate
-
76. Heller’s operation is done in :
a. carcinoma esophagus b. Peptic ulcer c. Achalasia cardia d. Pyloric stenosis
-
77. True regarding achalasia cardia is:
a. Congenital dilatation b. Caused by scleroderma c. Sensory distrubance d. A motor distrubance
-
78. For achalasia cardia, the best investigation is:
a. Esophagscopy b. Sccintigraphy c. Barium meal d. Manometry
-
79. False regarding achalasia cardia is:
- a. X-ray finding of dilated wesophagus with a narrow end
- b. Macholyl test is hyposensitive
- c. Aspiration pneumonitis
- d. dysphagia
-
80. Predisposing factor for testicular tumor is:
a. Abdominal testis b. Chronic orchitis c. Torsion d. Trauma
-
81. In stage I seminoma, the treatment of choice is:
a. Medical b. Surgical c. Chemotherapy d. Radiotherapy
-
82. From which of the following glomus tumor originates:
a. Endoderm b. Mesoderm c. Neuroectoderm d. Ectoderm
-
83. False regarding glomus tumor is:
- a. Regulation of temperature of skin b. Resection is curative
- c. Distal extremity d. Mass
-
84. In renal cell carcinoma, which of the following endocrine manifestation may occur:
- a. Peptic ulcer b. Renin related hypertension
- c. Gynecomastia d. Cushing’s syndrome
-
85. Most common metastasis in renal cell carcinoma is to:
a. Lung b. Bone c. Adrenal d. Liver
-
86. Solitary ‘Pulsatile’ bone secondaries are most likely from:
- a.Carcinoma of breast b. Carcinom aof prostate
- c. Carcinoma of kidney d. Carcinom aof adrenal
-
87. Not a feature of renal cell carcinoma:
a. Renal vein thrombosis b. Hypertension c. Increased CEA d. Polythemia
-
88. Thyroglossal fistula develops due to which of the following :
- a. Inflammatory disorder b. Incomplete removal of thyroglossla cyst
- c. Injury d. Developmental anomaly
-
89. Sistrunk’s operation is done in:
- a. Branchial fistula b. Thyroglossal cyst
- c. Paratoid tumor d. Thyroiglossal fistula
-
90. Which of the following has close proximity to hyoid bone:
- a. Enlarged sbmandibular lymph nodes b. Thyroglossal fistula
- c. Aneurysm of carotid artery d. Brancial cyst
-
91. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid arises from:
- a. Stroma of gland cell b. Capsule of thyroid
- c. Parafollicular cells d. Cells lining the acini
-
92. Which of the following is the marker for medullary carcinoma of thyroid :
a. Phosphorus b. Thyroxine c. Parathormone d. Calcitonin
-
93. False regarding varicocele:
- a. Testicular veins involved b. More common on the right side
- c. may be first feature of a renal tumor d. Feels like a bag of worms
-
94. Varococele is common in left tests. The reason of this is:
- a. Compression of testicular vein by rectum
- b. Left testis is lower situated
- c. Left testicular veins drains into renal vein which has high pressure
- d. Left testicuar vein drains int IVC which has high pressure
-
95. Most common malignant tumor of spleen is:
a. Squamous cell carcinom a b. Adenocarcinoma c. Hemangioma d. Lymphoma
-
96. Which of the following is the most common tumor of spleen:
a. Sarcoma b. secondaries from kidney c. Hemangioma d. Lymphoma
-
97. In which of the following condition Goodsall’s rule is used:
a. Hernia b. Hemorrhoids c. Fistula in ano d. Rectal prolapse
-
98. All are false regarding diverticulitis of colon except:
- a. Asymptomatic b. Treatment is only consarvative
- c. Seen in >40 years of age d. Precancerous lesion
-
99.. Dumping syndrome is because of:
- a. Reduced gastric capacity b. Vagotomy
- c. Hypertonic content in small intestine d. Diarrhea
-
100. Strcture not excised in radicla neck dissection ;
- a. Submandibular salivary gland b. Internal jugular vein
- c. Vagus nerve d. Sternomastoid muscle
-
101. Structure not removed in classi radical neck dissextion:
- a. Internal jugular vein b. Submandibular gland
- c. Phrenic nerve d. Accessory nerve
-
102. Structure not saved in radical neck dissection is:
a. Lower brachial plexus b. Vagus nerve c. Spinal accessory nerve d. Hypoglossal nerve
-
103. False regarding vertebral hemangioma is:
- a. Usually found in 2-5% of population
- b. Hyper-intense in T image in MRI
- c. Usually associated with liver hemangioma and carcinoma
- d. Usually asymptomatic
-
104. Toxic megacolon is seen in which of the following disease:
a. Ulcerative colitis b. Carcinoma colon c. Carcinoid d. Gastrocolic fistula
-
105. Not a feature of esophageal rupture:
a. Low blood pressure b. Bradycardia c. Fever d. Pain
-
106. In which of the following hydradenitis suppurativa occurs:
a. Eccrine gland b. Sebaceous gland c. Apocrine gland d. Hair follicles
-
107. Not a feature of deep vein thrombosis in lower limb:
a. Discoloration b. Claudication c. Tender calf muscle d. Swelling
-
108. In which of the following condition , malignant changes in testis occurs:
a. Pyocele b. Hydrocele c. Trauma d. Crytorchidism
-
109. In which of the following condition, meconium ileus is seen ;
- a. Hirschsprung’s disease b. Pyloric stenosis
- c. Fibrocystic disease of pancreas d. Duodenal atresia
-
110. Most common site of lymphoma in GI tract is:
a. Ileum b. Colon c. Duodenum d. Stomach
-
111. A parient with pituitary tumor, pheochromocytoma, and hyperthyroidism is most likely to have;
- a. Follicular carcinoma thyroid
- b. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
- c. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
- d. Anplastic carcinoma thyroid
-
112. MEN II is seen with which of the following thyroid carcinoma:
a. Follicular b. Anaplastic c. Medullary d. Papillary
-
113. Not an indication for splenectomy:
- a. primary splenic tumor b. Hereditary spherocytosis
- c. Splenic abscess d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
-
114. not included in basic life support:
- a. Intracardiac adrenaline b. Expiratory air ventilation
- c. Cardiac massage d. Airway
-
115. Most common primary brain tumor is:
- a. Pituitary adenoma b. Craniopharyngioma
- c. Abdominoperineal resection d. Meningioma
-
116. A 70 year old male presented with carcinoma rectum 3cm From anal verge. Treatment of choice is :
- a. Distal sigmoid colostomy b. Dysfunctional surgery
- c. Abdominoperineal resection d. None of the above
-
117. In carcinoma of rectum 12cm from anal verge, the treatment of choice is:
- a. Anterior resection b. Dysfunctional resection
- c. Hartmann’s operation d. None of the above
-
118. Prognosis of carcinoma rectum is best assessed by:
a. Site of tumor b. histological grading c. Size of tumor d. Duration of symptoms
-
119. Earliest symptom of carcinoma rectum:
a. Pain b. Alteration of bowel habits c. Bleeding per rectum d. Tenesmus
-
120. Duhamel operation is done for which of the following condition;
- a. Congenital pyloric stenosis b. Hiatus hernia
- c. Achalasia cardia d. Hirschsprung’s disease
-
121. In Hischsprung’s disease, common aganglionic part is:
a. Rectum b. Jejunum c. Ileum d. Duodenum
-
122. All are false ragarding Hischsprung’s disease except:
- a. Regular ddilation effective b. Rectal biopsy is diagnostic
- c. Presentation is within 3 days d. More common in females
-
123. Which of the following is the most common cause of parotid swelling :
- a. Tuberculosis of aparatoid lymph nodes b. Warthin’s tumor
- c. Muco epidemoid tumor d. Pleomorphic adenoma
-
124. Pleomorphic adenoma of parotid is treated with:
- a. Total removal b. Deep lobe removal
- c. Redical removal d. Hemi superficial parotidectomy
-
125. Parotid tumor which is most commonly seen :
- a. Sarcoma b. Adenocystic carcinoma
- c. Pleomorphic adenoma d. Adenocarcinoma
-
126. Pleomorphic ladenoma most commonly occurs at:
- a. Minor salivary gland b. Sublingual gland
- c. Submandibular gland d. Parotid gland
-
127. True regarding pleomorphic tumor is:
- a. 80% of benign tumors are of pleomorphic origin
- b. Treatment is enucleation
- c. They are commonly associated with nerve involvement
- d. Pleomorphic tumors over period of time give rise to warthin’s adenoma
-
128. A patient has swelling in parotid which pushes the tonsil medially. Histologically it is pleomorphic adenoma. This should be treated with:
- a. Parotidectomy with leaving behind facial nerve and radical neck dissection
- b. Total parotidectomy
- c. Conservative parotidectomy
- d. Superficial parotidectomy
-
129. False regarding pseudopancreatic cyst is:
- a. Mostly present in head of pancreas b. Incresed serum amylase
- c. Presents as abdominal mass d. Common after acute pancreatitis
-
130. In pdeudopancreatic cyst the treatment of choice is:
a. Cystojejunostomy b. External drainage c. excision of cyst d. None of the above
-
131. False regarding pseudopancreatic cyst is:
- a. Epigastric mass b. Increase amylase
- c. Cystojejunostomy is the treatment of choice
- d. Percutaneous aspiration is the treatment of choice
-
132. In pseudopancreatic cyst , collection of fluid occurs in :
a. Hepato-renal pouch b. Greater sac c. Lesser sac d. Between intestinal loops
-
133. Pseudocyst of pancreas most commonly occurs after:
- a. Pancreatic malignancy b. Pancreatic surgery
- c. Acute pancreatitis d. Trauma
-
134. 5 cm umcomplicated pancreatic pseudocyst of 6 weeks duration should be managed by:
a. Serial USG b. Internal drainage c. External drainage d. Removal with limited pancreatic resection and duct closure
-
135. A 65 year old man has recurrent thrombophlebitis in upper arm for the last 6 months. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Osteosarcoma b. Oral carcinoma c. Pancreatic carcinoma d. Prostatic carcinoma
-
136. IN which of the following carcinoma, migratory thrombophlebitis is seen:
- a. Carcinoma of kidney b. Carcinoma of lung
- c. Carcinoma of nasopharynx d. Carcinoma of liver
-
137. Cleft lip is due to nonfusion of:
- a. Maxillary process with lateral nasal process
- b. Maxillary process with medial nasal process
- c. Maxillary process with mandibular process
- d. All of the above
-
138. Cleft lip is due to nonfusion of:
a. 2 years b. 12-18 months c. 6-8 months d. 3-6 months
-
139. Most common type of cleft lip is:
- a. Unilateral (right sided) b. Unilateral ( left sided)
- c. Bilateral d. Midline
-
140.Carcinoid tumor most commonly occurs at:
a. Adrenal b. Bronchus c. Small intestine d. Appendix
-
141. Hamman’s sign is typically seen in:
- a. Pneumomediastinum b. Pneumopericardium
- c. Pneumothorax d. Subcutaneous emphysema
-
142.Most common site of carcinoma stomach is:
a. GAstroesophageal junction b. CARdia c.Body d. Antrum
-
143. Carcinoma stomach is associated with which of the following blood group:
a. A b. B c. AB d. O
-
144. False regarding carcinoma of stomach is:
- a. Most common site for neoplasm is pre-pyloric region
- b. Troisier’s sign present
- c. Gastric carcinoma is common in people of blood Group O
- d. Superficial spreading type has best prognosis
-
145.In which of the following condition, hyperbaric oxygen is used:
a. Gangrene b. Anaerobic infection c. CO poisoning d. Ventilation failure
-
146. In subclavian steal syndrome, blood flow in vertebral artery is:
a. Reversed b. Increased c. Decreased d. Not seen
-
147. Cutaneous malignancy which does not metastasize to lymphatics is:
a. Kaposi sarcoma b. Melanoma c. basal cell carcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
-
148. In basal cell carcinoma at inner canthus of eye, the treatment of choice is:
- a. Surgery +Radiotherapy b. Chemotherapy
- c. Radiotherapy d. Wide excision and reconstruction
-
149.Most common site of rodent ulcer is;
a. Trunk b. abdomen c. Face d. Limbs
-
150.FNAC is not useful in which of the following thyroid carcinoma:
a. Medullary b. Follicular c. Papillary d. Anasplastic
-
151. Ideal treatment of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is:
a. Subtotal thyroidectomy b. Steroids c. Thyroxine d. TSH
-
152. False regarding hashimoto’s thyroiditis is:
- a. Autoimmune thyroiditis b. papillary carcinoma of thyroid
- c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis d. Agranulomaous thyroiditis
-
153. In which of the following condition, hurthle cells are seen:
- a. Thyroimmune cyst b. papillary carcinoma of thyroid
- c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis d. Agranulomatous thyroiditis
-
154. Symptom most frequently seen in patients of primary biliary cirrhosis is:
a. Gastrointestinal bleeding b. Jaundice c. Splenomegaly d. Pruritus
-
155. A chronic alcoholic has liver cirrhosis, presented with mass in liver, and raised AFP . most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Secondary from carcinoma colon b. Hepatic adenoma
- c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. hepatocellular carcinoma
-
156. in which of the following condition, α fetoprotein is increased:
- a. Cervix carcinoma b. Urinary bladder carcinoma
- c. Lung carcinoma d. Hepatocellular carcinoma
-
157. Gallstone which is most commonly found is:
a. Calcium oxalate b. Pure cholesterol c. Mixed stone d. Pigment stone
-
158. not a component of “saint’s” triad;
a. Gallstones b. Renal stones c. Hiatus hernia d. Diverticulosis
-
159. Percentage of gallstones which are radiopaque:
a. 10% b. 20% c. 30 % d. 50%
-
160. Fistula in ano is most commonly caused by:
a. Anal gland infection b. Crohn’s disease c. Ulcerative colitis d. Tuberculosis
-
161. In fistula in ano, treatment of choice is:
a. Fistulotomy b. fistulectomy c. Anal dilatation d. Fissurectomy
-
162. A patient presents with regurgitation of food which he ingested 3 days ago, foul smelling breath and intermittent dysphagia for solid foods. Most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Pyloric stenosis b. Diabetic gastroparesis
- c. Zenker’s diverticulum d. Achalasia cardia
-
163. All are false regarding Zenker’s diverticulum except;
- a. It occurs in children b. Treatment is cricopharyngeal myotomy
- c. Occurs in mid esophagus d. Asymptomatic
-
164. Which of the following is the best source of split skin graft:
a. Xenograft b. Isograft c. Homograft d. Autograft
-
165. isograft is:
- a. Transfer of tissue between monozygotic twins
- b. Transfer of tissue between different species
- c. Transfer of tissue between two individuals
- d. Transfer of tissue between brothers
-
166.All are false regarding renal trauma except:
- a. Renal artery aneurysm is common
- b. Lumbar approach to kidney
- c. Exploration of kidney to be done in all cases
- d. Urgent IVP is indicated
-
167.True ragarding thiersch’s graft is:
a. Pedcle graft b. Muscle flap c. Full thickness d. Partial thickness
-
168.In gastrojejunocolic fistula, diarrhea is due to:
- a. Decreased absorption b. Blind loop syndrome
- c. Peptic digestion of colonic mucosa d. Acid digestion of colonic mucosa
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169. Treatment of paget’s disease of nipple is;
- a. Chemotherapy b. Biopsy and simple mastectomy
- c. Radical mastectomy d. Radiotheray
-
170. Not a mid line swelling in neck:
a. Branchial cyst b. Ludwwig’s angina c. Sub hyoid bursitis d. Thyroglossal cyst
-
171.False about mannitol:
- a. Sugar with high molecular weight b. Prevents ARF in shock
- c. Used in crush syndrome d. Used in Obstructive jaundice surgeries
-
172. Not a feature of crush syndrome:
- a. Dialysis may be life saving in uremia b. oligemic shock
- c. Myoglobinemia d. Cardiac tamponade
-
173. Not a cause of choledochal cyst:
- a. Due to both intrinsic defect and obstruction
- b. Congenital anomaly of bite duct
- c. Iinspissated bile
- d. Pancreased- biliary anatomical anomaly
-
174.Choledochal cyst should be treated with:
- a.Transplantation b. Excision of cyst of choledochocystojejunostomy
- c. Cystojejunostomy d. Gastrojejunostomy
-
175.All are false regarding choledochal cyst except:
- a. Best treatment is choledochocystojejunostomy
- b. Jaundice is present
- c. Usually asymptomatic
- d. Usually suoraduodenal
-
176.Klatskin tumor is located at:
- a. The junction of bile duct bb. Vater’s ampulla
- c. Bile duct d. Junction of cystic duct and bile duct
-
177.In which of the following conditin, cullen’s sign is seen:
- a. Blunt injury to abdomen b. Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis
- c. Acute appndicitis d. Acute cholecystitis
-
178.In multiple myeloma, hyponatremia is:
a. Relative b. Pseudo c. True d. Absolute
-
179.Not a feature of vanBuchem’s disease:
- a. Increased acid phosphate b. Facial palsy
- c. Overgrowth d. Distortion of mandible
-
180.Thyroid carcinoma which has best prognosis is:
a. Follicular b. Anaplastic c. Medullary d. Papillary
-
181.Characteristic feature of peyronie’s disease is:
a. Unpredictable history b. Pain on erection c. Bend on erection d. All are true
-
182.Peyronie’s disease affects the:
a. Breast b. Vagina c.Scrotum d. Penis
-
183. In bilateral adrenal hyerplasia, the treatmetn of choice is:
a. Follow up b. Pitutary irradiation c. Bilateral adrenalectomy d. Unilateral adrenalectomy
-
184.McBurney’s point is siteuated at:
- a. Umbilicus liver junction
- b. Junction of lateral 1/3rd and medial 2/3rd line
- c. Junction of lateral 2/3rd and medial 1/3rd line
- d. Middle of right spino-umbilical line
-
185.True regarding cancrum oris is:
- a. Pus accumulates in the floor of mouth b. Cheek carcinoma
- c. Localized Gngrene of check d. Multiple oral ulceration
-
186.Content of Richter’s hernia is;
a. Sigmoid colon b. Meckel’s diverticulum c. Bladder d.. Portion of intestine
-
187.In which of the following condition, very high level of alkaine phosphatase is seen;
- a. Tuberculous liver b. Metastatic liver carcinoma
- c. primary biliary cirrhosis d. All of the above
-
188.Most common site of anorectal abscess is:
a. Perianal b. Pelvirectal c. Submucous d. Ischiorectal
-
189.True regarding decubitus ulcer is:
a. Arterial ischemia b. Venous congestion c. Pressuree sores d. All of the above
-
190.Not seen in subacute thyroiditis:
a. Fever b. Increased radioiodine uptake c. Increased ESR d. Pain
-
191.Not seen in de Quervain’s thyroiditis:
a. Fever b. Increased radioiodine uptake c. Increased ESR d. Pain
-
192.Strangulation is most common with which hernia:
a. Inguinal b. Epigastric c. Obturator d. Femoral
-
193.In hernia en-glissade , the most common content is:
a. Omentum b.Urinary bladder c.Caecum d. Sigmoid colon
-
194.Most common hernia of abdominal wall is;
a. Femoral b. Umbilical c. Inguinal d. Ventral
-
195.Not an indication for liver transplantation;
a. Biliary atresia b. Alcoholic hepatitis c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Cirrhosis
-
196.In rectum most malignant polyp is;
a. Pseudopolyps b. Juvenile polyp c. Tubular polyp d. Vilous adenoma
-
197.Carcinoma seen in anal canal is:
- a. Basal cell carcinoma b. Transitional cell carcinoma
- c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Adenocarcinoma
-
198.Primary vesical calculus is seen with which of the following :
a. Infected urine b. Sterile urine c. Alkain urine d. Acidic urine
-
199.Ranula is:
- a. Retention cyst of sublingual gland
- b. Retention cyst of submandibular gland
- c. Extravasation cyst of sublingual glands
- d. Extravasation cyst of submandibular glands
-
200.In which of the following, ranula lies:
- a. Digastric triangle b. Supraclavicular region
- c. Tip of tongue d. Floor of mouth
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