OBG Sharad

  1. 1. Not a germ cell of ovary:
    a. Endodermal sinus tumor b. Polyembryoma c. Dysgerminoma d. Brenner tumor
  2. 2. False regarding complete testicular feminization is:
    a. Prelobular bulb b. Female breast enlargement c. Primary amenorrhea d. Blind vagina
  3. 3. Treponema pallidum crosses placenta:
    a. After 36 weeks b. after 28 weeks c. after 2nd trimester d. at any stage of pregnancy
  4. 4. Use of valproate during pregnancy may result in:
    a. Mental retardation b. Respiratory depression c. Hydantoin syndrome d. Neural tube defect
  5. 5. A young lady presented with bilateral ovarism mass, capsule intact no ascites signet ring cells on biopsy. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Mucinous cyst adenoma of ovary b. Teratoma ovary c. Krukenberg tumor d. Fibroma
  6. 6. Most commonly krukenberg tumor is due to carcinoma of:
    a. Stomach b. Breast c. Colon d. Uterus
  7. 7. Oral contraceptive acts by:
    a. Aseptic inflammation b. Change in endometrial fluid c. Foreign body reaction d. Prevent ovulation
  8. 8. Milk ejection reflex is by:
    a. Estrogen b. Aldosterone c. Oxytocin d. prolactin
  9. 9. Asherman’s syndrome is characterized by:
    b. A. Amenorrhea b. Dyemenorrhea c. Metrorrhagia d. Leucorrhea
  10. 10.Asherman’s syndrome is due to:
    a. Contraceptive pills b. Septicemia c. Postabortion curettage d. Overdose of drugs
  11. 11. Asherman’s syndrome is due to:
    a. Trauma b. Cu T insertion c. Curettage d. Forceps application
  12. 12. Fern test is due to :
    a. LH b. FSH c. Progesterone d. Estrogen
  13. 13. Ferning of cervical mucous depends upon:
    a. LH b. FSH c. Progesterone d. Estrogen
  14. 14. Cryptomenorrhea is seen in:
    a. Asherman’s syndrome b. Testicular feminizing syndrome c. Imperforated hymen d. Uterine agenesis
  15. 15. False regarding PCOD is:
    a. Increased androgen b. Decreased estrogen c. Increasedd LH d. Anovulation
  16. 16. An 18 year old girl has obesity, oligomenorrhea and hirsutism. The diagnosis is:
    a. Adrenogenital syndrome b. Testicular feminization c. Polycystic ovarian disease d. Cushing syndrome
  17. 17.Most common site for endometriosis is:
    a. Ovary b. Peritoneum c. appendix d. urinary bladder
  18. 18. Red degeneration of fibroid occurs most commonly in:
    a. 3rd trimester b. 2nd trimester c. 1st trimester d. Postpartum
  19. 19. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia skin pigmentation with endocrine manifestations is seen in:
    a. McCune-Albright syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Klinefelter syndrome d. Tuberous sclerosis
  20. 20. Not a component of Meigs syndrome:
    a. Ascites b. Ovarian tumor c. Pericardial effusion d. Pleural effusion
  21. 21. Meigs’ syndrome is commonly associated with:
    a. Theca cell tumor b. Teratoma c. Fibroma d. Brenner’s syndrome
  22. 22. Post- term pregnancy is that which continues beyond… days:
    a. 300 b. 294 c. 287 d. 280
  23. 23. Chlaydia trachomatis can cause all except:
    a. Cervivitis b. Endometritis c. Salpingitis d. Vulvitis
  24. 24. Ovulation coincides with:
    a. LH surge b. FSH surge c. Estrogen surge d. Progesterone surge
  25. 25. Gartner’s duct cyst is seen in:
    a. Vagina b. Hymen c. Cervix d. Labia minora
  26. 26.In pelvic endometriosis the investigation of choice is:
    a. Laparoscopy b. MRI c. Ultrasound d. CT scan
  27. 27.Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all the following except:
    a. Lecithin saphingomyelin ratio b. Nile blue sulfate test c. Nitrazine paper test d. Creatinine estimation of amniotic fluid
  28. 28. Carcinoma cervix is caused by HPV :
    a. 16, 21, 33 b. 16, 18 , 33 c. 16, 18, 21 d. 16, 21, 25
  29. 29. HPV involved in carcinoma cervix is:
    a. Type 16 b. Type 11 c. Type 21 d. Type 06
  30. 30. False regarding mayer-Rokitansky –kuster-Hauser syndrome is:
    a. absent uterus b. Ovulation c. Absent vagina d. 46 XX karyotype
  31. 31. Most likely affected organ in Mayer Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome is:
    a. Ovary agenesis b. Fallopian tubes absent c. Vaginal atresia d. Bicornuate uterus
  32. 32. Clomiphene citrate us used in:
    a. Carcinoma endometrium b. Asherman’s syndrome c. Stein leventhal syndrome d. Infertility
  33. 33. Long term use of tamoxifen causes:
    a. Vaginal carcinoma b. Cervical carcinoma c. endometrial carcinoma d. Ovarian carcinoma
  34. 34. Weight of mature placenta is:
    a. 1000gm b. 500gm c. 800gm d. 100gm
  35. 35. Musculinizing ovarian tumor is:
    a. Dermoid cyst b. Arrhenoblastoma c. Cranuloma cell tumor d. Dysgerminoma
  36. 36. Virilizing tumor of ovary is:
    a. Arrhenoblastoma b. Leutoma cDysgerminoma d. Granuloma cell tumor
  37. 37. Not a feminizing type of ovarian tumor:
    a. Arrhenoblastoma b. Leutoma c. Early pregnancy d. Late pregnancy
  38. 38. “Hegar’s sign” adenomyosis is:
    a. Infertility b. Abdominal labor c. Early pregnancy d. Late pregnancy
  39. 39. Symptom of “adenomyosis” is:
    a. Infertility b. Abdominal lump c. dysmenorrhea d. Metrorrhagia
  40. 40. True regarding adenomyosis:
    • a. Presents with menorrhagia, dysmenorrheal, and enlarged uterus
    • c. progestins are not useful d. More Common in multipara
  41. 41. “Cell exner” bodies are seen in:
    a. Granuloma cell tumor b. Arrheanoblastoma c. Fibroma d. Theca cell tumor
  42. 42. Presenting diameter in brow presentation is:
    a. Mentovertical b. submentovertical c. Submentobregmatic d. Occipitofrontal
  43. 43. Dameter of engagement in completely extended face presentation is:
    a. Submento vertical b. Submento bregmatic c. MEnto vertical d. Mento bregmatics
  44. 44. Shortest diameter of fetal skull among the following is:
    a. Bitemporal b. Biparietal c. Submento-occipital d. Submentobregmatic
  45. 45. Shortest diameter of fetal skull is:
    a. Bitemporal b. Bimastoid c. Submentobregmatic d. Submento-occipital
  46. 46. Most common anomaly seen in the fetus of mother taking lithium carbonate is:
    a. Genitourinary deformity b. Limb reduction c. Neural tube defect d. Cardiac deformities
  47. 47.Couvelaire uterus is seen in:
    a. Rupture b. placenta praevia c. accidental hemorrhage d. Is congenital
  48. 48. All the following drugs are used for postcoital contraception except:
    a. Danazol b. ethinyl estradiol c. Levonorgestrel d. Mifepristone
  49. 49. Incarcinoma cervix stage III B the treatment of choice is:
    a. Surgery+radiotherapy b. Surgery c. Radiotherapy d. Chemotherapy
  50. 50.Treatment of choice for carcinoma cervix stage IB is:
    a. Radiotherapy b. External hysterectomy c. Abdominal hysterectomy d. Pan-hysterectomy
  51. 51. Not a clinical manifestation of carcinoma cervix:
    • a. Can be diagnosed by biopsy b. May be present as post-menopausal bleeding
    • c. In early stages spread to inguinal lymph node d. For late cases it can cause uteric infiltration
  52. 52. Carcinoma cervix extended to lateral pelvic wall in:
    a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV
  53. 53. Carcinoma of vulva is:
    a. Columnar cell carcinoma b. Transitional cell carcinoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
  54. 54.Treatmetn of stage II of carcinoma endometrium is:
    a. Radiotherapy +surgery b. Radiotherapy c. Surgery d. Chemotherapy
  55. 55. huhner test is done at time of:
    a. About ovulation b. After menstruation c. Before menstruation d. Anytime of ovulation
  56. 56. In a pregnant woman with red degeneration, management is;
    a. Myomectomy b. Hysterectomy c. Conservative treatment d. Termination of pregnancy
  57. 57. False regarding krukenberg tumor is:
    a. Usually from carcinoma of stomach b. Bilateral c. Maintains the ovarian shape d. NO cystic spaca
  58. 58. According to MTP act, opinion of two doctors are required if abortion is done after;
    a. 12weeks b. 20 weeks c. 10 weeks d. 4 weeks
  59. 59. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:
    a. Abdominal b. Infundibulum c. Ampulla d. Istmus
  60. 60. True regarding RU 486 is:
    • a. Used for preventing ectopic implantation b. Acts on cytoplasmic receptor
    • c. used along with contraceptive pills d. Used for inducing abortion in early of pregnancy
  61. 61.Worst prognosis is seen in pregnant women with which of the following cardiac lesion:
    a. Tetralogy of fallot b. Eisenmenger syndrome c. Coarctation of aorta d. Mitral stenosis
  62. 62. Most common abnormality for first trimester abortion is:
    a. Retroversion b. Chromosomal abnormalities c. placental and membrane abnormalities d. Trauma
  63. 63. Which of the following is malignant:
    a. Teratoma b. Dysgerminoma c. Brenner tumor d. Fibroma
  64. 64. Cause of infection in tuberculous fallopian tube is:
    • a. Hematogenous spread from a primary focus elsewhere b. Lymphatic spread
    • c. Ascending infection d. Primary infection
  65. 65.”Bandl ring” is associated with:
    a. placenta praevia b. Obstructed labor c. Fetal death d. Uterine inertia
  66. 66.Uterous develops from:
    a. Wolffian duct b. Mullerian duct c. Mesonephros d. Metanephros
  67. 67. paramesonephric duct develops into:
    a. Vas deferens b. Seminal vesicle c. Ureter d. Uterus
  68. 68. Most common squeal in retroversion of uterus is:
    a. Urinary tract infection b. Retention of urine c. Recurrent abortion d. Spontaneous remission
  69. 69.A patient treated for infertility comes with 12 weeks
    • amenorrhea with retention of urine and abdominal pain. Most likely diagnosis is:
    • a. Uterine hematoma b. pelvic hematoma c. Retroverted gravid uterus d. Impacted fibroid
  70. 70.Diagonal conjugate is from:
    • a. Maximum diameter of inlet b. Lower end of symphysis to sacral promontory
    • c. Mid point posteriorly of symphysis to sacral promontory d. Upper end pubic symphysis to sacral promontory
  71. 71. Shortest diameter of pelvic inlet is:
    a. True conjugate b. Obstetric conjugate c. Transverse diameter d. Diagonal conjugate
  72. 72. Maximum diameter of pelvic inlet in:
    a. True conjugate b. Obstetric conjugate c. Diagonal conjugate d. Transverse diameter
  73. 73.Retention of urine in a pregnant woman with retroverted uterus Is seen in…. weeks:
    a. 28-32 b. 20-24 c. 12-16 d. 8-10
  74. 74. Fetal alpha protein is not increased in:
    a. Tracheoesophageal fistula b. Congenital nephrosis c. Trisomy 21 d. Fetal death
  75. 75.Low maternal serum alpha-Fetoprotein is not seen in:
    a. Cardiac anomaly b. skeletal deformity c. Trisomy 21 d. Neural tube defect
  76. 76. Fetal condition associated with increased maternal age is:
    a. Patau’s syndrome b. Edward’s syndrome c. Marfan’s syndrome d. Down syndrome
  77. 77. Human placenta is:
    a. Endotheliochorial b. Epitheliochorial c. Syndesmochorial d. Hemochorial
  78. 78. True regarding precocious puberty in girls is:
    a. Body proportion enlarged b. No reproduction function c. Mental function increased d. Sexual development attained early
  79. 79. Greenish vaginal discharge with severe itching points of:
    a. Pyogenic vaginitis b. Trichomonas infection c. Candidiasis d. Senile vaginitis
  80. 80. Strawberry color of vagina is found in:
    a. Granuloma inguinale b. Candidiasis c. Haemophilus vaginalis d. Trichomoniasis
  81. 81. “Snow storm” appearance is seen in USG in which of the following conditions:
    a. Ovarian cyst b. Hydatidiform mole c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Hydrocephalus
  82. 82. Drug useful in gardnerella vaginalis is:
    a. Metronidazole b. Erytheomycin c. Ampicillin d. Clindamycin
  83. 83. A 25 year old promiscuous lady presented with white papule on labia. Most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Planter warts b. Verrucus plana c. Condylomata acuminata d. Condylomata lata
  84. 84.Danzol is not used in:
    a. Endometrial carcinoma b. Fibrocystic disease c. Menorrhadia d. Endometriosis
  85. 85. Not used in the treatment of endometriosis :
    a. Tamoxifen b. GnRH analogue c. Danazol d. Medroxyprogesterone
  86. 86. Fertilized reaches the uterine cavity in:
    a. 11-15 days b. 6-7 days c. 8-10 days d. 2-3 days
  87. 87. Bonney’s test is used to demonstrate :
    a. Neurogenic incontinence b. True incontinence c. Urge incontinence d. Stress incontinence
  88. 88. Bartholin’s cyst is treated by:
    a. Medical therapy b. laser therapy c. Marsupialization d. Partial excision and curettage
  89. 89.Not an absolute contraindication of oral contraceptive pill:
    a. Uterine bleeding b. Breast carcinoma c. Hydatidiform mole d. Genital cancer
  90. 90. In menopause, hot flushes are due to :
    a. Genetic basis b. FSH surge c. LH surge d. Low estrogen
  91. 91.Drug not helpful in induction of ovulation is:
    a. Progesterone b. Clomiphene c. Gonadotropin d. Tamoxifen
  92. 92.Disseminated intravascular coagulation can be caused by:
    a. Amniotic fluid embolism b. Abruptio placenta c. Septic abortion d. All of the above
  93. 93. Not a hormone producing ovarian tumor:
    a. Dysgerminoma b. Hilus cell tumor c. Gynandroblastoma d. Arrhenoblastoma
  94. 94. Candidates occurs with all except:
    a. Oral pills b. Pregnancy c. Menstruation d. Corticosteroid therapy
  95. 95. Regarding vaginal candidates which of the following is false
    • a. Cottage cheese like secretions are seen b. Intense pruritus
    • c. most common in non-pregnant women d. Buds and hyphae in KOH preparation
  96. 96. Hydatidiform mole is associated with:
    a. Ovarian adenoma b. Pseudo-cyst ovary c. Lutein cyst d. Follicular cyst
  97. 97. Metastasis of choriocarcinoma most commonly goes to:
    a. Lung b. Bone c. Liver d. Brain
  98. 98.Not a feature of pseudocyesis:
    a. Weight gain b. Morning sickness c. enlargement of uterus d. Amenorrhea
  99. 99. Tumor marker CA 125 is for :
    a. Carcinoma Cervix b. Carcinoma Ovary c. Carcinoma Liver d. Carcinoma uterus
  100. 100. Not a feature of HELLP syndrome:
    a. Raised liver enzymes b. Eosinophilia c. Thrombocytopenia d. Hemolytic anemia
  101. 101. Norplant is:
    a. Nonsteroidal contraceptive b. Subcutaneous implant c. IUCD d. Depot
  102. 102. Drug in norplant subdermal implant hormonal contraceptive is:
    a. Levonorgestrel b. Ethyl estradiol c. Medroxyprogesterone d. Norethisterone
  103. 103. Most effective postcoital contraceptive is:
    a. Pills b. Condoms c. Norplant d. Cu T
  104. 104. pyometra is:
    a. Cervical stenosis b. Chronic endometritis c. Carcinoma endometrium d. Carcinoma cervix
  105. 105. Most common type of vaginal carcinoma is:
    a. Columnar cell carcinoma b. Adenocarcinoma c. Transitional cell carcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma
  106. 106. All are indications for cesarean section except:
    a. Placenta previa b. Abruptio plaventa c. Carcinoma cervix d. Active herpetic lesion
  107. 107. In type B radiation therapy in cervical carcinoma, the point B should correspond to which of the following lymph nodes:
    a. Common iliac b. Hypogastric c. External iliac d. Obturator
  108. 108. Highest rate of ectopic pregnancy is seen with:
    a. Progestasert b. Cu T c. lippes loop d. Cu T 200
  109. 109. Most common type of carcinoma cervix is:
    a. Columnar cell carcinoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Transitional cell carcinoma d. Adenocarcinoma
  110. 110. False regarding cephalhematoma is:
    a. Present few hours after birth b. Does not cross suture lines c. Fluctuation seen d. Present at birth
  111. 111. Most common site of fibroid likely to undergo malignant changes to:
    a. Transmural b. Subserous c. Submucous d. Intramural
  112. 112.In leiomyoma of uterus which of the following changes does not occur:
    a. Fatty degeneration b. Squamous metaplasia c. Hyaline degeneration d. Atrophy
  113. 113.Ruptured ectopic pregnancy is confirmed by:
    a.. Dilatation and curettage b. Posterior colpotomy c. Culdocentesis d. Leparoscopy
  114. 114. Least vital capacity is seen in:
    a. Prone position b. Left lateral position c. Trendelenburg position d. Lithotomy position
  115. 115. A case of grade II endometrial carcinoma with myometrial involvement up to 10cm in uterine cavity is staged as:
    a. IIB c. IB c. IA d. IIA
  116. 116. Carcinoma endometrium with superficial inguinal lymph node involvement is of:
    a. Stage IV b. Stage III c. Stage II d. Stage I
  117. 117.Not a primary support of uterus:
    a. Anti-flexion b. Broad ligament c. Pelvic diaphragm d. Uterosacral ligament
  118. 118. Most important support of uterus for preventing prolapsed is :
    a. Pelvic floor b. Round ligament of ovary c. Round ligament of uterus d. Transverse cervical ligament
  119. 119. Drug contraindicated during pregnancy is:
    a. Captopril b. Reserpine c. Hydralazine . Methyldopa
  120. 120. Absolute indication for LSCS is:
    a. Type IV placenta previa b. Breech presentation c. Previous LSCS d. Fetal distress
  121. 121.Most common type of breech presentation is:
    a. Compound b. Incomplete c. Complete d. Frank
  122. 122. Most common site of fibroid uterus is:
    a. Cervical b. Subserous c. Intramural d. Submucous
  123. 123. False regarding endometrial carcinoma is:
    • a. low incidence in diabetics b. Estrogen producing ovarian tumors predispose to it
    • c. Feminizing ovarian tumors predispose to it d. Pre-malignant phase present
  124. 124.Endometrial carcinoma is predisposed by all the following except:
    a. Estrogen b. Tamoxifen c. Oral contraceptives d. Nulliparity
  125. 125. Amniotic fluid is mainly secreted by:
    a. Fetal lung b. Amnion c. Palcental d. Fetal kidney
  126. 126. Most common cause of breech presentation is:
    a. Contracted pelvis b. Prematurity c. oligohydramnios d. Hydramnios
  127. 127. Condition associated with lack of a single pelvic ala:
    a. Robert’s b. Naegele’s c. Rickets pelvis d. Osteomalacia pelvis
  128. 128. All are flase regarding Naegele’s pelvis except;
    a. kyphotc spine b. Both alae absent c. Absence of one ala d. Tri-radiate pelvis
  129. 129. True regarding Robert’s pelvis is:
    a. Rachitic spine b. Both ala absent c. Wide pelvis brim d. Single ala absent
  130. 130.Mechanism of action of spermicide is:
    • a. Vaginal enzyme alteration b. Disrupting cell membrane and motility
    • c. Inhibit glucose transport enzyme d. Activating acrosome enzyme
  131. 131. Percentage of myomas which undergo sarcomatous transformation is:
    a. 2.5% b. 1.5% c. 2% d. 0.5%
  132. 132. Most common site for genital tuberculosis :
    a. Fallopian tube b. ovary c. Vagina d. Cervix
  133. 133. Most common cause of VVF in india is:
    a. Following gynecological operation b. Radiotherapy c. Carcinoma cervix d. Obstetrical trauma
  134. 134.s Bleeding of fetal origin is:
    a. Placenta accreta b. Abruptio placentae c. Placenta previa d. Vasa previa
  135. 135. Variable deceleration is seen in:
    a. head compression b. Uteroplacental insufficiency c. Umbilical cord compression d. Artifact
  136. 136. In placentia accreta the treatment of choice is:
    a. Wait and watch b. Hysterectomy c. Hysterotomy d. Manual removal
  137. 137. Ventouse extraction is associated with advantage in:
    a. Delivery fastened b. Can be applied in DTA c. no GA required d. Can be applied without full dilatation of cervix
  138. 138. Not caused by DMPA :
    a. Thromboembolism b. Amenorrhea c. Irregular cycle d. Weight gain
  139. 139. Not a side effect of oral contraceptives:
    a. Dysmenorrhea b. Mastalgia c. Chloasma d. breakthrough bleeding
  140. 140. Hazard of chorionic villous biopsy is:
    a. Abortion b. Down syndrome c. Spina bifida d. Limb abnormality
  141. 141. Genetic disorders are diagnosed at 11 weeks pregnancy by:
    a. Placentography b. endometrial biopsy c. Amniocentesis d. Chorionic villous biopsy
  142. 142. Ectopic pregnancy is most common in:
    a. endometriosis b. Previous history of twin pregnancy c. Previous history of abortion d. Previous history of PID
  143. 143. which of the following is a tocolytic:
    a. Oxytocin b. Ergotamine c. Ritodrine d. None of the above
  144. 144.Drug used to arrest premature labor is:
    a. Diazoide b. Magnesium sulfate c. α methyl dopa d. Aspirin
  145. 145. Involution of uterus is completed by….. weeks:
    a. 16 b. 12 c. 10 d. 6
  146. 146. Normal sodium content of liquor amnil at term is… mg/100ml:
    a. 20-40 b. 280-310 c. 100-500 d. 560-660
  147. 147. First stage of labor is up to:
    a. Crowing of head b. Full dilatation of cervix c. 3/5th dilatation of cervix d. Rupture of membrane
  148. 148. Vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy is:
    a. Yellow fever b. Influenza c. Hepatitis B d. Rubella
  149. 149. Emergency contraception is contraception provided to:
    • a. Contraceptive failure b. Couple not wanting to use other contraceptives
    • c. Contraception provided to couple living in camps provided by government agencies
    • d. Unprotected intercourse
  150. 150. Most common type of pelvis involved in occipitoposterior position is:
    a. Gynecoid b. Platypelloid c. Anthropoid d. Android
  151. 151. Rarest type of pelvis is:
    a. Gynecoid b. Platypelloid c. Anthropoid d. Android
  152. 152. Most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is:
    a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Tuberculosis c. Gonococci d. Group B streptococci
  153. 153. highest rate of transmission of toxoplasmosis in pregnancy is:
    a. Puerperium b. 3rd trimester c. 2nd trimester d. 1st trimester
  154. 154. Bishop score is used to evaluate :
    a. Cervix status b. Uterine contraction c. Fetal well being d. Fetal lung maturity
  155. 155. True regarding minipill is:
    a. Prevents ectopic pregnancy b. Cannot be used in lactation c. Used with combination of oral contraceptive pill d. Irregular vaginal bleeding
  156. 156. False regarding dermoid cyst of ovary is:
    a. Bilateral in 35% of cases b. >10cm c. Lined by epithelial cells d. Has sebaceous material
  157. 157. Postpartum desidual secretion present as:
    a. Decidua capsularis b. Vasa previa c. Bleeding per vaginum d. Lochia
  158. 158. Gonococcal infection in female is commonly found in:
    a. Fornix b. Uterus c. Vagina d. Endocervix
  159. 159. Premature rupture of membrane occurs at:
    a. II stage of labor b. Prior to 1st stage of labor c. 32 weeks of pregnancy d. 28 weeks of pregnancy
  160. 160.Longest part of the fallopian tube is:
    a. Isthmus b. Interstitium c. Infundibulum d. Ampulla
  161. 161. Streak ovary is seen in:
    a. Endometriosis b. XXX-Y c. Turner’s syndrome d. Down syndrome
  162. 162. Fetal heart movement can be detected by USG by about:
    a. 5th week b. 6th week c. 7th week d. 8th week
  163. 163. In sheehan’s syndrome the most effective drug is:
    a. Corticosteroid b. Prolactin c. Estrogen d. Gonadotropins
  164. 164. Not a neonatal complication of a diabetic’s fetus:
    a. Omphalitis b. Hypocalcemia c. Polycythemia d. Hypoglycemia
  165. 165.Macrosomia is not seen in:
    a. postmaturity b. hydrocephalus c. Obesity d. Diabetes mellitus
  166. 166. In a 18 weeks pregnancy to exclude down syndrome, the investigation of choice is:
    a. AFP and beta HCG estimation b. CArdiocentesis c. Amniocentesis d. Chorionic villous biopsy
  167. 167. Not included in “rule of ten” :
    a. 10 months of age b. 10 weeks of age c. Hemoglobin 10 gm d. Weight 10 Ib
  168. 168.Earliest detection of gestational diabetes is:
    a. 28-32 weeks b. 24-28 weeks c. 16-20 weeks d. First trimester
  169. 169. Gestational diabetes is best diagnosed by:
    a. Pancretic assay b. Fasting and PP blood sugar c. Glucose tolerance test d. Random blood sugar
  170. 170.Least effect on neonates in treatment of eclampsia is:
    a. Phenobarbitone therapy b. Diazepam therapy c. MgSO4 regime d. Lytic cocktail regime
  171. 171.Most common intrauterine infection in pregnancy is:
    a. Rubella b. herpes c. CMV d. Toxoplasmosis
  172. 172. Maximum incidences of congenital malformation are seen during pregnancy with infection of:
    a. CMV b. Syphilis c. Rubella d. Toxoplasmosis
  173. 173. Drug of choice in malaria in pregnancy is:
    a. quinine b. Halofantrine c. Chloroquine d. Primaquine
  174. 174. Earliest presentation in pre-eclampsia is:
    a. proteinuria b. Edema c. Hypertension d. Seizure
  175. 175. Ovarian tumor with malignant cell in ascetic fluid is of:
    a. Stage I b. stage II c. Stage III d. Stage Iv
  176. 176. According to the Hellin’s rule, twin pregnancies occur at a frequency of:
    a. 1in 60 b. 1 in 70 c. 1 in 80 d. 1 in 90 e. 1 in 100
  177. 177. Spinnbarkeit phenomenon is due to:
    a. Elasticity of cervical mucus b. Cells of cervical mucosa d. Vaginal secretion d. All of the above
  178. 178. Earliest symptom in primary adenocarcinoma of fallopian tube is:
    a. Watery discharge per veginum b. Pain abdomen c. Menorrhagia d. Secondary amenorrhea
  179. 179. False regarding carcinoma of fallopian tube is:
    a. Very rate b. Adenocarcinoma c. Constitutes about 10-20% of malignancies d. Menopausal women
  180. 180. Vaginal cytology for detecting hormonal changes is taken from:
    a. Fornices b. Lateral wall c. Posterior wall d. Anterior wall
  181. 181. All the following are given in postpartum hemorrhage except:
    • a. Methylergonovine b. Carboprost c. Oxytocin d.
    • Misoprostol
  182. 182. Endometrial biopsy is best done at which part of menstrual cycle:
    a. 22-24 days b. 10-12 days c. 1-5 days d. 14-16 days
  183. 183. IUCD acts by all of the following mechanisms except:
    a. Inhibit ovulation b. Prevent sperm entry c. Alters cervical mucus d. Prevent implantation
  184. 184. Increased risk of carcinoma endometrium is not associated with:
    a. Obesity b. Oral contraceptives c. Nulliparity d. Polycystic ovarian disease
  185. 185.Endometrial carcinoma is common in:
    a. Nullipara b. Multipara c. Peri-menopausal age d. Thin girls
  186. 186. Not a saf drug during pregnancy;
    a. Streptomycin b. Ethambutol c. Rifampicin d. isoniazid
  187. 187. Gas used for pneumoperitoneum laparoscopy:
    a. N2O b. Co2 c. O2 d. N2
  188. 188. Amiotic fluid pH is;
    a. 6.3 to 6.5 b. 6.4 to 6.8 c. 7.4 to 7.6 d. 7.0 to 7.5
  189. 189. Follow up in a patient of hydatidiform mole is done by;
    a. Serum amylase level b. Serum β-hCG levels c. Serum AFP level d. Serum CEa estimation
  190. 190. Stain used for maturity assessment of amniotic fluid cells is:
    a. Congo red b. Lehman’s stain c. Sudan red stain d. Nile blue sulphate
  191. 191.Point of distinction between partial mole to complete mole is:
    • a. Partial mole show trophoblastic proliferation with absent villi
    • b. Typical of partial mole is cellular atypia
    • c. Partial mole is more prone to tumor malignancy
    • d. Partial mole is triploid
  192. 192.Narrowest part o fallopian tube is:
    a. Ampulla b. Infundibulun c. Interstitial portion d. Isthmus
  193. 193. Most common pregnancy outcome following treatment of genital tuberculosis is:
    a. Live birth b. IUGR c. Abortion d. Ectopic pregnancy
  194. 194. Stress incontinence is a common symptom of:
    a. VVF b. Adenomyosis c. Prolapse of uterus d. Fibroid
  195. 195.s Absolute contraindication of IUCD is;
    a. pelvic inflammatory disease b. Menorrhagia c.. Uterine malformations d. Uterine fibrosis
  196. 196. Gestational sac can be seen in USG earliest at:
    a. 10-12 weeks b. 5-6 weeks c. 7-8 weeks d. 12-13 weeks
  197. 197. The drug of choice of senile vaginitis is :
    a. Estrogen b. Nystatin c. Progesterone d. Ketoconazole
  198. 198. Complete failure o fusion of the mullerian duct leads to:
    a. Uterus didelphys b. Arcute uterus c. Subseptate uterus . Unlcornuate uterus
  199. 199. Tube testing is done under:
    a. General anesthesia b. Local anesthesia c. Ketamine d. No anesthesia
  200. 200. Absolute contraindication of Norplant is:
    a. Hypercholesterolemia b. Diabetes mellitus c. Active thrombophlebitis d. Hypertension
  201. 201. Not a feature of idiopathic cholestatic jaundice of pregnancy :
    • a. SGPT values< 60 units/dl b. Markedly elevated serum alkaline phosphate
    • c. Serum bilirubin more than 5 mg/dl d. Intens pruritus
  202. 202. In triple screening test for Down’s syndrome during pregnancy all of the following are included except:
    a.. Serum beta hCG b. serum estroil c. Materanal serum alpha fetoprotein d. Acetylcholinesterase
  203. 203. All of the following are ultrasonographic fetal growth parameters except:
    a. Head circumference b. Transcerebellar diameter c. Femur length d. Biparietal diameter
  204. 204. Most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula in development countries is:
    a. Obstructed labor b. Werthiem’s hysterectomy c. Caesarian section d. Forceps delivery
  205. 205. Which of the following is a cause of oligohydramnios:
    a. Congenital heart disease b. Anencephaly c. Gestational diabetes mellitus d. posterior urethral valve in the fetus
  206. 206.All of the following are used in the treatment of eclampsia except:
    a. Lytic cocktail regime b. Phenytoin c. Atenolol d. Magnesium sulphate
  207. 207. Structure scut during medio-lateral episiotomy are all of the following except:
    a. Levator ani b. Deep tranverse peroneii c. Superficial transverse peroneii d. Anterior vaginal wall
  208. 208. A 50 year old woman, presenting with bilateral solid ovarian tumors, has ascites. Upper gastro-intestinal endoscopy reveals an ulcerative growth in pyloric region of stomach. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • a. Malignant ovarian tumor b. Carcinoma stomach with Krunkenberg’s tumor
    • c. Carcinoma body uterus d. Carcinoma in the small intestine
  209. 209. use of folic acid prevent congenital malformation should be best initiated:
    • a. During 1st trimester of pregnancy b. During 2nd trimester of pregnancy
    • c. During 3rd trimester of pregnancy d. Before conception
  210. 210.Amnion is seen on?
    a. Fetal surface b. Maternal surface c. Decidua d. placenta
  211. 211. All of the following are known risk factors for development of endometrial carcinoma except;
    a. Obesity b. Family history c. use of the hormone replacement therapy d. Early menopause
  212. 212. A 20 year old woman gives a history of sharp pain in the lower abdomen for 2-3 days every month approximately 2 weeks before the menses. The most probable etiology for her pain is:
    a. Endometriosis b. Dysmenorrhea c. Pelvic tuberculosis d. Mittelschmerz
  213. 213. Peri-conceptional use of the following agent leads to reduced incidence of neural tube defects:
    a. Folic acid b Iron c. Calcium d. Vitamin A
  214. 214. The following statements regarding turner syndrome are true except:
    • a. Occurrence of turner syndrome is influenced by maternal age
    • b. Most patients have primary amenorrhea
    • c. Most patients have short stature
    • d. Edema of hands and feet is an important feature during infancy
  215. 215. Which of the following is correct for the calculation of pearl index?
    • a. (No. of accidental pregnancies*1200)/(No. of patients observed *months of use)
    • b. (No. of accidental pregnancies*1200) /(No. of patients observed *2400)
    • c. (No. of patients observed *months of use)/ (No. of accidental pregnancies)
    • d. (No. of patients observed *2400) / (No. of accidental pregnancies *2400)
  216. 216.According to WHO criteria, the minimum sperm count is:
    a. 10 Million /ml b. 20million /ml c. 40 million/ml d. 60 million/ml
  217. 217.Teratozoospermia denotes :
    • a. Decreased sperm count b. Deformed and abnormal shape of sperms
    • c. Increased sperm count d. Decreased viability of sperms
  218. 218. Doubling of HCG is:
    a. 12-24 hours b. 6-12 hours c. 24-48 hours d. 48-72 hours
  219. 219.Infertility is a common feature in sertoli cell only syndrome, because:
    • a. Too many sertoli cells inhibit spermatogenesis via inhibit
    • b. Proper blood testis barrier is not established
    • c. There is no germ cells in this condition
    • d. Sufficient numbers of spermatozoa are not produced
  220. 220.A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low-grade fever and mild leukocytosis at 28 weeks. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Preterm labor b. Red degeneration of fibroid c. Torsion of fibroid d. Infection in fibroid
  221. 221.Maximum permissible radiation dose in pregnancy is:
    a. 0.5 rad b. 1.0 rad c. 1.5 rad d. 3.0 rad
  222. 222. In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days ovulation occurs around 14th day of periods. When is first polar body extracted?
    • a. 24 hours prior to ovulation b. Accompanied by ovulation
    • c. 48 hours after the ovulation d. At the time of fertilization
  223. 223.The most common cause of breech presentation is:
    a. Prematurity b. Hydrocephalus c. Placenta praevia d. polyhydramnios
  224. 224. The most common cause of occipito-posterior position of fetal head during labor is:
    a. Maternal obesity b. Delflexion of fetal head c. Multiparity d. android pelvis
  225. 225.Gestational diabetes is most likely to cause which of the following :
    a. Fetal macrosomia b. pre-eclampsia c. Structural fetal abnormalities d. Oligohydram ios
  226. 226. The most common congenital anomaly seen in pregnancy with diabetes mellitus is:
    a. Multicystic kidneys b. esophageal atresia c. Neural tube defects d. Duodental atresia
  227. 227. A peri-menopausal lady with well-differentiated adenocarcinoma of uterus has more that half myometrial invasion, vaginal metastasis and inguinal lymph node metastasis. She is staged as:
    a. Stage IIIB b. Stage IIIC c. Stage Iv a d. Stage Iv b
  228. 228. A drop in fetal heart rate that typically lasts than 2 minutes and is usually associated with umbilical cord compression is called:
    a. Early deceleration b. Late deceleration c. Variable deceleration d. Prolonged deceleration
  229. 229.There is a mid-cycle shift in the basal body temperature (BBT)after ovulation in women. This is caused by:
    a. GSH-peak b. LH- peak c. Estradiol d. Progesterone
  230. 230. All of the following are known side effects with the use of tocolytic therapy except:
    a. Tachycardia b. Hypotension c. Hyperglycemia d. Fever
  231. 231. Low dose progenstational contraceptives primarily act on:
    a. Oviductal motility b. Uterine endometrium c. Cervix d. Pituitary
  232. 232.all of the following are mechanisms of action of emergency contraception except:
    • a. Delaying ovulation b. Inhibiting fertilization
    • c. Preventing implantation of the fertilized egg d. Interrupting an early pregnancy
  233. 233. A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia belongs to high-risk group if disease develops after;
    a. Dydatidiform mole b. Full term pregnancy c. Sopntaneous abortion d. Ectopic pregnancy
  234. 234. Lowest dose of ethinyl estradiol used in combination contraceptive is;
    a. 35mcg b. 50 mcg c. 20 mcg d. 30 mcg
  235. 235.Apotosis can occur by changes in hormone levels in the ovarian cycle. When there is no fertilization of the ovum. The endometrial cells die because:
    • a. The inovulation of corpus luteum causes estradiol and progesterone levels to fall dramatically
    • b. LH levels rise after ovulation
    • c. Estradiol levels are not involved in the LH surge phenomenon
    • d. Estradiol inhibits the induction of the progesterone receptor in the endometrium
  236. 236. DES (diethylstilbestrol) administered during pregnancy causes:
    • a. Virlization of head and neck b. Virlization of lower limbs
    • c. Vaginal adenocarcinoma is teenage d. Cervical stenosis
  237. 237. Stilboestrol administered during pregnancy can produce which of the following effects in the offspring:
    • a. Virlization of lower limbs b. Vaginal adenocarcinoma in teenage
    • c. Virlizationof head and neck d. None of the above
  238. 238. Ru 486 can be used in all of the following conditions except:
    a. Endometriosis b. Emergency contraception c. To cause abortion d. Endometrial carcinoma
  239. 239.Micronized progesterone can be given by which of the following routes:
    a. Oral and vaginal routes b. Iv c. Vaginal route only d. Oral only
  240. 240.In Vitro fertilization is mainly used when the cause of infertility is due to;
    a. Oligospermia b. Tubal disease c. Anovulation d. Cord factor
  241. 241. Hyperemesis gravifdarum in 1st trimester is seen with increased frequency in all of the following except:
    a. Hydatidiform mole b. Twins c. Pre-eclampsia d. Primgravida
  242. 242. all of the following are true about metropathia hemorrhagica except:
    a. Swiss cheese endometrium b. Common nearing menpause c. Anovulatory cycles d. Metrorrhagia
  243. 243. MTP is required if infected by:
    a. Toxoplasma b. Rubella c. CMV d. Herpes
  244. 244. All of the following are known risk factors for the development of ovarian carcinoma, except:
    a. family history of ovarian carcinoma b. Use of oral pills c. Use of clomiphene d. BRCA-1 positive individual
  245. 245. 20-weeks Pregnancy with red degeneration in fibroid should be treated with:
    a. Oxytocin start b. Rest, antibiotics and sedation c. Myomectomy d. Hysterectomy
  246. 246. Which of the following is false regarding red degeneration of fibroid?
    • a. Occurs as a result of outgrowth of blood supply b. Immediate surgery is required
    • c. Occurs only during pregnancy d. Presents with pain in abdomen and nausea
  247. 247.The common complication of fibroid uterus in pregnancy is:
    a. Rupture b. Torsion c. Hemorrhage d. Red degeneration
  248. 248. The PAP smear is used largely for:
    • a. For diagnosing HPV infections b. For screening carcinoma cervix
    • c. For identifying vaginal cells d. Staging of carcinoma cervix
  249. 249.All of the following drugs have been used for medical abortion, except:
    a. Mifepristone b. Misoprostol c. MEthotrexate d. Atosiban
  250. 250. Drug not used in induction of ovulation is:
    a. HCG b. Clomiphene citrate c. HMG d. Danazol
  251. 251. internal podalic version is indicated in:
    a. Face presentation b. Transverse lie c. Breach presentation d. Transverse lie in case of second baby of twins
  252. 252. A woman presented on 7th day after 3rd degree perineal tear. Management should be done:
    a. After 3 months b. After 4 weeks c. After 3 days d. Immediately
  253. 253. In IUCD the organism causing infection is;
    a. Cryptococcus b. Herpes c. Chlamydia d. Actinomycosis
  254. 254. Primary postpartum hemorrhage is most commonly caused by:
    a. Trauma b. /malnutrition c. Residual placenta d. Uterine atony
  255. 255. The drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis is:
    a. Doxycycline b. Metronidazole c. Penicillin d. Fluconazole
  256. 256. with reference to feta heart rate, a non- stress test is
    • considered reactive when:
    • a. Two fetal heart rate accelerations are noted in 20 mins
    • b. One fetal heart rate acceleration is noted in 20 mins
    • c. Two fetal heart rate accelarations are noted in 10 mins
    • d. Three fetal heart rate accelartions are noted in 30 mins
  257. 257. A pregnant woman is found to have excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid . such polyhydramnios is likely to be associated with all of the following conditions, except:
    a. Twinning b. Microanencephaly c. Esophageal atresia d. Bilateral renal agenesis
  258. 258. Excessive intake (hypervitaminosis) of which of the following vitamin is associated with increased risk of congenital malformations:
    a. Vitamin A b. Biotin c. Folic Acid d. Vitamin K
  259. 259. The drug of choice for the treatment of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy is:
    a. Carbimazole b. Iodine therapy c. Propylthiouracil d. Methiamozole
  260. 260. The most common cause of primary amenorrhea is;
    a. Genital tuberculosis b. Ovarian dysgenesis c. Mullerian duct anomalies d. Hypothyroidism
  261. 261. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills is associated with an increased incidence of :
    a. Bacterial vaginosis b. chlamdial endocervicitis c. Vaginal warts d. Genital herpes
  262. 262. Which of the following drug is not used for medical management of ectopic pregnancy?
    a. Potassium chloride b. Methotrexate c. Actinomycin D d. Misoprostol
  263. 263. The intra-abdominal pressure during laparoscopy should be set between:
    • a. 5-8 mm of Hg b. 10-15 mm of Hg c. 2-25 mm of Hg d.
    • 30-35 mm of Hg
  264. 264.The following statements are true about intrauterine devices(IUD) except:
    • a. Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 years
    • b. IUD can be used for emergency contraception within 5 days
    • c. The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu-T-200 are similar
    • d. Multiload Cu—375 is a third generation IUD
  265. 265.A 21 year old woman presents with complaints of primary amenorrhea. Her height is 153 cm, weight is 51kg. she has well developed breasts. She has no pubic of axillary hair and no hirsutism. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
    • a. Turner syndrome b. Stein-leventhal syndrome
    • c. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome d. Premature ovarian failure
  266. 266. All of the following may be used in pregnancy associated hypertension except:
    a. Nifedipine b. Captoprill c. Hydralazine d. Methyldopa
  267. 267.A 30 year old woman presented with secondary amenorrhea for 3 years along with galactorrhoea. The most likely cause of her symptoms would be:
    a. Craniopharyngioma b. Sub-arachnoid hemorrhage c. Prolactinoma d. Meningioma
  268. 268. Which one of the following perinatal infections has the highest risk of fetal infection in the 1st trimester?
    a. Toxoplasmosis b. Syphilis c. Rubella d. Hepatitis B virus
  269. 269. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 27 year old obese woman presenting with oligomenorrhea, infertility and hirsutism?
    a. Polycystic ovaries b. Endometriosis c. Pelvic inflammatory disease d. Turner’s syndrome
  270. 270.s Anti-progesterone compound RU-486 is effective for inducing abortion if the duration of pregnancy is;
    a. 72 days b. 63 days c. 120 days d. 88 days
  271. 271. The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is:
    • a. Direct fluorescent antibody test b. Enzyme immunoassay
    • c. Culture on irradiated McConkey cells d. Polymerase chain reaction
  272. 273. A 6 month old infant presents to the diarrhea clinic unit with some dehydration. The most likely organism causing diarrhea is:
    a. Entamoeba histolytica b. Rotavirus c. Giardia lamblia d. Shigella
  273. 274. All of the following strategies are effective in preventing mother-to child transmission of HIV, except:
    • a. Zidovudine to mother and baby b. Vaginal cleansing before delivery
    • c. Stopping breast feeding d. Elective caesarian section
  274. 275. A 37 year old multipara construction laborer has a blood picture showing hypochromi anisocytosis. This is most likely indicative of:
    • a. Combined iron and folic acid deficiency b. Iron deficiency
    • c. folic deficiency d. Malnutrition
  275. 276. At 28 weeks gestation, amniocentesis reveals a delta optical density (DOD) 450 of 0.20, which is at the top of 2nd zone of the liley curve. The most appropriate management of such a case is:
    a. Immediate delivery b. Intrauterine transfusion c. Repeat amniocentesis after 1 week d. Plasmapheresis
  276. 277. All of the following statements about HRT (hormone replacement therapy) are true, except:
    • a. It increases the risk of coronary artery disease b. It increases bone mineral density
    • c. It increases the risk of breast cancer d . It increase the risk of endometrial cancer
  277. 278. Minimum effective dose of ethynyl estradiol in combined oral contraceptive pill is:
    a. 20 microgram b. 35 microgram c. 50 microgram d. 75 microgram
  278. 279. All the following can cause DIC during pregnancy except:
    a.. Diabetes mellitus b. amniotic fluid embolism c. Intrauterine death d. Abruption placentae
  279. 280. Use of oral contraceptives decreases the incidences of all of the following except:
    • a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Epithelial ovarian malignancy
    • c. Hepatic adenoma d. Pelvic inflammatory disease
  280. 281.In a young female of reproductive age an absolute contraindication for prescribing oral contraceptive pills is;
    a. Diabetes b. Hypotension c. obesity d. Impaired liver function
  281. 282.In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days ovulation occurs around 14th day of periods. When is the first polar body extruded?
    • a. 24 hrs prior to ovulation b. Accompanied by ovulation
    • c. 48 hours after the ovulation d. At the time of fertilization
  282. 283.Which of the following is the most common pure malignant germ cell tumor of the ovary?
    a. Choriocarcinoma b. Gonadoblasoma c. Dysgerminoma d. Malignant teratoma
  283. 284. The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is:
    a. Choriocarcinoma b. Dysgerminoma c. Embryonal cell tumor d. Malignant teratoma
  284. 285. During laparoscopy the preferred site for obtaining cultures in a patient with acute pelvic inflammatory disease is:
    a. endocervix b. Pouch of douglas c. endometrium d. Fallopian tubes
  285. 286. Which of the following has a normal level of alpha-fetoprotein value in serum?
    a. Ovarian dysgerminoma b. Hepatoblastoma c. Embryonal carcinoma d. Yolk sac tumor
  286. 287. Use of one of the following vaccination is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy:
    a. Hepatitis B b. Cholera c. Rabies d. Yellow fever
  287. 288.The best period of gestation to carry out chorion villus biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is;
    a. 8 to 10 weeks b. 10 to 12 weeks c. 12 to 14 weeks d. 14 to 16 weeks
  288. 289. The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with:
    a. IgM antibodies b. lysozyme c. Mast cells d. IgA antibodies
  289. 290. The highest incidence of gestational trophoblastic disease is in:
    a. Australia b. Asia c. North America d. Western Europe
  290. 291. A case of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia is detected to have lung metastasis. She should be staged as:
    a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage Iv
  291. 292. The karyotype of a patient with androgen insensitivity syndrome is:
    a. 46XX b. 46 XY c. 47 XXY d. 45XO
  292. 293. All of the following are causes of intrauterine growth retardation, except:
    a. Anemia b. Pregnancy induced hypertension c. Maternal heart disease d. Gestational diabetes
  293. 294.Whihc one of the following biochemical parameters is most sensitive to detect open spina bifida?
    • a. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein b. Amniotic fluid alpha-fetoprotein
    • c. Amniotic fluid acetylcholinesterase d. Amniotic fluid glucohexaminase
  294. 295. Infants of diabetic mother are likely to have the following cardiac anomaly:
    a. Coarctation of aorta b. Fallot’s tetralogy c. Ebstein’s anomaly d. Transposistion of great arteries
  295. 296.Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to pregnant women with epilepsy?
    • a. The rate of congenital malformation is increased in the offspring of women with epilepsy
    • b. Seizure frequency increases in approximately 70% of woman
    • c. Breast feeding is safe with most anticonvulsants
    • d. folic acid supplementation may reduce the risk of neural
    • tube defect
  296. 297. In a case of dysgerminoma of ovary one of the following tumor markers is likely to be raised:
    a. Serum hCG b. Serum alpha fetoprotein c. Serum lactic dehydrogenase d. Serum inhibin
  297. 298. Misoprostol has been found to be effective in all of the following , except:
    a. Missed abortion b. Induction of labor c. Menorrhagia d. Prevention of postpartum hemorrhage(PPH)
Author
adarsha
ID
356355
Card Set
OBG Sharad
Description
OBG Sharad
Updated