-
151. Which of the following drugs for chronic hepatitis B therapy is not given orally?
- a. Lamivudine
- b. Adefovir
- c. Telbivudine
- d. Interferon
-
152. Which of the following drugs requires serial monitoring of prothrombin time:
- a. Aspirin
- b. Lepirudin
- c. Digoxin
- d. Coumadin
-
153. Which of the following statements about Transfusion –related acute lung injury is true:
- a. Is more common if blood is donated by a multiparous woman
- b. Is most common after red cell transfusion
- c. Is usually seen between 12 and 24 hours after transfusion
- d. Is associated with high pulmonary artery wedge
-
153b. TRALI occurs within how many hours of transfusion?
- a. 6 hrs
- b. 12hrs
- c. 48hrs
- d. 72 hrs
-
154. Gold criteria for very severe COPD is best represented by:
a. FEV1/FVC <0.7 and="" fev1="" 30="" predicted="" br="">b. FEV1/FVC<0.7 and="" fev1="" 30="" but="" 50="" predicted="" br="">c. FEV1/FVC<0.7 and="" fev1="" 50="" but="" 80="" predicted="" br="">d. FEV1/FVC <0.7 and="" fev="" 80="" predicted="" br="">
-
155. All of the following constitute primary diagnosis criteria for ABPA, except:
- a. Elevated serum IgE levels(>417 IU/ml)
- b. Peripheral eosinophilia (>500 cells/ml)
- c. Central /proximal bronchiectasis
- d. Identification of A. fumigatus from sputum
-
156. All of the following define severe ARDS according to the Berlin definition of ARDS:
- a. paO2 /FiO2 <200
- b. Acute onset <1 week="" br="">c. Bilateral Alveolar opacities
- d. Non- cardiogenic pulmonary edema
-
157. Schmidt syndrome includes all of the following except:
- a. Adrenal insufficiency
- b. Hypothyroidism
- c. Type-I diabetes mellitus
- d. Chronic candidiasis
-
158. All of the following statements about Bartter’s syndrome are true except:
- a. Genetic defect in transport protein of distal tubule
- b. Metabolic alkalosis
- c. Hypokalemia
- d. Increase in urinary calcium
-
159. Causes of hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis with hypertension :
- a. Liddle’s syndrome
- b. Barter syndrome
- c. Gitelman’s syndrome
- d. All of the above
-
160. Necrolytic migratory erythema is typically seen in:
- a. Glucagonoma
- b. Insulinoma
- c. VIPoma
- d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
-
161. Which of the following types of Chronic gastric ulcer is associated with duodenal ulcers :
- a. Type 1
- b. Type 2
- c. Type 3
- d. Type 4
-
162. The single most common condition associated with mixed cyglobulinemia is:
- a. Hepatitis C
- b. Lymohoproliferative disorders
- c. Autoimmune disease
- d. Chronic bacterial infection
-
163. Which of the following best describes the clinical criteria for C. difficile associated diarrhea with no other recognized cause?
- a. ≥ 3 unformed stools per 12h for ≥ 2 days
- b. ≥ 3 unformed stools per 24 h for ≥ 2 days
- c. ≥ 2 unformed stools per 24 h for ≥ 3 days
- d. ≥ 2 unformed stools per 24 h for ≥3 days
-
164. C-ANCA positivity is specific for:
- a. Polyarteritis Nodosa
- b. Wegner’s granulomatosis
- c. Henoch schonlein purpura
- d. Churg strauss syndrome
-
165. All of the following are criteria for neurofibromatosis I, except;
- a. Optic gliomas
- b. Acoustic neuromas
- c. Pseudoarthrosis
- d. Café-au-lait spots
-
166. All of the following are true about weber’s syndrome except:
- a. Ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy
- b. Diplopia
- c. Contralaterla hemiplegia
- d. Ipsilateral facial nerve palsy
-
167. All are features of Wallenberg’s syndrome except:
- a. Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature
- b. Ipsilateral loss of taste sensation
- c. Ipsilateral loss of posterior column sensation
- d. Ipsilateral involvement of lower cranial nerves
-
168. All of the following mutations are correctly matched except:
- a. cowden syndrome-PTEN
- b. juvenile polyposis –APC
- c. li- fraumeni syndrome –TP 53
- d. peutz –jeghers syndrome –STK11
-
169. all of the following statements about cowden syndrome are true, except:
- a. mutation in PTEN gene
- b. microcephaly
- c. Lhermitte- duclos disease (LDD)
- d. Increased risk of breast cancer
-
169b. which of the following represents a pathognomonic criteria for diagnosis of Cowden syndrome :
- a. Adult Lhermite-duclos disease
- b. Macrocephaly
- c. Breast cancer
- d. Intellectual disability
-
170. Which of the following is a typical feature of Korsakoff’s syndrome :
- a. Confabulation
- b. Encephalopathy
- c. Ophthalmoplegia
- d. Hallucinations
-
171. Most common used initial agent for the management of sydenham’s chorea is:
- a. Haloperidol
- b. Valproate
- c. Pimozide
- d. Risperidone
-
172. Causes of hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis with hypertension from physio:
- a. Liddle syndrome
- b. Barter syndrome
- c. Gitelman’s syndrome
- d. All of the above
-
173. All of the following are associated with Gastric ulcer’s except:
- a. Ingestion of food does not relieve pain
- b. High acid output
- c. Vomiting is common
- d. Less frequent than duodenal ulcers
-
174. Ankle Brachial pressure index >1.3 is seen in:
- a. Ingestion of food does not relieve pain
- b. High acid output
- c. Vomiting is common
- d. Less frequent than duodenal ulcers
-
175. Which of the following parameters is not used in the van nuys prognostic index?
- a. Size
- b. Grade
- c. Surgical margin
- d. Hormone receptor status
-
176. Asymptomatic Abdominal aortic aneurysm should be when the size is more than:
- a. 35mm
- b. 45mm
- c. 55mm
- d. 65mm
-
177. Ideal fluid of choice initial management of a 35 years old man presenting with acute pancreatitis is :
- a. Isotonic crystalloid
- b. Hypertonic crystalloid
- c. Hypotonic crystalloid
- d. Colloidal solution
-
178. A six years old child presented with obstructed hernia. On exploration the bowel was found gangrenous. Which of the following statements about surgical anastomosis is true;
- a. Should be done with catgut
- b. Should be done by continuous layers as it takes less time
- c. Should be done by using single layer seromuscular lambert sutures
- d. Should be done in a single layer taking submucosa
-
179. According to the parkland formula how much of fluid should be given in first 8 hours in a 50 kg adult with 40% burns :
- a. 2 litres
- b. 4 litres
- c. 8 litres
- d. 6 litres
-
180. Most appropriate method to obtain tissue diagnosis for carcinoma head of pancreas:
- a. EUS guided transgastric biopsy
- b. CECT guided percutaneous biopsy
- c. MRI guided percutaneous biopsy
- d. Laparoscopic transperitoneal biopsy
-
181. Which of the following is the most common epithelial tumor of stomach :
- a. Carcinoid
- b. GIST
- c. Granular cell tumor
- d. Leiomyoma
-
182. Which of the following layers are opened in fasciotomy :
- a. Skin alone
- b. Skin and subcutaneous tissue alone
- c. Skin, subcutaneous tissue and superficial fascia
- d. Skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia and deep fascia
-
183. In a surgery on the breast, a single lactiferous duct is excisedusing a fine probe. The procedure is best termed as:
- a. Hadfield operation
- b. Microdochectomy
- c. Microchotomy
- d. Webster operation
-
184. Feline Esophagusis is most frequently seen in association with :
- a. Eosinephilic esophagitis
- b. Reflux esophagitis
- c. Radiation esophagitis
- d. Carcinoma Esophagus
-
185. The conduit of choice for a Femoral –poptiteal (Fem pop) bypass is:
- a. PTFE
- b. Reverse saphenous vein
- c. Polypropylene
- d. Dacron
-
186. Heller’s cardiomyotomy is done for:
- a. Idiopathic hypertrophic pyloric stenosis(IHPS)
- b. Achalasia cardia
- c. GERD
- d. Duodenal stenosis
-
187. Which of the following represents category III of Maastricht classification:
- a. Dead on arrival at hospital
- b. Awaiting cardiac arrest after withdrawal of support
- c. Cardiac arrest while brain dead
- d. Cardiac arrest an unsuccessful resuscitation in hospital
-
188. RET proto oncogene mutation is a hallmark of which of the following tumors:
- a. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
- b. Astrocytoma
- c. Paragangliomas
- d. Hurthle cell tumor thyroid
-
189. Which of the following instruments is depicted in the image:
- a. Deaver’s retractor
- b. Volkmann’s retractor
- c. Czemy’s retractor
- d. Morris retractor
-
189b. which of the following instruments is depicted in the image :
- a. Langenbeck’s retractor
- b. Doyen’s retractor
- c. Allison’s lung retractor
- d. Joll’s thyroid retractor
-
190. Which of the following statements about the suture shown in the image is true:
- a. It is minimally reactive
- b. It is made form cocoon
- c. It is absorbed by enzymatic degradation
- d. It is derived from cat’s gut mucosa
-
191. Which of these is false regarding traumatic intracranial hematomas:
- a. CECT is the study of choice for Traumatic Brain injury
- b. MRI is not advised for Traumatic Brain injury in emergency
- c. Surgery is often needed to drain the hematomas
- d. Acute SDH has worse prognosis than Acute EDH
-
192. All of the following statements about surgical Treatment of Ulcerative colitis (UC) are true except:
- a. The highest risk of UC requiring surgery is in 1st year
- b. 20% end up in colectomy
- c. Intractable extra-intestinal manifestations are indications for surgery
- d. Colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis is the procedure of choice
-
193. Which of the following statements regarding regarding upper GI bleed is true:
- a. Defined as bleeding proximal to the ampulla of vater
- b. Most commom cause is variceal bleeding
- c. Rockall scoring is used for risk stratification
- d. Investigation of choice is Endoscopic USG (EUS)
-
194. All of the following statements about the image shown in the picture are true, except:
- a. Women are more than often affected than men
- b. Primary calculus develops in sterile urine
- c. Secondary calculi are the most common type in adults
- d. Endemic calculi are seen in children
-
195. Which of the following represents the single most common cause of chronic pancreatitis:
- a. Gallstone
- b. ERCP
- c. Trauma
- d. Alcohol
-
196. A patient of motor vehicle accident was admitted to the casualty his eyes are closed but open to pain. He does not speak but moans every now and then. His right limb is not moving but he localizes towards a painful stimulus with the left limb. Both the limbs are in extended posture. What will be the GCS score?
-
197. Which of the following statements regarding crohn’s disease is false:
- a. Endoscopy shows continuous lesions
- b. Cobblestone appearance
- c. Non caseating granulomas
- d. Rectum may be spared
-
198. Which of the following best describes the composition of struvite stones:
- a. Sodium, potassium and phosphate
- b. Magnesium, ammonium and phosphate
- c. Calcium magnesium and carbonate
- d. Sodium, potassium and carbonate
-
199. Which of the following best represents the findings in the image:
- a. DJ Ureteral stent
- b. Nephroureteral stent
- c. G-J tube
- d. G tube
-
200. A pregnant woman was observed to be HIV positive during first trimester screening. All of the following represent preferred initial regimens for treatment in pregnancy except:
- a. TDF-emtricitabine
- b. TDF-Lamivudine
- c. TAF- Emtricitabine
- d. Abacavir –Lamivudine
-
201. Anti- retroviral Treatment (ART) for HIV in pregnancy is recommended:
- a. After first trimester and continued till delivery
- b. After first trimester and continued till breastfeeding
- c. After diagnosis and continued till risk of vertical transmission
- d. After diagnosis and continued lifelong
-
202. Which of the following is the most common neurologic birth injury in obstetric practice :
- a. facial nerve injury
- b. brachial plexus injury
- c. common peroneal nerve injury
- d. sciatic nerve injury
-
203. primitive feto-placental circulation is first established between :
- a. 5-7 days
- b. 11-13 days
- c. 20-22 days
- d. 28-30 days
-
204. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy commonly presents in:
- a. 1st trimester
- b. 3rd trimester
- c. Immediate postpartum
- d. Intrapartum
-
205. During normal delivery, if you encounter shoulder dystocia, what is the next measure?
- a. Caesarean section
- b. Hyperflexion of thighs over maternal abdomen
- c. Posterior shoulder rotation and delivery of impacted posterior arm
- d. Anterior shoulder rotation and delivery of the posterior arm
-
206. Contraindication for Dilatation and curettage is :
- a. Tubercular endometritis
- b. Acute PID
- c. Post-menopausal bleeding
- d. Carcinoma endometrium
-
207. Drug of choice for used for accelerating fetal lung maturity is:
- a. Dexamethasone
- b. Prednisolone
- c. Beclomethasone
- d. Hydrocortisone
-
208. Fimbriectomy is done in which of the following methods of tubectomy :
- a. Pomeroy’s
- b. Madlener
- c. Uchida
- d. Kroener
-
209. The recommended method for assessing adequate positioning of ring pessary is:
- a. Dislodgement with Valsalva
- b. Presence or absence of discomfort
- c. Negative cough stress test
- d. All of the above
-
210. Ideal time fro doing quardruple test is:
- a. 15-18 weeks
- b. 10-12 weeks
- c. 12-14 weeks
- d. 8-10 weeks
-
211. Persistant levels of prolactin above …… are highly suggestive of prolactinoma:
- a. 50 ng/ml
- b. 100 ng/ml
- c. 150 ng/ml
- d. 200ng/ml
-
212. Which of the following conditions is an establish sequel of Late stage of Pelvic inflammatory Disease :
- a. Uterine polyposis
- b. Pyometra
- c. Pseudo-pregnancy
- d. Cystic endometrial hyperplasia
-
213. Which of the following is not a cause of secondary post-partum haemorrhage?
- a. Placenta previa
- b. Retained bits of placenta
- c. Endometritis
- d. Polyp
-
214. Which of the following represents the most common chromosomal structure for true hermaphroditism?
- a. 46, XX
- b. 45, XO
- c. 46, XX/46, XY
- d. 47, XY/47, XX
-
215. The most common type of twin pregnancy seen after assisted reproduction:
- a. Monozygotic
- b. Dizygotic
- c. Acardiac twin
- d. Conjoined twin
-
216. What is the best time to determine the chorionicity in twin pregnancy?
- a. 1st trimester
- b. 2nd trimester
- c. 3rd trimester
- d. At term
-
217. Primary indication for menopausal Hormone therapy is prevention of:
- a. Hot flashes
- b. Coronary heart disease
- c. Osteoporosis
- d. Uterine bleeding
-
218. Non- invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) is:
- a. Amniocentesis for evaluation of fetal chromosomal anomalies
- b. Pre-conceptional gene testing of an ova
- c. Maternal serum for evaluation of Down’s syndrome
- d. Testing of maternal tissue
-
219. Peripartum cardiomyopathy typically develops within….. months, after delivery:
- a. 7 days
- b. 6 weeks
- c. 5 months
- d. 24 months
-
220. During pregnancy which is the best parameter to be measured in thyroid function test?
- a. Thyrotropin
- b. Free T3
- c. T4
- d. Total T3
-
221. All of the following represent mechanism of action of progesterone only pills, except:
- a. Thickening of cervical mucus
- b. Suppression of ovulation
- c. Thinning the lining of endometrium
- d. Enhancing fallopian tube motility
-
222. All are high risk factors of pregnancy except:
- a. Previous manual removal of placenta
- b. Infertility
- c. Twin pregnancy
- d. BMI>25
-
223. All of the following statements about the position of uterus are true, except:
- a. Anteversionrelated to the direction of cervical canal
- b. Anteflexiontypically has an acute angle
- c. Anteversion of uterus is mainly maintained by uterosacral ligament
- d. Retroflexed uterus is difficult to evaluate on a transabdominal sonography (TAS)
-
224. A 30 years old female presents with history of recurrent abortion. Her HSG show the following picture. What is the diagnosis:
- a. Hydrosalpinx
- b. Arcuate uterus
- c. Bicornuate uterus
- d. Unicornuate uterus
-
225. Which of the following fontanelle is the last to close:
- a. Anterior fontanelle
- b. Posterior fontanelle
- c. Anterolateral fontanelle
- d. Posterolateral fontanelle
-
226. Minimal interval between two live vaccines administered by the oral route is;
- a. Any time
- b. 2 weeks
- c. 4 weeks
- d. 3months
-
227. Dactylitis is the most frequent initial manifestation of which of the following conditions in children:
- a. Sickle cell anemia
- b. Thalassemia
- c. Osteomyelitis
- d. Hereditary spherocytosis
-
228. Baby with diarrhea presented with restlessness but able to drink water. Skin turgor goes backs slowly but in less than 2 sec. best management is:
- a. Plan A
- b. Plan B
- c. Plan C
- d. Plan D
-
229. All of the following are classified as sterotypie movement disorder except;
- a. Head nodding
- b. Nail biting
- c. Tics
- d. Head banging
-
230. The abdominal mass in Idiopathic Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis in a newborn child can be best palpated in the :
- a. Left upper quardrant after vomiting
- b. Umbilical area after feed
- c. Epigastric area after feed
- d. Right upper quadrant after vomiting
-
231. Which among the following is the most common cause of neonatal blindness?
- a. Neisseria Gonorrhoeae
- b. Klebsiella
- c. Chlamydia trachomatis
- d. Enterobacter
-
232. All of the following are recommended in the latest guidelines on neonatal resuscitation from with Heart association (AHA) for a newborn with heart rate less than 60 beats per minute despite adequate positive pressure ventilation (PPV):
- a. Chest compression at rate of 90 compression per minute
- b. Supplemental 100% oxygen with start of chest compression
- c. Intubation if inadequate response after 60 seconds of chest compression
- d. Epinephrine of inadequate response after 60 seconds of chest compression
-
233. With reference to RDS, all of the following statements are true, EXCEPT:
- a. Usually occurs in infants born before 34 weeks of gestation
- b. Is more common in babies born to diabetic mothers
- c. Leads to cyanosis
- d. Is treated by administering 100% oxygen
-
234. The physiologic replacement dose of hydrocortisone in children is;
- a. 5mg/m2/day
- b. 12.5 mg/m2/day
- c. 25 mg/m2/day
- d. 50mg/m2/day
-
235. All of the following statements about fibrocystic disease of pancreas are true, except :
- a. Sweat chloride levels are increased
- b. Serum chloride levels are usually normal
- c. Immunoreactive trypsinogen is used for screening
- d. All of the above are true
-
236. In a patient with clinical signs of Asthma which of the following tests will confirm the diagnosis:
- a. Increase in FEV1/FVC
- b. >200 ml increase in FEV1 after methacholine
- c. Diurnal variation in PEF>20 %
- d. Reduction of FEV1>30% after bronchodilators
-
237. Samter’s triad refers to the association of Aspirin sensitive asthma and:
- a. Obesity
- b. Urticaria
- c. Nasal polyp
- d. Rhinosinusitis
-
238. All of the following statements about chronic recurrent multifocal osteomyelitis are true except:
- a. Most common in children
- b. Present with bone pain
- c. Associated with SAPHO
- d. Treatment of choice is antibiotics
-
239. All of the following are correctly matched except;
- a. De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis compartment 1
- b. Drummer’s wrist: compartment 2
- c. Vaughn-jackson syndrome –compartmetn 5
- d. Snapping ECU- compartment 6
-
240. Which of the following is the most common fracture following a FOOSH injury :
- a. Distal radius
- b. Scaphoid
- c. Lunate
- d. Radial head
-
241. All of the following are provocative tests for tennis elbow, except:
- a. Cozen’s test
- b. Mill’s test
- c. Maudsley’s test
- d. Clake’s test
-
242. The arcade of struthers is associated with compression of:
- a. Median nerve
- b. Ulnar nerve
- c. Radial nerve
- d. Sciatic nerve
-
243. All of the following are classified as Anti-resorptive agents except:
- a. Raloxifene
- b. Calcitonin
- c. Gallium nitrate
- d. Fluoride
-
243b. which of the following anti-osteoporosis treatment options belongs to the class of Dual action bone agent (DABA):
- a. Denosumab
- b. PTH
- c. Raloxifene
- d. Strontium ranelate
-
244. Which of the following physical examination manoeuvres is the most sensitive in the diagnosis of a medial meniscus tear?
- a. Apley’s grind test
- b. McMurray test
- c. Medial joint line tenderness
- d. Childress test
-
245. Which of the following is the correctly matched most common nerve injury accompanying the described orthopaedic injuries:
- a. Lunate dislocation –ulnar nerve
- b. Femoral shaft fracture –femoral nerve
- c. Shoulder dislocation -radial nerve
- d. Knee dislocation- peroneal nerve
-
246. X-ray lateral view of wrist demonstrates a typical ;
- a. Lunate dislocation
- b. Perilunate dislocation
- c. Scaphoid fracture
- d. Radius fracture
-
247. Which of the following prescriptions issued by an optometrist represents mixed astigmatism:
- a. P1-1.50*180
- b. (-) 1.50- 2.00 *90
- c. (+) 1.00- 2.00*90
- d. (+) 1.50 -1.50 *180
-
248. Which of the following is typically NOT seen in a Diabetic Third nerve palsy:
- a. Retro- orbital pain in 50 percent of patients
- b. Ptosis
- c. Abnormal light Reflex
- d. Ophthalmoplegia with down and out position of eye
-
249. Which of the following is the most common cause of 100 Day Glaucoma :
- a. Central Retinal vein occlusion
- b. Central retinal artery occlusion
- c. Angle closure glaucoma
- d. Primary open angle glaucoma
-
250. Which of the following represents the characteristic end stage field in a patient with primary open angle glaucoma :
- a. Small central island and large temporal crescent
- b. Large central island and small temporal crescent
- c. Small central island and large nasal crescent
- d. Large central island and small temporal crescent
-
251. All of the following statements about pure blow out fractures of the orbit are true except:
- a. Orbital rim is intact
- b. Caused by sudden increase in orbital pressure
- c. Medial wall is most frequently involved
- d. May result in Enophthalmos
-
252. A patient presents with features suggestive of postoperative Endophthalmitis after cataract surgery. He is able to perceive hand movements close to face. Which of the following is the best line of management:
- a. intravitreal antibiotics
- b. intravenous antibodies
- c. vitreous Tap with intravitreal antibiotics
- d. vitrectomy with intravenous antibiotics
-
253. what is the single most common cause of severe conjunctivitis presenting within first 24 hours of delivery
- a. gonococcus
- b. clamydia
- c. herpes simplex
- d. streptococci
-
254. most common cause of fungal orbital cellulitis in a patient with Diabetic ketoacidosis
- a. aspergillus
- b. mucormycosis
- c. fusarium
- d. candida
-
255. Roth’s spots are seen in:
- a. Toxoplasmosis
- b. Rheumatic heart disease
- c. Infective Endocarditis
- d. Uveal melanoma
-
256. Which of the following is the yoke muscle for right lateral rectus for Dextroversion:
- a. Left medial rectus
- b. Left lateral rectus
- c. Right medial rectus
- d. Right superior oblique
-
257. All of the following statements about presbyopia are true except:
- a. The power of the presbyopic correction is generally related to the person’s age
- b. Stronger power is needed if the person wants to work at a distance closer than 40cm
- c. A weaker lens power than expected for age is needed if a person has myopia
- d. Approximate power of lens for a 55 year old emmetropic individual is +1 D
-
258. Triad of Fuch’s heterochromic Iridocyelitis includes all of the following except;
- a. Heterochromia
- b. Keratic precipitates
- c. Posterior subcapsular cataract
- d. Cystoids macular edema
-
259. Which of the following is true regarding singer’s nodule:
- a. Laser therapy is treatment of choice
- b. Requires excision as it is potentially malignant
- c. Most common symptom is pain
- d. It occurs junction of anterior 1/3rd and posterior 2/3rd
-
260. High tracheostomy is done in :
- a. Vocal cord palsy
- b. Laryngeal carcinoma
- c. Subglottic stenosis
- d. Laryngomalacia
-
261. All of the following statements about torus tubarius are true, except:
- a. Lies in the lateral wall of the nasopharynx
- b. Overlies the cartilaginous opening of the Eustachian tube
- c. Fossa of Rosenmuller lies posterior and superior to torus
- d. Most common site of origin of Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
-
262. Origin of nasopharyngealchordoma is;
- a. Notochord remnant
- b. Rathke’s pouch
- c. Torus tubarius
- d. Pharyngeal Bursa
-
263. The site of electrode array placenta in auditory brain stem implant is:
- a. Recess of fourth ventricle
- b. Facial recess
- c. Round window
- d. Sinus tympani
-
264. Water’s view gives best visualization of :
- a. Frontal sinus
- b. Maxillary sinus
- c. Sphenoid sinus
- d. Ethmoid sinus
-
265. A patient of acute tonsillitis presents to ENT OPD with Earache. Which of the following nerves is likely to be responsible for his referred otalgia:
- a. Glossopharyngeal
- b. Facial
- c. Trigeminal
- d. Vagus
-
266. Which of the following muscles is responsible for abduction of the vocal cords:
- a. Posterior cricoarytenoid
- b. Lateral cricoarytenoid
- c. Cricothyroid
- d. Transverse Arytenoid
-
267. An 18 year old male presents with a hyperpigmented patch over the left shoulder that developed after puberty. The skin in the center of lesion is thicker and the site of lesion has excess hair. A picture of he lesion is shown. What is the likely diagnosis:
- a. Spitz nevus
- b. Hyper-melanosis of Ito
- c. Becker’s nerve
- d. Congenital melanocytic nevus
-
268. A 12 year old boy presents with firm non-tendor lesions on the dorsum of his hands as shown in the figure. What Is the likely diangnosis:
- a. Warts
- b. Corns
- c. Callosities
- d. Cutaneous Horn
-
269. All of the following statements about cutis marmorata are true, except :
- a. Congenital vascular malformation
- b. Livedo reticularis
- c. Aggravated by cooling
- d. No treatment is required
-
270. Which of the following layers of Epidermis best describes stratum malpighii:
- a. Stratum basale and stratum spinosum
- b. Stratum spinosum and stratum lucidum
- c. Stratum granulosum and stratum corneum
- d. Stratum basale and stratum Granulosum
-
271. Which nerves is thickened in the following image of a patient with Hansen’s diease?
- a. Supratrochlear
- b. Transverse cervical
- c. Supraclavicular
- d. Great auricular
-
272. A 20 year old female presents with an eczematous rash in both cubital fossa associated with severe pruritus. She gives history of similar rashes in the past with the first episode occurring when she was very young. She is noted to have a general dry skin an sis a known case of asthma. The most likely diagnosis is;
- a. Atopic dermatitis
- b. Flexural psoriasis
- c. Dermatitis herpetiformis
- d. Contact dermatitis
-
273. Mallampati grading is used for:
- a. To assess mobility of cervical spine
- b. To assess mobility of atlanto-axial joint
- c. For assessment of free rotation of neck before intubation
- d. Inspection of oral cavity before intubation
-
274. Which of the following nerves is most commonly used for neuromuscular monitoring during anaesthesia and surgery :
- a. Radial
- b. Ulnar
- c. Facial
- d. Median
-
275. Murphy’s eye is seen in:
- a. Endotracheal tube
- b. Miller’s blade
- c. Macintosh blade
- d. None of the above
-
276. Which of the following is the Anaesthesia of choice for caesarean Delivery in a patient with pre-eclampsia:
- a. General anaesthesia
- b. Spinal anaesthesia
- c. Epidural anaesthesia
- d. Spinal with epidural anaesthesia
-
277. Which of the following is a centrally acting muscle relaxant:
- a. Chlorzoxazone
- b. Sucinylcholine
- c. Atacurium
- d. Vecuronium
-
278. Circuit of choice for spontaneous respiration in adults is:
- a. Mapleson A
- b. Mapleson D
- c. Mapleson C
- d. Mapleson E
-
279. Contrast Enhanced CT (CECT) image depicts which of the following:
- a. Aortic aneurysm
- b. Descending aortic dissection
- c. Ascending aortic rupture
- d. Pleural effusion
-
280. Bragg peak Is typically relevant for:
- a. X-ray
- b. Neutron
- c. Electron
- d. Proton
-
281. The following picture represents is a CT angiography image. Which of the following vessel is represented by the mark ‘X’;
- a. Left Gastric artery
- b. Superior mesenteric artery
- c. Splenic artery
- d. Hepatic artery
-
282. An axial section of a contrast enhanced CT abdomen (CECT) is given below. Identity the structure marked as ‘X’;
- a. Abdominal aorta
- b. Inferior vena Cva(IVC)
- c. Superior mesenteric artery (SMA)
- d. Superior mesenteric vein (SMV)
-
283. Below given CECT image shows a structure which branches into the liver. The structure marked with the red arrow represents?
- a. IVC
- b. Portal vein
- c. Splenic vein
- d. SVC
-
284. Which of the following contrast agent sis recommended for esophagography in suspected esophageal perforation?
- a. Barium
- b. Gastrograffin
- c. Iohexol
- d. Gadolinium
-
285. A 35 year male meets an accident and fractures his femur. 2 days later he develops sudden onset of chest pain. ECG shows S1Q3T3 pattern. A chest X-ray was performed. which of the following signs is represented on the X-ray image:
- a. Westermark sign
- b. Hampton’s Hump
- c. Palla sign
- d. Knuckle sign
-
286. A new born presents with congestive heart failure. On examination the neonate has bulging anterior fontanelle and a bruit on auscultation . MRI shows the following picture. Most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Medulloblatoma
- b. Encephalocele
- c. Vein in Galen malformation
- d. Arachnoid cyst
-
287. All of the following statements about sonographic features determining chorinicity and amnionicity are true, except:
- a. The number of yolk sac equals the number of chorian
- b. Membrane Thickness >1.5 mm thick means dischorionic
- c. Number of placenta equals chorian
- d. Different genders means Dizygotic and thus dichorionic
-
288. A 10 year old male child presents with history of headache and visual disturbances. The X-ray image of the skull Is depicted below. What is the most likely diagnosis:
- a. hypothalamic hamartoma
- b. optic chiasma/ hypothalamic glioma
- c. craniopharyngioma
- d. pituitary macroadenoma
-
289. rain drop skull appearance on X ray is seen in:
- a. paget’s disease
- b. sickle cell anemia
- c. multiple myeloma
- d. eosinophilic granuloma
-
290. a 60 year old man presented with bony pain. His skull X-ray is given below. What is the likely diagnosis:
- a. hyperostosis frontalis interna
- b. fibrous Dysplasia
- c. osteopetrosis
- d. paget’s disease
-
291. which of the following features of dementia helps in differentiating between delirium and dementia :
- a. fluctuating course
- b. diurnal variation
- c. difficulty in finding words
- d. poor memory
-
292. dream work of freud includes all except :
- a. symbolism
- b. condensation
- c. displacement
- d. confabulation
-
293. which of the following is not part of any symptom cluster in post- Traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
- a. Flashbacks
- b. Hyperarousal
- c. Hallucinations
- d. Emotional numbing
-
294. Minimal brain Dysfunction syndrome Is seen in:
- a. Cerebral palsy
- b. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
- c. Mental retardation
- d. Down’s syndrome
-
295. Squeeze technique:
- a. Impotence
- b. Premature ejaculation
- c. Infertility
- d. Priapism
-
296. Expression and consequent release of previously repressed emotions is called as:
- a. Regression
- b. Dissociation
- c. Abreaction
- d. None of the above
-
297. The most common cause of oligophrenia is:
- a. Down’s syndrome
- b. Schizophrenia
- c. Epilepsy
- d. Prematurity
-
298. Which of the following condition best describes intellectual disability disorder:
- a. Autism
- b. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
- c. Mental retardation
- d. Cerebral palsy
-
299. A person presents to OPD with confusion tremors and cisual hallucinations, three days after alcohol cessation. The most likely diagnosis is:
- a. Korsakoff psychosis
- b. Delirium tremens
- c. Wernicke encephalopathy
- d. Alcoholic hallucinations
-
300. All of the following ae neuropsychiatric complications from chronic alcohol use, except:
- a. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
- b. Korsakoff psychosis
- c. Marchiafava- bignami disease
- d. Delirium tremens
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