Sharad Surgery

  1. 1. Best method of diagnosiing acute appendicitis is:
    a. Barium meal b. History c. X-ray abdomen d. Physical examination
  2. 2. True regarding pott’s puffy “ tumor” is:
    • a. Frontal bone osteomyelitis with overlying soft tissue swelling
    • b. Swelling of ankle associated with pott’s fracture
    • c. Swelling associated with pott’s spine
    • d. Malignant tumor of scalp
  3. 3. Ramsdt’s operation is done for:
    • a. Annular pancreas b. Achalasia cardia
    • c.carcinma stomach d. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis of infants
  4. 4. Projective vomiting and visible peristalsis in upper abdomen in the 1st month of life is most commonly due to:
    • a. Duodenal ileus b. Annular pancreas
    • c.Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d. Malrotation of gut
  5. 5. In infancy pyloric stenosis should be treated with:
    a. Heller’s myotomy b. Medical treatment c. Ramstedt’s operation d. Gastrojejunostomy
  6. 6. Bilious vomiting is not seen in:
    • a. Pyloric stenosis b. Duodenal atresia
    • c.Volvulus of small intestine d. Jejunal atresia
  7. 7. A 26 year old infant presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting, constipation and rabbit like pellet stol. He has:
    a. Choledichal cyst b. Esophageal atresia c. Duodenal atresia d. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
  8. 8. False regarrding hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is:
    • a. X-ray abdomen shows gastric dilation and minimum air in small intestine
    • b. Usg is not helpful in diagnosis
    • c. Common in boys
    • d. Usually presents between 2-8 years
  9. 9. Hypertrophic Pyloric stenosis is ideally treated with:
    a. Ryle’s tube and fluids b. Wait and watch c. Pyloromyotomy d. Pyloroplasty
  10. 10. In which of the following conditions, triad of pain in abdomen , jaundice and melena is seen :
    a. Acute pancreatitis b. Hemobilia c. Gallbladdr carcinoma d. Acute cholecystitis
  11. 11. Not a feature of hemobilia :
    a. Jaundice b. Abdominal pain c. Gastrointestinal bleeding d. Fever
  12. 12. Hemobilia occurs most commonly due to:
    a. Cholengitis b. Gallstone c. Trauma d. Liver abscess
  13. 13. In 3rd degree piles, the treatment of choice is:
    a. Hemorrhoidectomy b. Cryosurgery c. Banding d. Injection treatment
  14. 14. Th etreatment of choice of 2nd degree piles is:
    a. Surgery b. Banding c. Cryosurgery d. Sclerotherapy
  15. 15. Most common cause of bleeding per rectum in men between 20-40 years of age is:
    a. Fissure in ano b. Internal heemorrhoids c. Rectal polyp d. Rectal carcinoma
  16. 16. Following hemorrhoidectomy th emost common complication is:
    a. Urinary retention b. Infection c. Hemorrhage d. Fecal impaction
  17. 17. False regarding hemorrhoids is:
    • a. They are arterriolar dilatations
    • b. They are common causes of painless bleeding
    • c. They cannot be palpated per rectally
    • d. Discharge, pain and anemia are other symptoms
  18. 18. A neonate presents with dribbling of saliva. The diagnosis is:
    • a. Choanal atresia b. Tracheoesophageal fistula
    • c.Duodenal atresia d. Esophageal atresia
  19. 19. A neonate regurgitates first and subsequent feeds. Diagnosis is:
    a. Presbyoesophagus b. Scleroderma c. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis d. Esophageal atresia
  20. 20. Which of the following is the most common type of congential atresia with tracheoesophageal fistula:
    • a. Both segment ends blindly
    • b. Both segment opening into trachea
    • c. Upper ssegment opening into trachea and lower end is blind
    • d. Lower segment opening into trachea and upper end is blind
  21. 21. In which of the following condition, nicoladoni’s of Branham’s sign is seen:
    • a. Arteriovenous fistula(AVF) b. Deep vein thrombosis
    • c.Raynaud’s diasease d. Buerger’s disease
  22. 22. Common cause of uniteral hypertrophy and local gigantism is:
    • a. Lipomatosis b. Bone tumor c. AV fistula d. Neurofibromatosis
    • 23. In which fo the following carcinoma of thyroid, lymphatic node metastasis is seen:
    • a. Anaplastic b. Follicular c. Medullar d. Papillary
  23. 24. In which of the following carcinoma of thyroid, lympatic involvement is common;
    a. Anaplastic b.Follicular c. Papillary d. Medullary
  24. 25. Most common carcinoma of thyroid is:
    a. Mdullary b. Anaplastic c. Follicular d. Papillary
  25. 26. In carcinoma of breast, a secondaries deposit is most common in:
    a. Bone b. Brain c. Liver d. Lung
  26. 27. In carcinoma breast , most common sit eof bony metastatis is:
    a. Sacral vertebra b. Lumber vertebra c. Thoratic vertebra d. Cervical vertebra
  27. 28. Not a feature of charcot’s triad:
    a. Vomiting b. Jaundice c. Fever d. Pain
  28. 29. In cholangitis the most common organism is:
    a. Streptococcus b. Clostridium c. Eschericha coli d. Entamoeba histolytica
  29. 30. Charcot’s triad is seen in :
    a. Gangrene of gallbladder b. Acute appendicitis c. Acute cholecystitis d. Cholangitis
  30. 31. Not seen in cholangitis:
    a. Septic shock b. Fever c. Jaundice d. Biliary colic
  31. 32. Potato tumor is a :
    a. Carotid body tumor b. Sternomastoid tumor c. cystic hygroma d. Brancial cyst
  32. 33. False regarding Meckel’s diverticulum is:
    • a. 60cm From the ileocecal valve b. Arise from mesenteric border
    • c.intussusception d. Bleeding
  33. 34. Most common somplication of Meckel’s diverticulum is:
    a. Intussusception b. Obstruction c. Bleeding d. Diverticulitis
  34. 35. Complication s of meckel’s diverticulum include:
    a. Intussusception b. Intestinal obstruction c. Hemorrhage d. All of the above
  35. 36. False regarding Meckel’s diverticulum is:
    • a. Always contains gastric tissue
    • b. True diverticulum
    • c. Antimesenteric border
    • d. Present in 2 % population
  36. 37. A 30 –year-old woman is accidentally found to have a wide mouthed Meckel’s diverticulum during laparotomy. Best method of treatment :
    • a. Diverticulectomy
    • b. Leave it alone
    • c. Resection of diverticulum with a short segment of ileum and anastomoses
    • d. Resection of diverticulum and stump is invaginated
  37. 38. In which of the following condition , theirsch operation is done:
    a. Incontinence b. Rectal prolapse c. hemorrhoids d. Fissure in ano
  38. 39. For which of the following condition, delorme’s operation is done;
    a. Rectal carcinoma b. Fissure in ano c. Fistula in ano d. Rectal prolapse
  39. 40. False about cystic hygroma is:
    • a. Aspiration contains cholesterol crystals b. Ruminant of 2nd brancial cleft
    • c.Brilliantly transucent d. Brilliantly transilluminant
  40. 41. cystic hygroma:
    • a. Manifests in 2nd -3rd decade b. Spontaneous regression
    • c. Excision of the cyst at an early age d. Should be left alone
  41. 42. Which of the following is brilliantly translucent:
    a. Seaceous cyst b. dErmoid cyst c. Cystic hygroma d. Branchial cyst
  42. 43. Cystic hygroma is a :
    a. Hemangioma b. Sebaceous gland tumor c. Meningioma d. Lymphangioma
  43. 44. After birth, th eearliest tumor to occur is:
    a. Lymphoma b. Branchial cyst c. Cystic hygroma d. Sternomastoid tumor
  44. 45. In mallory –weises syndrome where is the mucosal tear located;
    • a. Near gastric pylorus b. Gastroesophageal junction
    • c. upper end of esophagus d. Gastric antrum
  45. 46. False regarding mallory- weiss syndrome is:
    • a. Present with history of retching or vomiting
    • b. Alcohol is not a predisposing factor
    • c. Hematemesis is usually self limited
    • d. Nonpenetrating mucosal tear at gastroesophageal junction
  46. 47. Sengstaken tube must maintain a pressure of… mmHg above what was recrded before insertion, to stop bleeding from varices:
    a. 35 b. 45 c. 25 d. 20
  47. 48. In which of th efollowing conditon , sengstaken tube is used:
    a. Biliary cirrhosis b. Hepatic aneurysm c. Blunt trauma d. Bleeding varices
  48. 49. In blunt injury to abdomen, organ commonly involved is;
    a. Appendix b. Intestine c. Liver d. Spleen
  49. 50. Most common cause of a portal hypertension is situated at:
    a. Postthepatic b. Prehapatic c. Intrahepatic d. Equal in all of the above
  50. 51. Medical treatment of gallbladder stone is possible in;
    • a. nonfunctioning gallbladdr b. Radiopaque stones
    • c. Size of stone is <15 mm d. Calcium oxalate stones
  51. 52. Oral ursodeoxycholic acid therapy is ineffctive in dissolving which of the following type of stones:
    a. Radiopaque b.Sixe <15 mm c. Cholesterol or mixed d. Radiolucent gallstones
  52. 53. Medical treatment of gallstones is useful in all except:
    a. Functioning of gallbladder b. Size ,15 mm c. Pigmented stone d. Cholesterol stone
  53. 54. Pseudopolyposis is a feature of which of the following disease:
    a. Tuberculosis colitis b. Typhoid enteritis c. Chron’s disease d. ulcerative colitis
  54. 55. Sulphonamide is a feature of which of the following disease:
    a. Sulphacetamide b. Sulphasalazine c. Sulphamethizole d. Sulphadiazine
  55. 56. True regarding ulcerative colitis:
    • a. Rectum is almost always involved b. Fistulas are common
    • c. Skip lesions are seen d. String sign of kantor positive
  56. 57. Not a complication of ulceratve colitis:
    a. Sclerosing cholangitis b. Peptic ulcer c. Toxic megacolon d. Arthiritis
  57. 58. In which of the following condition, pyoderma gangrenosum is seen:
    a. Ischemic colitis b./ Ulcerative colitis c.Chron’s disease d. Amebic colitis
  58. 59. “signof emptying” is seen in:
    a. Salmon patch b. Port wine stain c. Plexiform angioma d. Strawberry angioma
  59. 60. Red discoloration on eyeld which disappears by one year is:
    • a. Venous hemangioma b. Strawberry hemangioma
    • c. Port wine stain d. Salmon patch
  60. 61. Tuft of hairs is seen in :
    a. Spina bifida b. Spina aperta c. Sacrococcygeal teratoma d. Meylomeningocele
  61. 62. Meningomyelocele most commonly occurs at:
    a. Skull b. Thoratic spine c. Lumbosacral spine d. Cervical spine
  62. 63. IN Hodgkin’s lymphoma, the malignant cell is:
    a. Recticulum cells b. Histocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Reed sternnerg cells
  63. 64. Most common site of enlargement of lymmph nodes in Hodkin’s lymphoma is:
    a. Abdominal b. Cevical c. Axillary d. Mediastinal
  64. 65. Most common presentation of Hodkin’s lymphoma is;
    a. Leukocytosis b. Fever c. Painless enlargement of lymph nodes d. Pruritus
  65. 66. Hodkin’s ;ymphoma with right sided neck nodes and left inguimal node without fever is of:
    a. Stage Ia b. Stage IIIa c. stage Iia d. Stage Iva
  66. 67. Not a type B symptom of Hodkin’s lymphoma:
    a. Pruritus b. Headache c. Weight loss d. Fever
  67. 68. In a patient with Hodkin’s lymphoma with unilateral lymph node involvement, treatment of choice is :
    a. Irradiation b. Single drug chemotherapy c. Neck dessection d. Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy
  68. 69. Worst prognosis Hodkin’s lymphoma is:
    • a. Lymphocyte depketed b. Mixed cellularity
    • c. Lymphocyte predominance d. Nodular sclerosis
  69. 70. In polycystic kidney cysts are seen in all of the following organs except:
    a. Pancreas b. Lungs c. Brain d. Liver
  70. 71. The treatment of choice in polycystic kidney;
    a. Nephrectomy b. Renal transplanation c. Dialysis d. Removal of cyst
  71. 72. Liver cyst in polycystic kidney occurs in:
    a. 10% b. 58% c. 18% d. 85%
  72. 73. In which of the following ‘spider leg’ appearance of calyces in intracenous urography is seen :
    a. Hydronephrosis b. Horse shoe kidney c. Congenital cystic kidneys d. Hypernephroma
  73. 74. Secondaries of which of the following does not cause osteolytic lesion:
    a. Thyroid b. prostate c. Breast d. Bronchus
  74. 75. In which of the following osteoblastic secondaries are seen:
    a. neuroblastoma b. Thyroid c. Breast d. Prostate
  75. 76. Heller’s operation is done in :
    a. carcinoma esophagus b. Peptic ulcer c. Achalasia cardia d. Pyloric stenosis
  76. 77. True regarding achalasia cardia is:
    a. Congenital dilatation b. Caused by scleroderma c. Sensory distrubance d. A motor distrubance
  77. 78. For achalasia cardia, the best investigation is:
    a. Esophagscopy b. Sccintigraphy c. Barium meal d. Manometry
  78. 79. False regarding achalasia cardia is:
    • a. X-ray finding of dilated wesophagus with a narrow end
    • b. Macholyl test is hyposensitive
    • c. Aspiration pneumonitis
    • d. dysphagia
  79. 80. Predisposing factor for testicular tumor is:
    a. Abdominal testis b. Chronic orchitis c. Torsion d. Trauma
  80. 81. In stage I seminoma, the treatment of choice is:
    a. Medical b. Surgical c. Chemotherapy d. Radiotherapy
  81. 82. From which of the following glomus tumor originates:
    a. Endoderm b. Mesoderm c. Neuroectoderm d. Ectoderm
  82. 83. False regarding glomus tumor is:
    • a. Regulation of temperature of skin b. Resection is curative
    • c. Distal extremity d. Mass
  83. 84. In renal cell carcinoma, which of the following endocrine manifestation may occur:
    • a. Peptic ulcer b. Renin related hypertension
    • c. Gynecomastia d. Cushing’s syndrome
  84. 85. Most common metastasis in renal cell carcinoma is to:
    a. Lung b. Bone c. Adrenal d. Liver
  85. 86. Solitary ‘Pulsatile’ bone secondaries are most likely from:
    • a.Carcinoma of breast b. Carcinom aof prostate
    • c. Carcinoma of kidney d. Carcinom aof adrenal
  86. 87. Not a feature of renal cell carcinoma:
    a. Renal vein thrombosis b. Hypertension c. Increased CEA d. Polythemia
  87. 88. Thyroglossal fistula develops due to which of the following :
    • a. Inflammatory disorder b. Incomplete removal of thyroglossla cyst
    • c. Injury d. Developmental anomaly
  88. 89. Sistrunk’s operation is done in:
    • a. Branchial fistula b. Thyroglossal cyst
    • c. Paratoid tumor d. Thyroiglossal fistula
  89. 90. Which of the following has close proximity to hyoid bone:
    • a. Enlarged sbmandibular lymph nodes b. Thyroglossal fistula
    • c. Aneurysm of carotid artery d. Brancial cyst
  90. 91. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid arises from:
    • a. Stroma of gland cell b. Capsule of thyroid
    • c. Parafollicular cells d. Cells lining the acini
  91. 92. Which of the following is the marker for medullary carcinoma of thyroid :
    a. Phosphorus b. Thyroxine c. Parathormone d. Calcitonin
  92. 93. False regarding varicocele:
    • a. Testicular veins involved b. More common on the right side
    • c. may be first feature of a renal tumor d. Feels like a bag of worms
  93. 94. Varococele is common in left tests. The reason of this is:
    • a. Compression of testicular vein by rectum
    • b. Left testis is lower situated
    • c. Left testicular veins drains into renal vein which has high pressure
    • d. Left testicuar vein drains int IVC which has high pressure
  94. 95. Most common malignant tumor of spleen is:
    a. Squamous cell carcinom a b. Adenocarcinoma c. Hemangioma d. Lymphoma
  95. 96. Which of the following is the most common tumor of spleen:
    a. Sarcoma b. secondaries from kidney c. Hemangioma d. Lymphoma
  96. 97. In which of the following condition Goodsall’s rule is used:
    a. Hernia b. Hemorrhoids c. Fistula in ano d. Rectal prolapse
  97. 98. All are false regarding diverticulitis of colon except:
    • a. Asymptomatic b. Treatment is only consarvative
    • c. Seen in >40 years of age d. Precancerous lesion
  98. 99.. Dumping syndrome is because of:
    • a. Reduced gastric capacity b. Vagotomy
    • c. Hypertonic content in small intestine d. Diarrhea
  99. 100. Strcture not excised in radicla neck dissection ;
    • a. Submandibular salivary gland b. Internal jugular vein
    • c. Vagus nerve d. Sternomastoid muscle
  100. 101. Structure not removed in classi radical neck dissextion:
    • a. Internal jugular vein b. Submandibular gland
    • c. Phrenic nerve d. Accessory nerve
  101. 102. Structure not saved in radical neck dissection is:
    a. Lower brachial plexus b. Vagus nerve c. Spinal accessory nerve d. Hypoglossal nerve
  102. 103. False regarding vertebral hemangioma is:
    • a. Usually found in 2-5% of population
    • b. Hyper-intense in T image in MRI
    • c. Usually associated with liver hemangioma and carcinoma
    • d. Usually asymptomatic
  103. 104. Toxic megacolon is seen in which of the following disease:
    a. Ulcerative colitis b. Carcinoma colon c. Carcinoid d. Gastrocolic fistula
  104. 105. Not a feature of esophageal rupture:
    a. Low blood pressure b. Bradycardia c. Fever d. Pain
  105. 106. In which of the following hydradenitis suppurativa occurs:
    a. Eccrine gland b. Sebaceous gland c. Apocrine gland d. Hair follicles
  106. 107. Not a feature of deep vein thrombosis in lower limb:
    a. Discoloration b. Claudication c. Tender calf muscle d. Swelling
  107. 108. In which of the following condition , malignant changes in testis occurs:
    a. Pyocele b. Hydrocele c. Trauma d. Crytorchidism
  108. 109. In which of the following condition, meconium ileus is seen ;
    • a. Hirschsprung’s disease b. Pyloric stenosis
    • c. Fibrocystic disease of pancreas d. Duodenal atresia
  109. 110. Most common site of lymphoma in GI tract is:
    a. Ileum b. Colon c. Duodenum d. Stomach
  110. 111. A parient with pituitary tumor, pheochromocytoma, and hyperthyroidism is most likely to have;
    • a. Follicular carcinoma thyroid
    • b. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
    • c. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
    • d. Anplastic carcinoma thyroid
  111. 112. MEN II is seen with which of the following thyroid carcinoma:
    a. Follicular b. Anaplastic c. Medullary d. Papillary
  112. 113. Not an indication for splenectomy:
    • a. primary splenic tumor b. Hereditary spherocytosis
    • c. Splenic abscess d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  113. 114. not included in basic life support:
    • a. Intracardiac adrenaline b. Expiratory air ventilation
    • c. Cardiac massage d. Airway
  114. 115. Most common primary brain tumor is:
    • a. Pituitary adenoma b. Craniopharyngioma
    • c. Abdominoperineal resection d. Meningioma
  115. 116. A 70 year old male presented with carcinoma rectum 3cm From anal verge. Treatment of choice is :
    • a. Distal sigmoid colostomy b. Dysfunctional surgery
    • c. Abdominoperineal resection d. None of the above
  116. 117. In carcinoma of rectum 12cm from anal verge, the treatment of choice is:
    • a. Anterior resection b. Dysfunctional resection
    • c. Hartmann’s operation d. None of the above
  117. 118. Prognosis of carcinoma rectum is best assessed by:
    a. Site of tumor b. histological grading c. Size of tumor d. Duration of symptoms
  118. 119. Earliest symptom of carcinoma rectum:
    a. Pain b. Alteration of bowel habits c. Bleeding per rectum d. Tenesmus
  119. 120. Duhamel operation is done for which of the following condition;
    • a. Congenital pyloric stenosis b. Hiatus hernia
    • c. Achalasia cardia d. Hirschsprung’s disease
  120. 121. In Hischsprung’s disease, common aganglionic part is:
    a. Rectum b. Jejunum c. Ileum d. Duodenum
  121. 122. All are false ragarding Hischsprung’s disease except:
    • a. Regular ddilation effective b. Rectal biopsy is diagnostic
    • c. Presentation is within 3 days d. More common in females
  122. 123. Which of the following is the most common cause of parotid swelling :
    • a. Tuberculosis of aparatoid lymph nodes b. Warthin’s tumor
    • c. Muco epidemoid tumor d. Pleomorphic adenoma
  123. 124. Pleomorphic adenoma of parotid is treated with:
    • a. Total removal b. Deep lobe removal
    • c. Redical removal d. Hemi superficial parotidectomy
  124. 125. Parotid tumor which is most commonly seen :
    • a. Sarcoma b. Adenocystic carcinoma
    • c. Pleomorphic adenoma d. Adenocarcinoma
  125. 126. Pleomorphic ladenoma most commonly occurs at:
    • a. Minor salivary gland b. Sublingual gland
    • c. Submandibular gland d. Parotid gland
  126. 127. True regarding pleomorphic tumor is:
    • a. 80% of benign tumors are of pleomorphic origin
    • b. Treatment is enucleation
    • c. They are commonly associated with nerve involvement
    • d. Pleomorphic tumors over period of time give rise to warthin’s adenoma
  127. 128. A patient has swelling in parotid which pushes the tonsil medially. Histologically it is pleomorphic adenoma. This should be treated with:
    • a. Parotidectomy with leaving behind facial nerve and radical neck dissection
    • b. Total parotidectomy
    • c. Conservative parotidectomy
    • d. Superficial parotidectomy
  128. 129. False regarding pseudopancreatic cyst is:
    • a. Mostly present in head of pancreas b. Incresed serum amylase
    • c. Presents as abdominal mass d. Common after acute pancreatitis
  129. 130. In pdeudopancreatic cyst the treatment of choice is:
    a. Cystojejunostomy b. External drainage c. excision of cyst d. None of the above
  130. 131. False regarding pseudopancreatic cyst is:
    • a. Epigastric mass b. Increase amylase
    • c. Cystojejunostomy is the treatment of choice
    • d. Percutaneous aspiration is the treatment of choice
  131. 132. In pseudopancreatic cyst , collection of fluid occurs in :
    a. Hepato-renal pouch b. Greater sac c. Lesser sac d. Between intestinal loops
  132. 133. Pseudocyst of pancreas most commonly occurs after:
    • a. Pancreatic malignancy b. Pancreatic surgery
    • c. Acute pancreatitis d. Trauma
  133. 134. 5 cm umcomplicated pancreatic pseudocyst of 6 weeks duration should be managed by:
    a. Serial USG b. Internal drainage c. External drainage d. Removal with limited pancreatic resection and duct closure
  134. 135. A 65 year old man has recurrent thrombophlebitis in upper arm for the last 6 months. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Osteosarcoma b. Oral carcinoma c. Pancreatic carcinoma d. Prostatic carcinoma
  135. 136. IN which of the following carcinoma, migratory thrombophlebitis is seen:
    • a. Carcinoma of kidney b. Carcinoma of lung
    • c. Carcinoma of nasopharynx d. Carcinoma of liver
  136. 137. Cleft lip is due to nonfusion of:
    • a. Maxillary process with lateral nasal process
    • b. Maxillary process with medial nasal process
    • c. Maxillary process with mandibular process
    • d. All of the above
  137. 138. Cleft lip is due to nonfusion of:
    a. 2 years b. 12-18 months c. 6-8 months d. 3-6 months
  138. 139. Most common type of cleft lip is:
    • a. Unilateral (right sided) b. Unilateral ( left sided)
    • c. Bilateral d. Midline
  139. 140.Carcinoid tumor most commonly occurs at:
    a. Adrenal b. Bronchus c. Small intestine d. Appendix
  140. 141. Hamman’s sign is typically seen in:
    • a. Pneumomediastinum b. Pneumopericardium
    • c. Pneumothorax d. Subcutaneous emphysema
  141. 142.Most common site of carcinoma stomach is:
    a. GAstroesophageal junction b. CARdia c.Body d. Antrum
  142. 143. Carcinoma stomach is associated with which of the following blood group:
    a. A b. B c. AB d. O
  143. 144. False regarding carcinoma of stomach is:
    • a. Most common site for neoplasm is pre-pyloric region
    • b. Troisier’s sign present
    • c. Gastric carcinoma is common in people of blood Group O
    • d. Superficial spreading type has best prognosis
  144. 145.In which of the following condition, hyperbaric oxygen is used:
    a. Gangrene b. Anaerobic infection c. CO poisoning d. Ventilation failure
  145. 146. In subclavian steal syndrome, blood flow in vertebral artery is:
    a. Reversed b. Increased c. Decreased d. Not seen
  146. 147. Cutaneous malignancy which does not metastasize to lymphatics is:
    a. Kaposi sarcoma b. Melanoma c. basal cell carcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
  147. 148. In basal cell carcinoma at inner canthus of eye, the treatment of choice is:
    • a. Surgery +Radiotherapy b. Chemotherapy
    • c. Radiotherapy d. Wide excision and reconstruction
  148. 149.Most common site of rodent ulcer is;
    a. Trunk b. abdomen c. Face d. Limbs
  149. 150.FNAC is not useful in which of the following thyroid carcinoma:
    a. Medullary b. Follicular c. Papillary d. Anasplastic
  150. 151. Ideal treatment of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is:
    a. Subtotal thyroidectomy b. Steroids c. Thyroxine d. TSH
  151. 152. False regarding hashimoto’s thyroiditis is:
    • a. Autoimmune thyroiditis b. papillary carcinoma of thyroid
    • c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis d. Agranulomaous thyroiditis
  152. 153. In which of the following condition, hurthle cells are seen:
    • a. Thyroimmune cyst b. papillary carcinoma of thyroid
    • c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis d. Agranulomatous thyroiditis
  153. 154. Symptom most frequently seen in patients of primary biliary cirrhosis is:
    a. Gastrointestinal bleeding b. Jaundice c. Splenomegaly d. Pruritus
  154. 155. A chronic alcoholic has liver cirrhosis, presented with mass in liver, and raised AFP . most likely diagnosis is:
    • a. Secondary from carcinoma colon b. Hepatic adenoma
    • c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. hepatocellular carcinoma
  155. 156. in which of the following condition, α fetoprotein is increased:
    • a. Cervix carcinoma b. Urinary bladder carcinoma
    • c. Lung carcinoma d. Hepatocellular carcinoma
  156. 157. Gallstone which is most commonly found is:
    a. Calcium oxalate b. Pure cholesterol c. Mixed stone d. Pigment stone
  157. 158. not a component of “saint’s” triad;
    a. Gallstones b. Renal stones c. Hiatus hernia d. Diverticulosis
  158. 159. Percentage of gallstones which are radiopaque:
    a. 10% b. 20% c. 30 % d. 50%
  159. 160. Fistula in ano is most commonly caused by:
    a. Anal gland infection b. Crohn’s disease c. Ulcerative colitis d. Tuberculosis
  160. 161. In fistula in ano, treatment of choice is:
    a. Fistulotomy b. fistulectomy c. Anal dilatation d. Fissurectomy
  161. 162. A patient presents with regurgitation of food which he ingested 3 days ago, foul smelling breath and intermittent dysphagia for solid foods. Most likely diagnosis is:
    • a. Pyloric stenosis b. Diabetic gastroparesis
    • c. Zenker’s diverticulum d. Achalasia cardia
  162. 163. All are false regarding Zenker’s diverticulum except;
    • a. It occurs in children b. Treatment is cricopharyngeal myotomy
    • c. Occurs in mid esophagus d. Asymptomatic
  163. 164. Which of the following is the best source of split skin graft:
    a. Xenograft b. Isograft c. Homograft d. Autograft
  164. 165. isograft is:
    • a. Transfer of tissue between monozygotic twins
    • b. Transfer of tissue between different species
    • c. Transfer of tissue between two individuals
    • d. Transfer of tissue between brothers
  165. 166.All are false regarding renal trauma except:
    • a. Renal artery aneurysm is common
    • b. Lumbar approach to kidney
    • c. Exploration of kidney to be done in all cases
    • d. Urgent IVP is indicated
  166. 167.True ragarding thiersch’s graft is:
    a. Pedcle graft b. Muscle flap c. Full thickness d. Partial thickness
  167. 168.In gastrojejunocolic fistula, diarrhea is due to:
    • a. Decreased absorption b. Blind loop syndrome
    • c. Peptic digestion of colonic mucosa d. Acid digestion of colonic mucosa
  168. 169. Treatment of paget’s disease of nipple is;
    • a. Chemotherapy b. Biopsy and simple mastectomy
    • c. Radical mastectomy d. Radiotheray
  169. 170. Not a mid line swelling in neck:
    a. Branchial cyst b. Ludwwig’s angina c. Sub hyoid bursitis d. Thyroglossal cyst
  170. 171.False about mannitol:
    • a. Sugar with high molecular weight b. Prevents ARF in shock
    • c. Used in crush syndrome d. Used in Obstructive jaundice surgeries
  171. 172. Not a feature of crush syndrome:
    • a. Dialysis may be life saving in uremia b. oligemic shock
    • c. Myoglobinemia d. Cardiac tamponade
  172. 173. Not a cause of choledochal cyst:
    • a. Due to both intrinsic defect and obstruction
    • b. Congenital anomaly of bite duct
    • c. Iinspissated bile
    • d. Pancreased- biliary anatomical anomaly
  173. 174.Choledochal cyst should be treated with:
    • a.Transplantation b. Excision of cyst of choledochocystojejunostomy
    • c. Cystojejunostomy d. Gastrojejunostomy
  174. 175.All are false regarding choledochal cyst except:
    • a. Best treatment is choledochocystojejunostomy
    • b. Jaundice is present
    • c. Usually asymptomatic
    • d. Usually suoraduodenal
  175. 176.Klatskin tumor is located at:
    • a. The junction of bile duct bb. Vater’s ampulla
    • c. Bile duct d. Junction of cystic duct and bile duct
  176. 177.In which of the following conditin, cullen’s sign is seen:
    • a. Blunt injury to abdomen b. Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis
    • c. Acute appndicitis d. Acute cholecystitis
  177. 178.In multiple myeloma, hyponatremia is:
    a. Relative b. Pseudo c. True d. Absolute
  178. 179.Not a feature of vanBuchem’s disease:
    • a. Increased acid phosphate b. Facial palsy
    • c. Overgrowth d. Distortion of mandible
  179. 180.Thyroid carcinoma which has best prognosis is:
    a. Follicular b. Anaplastic c. Medullary d. Papillary
  180. 181.Characteristic feature of peyronie’s disease is:
    a. Unpredictable history b. Pain on erection c. Bend on erection d. All are true
  181. 182.Peyronie’s disease affects the:
    a. Breast b. Vagina c.Scrotum d. Penis
  182. 183. In bilateral adrenal hyerplasia, the treatmetn of choice is:
    a. Follow up b. Pitutary irradiation c. Bilateral adrenalectomy d. Unilateral adrenalectomy
  183. 184.McBurney’s point is siteuated at:
    • a. Umbilicus liver junction
    • b. Junction of lateral 1/3rd and medial 2/3rd line
    • c. Junction of lateral 2/3rd and medial 1/3rd line
    • d. Middle of right spino-umbilical line
  184. 185.True regarding cancrum oris is:
    • a. Pus accumulates in the floor of mouth b. Cheek carcinoma
    • c. Localized Gngrene of check d. Multiple oral ulceration
  185. 186.Content of Richter’s hernia is;
    a. Sigmoid colon b. Meckel’s diverticulum c. Bladder d.. Portion of intestine
  186. 187.In which of the following condition, very high level of alkaine phosphatase is seen;
    • a. Tuberculous liver b. Metastatic liver carcinoma
    • c. primary biliary cirrhosis d. All of the above
  187. 188.Most common site of anorectal abscess is:
    a. Perianal b. Pelvirectal c. Submucous d. Ischiorectal
  188. 189.True regarding decubitus ulcer is:
    a. Arterial ischemia b. Venous congestion c. Pressuree sores d. All of the above
  189. 190.Not seen in subacute thyroiditis:
    a. Fever b. Increased radioiodine uptake c. Increased ESR d. Pain
  190. 191.Not seen in de Quervain’s thyroiditis:
    a. Fever b. Increased radioiodine uptake c. Increased ESR d. Pain
  191. 192.Strangulation is most common with which hernia:
    a. Inguinal b. Epigastric c. Obturator d. Femoral
  192. 193.In hernia en-glissade , the most common content is:
    a. Omentum b.Urinary bladder c.Caecum d. Sigmoid colon
  193. 194.Most common hernia of abdominal wall is;
    a. Femoral b. Umbilical c. Inguinal d. Ventral
  194. 195.Not an indication for liver transplantation;
    a. Biliary atresia b. Alcoholic hepatitis c. Hepatocellular carcinoma d. Cirrhosis
  195. 196.In rectum most malignant polyp is;
    a. Pseudopolyps b. Juvenile polyp c. Tubular polyp d. Vilous adenoma
  196. 197.Carcinoma seen in anal canal is:
    • a. Basal cell carcinoma b. Transitional cell carcinoma
    • c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Adenocarcinoma
  197. 198.Primary vesical calculus is seen with which of the following :
    a. Infected urine b. Sterile urine c. Alkain urine d. Acidic urine
  198. 199.Ranula is:
    • a. Retention cyst of sublingual gland
    • b. Retention cyst of submandibular gland
    • c. Extravasation cyst of sublingual glands
    • d. Extravasation cyst of submandibular glands
  199. 200.In which of the following, ranula lies:
    • a. Digastric triangle b. Supraclavicular region
    • c. Tip of tongue d. Floor of mouth
Author
adarsha
ID
356403
Card Set
Sharad Surgery
Description
sharad surgery
Updated