-
1. Not a germ cell of ovary:
a. Endodermal sinus tumor b. Polyembryoma c. Dysgerminoma d. Brenner tumor
-
2. False regarding complete testicular feminization is:
a. Prelobular bulb b. Female breast enlargement c. Primary amenorrhea d. Blind vagina
-
3. Treponema pallidum crosses placenta:
a. After 36 weeks b. after 28 weeks c. after 2nd trimester d. at any stage of pregnancy
-
4. Use of valproate during pregnancy may result in:
a. Mental retardation b. Respiratory depression c. Hydantoin syndrome d. Neural tube defect
-
5. A young lady presented with bilateral ovarism mass, capsule intact no ascites signet ring cells on biopsy. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Mucinous cyst adenoma of ovary b. Teratoma ovary c. Krukenberg tumor d. Fibroma
-
6. Most commonly krukenberg tumor is due to carcinoma of:
a. Stomach b. Breast c. Colon d. Uterus
-
7. Oral contraceptive acts by:
a. Aseptic inflammation b. Change in endometrial fluid c. Foreign body reaction d. Prevent ovulation
-
8. Milk ejection reflex is by:
a. Estrogen b. Aldosterone c. Oxytocin d. prolactin
-
9. Asherman’s syndrome is characterized by:
b. A. Amenorrhea b. Dyemenorrhea c. Metrorrhagia d. Leucorrhea
-
10.Asherman’s syndrome is due to:
a. Contraceptive pills b. Septicemia c. Postabortion curettage d. Overdose of drugs
-
11. Asherman’s syndrome is due to:
a. Trauma b. Cu T insertion c. Curettage d. Forceps application
-
12. Fern test is due to :
a. LH b. FSH c. Progesterone d. Estrogen
-
13. Ferning of cervical mucous depends upon:
a. LH b. FSH c. Progesterone d. Estrogen
-
14. Cryptomenorrhea is seen in:
a. Asherman’s syndrome b. Testicular feminizing syndrome c. Imperforated hymen d. Uterine agenesis
-
15. False regarding PCOD is:
a. Increased androgen b. Decreased estrogen c. Increasedd LH d. Anovulation
-
16. An 18 year old girl has obesity, oligomenorrhea and hirsutism. The diagnosis is:
a. Adrenogenital syndrome b. Testicular feminization c. Polycystic ovarian disease d. Cushing syndrome
-
17.Most common site for endometriosis is:
a. Ovary b. Peritoneum c. appendix d. urinary bladder
-
18. Red degeneration of fibroid occurs most commonly in:
a. 3rd trimester b. 2nd trimester c. 1st trimester d. Postpartum
-
19. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia skin pigmentation with endocrine manifestations is seen in:
a. McCune-Albright syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Klinefelter syndrome d. Tuberous sclerosis
-
20. Not a component of Meigs syndrome:
a. Ascites b. Ovarian tumor c. Pericardial effusion d. Pleural effusion
-
21. Meigs’ syndrome is commonly associated with:
a. Theca cell tumor b. Teratoma c. Fibroma d. Brenner’s syndrome
-
22. Post- term pregnancy is that which continues beyond… days:
a. 300 b. 294 c. 287 d. 280
-
23. Chlaydia trachomatis can cause all except:
a. Cervivitis b. Endometritis c. Salpingitis d. Vulvitis
-
24. Ovulation coincides with:
a. LH surge b. FSH surge c. Estrogen surge d. Progesterone surge
-
25. Gartner’s duct cyst is seen in:
a. Vagina b. Hymen c. Cervix d. Labia minora
-
26.In pelvic endometriosis the investigation of choice is:
a. Laparoscopy b. MRI c. Ultrasound d. CT scan
-
27.Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all the following except:
a. Lecithin saphingomyelin ratio b. Nile blue sulfate test c. Nitrazine paper test d. Creatinine estimation of amniotic fluid
-
28. Carcinoma cervix is caused by HPV :
a. 16, 21, 33 b. 16, 18 , 33 c. 16, 18, 21 d. 16, 21, 25
-
29. HPV involved in carcinoma cervix is:
a. Type 16 b. Type 11 c. Type 21 d. Type 06
-
30. False regarding mayer-Rokitansky –kuster-Hauser syndrome is:
a. absent uterus b. Ovulation c. Absent vagina d. 46 XX karyotype
-
31. Most likely affected organ in Mayer Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome is:
a. Ovary agenesis b. Fallopian tubes absent c. Vaginal atresia d. Bicornuate uterus
-
32. Clomiphene citrate us used in:
a. Carcinoma endometrium b. Asherman’s syndrome c. Stein leventhal syndrome d. Infertility
-
33. Long term use of tamoxifen causes:
a. Vaginal carcinoma b. Cervical carcinoma c. endometrial carcinoma d. Ovarian carcinoma
-
34. Weight of mature placenta is:
a. 1000gm b. 500gm c. 800gm d. 100gm
-
35. Musculinizing ovarian tumor is:
a. Dermoid cyst b. Arrhenoblastoma c. Cranuloma cell tumor d. Dysgerminoma
-
36. Virilizing tumor of ovary is:
a. Arrhenoblastoma b. Leutoma cDysgerminoma d. Granuloma cell tumor
-
37. Not a feminizing type of ovarian tumor:
a. Arrhenoblastoma b. Leutoma c. Early pregnancy d. Late pregnancy
-
38. “Hegar’s sign” adenomyosis is:
a. Infertility b. Abdominal labor c. Early pregnancy d. Late pregnancy
-
39. Symptom of “adenomyosis” is:
a. Infertility b. Abdominal lump c. dysmenorrhea d. Metrorrhagia
-
40. True regarding adenomyosis:
- a. Presents with menorrhagia, dysmenorrheal, and enlarged uterus
- c. progestins are not useful d. More Common in multipara
-
41. “Cell exner” bodies are seen in:
a. Granuloma cell tumor b. Arrheanoblastoma c. Fibroma d. Theca cell tumor
-
42. Presenting diameter in brow presentation is:
a. Mentovertical b. submentovertical c. Submentobregmatic d. Occipitofrontal
-
43. Dameter of engagement in completely extended face presentation is:
a. Submento vertical b. Submento bregmatic c. MEnto vertical d. Mento bregmatics
-
44. Shortest diameter of fetal skull among the following is:
a. Bitemporal b. Biparietal c. Submento-occipital d. Submentobregmatic
-
45. Shortest diameter of fetal skull is:
a. Bitemporal b. Bimastoid c. Submentobregmatic d. Submento-occipital
-
46. Most common anomaly seen in the fetus of mother taking lithium carbonate is:
a. Genitourinary deformity b. Limb reduction c. Neural tube defect d. Cardiac deformities
-
47.Couvelaire uterus is seen in:
a. Rupture b. placenta praevia c. accidental hemorrhage d. Is congenital
-
48. All the following drugs are used for postcoital contraception except:
a. Danazol b. ethinyl estradiol c. Levonorgestrel d. Mifepristone
-
49. Incarcinoma cervix stage III B the treatment of choice is:
a. Surgery+radiotherapy b. Surgery c. Radiotherapy d. Chemotherapy
-
50.Treatment of choice for carcinoma cervix stage IB is:
a. Radiotherapy b. External hysterectomy c. Abdominal hysterectomy d. Pan-hysterectomy
-
51. Not a clinical manifestation of carcinoma cervix:
- a. Can be diagnosed by biopsy b. May be present as post-menopausal bleeding
- c. In early stages spread to inguinal lymph node d. For late cases it can cause uteric infiltration
-
52. Carcinoma cervix extended to lateral pelvic wall in:
a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV
-
53. Carcinoma of vulva is:
a. Columnar cell carcinoma b. Transitional cell carcinoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
-
54.Treatmetn of stage II of carcinoma endometrium is:
a. Radiotherapy +surgery b. Radiotherapy c. Surgery d. Chemotherapy
-
55. huhner test is done at time of:
a. About ovulation b. After menstruation c. Before menstruation d. Anytime of ovulation
-
56. In a pregnant woman with red degeneration, management is;
a. Myomectomy b. Hysterectomy c. Conservative treatment d. Termination of pregnancy
-
57. False regarding krukenberg tumor is:
a. Usually from carcinoma of stomach b. Bilateral c. Maintains the ovarian shape d. NO cystic spaca
-
58. According to MTP act, opinion of two doctors are required if abortion is done after;
a. 12weeks b. 20 weeks c. 10 weeks d. 4 weeks
-
59. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:
a. Abdominal b. Infundibulum c. Ampulla d. Istmus
-
60. True regarding RU 486 is:
- a. Used for preventing ectopic implantation b. Acts on cytoplasmic receptor
- c. used along with contraceptive pills d. Used for inducing abortion in early of pregnancy
-
61.Worst prognosis is seen in pregnant women with which of the following cardiac lesion:
a. Tetralogy of fallot b. Eisenmenger syndrome c. Coarctation of aorta d. Mitral stenosis
-
62. Most common abnormality for first trimester abortion is:
a. Retroversion b. Chromosomal abnormalities c. placental and membrane abnormalities d. Trauma
-
63. Which of the following is malignant:
a. Teratoma b. Dysgerminoma c. Brenner tumor d. Fibroma
-
64. Cause of infection in tuberculous fallopian tube is:
- a. Hematogenous spread from a primary focus elsewhere b. Lymphatic spread
- c. Ascending infection d. Primary infection
-
65.”Bandl ring” is associated with:
a. placenta praevia b. Obstructed labor c. Fetal death d. Uterine inertia
-
66.Uterous develops from:
a. Wolffian duct b. Mullerian duct c. Mesonephros d. Metanephros
-
67. paramesonephric duct develops into:
a. Vas deferens b. Seminal vesicle c. Ureter d. Uterus
-
68. Most common squeal in retroversion of uterus is:
a. Urinary tract infection b. Retention of urine c. Recurrent abortion d. Spontaneous remission
-
69.A patient treated for infertility comes with 12 weeks
- amenorrhea with retention of urine and abdominal pain. Most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Uterine hematoma b. pelvic hematoma c. Retroverted gravid uterus d. Impacted fibroid
-
70.Diagonal conjugate is from:
- a. Maximum diameter of inlet b. Lower end of symphysis to sacral promontory
- c. Mid point posteriorly of symphysis to sacral promontory d. Upper end pubic symphysis to sacral promontory
-
71. Shortest diameter of pelvic inlet is:
a. True conjugate b. Obstetric conjugate c. Transverse diameter d. Diagonal conjugate
-
72. Maximum diameter of pelvic inlet in:
a. True conjugate b. Obstetric conjugate c. Diagonal conjugate d. Transverse diameter
-
73.Retention of urine in a pregnant woman with retroverted uterus Is seen in…. weeks:
a. 28-32 b. 20-24 c. 12-16 d. 8-10
-
74. Fetal alpha protein is not increased in:
a. Tracheoesophageal fistula b. Congenital nephrosis c. Trisomy 21 d. Fetal death
-
75.Low maternal serum alpha-Fetoprotein is not seen in:
a. Cardiac anomaly b. skeletal deformity c. Trisomy 21 d. Neural tube defect
-
76. Fetal condition associated with increased maternal age is:
a. Patau’s syndrome b. Edward’s syndrome c. Marfan’s syndrome d. Down syndrome
-
77. Human placenta is:
a. Endotheliochorial b. Epitheliochorial c. Syndesmochorial d. Hemochorial
-
78. True regarding precocious puberty in girls is:
a. Body proportion enlarged b. No reproduction function c. Mental function increased d. Sexual development attained early
-
79. Greenish vaginal discharge with severe itching points of:
a. Pyogenic vaginitis b. Trichomonas infection c. Candidiasis d. Senile vaginitis
-
80. Strawberry color of vagina is found in:
a. Granuloma inguinale b. Candidiasis c. Haemophilus vaginalis d. Trichomoniasis
-
81. “Snow storm” appearance is seen in USG in which of the following conditions:
a. Ovarian cyst b. Hydatidiform mole c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Hydrocephalus
-
82. Drug useful in gardnerella vaginalis is:
a. Metronidazole b. Erytheomycin c. Ampicillin d. Clindamycin
-
83. A 25 year old promiscuous lady presented with white papule on labia. Most likely diagnosis is:
a. Planter warts b. Verrucus plana c. Condylomata acuminata d. Condylomata lata
-
84.Danzol is not used in:
a. Endometrial carcinoma b. Fibrocystic disease c. Menorrhadia d. Endometriosis
-
85. Not used in the treatment of endometriosis :
a. Tamoxifen b. GnRH analogue c. Danazol d. Medroxyprogesterone
-
86. Fertilized reaches the uterine cavity in:
a. 11-15 days b. 6-7 days c. 8-10 days d. 2-3 days
-
87. Bonney’s test is used to demonstrate :
a. Neurogenic incontinence b. True incontinence c. Urge incontinence d. Stress incontinence
-
88. Bartholin’s cyst is treated by:
a. Medical therapy b. laser therapy c. Marsupialization d. Partial excision and curettage
-
89.Not an absolute contraindication of oral contraceptive pill:
a. Uterine bleeding b. Breast carcinoma c. Hydatidiform mole d. Genital cancer
-
90. In menopause, hot flushes are due to :
a. Genetic basis b. FSH surge c. LH surge d. Low estrogen
-
91.Drug not helpful in induction of ovulation is:
a. Progesterone b. Clomiphene c. Gonadotropin d. Tamoxifen
-
92.Disseminated intravascular coagulation can be caused by:
a. Amniotic fluid embolism b. Abruptio placenta c. Septic abortion d. All of the above
-
93. Not a hormone producing ovarian tumor:
a. Dysgerminoma b. Hilus cell tumor c. Gynandroblastoma d. Arrhenoblastoma
-
94. Candidates occurs with all except:
a. Oral pills b. Pregnancy c. Menstruation d. Corticosteroid therapy
-
95. Regarding vaginal candidates which of the following is false
- a. Cottage cheese like secretions are seen b. Intense pruritus
- c. most common in non-pregnant women d. Buds and hyphae in KOH preparation
-
96. Hydatidiform mole is associated with:
a. Ovarian adenoma b. Pseudo-cyst ovary c. Lutein cyst d. Follicular cyst
-
97. Metastasis of choriocarcinoma most commonly goes to:
a. Lung b. Bone c. Liver d. Brain
-
98.Not a feature of pseudocyesis:
a. Weight gain b. Morning sickness c. enlargement of uterus d. Amenorrhea
-
99. Tumor marker CA 125 is for :
a. Carcinoma Cervix b. Carcinoma Ovary c. Carcinoma Liver d. Carcinoma uterus
-
100. Not a feature of HELLP syndrome:
a. Raised liver enzymes b. Eosinophilia c. Thrombocytopenia d. Hemolytic anemia
-
101. Norplant is:
a. Nonsteroidal contraceptive b. Subcutaneous implant c. IUCD d. Depot
-
102. Drug in norplant subdermal implant hormonal contraceptive is:
a. Levonorgestrel b. Ethyl estradiol c. Medroxyprogesterone d. Norethisterone
-
103. Most effective postcoital contraceptive is:
a. Pills b. Condoms c. Norplant d. Cu T
-
104. pyometra is:
a. Cervical stenosis b. Chronic endometritis c. Carcinoma endometrium d. Carcinoma cervix
-
105. Most common type of vaginal carcinoma is:
a. Columnar cell carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. Transitional cell carcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
-
106. All are indications for cesarean section except:
a. Placenta previa b. Abruptio plaventa c. Carcinoma cervix d. Active herpetic lesion
-
107. In type B radiation therapy in cervical carcinoma, the point B should correspond to which of the following lymph nodes:
a. Common iliac b. Hypogastric c. External iliac d. Obturator
-
108. Highest rate of ectopic pregnancy is seen with:
a. Progestasert b. Cu T c. lippes loop d. Cu T 200
-
109. Most common type of carcinoma cervix is:
a. Columnar cell carcinoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Transitional cell carcinoma d. Adenocarcinoma
-
110. False regarding cephalhematoma is:
a. Present few hours after birth b. Does not cross suture lines c. Fluctuation seen d. Present at birth
-
111. Most common site of fibroid likely to undergo malignant changes to:
a. Transmural b. Subserous c. Submucous d. Intramural
-
112.In leiomyoma of uterus which of the following changes does not occur:
a. Fatty degeneration b. Squamous metaplasia c. Hyaline degeneration d. Atrophy
-
113.Ruptured ectopic pregnancy is confirmed by:
a.. Dilatation and curettage b. Posterior colpotomy c. Culdocentesis d. Leparoscopy
-
114. Least vital capacity is seen in:
a. Prone position b. Left lateral position c. Trendelenburg position d. Lithotomy position
-
115. A case of grade II endometrial carcinoma with myometrial involvement up to 10cm in uterine cavity is staged as:
a. IIB c. IB c. IA d. IIA
-
116. Carcinoma endometrium with superficial inguinal lymph node involvement is of:
a. Stage IV b. Stage III c. Stage II d. Stage I
-
117.Not a primary support of uterus:
a. Anti-flexion b. Broad ligament c. Pelvic diaphragm d. Uterosacral ligament
-
118. Most important support of uterus for preventing prolapsed is :
a. Pelvic floor b. Round ligament of ovary c. Round ligament of uterus d. Transverse cervical ligament
-
119. Drug contraindicated during pregnancy is:
a. Captopril b. Reserpine c. Hydralazine . Methyldopa
-
120. Absolute indication for LSCS is:
a. Type IV placenta previa b. Breech presentation c. Previous LSCS d. Fetal distress
-
121.Most common type of breech presentation is:
a. Compound b. Incomplete c. Complete d. Frank
-
122. Most common site of fibroid uterus is:
a. Cervical b. Subserous c. Intramural d. Submucous
-
123. False regarding endometrial carcinoma is:
- a. low incidence in diabetics b. Estrogen producing ovarian tumors predispose to it
- c. Feminizing ovarian tumors predispose to it d. Pre-malignant phase present
-
124.Endometrial carcinoma is predisposed by all the following except:
a. Estrogen b. Tamoxifen c. Oral contraceptives d. Nulliparity
-
125. Amniotic fluid is mainly secreted by:
a. Fetal lung b. Amnion c. Palcental d. Fetal kidney
-
126. Most common cause of breech presentation is:
a. Contracted pelvis b. Prematurity c. oligohydramnios d. Hydramnios
-
127. Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala:
a. Robert’s b. Naegele’s c. Rickets pelvis d. Osteomalacia pelvis
-
128. All are flase regarding Naegele’s pelvis except;
a. kyphotc spine b. Both alae absent c. Absence of one ala d. Tri-radiate pelvis
-
129. True regarding Robert’s pelvis is:
a. Rachitic spine b. Both ala absent c. Wide pelvis brim d. Single ala absent
-
130.Mechanism of action of spermicide is:
- a. Vaginal enzyme alteration b. Disrupting cell membrane and motility
- c. Inhibit glucose transport enzyme d. Activating acrosome enzyme
-
131. Percentage of myomas which undergo sarcomatous transformation is:
a. 2.5% b. 1.5% c. 2% d. 0.5%
-
132. Most common site for genital tuberculosis :
a. Fallopian tube b. ovary c. Vagina d. Cervix
-
133. Most common cause of VVF in india is:
a. Following gynecological operation b. Radiotherapy c. Carcinoma cervix d. Obstetrical trauma
-
134.s Bleeding of fetal origin is:
a. Placenta accreta b. Abruptio placentae c. Placenta previa d. Vasa previa
-
135. Variable deceleration is seen in:
a. head compression b. Uteroplacental insufficiency c. Umbilical cord compression d. Artifact
-
136. In placentia accreta the treatment of choice is:
a. Wait and watch b. Hysterectomy c. Hysterotomy d. Manual removal
-
137. Ventouse extraction is associated with advantage in:
a. Delivery fastened b. Can be applied in DTA c. no GA required d. Can be applied without full dilatation of cervix
-
138. Not caused by DMPA :
a. Thromboembolism b. Amenorrhea c. Irregular cycle d. Weight gain
-
139. Not a side effect of oral contraceptives:
a. Dysmenorrhea b. Mastalgia c. Chloasma d. breakthrough bleeding
-
140. Hazard of chorionic villous biopsy is:
a. Abortion b. Down syndrome c. Spina bifida d. Limb abnormality
-
141. Genetic disorders are diagnosed at 11 weeks pregnancy by:
a. Placentography b. endometrial biopsy c. Amniocentesis d. Chorionic villous biopsy
-
142. Ectopic pregnancy is most common in:
a. endometriosis b. Previous history of twin pregnancy c. Previous history of abortion d. Previous history of PID
-
143. which of the following is a tocolytic:
a. Oxytocin b. Ergotamine c. Ritodrine d. None of the above
-
144.Drug used to arrest premature labor is:
a. Diazoide b. Magnesium sulfate c. α methyl dopa d. Aspirin
-
145. Involution of uterus is completed by….. weeks:
a. 16 b. 12 c. 10 d. 6
-
146. Normal sodium content of liquor amnil at term is… mg/100ml:
a. 20-40 b. 280-310 c. 100-500 d. 560-660
-
147. First stage of labor is up to:
a. Crowing of head b. Full dilatation of cervix c. 3/5th dilatation of cervix d. Rupture of membrane
-
148. Vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy is:
a. Yellow fever b. Influenza c. Hepatitis B d. Rubella
-
149. Emergency contraception is contraception provided to:
- a. Contraceptive failure b. Couple not wanting to use other contraceptives
- c. Contraception provided to couple living in camps provided by government agencies
- d. Unprotected intercourse
-
150. Most common type of pelvis involved in occipitoposterior position is:
a. Gynecoid b. Platypelloid c. Anthropoid d. Android
-
151. Rarest type of pelvis is:
a. Gynecoid b. Platypelloid c. Anthropoid d. Android
-
152. Most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is:
a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Tuberculosis c. Gonococci d. Group B streptococci
-
153. highest rate of transmission of toxoplasmosis in pregnancy is:
a. Puerperium b. 3rd trimester c. 2nd trimester d. 1st trimester
-
154. Bishop score is used to evaluate :
a. Cervix status b. Uterine contraction c. Fetal well being d. Fetal lung maturity
-
155. True regarding minipill is:
a. Prevents ectopic pregnancy b. Cannot be used in lactation c. Used with combination of oral contraceptive pill d. Irregular vaginal bleeding
-
156. False regarding dermoid cyst of ovary is:
a. Bilateral in 35% of cases b. >10cm c. Lined by epithelial cells d. Has sebaceous material
-
157. Postpartum desidual secretion present as:
a. Decidua capsularis b. Vasa previa c. Bleeding per vaginum d. Lochia
-
158. Gonococcal infection in female is commonly found in:
a. Fornix b. Uterus c. Vagina d. Endocervix
-
159. Premature rupture of membrane occurs at:
a. II stage of labor b. Prior to 1st stage of labor c. 32 weeks of pregnancy d. 28 weeks of pregnancy
-
160.Longest part of the fallopian tube is:
a. Isthmus b. Interstitium c. Infundibulum d. Ampulla
-
161. Streak ovary is seen in:
a. Endometriosis b. XXX-Y c. Turner’s syndrome d. Down syndrome
-
162. Fetal heart movement can be detected by USG by about:
a. 5th week b. 6th week c. 7th week d. 8th week
-
163. In sheehan’s syndrome the most effective drug is:
a. Corticosteroid b. Prolactin c. Estrogen d. Gonadotropins
-
164. Not a neonatal complication of a diabetic’s fetus:
a. Omphalitis b. Hypocalcemia c. Polycythemia d. Hypoglycemia
-
165.Macrosomia is not seen in:
a. postmaturity b. hydrocephalus c. Obesity d. Diabetes mellitus
-
166. In a 18 weeks pregnancy to exclude down syndrome, the investigation of choice is:
a. AFP and beta HCG estimation b. CArdiocentesis c. Amniocentesis d. Chorionic villous biopsy
-
167. Not included in “rule of ten” :
a. 10 months of age b. 10 weeks of age c. Hemoglobin 10 gm d. Weight 10 Ib
-
168.Earliest detection of gestational diabetes is:
a. 28-32 weeks b. 24-28 weeks c. 16-20 weeks d. First trimester
-
169. Gestational diabetes is best diagnosed by:
a. Pancretic assay b. Fasting and PP blood sugar c. Glucose tolerance test d. Random blood sugar
-
170.Least effect on neonates in treatment of eclampsia is:
a. Phenobarbitone therapy b. Diazepam therapy c. MgSO4 regime d. Lytic cocktail regime
-
171.Most common intrauterine infection in pregnancy is:
a. Rubella b. herpes c. CMV d. Toxoplasmosis
-
172. Maximum incidences of congenital malformation are seen during pregnancy with infection of:
a. CMV b. Syphilis c. Rubella d. Toxoplasmosis
-
173. Drug of choice in malaria in pregnancy is:
a. quinine b. Halofantrine c. Chloroquine d. Primaquine
-
174. Earliest presentation in pre-eclampsia is:
a. proteinuria b. Edema c. Hypertension d. Seizure
-
175. Ovarian tumor with malignant cell in ascetic fluid is of:
a. Stage I b. stage II c. Stage III d. Stage Iv
-
176. According to the Hellin’s rule, twin pregnancies occur at a frequency of:
a. 1in 60 b. 1 in 70 c. 1 in 80 d. 1 in 90 e. 1 in 100
-
177. Spinnbarkeit phenomenon is due to:
a. Elasticity of cervical mucus b. Cells of cervical mucosa d. Vaginal secretion d. All of the above
-
178. Earliest symptom in primary adenocarcinoma of fallopian tube is:
a. Watery discharge per veginum b. Pain abdomen c. Menorrhagia d. Secondary amenorrhea
-
179. False regarding carcinoma of fallopian tube is:
a. Very rate b. Adenocarcinoma c. Constitutes about 10-20% of malignancies d. Menopausal women
-
180. Vaginal cytology for detecting hormonal changes is taken from:
a. Fornices b. Lateral wall c. Posterior wall d. Anterior wall
-
181. All the following are given in postpartum hemorrhage except:
- a. Methylergonovine b. Carboprost c. Oxytocin d.
- Misoprostol
-
182. Endometrial biopsy is best done at which part of menstrual cycle:
a. 22-24 days b. 10-12 days c. 1-5 days d. 14-16 days
-
183. IUCD acts by all of the following mechanisms except:
a. Inhibit ovulation b. Prevent sperm entry c. Alters cervical mucus d. Prevent implantation
-
184. Increased risk of carcinoma endometrium is not associated with:
a. Obesity b. Oral contraceptives c. Nulliparity d. Polycystic ovarian disease
-
185.Endometrial carcinoma is common in:
a. Nullipara b. Multipara c. Peri-menopausal age d. Thin girls
-
186. Not a saf drug during pregnancy;
a. Streptomycin b. Ethambutol c. Rifampicin d. isoniazid
-
187. Gas used for pneumoperitoneum laparoscopy:
a. N2O b. Co2 c. O2 d. N2
-
188. Amiotic fluid pH is;
a. 6.3 to 6.5 b. 6.4 to 6.8 c. 7.4 to 7.6 d. 7.0 to 7.5
-
189. Follow up in a patient of hydatidiform mole is done by;
a. Serum amylase level b. Serum β-hCG levels c. Serum AFP level d. Serum CEa estimation
-
190. Stain used for maturity assessment of amniotic fluid cells is:
a. Congo red b. Lehman’s stain c. Sudan red stain d. Nile blue sulphate
-
191.Point of distinction between partial mole to complete mole is:
- a. Partial mole show trophoblastic proliferation with absent villi
- b. Typical of partial mole is cellular atypia
- c. Partial mole is more prone to tumor malignancy
- d. Partial mole is triploid
-
192.Narrowest part o fallopian tube is:
a. Ampulla b. Infundibulun c. Interstitial portion d. Isthmus
-
193. Most common pregnancy outcome following treatment of genital tuberculosis is:
a. Live birth b. IUGR c. Abortion d. Ectopic pregnancy
-
194. Stress incontinence is a common symptom of:
a. VVF b. Adenomyosis c. Prolapse of uterus d. Fibroid
-
195.s Absolute contraindication of IUCD is;
a. pelvic inflammatory disease b. Menorrhagia c.. Uterine malformations d. Uterine fibrosis
-
196. Gestational sac can be seen in USG earliest at:
a. 10-12 weeks b. 5-6 weeks c. 7-8 weeks d. 12-13 weeks
-
197. The drug of choice of senile vaginitis is :
a. Estrogen b. Nystatin c. Progesterone d. Ketoconazole
-
198. Complete failure o fusion of the mullerian duct leads to:
a. Uterus didelphys b. Arcute uterus c. Subseptate uterus . Unlcornuate uterus
-
199. Tube testing is done under:
a. General anesthesia b. Local anesthesia c. Ketamine d. No anesthesia
-
200. Absolute contraindication of Norplant is:
a. Hypercholesterolemia b. Diabetes mellitus c. Active thrombophlebitis d. Hypertension
-
201. Not a feature of idiopathic cholestatic jaundice of pregnancy :
- a. SGPT values< 60 units/dl b. Markedly elevated serum alkaline phosphate
- c. Serum bilirubin more than 5 mg/dl d. Intens pruritus
-
202. In triple screening test for Down’s syndrome during pregnancy all of the following are included except:
a.. Serum beta hCG b. serum estroil c. Materanal serum alpha fetoprotein d. Acetylcholinesterase
-
203. All of the following are ultrasonographic fetal growth parameters except:
a. Head circumference b. Transcerebellar diameter c. Femur length d. Biparietal diameter
-
204. Most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula in development countries is:
a. Obstructed labor b. Werthiem’s hysterectomy c. Caesarian section d. Forceps delivery
-
205. Which of the following is a cause of oligohydramnios:
a. Congenital heart disease b. Anencephaly c. Gestational diabetes mellitus d. posterior urethral valve in the fetus
-
206.All of the following are used in the treatment of eclampsia except:
a. Lytic cocktail regime b. Phenytoin c. Atenolol d. Magnesium sulphate
-
207. Structure scut during medio-lateral episiotomy are all of the following except:
a. Levator ani b. Deep tranverse peroneii c. Superficial transverse peroneii d. Anterior vaginal wall
-
208. A 50 year old woman, presenting with bilateral solid ovarian tumors, has ascites. Upper gastro-intestinal endoscopy reveals an ulcerative growth in pyloric region of stomach. The most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Malignant ovarian tumor b. Carcinoma stomach with Krunkenberg’s tumor
- c. Carcinoma body uterus d. Carcinoma in the small intestine
-
209. use of folic acid prevent congenital malformation should be best initiated:
- a. During 1st trimester of pregnancy b. During 2nd trimester of pregnancy
- c. During 3rd trimester of pregnancy d. Before conception
-
210.Amnion is seen on?
a. Fetal surface b. Maternal surface c. Decidua d. placenta
-
211. All of the following are known risk factors for development of endometrial carcinoma except;
a. Obesity b. Family history c. use of the hormone replacement therapy d. Early menopause
-
212. A 20 year old woman gives a history of sharp pain in the lower abdomen for 2-3 days every month approximately 2 weeks before the menses. The most probable etiology for her pain is:
a. Endometriosis b. Dysmenorrhea c. Pelvic tuberculosis d. Mittelschmerz
-
213. Peri-conceptional use of the following agent leads to reduced incidence of neural tube defects:
a. Folic acid b Iron c. Calcium d. Vitamin A
-
214. The following statements regarding turner syndrome are true except:
- a. Occurrence of turner syndrome is influenced by maternal age
- b. Most patients have primary amenorrhea
- c. Most patients have short stature
- d. Edema of hands and feet is an important feature during infancy
-
215. Which of the following is correct for the calculation of pearl index?
- a. (No. of accidental pregnancies*1200)/(No. of patients observed *months of use)
- b. (No. of accidental pregnancies*1200) /(No. of patients observed *2400)
- c. (No. of patients observed *months of use)/ (No. of accidental pregnancies)
- d. (No. of patients observed *2400) / (No. of accidental pregnancies *2400)
-
216.According to WHO criteria, the minimum sperm count is:
a. 10 Million /ml b. 20million /ml c. 40 million/ml d. 60 million/ml
-
217.Teratozoospermia denotes :
- a. Decreased sperm count b. Deformed and abnormal shape of sperms
- c. Increased sperm count d. Decreased viability of sperms
-
218. Doubling of HCG is:
a. 12-24 hours b. 6-12 hours c. 24-48 hours d. 48-72 hours
-
219.Infertility is a common feature in sertoli cell only syndrome, because:
- a. Too many sertoli cells inhibit spermatogenesis via inhibit
- b. Proper blood testis barrier is not established
- c. There is no germ cells in this condition
- d. Sufficient numbers of spermatozoa are not produced
-
220.A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low-grade fever and mild leukocytosis at 28 weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Preterm labor b. Red degeneration of fibroid c. Torsion of fibroid d. Infection in fibroid
-
221.Maximum permissible radiation dose in pregnancy is:
a. 0.5 rad b. 1.0 rad c. 1.5 rad d. 3.0 rad
-
222. In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days ovulation occurs around 14th day of periods. When is first polar body extracted?
- a. 24 hours prior to ovulation b. Accompanied by ovulation
- c. 48 hours after the ovulation d. At the time of fertilization
-
223.The most common cause of breech presentation is:
a. Prematurity b. Hydrocephalus c. Placenta praevia d. polyhydramnios
-
224. The most common cause of occipito-posterior position of fetal head during labor is:
a. Maternal obesity b. Delflexion of fetal head c. Multiparity d. android pelvis
-
225.Gestational diabetes is most likely to cause which of the following :
a. Fetal macrosomia b. pre-eclampsia c. Structural fetal abnormalities d. Oligohydram ios
-
226. The most common congenital anomaly seen in pregnancy with diabetes mellitus is:
a. Multicystic kidneys b. esophageal atresia c. Neural tube defects d. Duodental atresia
-
227. A peri-menopausal lady with well-differentiated adenocarcinoma of uterus has more that half myometrial invasion, vaginal metastasis and inguinal lymph node metastasis. She is staged as:
a. Stage IIIB b. Stage IIIC c. Stage Iv a d. Stage Iv b
-
228. A drop in fetal heart rate that typically lasts than 2 minutes and is usually associated with umbilical cord compression is called:
a. Early deceleration b. Late deceleration c. Variable deceleration d. Prolonged deceleration
-
229.There is a mid-cycle shift in the basal body temperature (BBT)after ovulation in women. This is caused by:
a. GSH-peak b. LH- peak c. Estradiol d. Progesterone
-
230. All of the following are known side effects with the use of tocolytic therapy except:
a. Tachycardia b. Hypotension c. Hyperglycemia d. Fever
-
231. Low dose progenstational contraceptives primarily act on:
a. Oviductal motility b. Uterine endometrium c. Cervix d. Pituitary
-
232.all of the following are mechanisms of action of emergency contraception except:
- a. Delaying ovulation b. Inhibiting fertilization
- c. Preventing implantation of the fertilized egg d. Interrupting an early pregnancy
-
233. A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia belongs to high-risk group if disease develops after;
a. Dydatidiform mole b. Full term pregnancy c. Sopntaneous abortion d. Ectopic pregnancy
-
234. Lowest dose of ethinyl estradiol used in combination contraceptive is;
a. 35mcg b. 50 mcg c. 20 mcg d. 30 mcg
-
235.Apotosis can occur by changes in hormone levels in the ovarian cycle. When there is no fertilization of the ovum. The endometrial cells die because:
- a. The inovulation of corpus luteum causes estradiol and progesterone levels to fall dramatically
- b. LH levels rise after ovulation
- c. Estradiol levels are not involved in the LH surge phenomenon
- d. Estradiol inhibits the induction of the progesterone receptor in the endometrium
-
236. DES (diethylstilbestrol) administered during pregnancy causes:
- a. Virlization of head and neck b. Virlization of lower limbs
- c. Vaginal adenocarcinoma is teenage d. Cervical stenosis
-
237. Stilboestrol administered during pregnancy can produce which of the following effects in the offspring:
- a. Virlization of lower limbs b. Vaginal adenocarcinoma in teenage
- c. Virlizationof head and neck d. None of the above
-
238. Ru 486 can be used in all of the following conditions except:
a. Endometriosis b. Emergency contraception c. To cause abortion d. Endometrial carcinoma
-
239.Micronized progesterone can be given by which of the following routes:
a. Oral and vaginal routes b. Iv c. Vaginal route only d. Oral only
-
240.In Vitro fertilization is mainly used when the cause of infertility is due to;
a. Oligospermia b. Tubal disease c. Anovulation d. Cord factor
-
241. Hyperemesis gravifdarum in 1st trimester is seen with increased frequency in all of the following except:
a. Hydatidiform mole b. Twins c. Pre-eclampsia d. Primgravida
-
242. all of the following are true about metropathia hemorrhagica except:
a. Swiss cheese endometrium b. Common nearing menpause c. Anovulatory cycles d. Metrorrhagia
-
243. MTP is required if infected by:
a. Toxoplasma b. Rubella c. CMV d. Herpes
-
244. All of the following are known risk factors for the development of ovarian carcinoma, except:
a. family history of ovarian carcinoma b. Use of oral pills c. Use of clomiphene d. BRCA-1 positive individual
-
245. 20-weeks Pregnancy with red degeneration in fibroid should be treated with:
a. Oxytocin start b. Rest, antibiotics and sedation c. Myomectomy d. Hysterectomy
-
246. Which of the following is false regarding red degeneration of fibroid?
- a. Occurs as a result of outgrowth of blood supply b. Immediate surgery is required
- c. Occurs only during pregnancy d. Presents with pain in abdomen and nausea
-
247.The common complication of fibroid uterus in pregnancy is:
a. Rupture b. Torsion c. Hemorrhage d. Red degeneration
-
248. The PAP smear is used largely for:
- a. For diagnosing HPV infections b. For screening carcinoma cervix
- c. For identifying vaginal cells d. Staging of carcinoma cervix
-
249.All of the following drugs have been used for medical abortion, except:
a. Mifepristone b. Misoprostol c. MEthotrexate d. Atosiban
-
250. Drug not used in induction of ovulation is:
a. HCG b. Clomiphene citrate c. HMG d. Danazol
-
251. internal podalic version is indicated in:
a. Face presentation b. Transverse lie c. Breach presentation d. Transverse lie in case of second baby of twins
-
252. A woman presented on 7th day after 3rd degree perineal tear. Management should be done:
a. After 3 months b. After 4 weeks c. After 3 days d. Immediately
-
253. In IUCD the organism causing infection is;
a. Cryptococcus b. Herpes c. Chlamydia d. Actinomycosis
-
254. Primary postpartum hemorrhage is most commonly caused by:
a. Trauma b. /malnutrition c. Residual placenta d. Uterine atony
-
255. The drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis is:
a. Doxycycline b. Metronidazole c. Penicillin d. Fluconazole
-
256. with reference to feta heart rate, a non- stress test is
- considered reactive when:
- a. Two fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 20 mins
- b. One fetal heart rate acceleration is noted in 20 mins
- c. Two fetal heart rate accelarations are noted in 10 mins
- d. Three fetal heart rate accelartions are noted in 30 mins
-
257. A pregnant woman is found to have excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid . such polyhydramnios is likely to be associated with all of the following conditions, except:
a. Twinning b. Microanencephaly c. Esophageal atresia d. Bilateral renal agenesis
-
258. Excessive intake (hypervitaminosis) of which of the following vitamin is associated with increased risk of congenital malformations:
a. Vitamin A b. Biotin c. Folic Acid d. Vitamin K
-
259. The drug of choice for the treatment of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy is:
a. Carbimazole b. Iodine therapy c. Propylthiouracil d. Methiamozole
-
260. The most common cause of primary amenorrhea is;
a. Genital tuberculosis b. Ovarian dysgenesis c. Mullerian duct anomalies d. Hypothyroidism
-
261. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills is associated with an increased incidence of :
a. Bacterial vaginosis b. chlamdial endocervicitis c. Vaginal warts d. Genital herpes
-
262. Which of the following drug is not used for medical management of ectopic pregnancy?
a. Potassium chloride b. Methotrexate c. Actinomycin D d. Misoprostol
-
263. The intra-abdominal pressure during laparoscopy should be set between:
- a. 5-8 mm of Hg b. 10-15 mm of Hg c. 2-25 mm of Hg d.
- 30-35 mm of Hg
-
264.The following statements are true about intrauterine devices(IUD) except:
- a. Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 years
- b. IUD can be used for emergency contraception within 5 days
- c. The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu-T-200 are similar
- d. Multiload Cu—375 is a third generation IUD
-
265.A 21 year old woman presents with complaints of primary amenorrhea. Her height is 153 cm, weight is 51kg. she has well developed breasts. She has no pubic of axillary hair and no hirsutism. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
- a. Turner syndrome b. Stein-leventhal syndrome
- c. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome d. Premature ovarian failure
-
266. All of the following may be used in pregnancy associated hypertension except:
a. Nifedipine b. Captoprill c. Hydralazine d. Methyldopa
-
267.A 30 year old woman presented with secondary amenorrhea for 3 years along with galactorrhoea. The most likely cause of her symptoms would be:
a. Craniopharyngioma b. Sub-arachnoid hemorrhage c. Prolactinoma d. Meningioma
-
268. Which one of the following perinatal infections has the highest risk of fetal infection in the 1st trimester?
a. Toxoplasmosis b. Syphilis c. Rubella d. Hepatitis B virus
-
269. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 27 year old obese woman presenting with oligomenorrhea, infertility and hirsutism?
a. Polycystic ovaries b. Endometriosis c. Pelvic inflammatory disease d. Turner’s syndrome
-
270.s Anti-progesterone compound RU-486 is effective for inducing abortion if the duration of pregnancy is;
a. 72 days b. 63 days c. 120 days d. 88 days
-
271. The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is:
- a. Direct fluorescent antibody test b. Enzyme immunoassay
- c. Culture on irradiated McConkey cells d. Polymerase chain reaction
-
273. A 6 month old infant presents to the diarrhea clinic unit with some dehydration. The most likely organism causing diarrhea is:
a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Rotavirus c. Giardia lamblia d. Shigella
-
274. All of the following strategies are effective in preventing mother-to child transmission of HIV, except:
- a. Zidovudine to mother and baby b. Vaginal cleansing before delivery
- c. Stopping breast feeding d. Elective caesarian section
-
275. A 37 year old multipara construction laborer has a blood picture showing hypochromi anisocytosis. This is most likely indicative of:
- a. Combined iron and folic acid deficiency b. Iron deficiency
- c. folic deficiency d. Malnutrition
-
276. At 28 weeks gestation, amniocentesis reveals a delta optical density (DOD) 450 of 0.20, which is at the top of 2nd zone of the liley curve. The most appropriate management of such a case is:
a. Immediate delivery b. Intrauterine transfusion c. Repeat amniocentesis after 1 week d. Plasmapheresis
-
277. All of the following statements about HRT (hormone replacement therapy) are true, except:
- a. It increases the risk of coronary artery disease b. It increases bone mineral density
- c. It increases the risk of breast cancer d . It increase the risk of endometrial cancer
-
278. Minimum effective dose of ethynyl estradiol in combined oral contraceptive pill is:
a. 20 microgram b. 35 microgram c. 50 microgram d. 75 microgram
-
279. All the following can cause DIC during pregnancy except:
a.. Diabetes mellitus b. amniotic fluid embolism c. Intrauterine death d. Abruption placentae
-
280. Use of oral contraceptives decreases the incidences of all of the following except:
- a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Epithelial ovarian malignancy
- c. Hepatic adenoma d. Pelvic inflammatory disease
-
281.In a young female of reproductive age an absolute contraindication for prescribing oral contraceptive pills is;
a. Diabetes b. Hypotension c. obesity d. Impaired liver function
-
282.In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days ovulation occurs around 14th day of periods. When is the first polar body extruded?
- a. 24 hrs prior to ovulation b. Accompanied by ovulation
- c. 48 hours after the ovulation d. At the time of fertilization
-
283.Which of the following is the most common pure malignant germ cell tumor of the ovary?
a. Choriocarcinoma b. Gonadoblasoma c. Dysgerminoma d. Malignant teratoma
-
284. The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is:
a. Choriocarcinoma b. Dysgerminoma c. Embryonal cell tumor d. Malignant teratoma
-
285. During laparoscopy the preferred site for obtaining cultures in a patient with acute pelvic inflammatory disease is:
a. endocervix b. Pouch of douglas c. endometrium d. Fallopian tubes
-
286. Which of the following has a normal level of alpha-fetoprotein value in serum?
a. Ovarian dysgerminoma b. Hepatoblastoma c. Embryonal carcinoma d. Yolk sac tumor
-
287. Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy:
a. Hepatitis B b. Cholera c. Rabies d. Yellow fever
-
288.The best period of gestation to carry out chorion villus biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is;
a. 8 to 10 weeks b. 10 to 12 weeks c. 12 to 14 weeks d. 14 to 16 weeks
-
289. The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with:
a. IgM antibodies b. lysozyme c. Mast cells d. IgA antibodies
-
290. The highest incidence of gestational trophoblastic disease is in:
a. Australia b. Asia c. North America d. Western Europe
-
291. A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia is detected to have lung metastasis. She should be staged as:
a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage Iv
-
292. The karyotype of a patient with androgen insensitivity syndrome is:
a. 46XX b. 46 XY c. 47 XXY d. 45XO
-
293. All of the following are causes of intrauterine growth retardation, except:
a. Anemia b. Pregnancy induced hypertension c. Maternal heart disease d. Gestational diabetes
-
294.Whihc one of the following biochemical parameters is most sensitive to detect open spina bifida?
- a. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein b. Amniotic fluid alpha-fetoprotein
- c. Amniotic fluid acetylcholinesterase d. Amniotic fluid glucohexaminase
-
295. Infants of diabetic mother are likely to have the following cardiac anomaly:
a. Coarctation of aorta b. Fallot’s tetralogy c. Ebstein’s anomaly d. Transposistion of great arteries
-
296.Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to pregnant women with epilepsy?
- a. The rate of congenital malformation is increased in the offspring of women with epilepsy
- b. Seizure frequency increases in approximately 70% of woman
- c. Breast feeding is safe with most anticonvulsants
- d. folic acid supplementation may reduce the risk of neural
- tube defect
-
297. In a case of dysgerminoma of ovary one of the following tumor markers is likely to be raised:
a. Serum hCG b. Serum alpha fetoprotein c. Serum lactic dehydrogenase d. Serum inhibin
-
298. Misoprostol has been found to be effective in all of the following , except:
a. Missed abortion b. Induction of labor c. Menorrhagia d. Prevention of postpartum hemorrhage(PPH)
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