Mudit 2018

  1. 1. Which dose not pass through the aortic opening ;
    • a. Aorta
    • b. Vagus nerve
    • c. Azygos vein
    • d. Thoracic duct
  2. 2. About iliolumbar ligament which of the following statements is false:
    • a. It is attached to transverse process ofL5
    • b. Attached to the iliac crest
    • c. Lower part has attachment to sacrospinous ligament
    • d. Upper par has attachment to quadrates
  3. 3. All of the following statements about sibson’s fascia are true, except:
    • a. It is attached to transverse process ofC7
    • b. Subclavian artery arches over it
    • c. Attached to the cervical pleura
    • d. Develops from scalenus anterior
  4. 4. True regarding umbilical cord is:
    • a. Two artery and two veins
    • b. One artery and two veins
    • c. Observation of a single Umbilical vein is associated with additional anomalies
    • d. Observation of a single /umbilical artery is associated with additional anomalies
  5. 5. Ureter develops from:
    • a. Metanephric diverticulum
    • b. Metanephric mesoderm
    • c. Metanephric vesicles
    • d. Pronephric vesicles
  6. 6. The pectoralis major is classified as a :
    • a. Spiral muscle
    • b. Cruciate muscle
    • c. Fusiform muscle
    • d. Bipennate muscle
  7. 7. What is the function of the muscle shown in the figure:
    • a. Finger abduction
    • b. Finger adduction
    • c. Flexion at interphalangeal joint
    • d. Extension at MCP joint
  8. 8. All of the following mesenteries are present in an adult, except:
    • a. Mesentery of transverse colon
    • b. Mesentery of appendix
    • c. Mesentery of sigmoid colon
    • d. Mesentery of Rectum
  9. 9. Lateral zones of the hard palate are covered by:
    • a. Non keratinized epithelium, submucosal layer and minor salivary good
    • b. Non keratinized epithelium absent submucosal layer and minor salivary gland
    • c. Keratinized epithelium submucosal layer and minor salivary gland
    • d. Keratinized epithelium absent submucosal layer and minor salivary gland
  10. 10. The dorsal part of the ventral mesogastrium forms:
    • a. Greater omentum
    • b. Lesser omentum
    • c. Falciform ligament
    • d. Lineorenal ligament
  11. 11. Right gastric artery Is a branch of;
    • a. Coeliac Trunk
    • b. Hepatic artery
    • c. Gastroduodenal artery
    • d. Splenic artery
  12. 12. Special visceral efferent doesn’t include:
    • a. Nucleus ambiguous
    • b. Dorsal nucleus of the Xth cranial nerve
    • c. Motor nucleus of V th cranial nerve
    • d. Motor nucleus of VIIth cranial nerve
  13. 12b. which of the following nuclei of vagus receives special and general visceral afferents :
    • a. Dorals nucleus of Vagus
    • b. Nucleus Ambiguous
    • c. Spinal nucleus of trigeminal nerve
    • d. Nucleus of solitary Tract
  14. 13. The peripheral nervous system develops primarily from:
    • a. Neural tube
    • b. Endoderm
    • c. Mesoderm
    • d. Neural crest
  15. 14. Alpha waves are typically seen in which of the following states;
    • a. Deep sleep
    • b. Relaxed awake
    • c. Awake Alert
    • d. Highly Focussed
  16. 15. All of the following statements about insulin like Growth factor-1 (IGF-1) are true, except:
    • a. Mainly secreted by the pancreas
    • b. Also known as somatomedin C
    • c. Secretion is stimulated by growth Hormone
    • d. Required for skeletal and cartilage growth
  17. 16. Which of the following is involved in transport of large molecules from cytoplasm to the cell nucleus :
    • a. Clathrin
    • b. Caveolae
    • c. Flotillin
    • d. Importins
  18. 17. All of the following statements about Renal Regulation in a patient with hypovolemic shock are true, except:
    • a. Renal vasoconstriction
    • b. Reduced Renal plasma flow
    • c. Reduced Glomerular filtration Rate
    • d. Constriction of Afferent arteriotic more than the Efferent arteriole
  19. 18. Which of the following statements about ventilation/perfusion ratio is true:
    • a. Ina complete airway obstruction the ventilation /perforation ratio approaches infinity
    • b. In complete pulmonary embolism the ventilation perfusion ratio approaches Zero
    • c. Ventilation perfusion ratio of Zero indicate dead space
    • d. Ventilation perfusion ratio of infinity indicates no gas exchange
  20. 19. Absorption of Glucose in the intestine is by:
    • a. Primary Active Transport
    • b. Secondary Active transport
    • c. Facilitated diffusion
    • d. Simple diffusion
  21. 20. All of the following are Visual agnosias arising from a defect in the ventral or what pathway except:
    • a. Cerebral Achromatopsia
    • b. Prosopagnosia
    • c. Pure alexia
    • d. Akinetopsia
  22. 21. A right –hand dominant person presents with broca’s Aphasia. This is likely to result from damage to:
    • a. Left inferior frontal gyrus
    • b. Right inferior frontal gyrus
    • c. Left superior temporal gyrus
    • d. Right superior temporal gyrus
  23. 22. The prime driving force for counter current multiplier system is:
    • a. Medullary hypoosmolarity
    • b. Reabsorption of Na+ in thick ascending limb
    • c. Action of ADH via aquaporin channels
    • d. Urea recycling
  24. 23. In normal kidney’s which of the following is true of the osmolarity of renal tubular fluid that flows through the early distal tubule in the region of the macula densa?
    • a. Usually isotonic compared with plasma
    • b. Usually hypotonic compared with plasma
    • c. Usually hypertonic compared with plasma
    • d. Hypertonic, compared with plasma in antidiuresis
  25. 24. All of the following statements about Myasthenia gravis are true, except;
    • a. Anti-ACHR antibodies are the most common antibodies in generalized myasthenia gravis
    • b. The pathogenic Anti-ACHR antibodies are IgG antibodies
    • c. Anti-MUSK antibodies are directed against muscarinic ACH receptors
    • d. The major defect is a decrease in the number of available ACH receptors
  26. 25. Thyroid hormone receptors bind to DNA as a hetrodimer with:
    • a. Prolactin receptor
    • b. Growth hormone receptor
    • c. Retinoid X receptor
    • d. Insulin receptor
  27. 26. All of the following statements about brown sequard syndrome are true, except:
    • a. Ipsilateral loss of power
    • b. Contralateral loss of proprioception
    • c. Ipsilaterla loss of fine touch
    • d. Contralateral loss of pain
  28. 27. Liddle syndrome is caused by a genetic defect in:
    • a. Na-K-2C1 co-transporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
    • b. Na –C1 contransporter in the distal tubule
    • c. ENACsodium channel in collecting duct/tubule
    • d. The aquaporin 2(AQP) channel in collecting duct
  29. 28. The functional Residual capacity is best defined as the sum of:
    • a. Tidal volume and inspiratory Reserve volume
    • b. Residual volume and Expiratory reserve volume
    • c. Residual volume and inspiratory reserve volume
    • d. Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume and Expiratory reserve volume
  30. 29. All of the following are excreted in cystinuria except:
    • a. Arginine
    • b. Leucine
    • c. Ornithine
    • d. Cystine
  31. 30. Which of the following residues contributes to the negative charge on Fibrinopeptidine A and B:
    • a. Leucine and Lysine
    • b. Lysine and Histidine
    • c. Aspartate and glutamine
    • d. Serine and threonine
  32. 31. Following is a disorder of X linked inheritance :
    • a. Sickle cell anemia
    • b. Galactosemia
    • c. Thalasemia
    • d. Colour Blindness
  33. 32. All of the following statements about fatty acid synthesis are true, except:
    • a. Occurs in the cytosol
    • b. Citrate shuttle is required
    • c. Acetyl CoA is the immediate substrate
    • d. Palmitoleic acid is the end product
  34. 33. Increased 5 Hydroxy- Indole-acetic acid in urine is seen in:
    • a. Pheochromocytoma
    • b. Ogilivie syndrome
    • c. Carcinoid syndrome
    • d. Tumor lysis syndrome
  35. 34. Which of the following is true about vitamin K:
    • a. Vitamin K is needed for action of clotting factor VIII
    • b. Vitamin k is required for bone health
    • c. Vitamin K is deficiency leads to DVT
    • d. Vitamin K is a water soluble vitamin
  36. 35. Classic Galactosemia is due to deficiency of;
    • a. Hexosaminidase
    • b. Glucocerbrosides
    • c. Sphingomyelinase
    • d. Galactose I phosphate –Uridyl –Transferase
  37. 36. Lesch Nyhan syndrome is due to deficiency of:
    • a. a. HGPRT deficiency
    • b. PRPP synthetase deficiency
    • c. Adenosine Deaminase deficiency
    • d. Xanthine Oxidase deficiency
  38. 37. Which of the following group of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins?
    • a. Proteases
    • b. Proteosomes
    • c. Templates
    • d. Chaperones
  39. 38. Which of the following vitamins has been evaluated for the treatment of Fish odour syndrome:
    • a. Riboflavin
    • b. Thiamine
    • c. Biotin
    • d. Niacin
  40. 39. All of the following amino acids absorb light at 280 nm, except:
    • a. Phenylalanine
    • b. Tyrosine and
    • c. Tryptophan
    • d. Methionine
  41. 40. Which of the following is the most important effector pathway for action of Nitric Oxide:
    • a. Adenylate cyclase pathway
    • b. Phosphatidylinositol pathway
    • c. Guanylate cyclase pathway
    • d. MAP kinase pathway
  42. 41. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes is associated with Tyrosinosis:
    • a. Tyrosine aminotransferase
    • b. 4-Hydroxyphenypyruvate dioxygenase
    • c. Homogentsate oxidase
    • d. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
  43. 42. Urease breath test is used for which organism :
    • a. Haemophilus influenza
    • b. Cmapylobcter jejuni
    • c. Helicobactor pylori
    • d. Ureoplasma urealyticum
  44. 43. All of the following are pyrogenic cytokines except:
    • a. Interleukin 18(IL-18)
    • b. Interleukin 6
    • c. Tumor Necrosis factor
    • d. Interferon α
  45. 44. Burkholderia capacia is intrinsically resistant to:
    • a. Doxycycline
    • b. TMP- SMX
    • c. Polymyxin B
    • d. Meropenem
  46. 45. Temperature used in pasteurization is:
    • a. 72 for 20 min
    • b. 63 for 30 min
    • c. 100 for 10 min
    • d. 94 for 20 min
  47. 46. All of the following statements about sabin-feldman Dye test are true, except:
    • a. Serological test for Toxoplasma
    • b. Uses methylene blue dye
    • c. May remain positive for years
    • d. Bluish staining of trophozoites indicates a positive test
  48. 47. Cutaneous larva migrans is most frequently caused by:
    • a. Ancylostoma braziliense
    • b. Anisakiasis
    • c. Gnathostoma
    • d. Toxocara canis
  49. 48. Which of the following enterovirus species causes acute Haemorrhagic Viral conjunctivitis :
    • a. Enterovirus 68
    • b. Enterovirus 69
    • c. Enterovirus 70
    • d. Enterovirus 71
  50. 49. Mycoplasma are intrinsically resistant to:
    • a. Aminoglycosides
    • b. Macrolides
    • c. Cephalosporins
    • d. Tetracyclines
  51. 50. Tests for mycobacterium tuberculosis on whole blood is:
    • a. Tuberculin test
    • b. IGRA
    • c. geneXpert MTB/RIF test
    • d. BACTEC
  52. 51. Nude mouse is able to accept Xeno- Graft because they lack:
    • a. T cells
    • b. B-cells
    • c. Nk cells
    • d. LAK cells
  53. 52. A patient with fever chills, sweating myalgia and fatigue undergoes a blood smear as depicted in the figure. What is the likely diagnosis:
    • a. Tularaemia
    • b. Babesiosis
    • c. Lyme disease
    • d. Ehrlichosis
  54. 53. Warthin-finkeldey cells are seen in:
    • a. Influenza
    • b. Mumps
    • c. Pneumonia
    • d. Rubeola
  55. 54. Herpes zoster or shingles represents reactivation and replication of Latent infection in:
    • a. Dorsal Root ganglion
    • b. Anterior horn cell
    • c. Peripheral nerve
    • d. Epithelium of skin
  56. 55. Mean transformation time for HIV to AIDS is:
    • a. 7.5 years
    • b. 10 years
    • c. 15 years
    • d. 12 years
  57. 56. Which of the following is included in AIDS defining opportunistic illness?
    • a. Oralcandidiasis (Thrush)
    • b. Invasive carcinoma cervix
    • c. Cyclosporiasis
    • d. Herpes zoster virus
  58. 57. Adult form of Echinococus is found in;
    • a. Dog
    • b. Humans
    • c. Sheep
    • d. Felines
  59. 58. Lack of morphological and functional differentiation is best termed as;
    • a. Metaplasia
    • b. Dysplasia
    • c. Anaplasia
    • d. None of the above
  60. 59. Which of the following play the most important role in pathogenesis of Rheumatoid Arthritis :
    • a. CD4+Tcells
    • b. CD8+T cells
    • c. B cells
    • d. Granulocytes
  61. 60. Which of the following play the most important intestine which occurs in Crohn’s disease:
    • a. Aphthous ulcer
    • b. Longitudinal ulcer
    • c. Cobblestone
    • d. Transverse ulcer
  62. 61. Which of the following are pathological hall mark of alzheimer’s disease:
    • a. Intracellular lewy bodies
    • b. Intracellular pick’s bodies
    • c. Extracellular beta amyloid plaques
    • d. Extracellular neurofibrillary tangles
  63. 62. Lymphohistiocytic variant of reed Sternberg cells are typically seen in which of the followgin variants of Hodgkin’s lymphoma :
    • a. Nodular sclerosis
    • b. Lymphocyte Rich
    • c. Lymphocyte predominant
    • d. Lymphocyte depleted
  64. 63. Non –frame shift mutation of Dystrophin gene causes :
    • a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
    • b. Becker’s muscular dystrophy
    • c. Myotonic dystrophy
    • d. Limb girdle dystrophy
  65. 64. All of the following statements about inheritance of myotonic dystrophy are true, except:
    • a. Type 1 is caused by mutation in DMPK gene
    • b. Type 2 is caused by mutation in CNBP gene
    • c. Type 2 gene is located on chromosome 19
    • d. Type 1 is caused by a CTG trinucleotide repeat expansion
  66. 65. All of the following statements about ataxia telangiectasia are true except:
    • a. Autosomal Recessive disorder
    • b. Selective absence of IgM
    • c. Lymphoreticular malignancy
    • d. Progressive cerebellar ataxia
  67. 66. A 30 year old man presents with a testicular mass. No AFP is detected on serologic testing. An orchiectomy is performed , and the surgical specimen is shown in the image. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    • a. Choriocarcinoma
    • b. Embryonal carcinoma
    • c. Seminoma
    • d. Yolk sac carcinoma
  68. 67. A neonate presents with a well-demarcated lesion resembling a tumor just below the ear lobe(shown in the image). A biopsy shows numerous proliferating small thin walled blood filled vessels. What is the appropriate diagnosis?
    • a. Capillary Hemangioma
    • b. Cavernous Hemangioma
    • c. Hemangioendothelioma
    • d. Hemangiopericytoma
  69. 68. Hysterectomy specimen form a 38 year old woman shows the following gross appearance . the most likely diagnosis is:
    • a. Endometrial carcinoma
    • b. Leiomyoma uterus
    • c. Leiomyosarcoma
    • d. Mixed mullerian tumor
  70. 69. Fundoscopy of an HIV infected patient shows pizza pie appearance .an upper GI endoscopy biopsy specimen of the same patient for dysphagia shows the following . what is the likely diagnosis?
    • a. Candidiasis
    • b. Herpes
    • c. CMV
    • d. Eosinophilic esophagitis
  71. 70. A patient underwent lung transplantation. The gross image of the resected lung is shown here. What is the likely diagnosis:
    • a. Bronchiectasis
    • b. Military tuberculosis
    • c. Lung carcinoma
    • d. Interstitial lung disease
  72. 71. Histopathology picture from a lymph node biopsy from a patient with lymphadenitis is shown. the differential diagnosis includes all of the following except:
    • a. Cat scratch disease
    • b. Lymphogranuloma venerum
    • c. Tularaemia
    • d. Sarcoidosis
  73. 72. A 45 year old man presents with swelling in the anterior portion of his neck. Physical examination reveals an enlarged thyorid. Thyroid function tests are within normal limits. CT image and biopsy findings are below: the most likely diagnosis is:
    • a. Papillary carcinoma
    • b. Follicular carcinoma
    • c. Medullary carcinoma
    • d. Hashmoto’s thyroiditis
  74. 73. Most common site for extra- mammary paget’s disease is:
    • a. Uterus
    • b. Vulva
    • c. Vagina
    • d. Ovary
  75. 74. Which of the following statements about transplant Rejection is false:
    • a. Hyperacute Rejection is uncommon
    • b. Liver is extremely sensitive to Hyperacute rejection
    • c. Chronic rejection invariably leads to loss of the graft
    • d. Acute rejection is readily reversible with appropriate treatment
  76. 75. Which of the following associated with PAS positive macrophages:
    • a. Whipple’s disease
    • b. Tropical sprue
    • c. Celiac sprue
    • d. Crohn’s disease
  77. 76. Which of the following haematologicla conditions on giemsa stain is depicted in the figure :
    • a. Multiple myeloma
    • b. Megaloblastic anemia
    • c. Chronic myeloid leukemia
    • d. Metastasis
  78. 77. All of the following are opsonins, except:
    • a. IgG
    • b. C3b
    • c. LTB4
    • d. Mannose binding lectin
  79. 78. Colonoscopy performed on a 25 year old woman with chronic laxative use revealed dark brown or black pigmentary deposits in the colon . histopathology from the lesion revealed lipofuscin laden macrophages. Which of the following laxatives is the most likely cause for the patient’s condition:
    • a. Castor Oil
    • b. Bisacodyl
    • c. Lactulose
    • d. Senna
  80. 79. All of the following antifungal agents act by altering cell membrane permeability except:
    • a. Fluconazole
    • b. Amphotericin –B
    • c. Terbinafine
    • d. Griseogulvin
  81. 80. Triad of plummer Vinson syndrome includes all of the following except:
    • a. Iron deficiency anemia
    • b. Dysphagia
    • c. Atrophic glossitis
    • d. Koionychia
  82. 81. Maximum rise in prolactin levels is seen with:
    • a. Clozapine
    • b. Olanzapine
    • c. Ziprasidone
    • d. Risperidone
  83. 82. Which of the following is recommended as a dual-active drug targeting both HBV and HIV:
    • a. Entecavir
    • b. Adefovir
    • c. Tenofovir
    • d. Zidovudine
  84. 83. Which of the following statements about tigecycline is false:
    • a. Binds to 50s subunit and inhibits protein synthesis
    • b. Bacteriostatic Glycylcycline
    • c. Dose titration is not required in Renal impairment
    • d. Used for the management of MRSA
  85. 84. Which of the following represents an orally available fixed Beta-lactamase inhibitor and antibiotic combination:
    • a. Ampicillin-sulbactum
    • b. Piperacillin-tazobactam
    • c. Amoxicillin –clavulanic acid
    • d. Ticarcillin –clavulanic acid
  86. 85. Anti-CD25 Humanized monoclonal antibody used for immunosuppresssion in organ transplant patients is:
    • a. Basiliximab
    • b. Rituximab
    • c. Alemtuzumab
    • d. Muromonab
  87. 86. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Colchicine in acute Gout :
    • a. Inhibition of chemotactic factors
    • b. Tubulin binding and inhibition of leukocyte migration
    • c. Enhanced metabolism of Urate crystals
    • d. Enhanced excretion of Uric Acid
  88. 87. A drug that binds to a receptor at a site distinct from the active site and reduces the affinity of the receptor for the endogenous ligand is a :
    • a. Competitive antagonist
    • b. Partial agonist
    • c. Inverse agonist
    • d. Allosteric antagonist
  89. 88. A drug that binds to the receptor at the same site as the agonist and produces an intrinsic effect opposite to the agonist is termed as:
    • a. Partial agonist
    • b. Inverse agonist
    • c. Competitive antagonist
    • d. Non-competitive antagonist
  90. 89. Which of the following anticoagulants does not require routine laboratory coagulant profile monitoring :
    • a. Warfarin
    • b. Dabigatran
    • c. Argatroban
    • d. Heparin
  91. 90. Which of the following antihypertensive is Not used in the management of pregnancy induced hypertension in the first trimester:
    • a. Hydralazine
    • b. Atenolol
    • c. Labetalol
    • d. Nifedipine
  92. 91. Testing of HLA-B57:01 is recommended prior to the initiation of which of the following anti-retroviral agents:
    • a. Atazanavir
    • b. Nelfinavir
    • c. Raltegravir
    • d. Abacavir
  93. 92. Which of the following antiplatelet drugs is a P2Y12 receptor blocker not affected by CYP2C19 polymorphism :
    • a. Clopidogrel
    • b. Prasugrel
    • c. Eptifibatide
    • d. Dipyridamole
  94. 93. Which of the following is a Thrombin Receptor anatagonist;
    • a. Vorapaxar
    • b. Ticagrelor
    • c. Tirofiban
    • d. Terutroban
  95. 94. Which of the following best describes the drug phenomenon at pKa=pH
    • a. Drug exists as 50% ionized and 50% unionized
    • b. Drug exists as 25% ionized and 75% unionized
    • c. Drug exists as 75% ionized and 25% unionized
    • d. Drug is completely (100%) ionized
  96. 95. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of d- Tubocurarine:
    • a. Competitive non-depolarizing block at Nm cholinergic receptors
    • b. Competitive depolarizing block at Nm cholinergic receptor
    • c. Non-competitive non-depolarizing block at Nm cholinergic receptor
    • d. Non competitive, depolarizing block at Nm cholinergic receptors
  97. 96. Which of the following is a Neprilysin inhibitor :
    • a. Carperitide
    • b. Neseritide
    • c. Sacubitril
    • d. Ularitide
  98. 97. Use of phosphodiesterase inhibitors for Erectile dysfunction is contraindicated in:
    • a. Pulmonary arterial hypertension
    • b. Unstable symptomatic angina
    • c. Previous MI>6 weeks ago
    • d. CHF(NYHA class-1)
  99. 98. Aldosterone secretion is stimulated by which of the following :
    • a. Hyperkalemia
    • b. Dopamine
    • c. Somatostatin
    • d. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
  100. 99. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of Fluconazole:
    • a. inhibits Lanosterol 14 demetylase
    • b. inhibits squalene epoxidase
    • c. inhibits synthesis of β-1, 3 glucan
    • d. forms pores in fungal cell membrane
  101. 100. the most serious drug interaction with Tadalafil occurs with:
    • a. nitrates
    • b. alpha-blockers
    • c. ketoconazole
    • d. rifampicin
  102. 101. which of the following inhibitors of protein synthesis is primary bactericidal;
    • a. aminoglycosides
    • b. cephalosporins
    • c. tetracyclines
    • d. chloramphenicol
  103. 102. all of the following are Glucocorticoid synthesis inhibitors except:
    • a. metyrapone
    • b. mifepristone
    • c. etomidate
    • d. ketoconazole
  104. 103. apixaban is classified as;
    • a. parenteral direct thrombin inhibitor
    • b. oral direct thrombin inhibitor
    • c. oral factor xa inhibitor
    • d. parenteral factor Xa inhibitor
  105. 104. basiliximab is an:
    • a. IL-1 receptor antagonist
    • b. IL-2 receptor antagonist
    • c. Anti-CD3 antibody
    • d. TNF inhibitor
  106. 105. Which of the following is the most likely indication for the use of pirenzepine :
    • a. Peptic ulcer disease
    • b. Bronchial Asthma
    • c. Motion sickness
    • d. Dysmenorrhea
  107. 106. Consumption of which of the following poison reveals bluish discoloration of stomach during postmortem examination :
    • a. Sodium amytal
    • b. Oxalic acid
    • c. Arsenic
    • d. Soneryl
  108. 107. Which of the following is true about a posthumous child:
    • a. Born after death of father
    • b. Dead born child
    • c. Ficititious child
    • d. Illegitimate child
  109. 108. The smell or odour encountered when performing autopsy on a body that has undergone established adiopocere formation is:
    • a. Foul, repulsive
    • b. Sweet , rancid
    • c. No odour
    • d. Pungent
  110. 109. Multiple pregnancy resulting from fertilization of two ova discharged from ovary at different periods of ovulation is best termed as:
    • a. Superfecundation
    • b. Superfoetation
    • c. Pseudocyesis
    • d. Atavism
  111. 110. Locard’s principle is concerned with :
    • a. Theory of exchange
    • b. Criminal responsibility for insane
    • c. Calculating age of fetus
    • d. Firearm wounds of skull
  112. 111. MC naughten’s Rule is embodied in :
    • a. Sec 84 CrPC
    • b. Sec 84 IPC
    • c. Sec 85 CrPC
    • d. Sec 85 IPC
  113. 112. Saturnine gout is due to:
    • a. Chronic arsenic poisoning
    • b. Chronic lead poisoning
    • c. Chronic mercury poisoning
    • d. Chronic iron poisoning
  114. 113. Which of the following articles in the Indian constitution are concerned with child rights, except :
    • a. Article 21
    • b. Article 39
    • c. Article 42
    • d. Article 45
  115. 114. All of the following articles in the Indian constitution are concerned with child Rights, except:
    • a. Article 21
    • b. Article 39
    • c. Article 42
    • d. Article 45
  116. 115. To achieve a Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) of 1, the couple protection Rate(CPR) should be:
    • a. 60%
    • b. 20%
    • c. 30%
    • d. 40%
  117. 116. Relative risk formula:
    • a. Incidence of disease among non-exposed dividend by incidence of disease among exposed
    • b. Incidence of disease among non –exposed minus incidence of disease among exposed
    • c. Incidence of disease among exposed divided by incidence of disease among non-exposed
    • d. Incidence of disease among exposed minus incidence of disease among non-exposed
  118. 117. 100 women surveyed for use of contraceptive pill for 24 months out of which 10 became pregnant. What is the pearl index:
    • a. 5
    • b. 2
    • c. 10
    • d. 2.4
  119. 118. All of the following vaccine preventable diseases are covered in ‘mission indradhanush’ except:
    • a. Measles vaccine
    • b. BCG vaccination
    • c. Rota virus vaccine
    • d. Hepatitis B vaccine
  120. 119. Which of the following represents a ‘web based programme’ for monitoring tuberculosis:
    • a. NIKSHAY
    • b. NISCHAY
    • c. DOTS
    • d. RNTCP
  121. 120. All of the following statements about Hardness of water are true, except:
    • a. Hardness is soap destroying power of water
    • b. Bicarbonates cause permanent hardness
    • c. Carbonate hardness can be removed boiling
    • d. Hardness is mainly caused by calcium and magnesium salts
  122. 121. Disinfecting action of chlorine in chlorination of water is mainly due to:
    • a. Chloride ion
    • b. Hypochlorite ion
    • c. Hydrochloric acid
    • d. Hydrochloric acid
    • e. Hypochlorous acid
  123. 122. Which of the following statements about employment of young persons under the factories Act 1948 is true :
    • a. Children less than 14 years are prohibited from all work
    • b. No child shall be allowed to work more than 8 hours in a day
    • c. Female child is allowed to work between 6:00A. M to 7:00 PM
    • d. Adolescents allowed to work only from 6:00 AM to midnight
  124. 123. The unit of Ecological study is:
    • a. Population
    • b. Individual
    • c. Control /healthy people
    • d. Patient
  125. 124. Prevalence is calculated by formula:
    • a. Incidence *mean duration *100
    • b. Incidence /men duration *100
    • c. Incidence /mean duration
    • d. Incidence *mean duration
  126. 125. WHO global target for prevention and control of non-communicable diseases is to decrease the prevalence of hypertension by what percentage :
    • a. 10%
    • b. 15%
    • c. 20%
    • d. 25%
  127. 126. WHO Recommended Daily dose of Iodine supplementation for lactating women is:
    • a. 50-100mcg
    • b. 100-200mcg
    • c. 200-300mcg
    • d. 25-50 mcg
  128. 127. Under the RNTCP structure, the most peripheral unit of Tuberculosis is;
    • a. Tuberculosis Unit
    • b. Designated microscopy centre district TB centre
    • c. District TB centre
    • d. Dr-TB centre
  129. 128. The body man index (BMI) Is starvation associated with risk of death in males is:
    • a. 9
    • b. 11
    • c. 13
    • d. 15
  130. 129. Cytotoxic and expired drugs are disposed by which of the following methods:
    • a. Chemical treatment
    • b. Autoclaving
    • c. Secure landfill
    • d. Deep burial
  131. 130. Kala Azar is endemic in all of the following areas, except:
    • a. West Bengal
    • b. Uttar Pradesh
    • c. Bihar
    • d. Assam
  132. 131. One child of a family with 2 adults and 3 children develops measles. Soon another child also develops measles while one child is spared . if both parents are immune to developing measles, what is the secondary attack rate of measles in the family?
    • a. ½
    • b. 1/3
    • c. 1/
    • d. 1/5
  133. 132. All of the following are parametric test except:
    • a. Unpaired t-test
    • b. Paired t test
    • c. Chi-square test
    • d. One way ANOVA
  134. 133. The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of milk except:
    • a. Phosphatase test
    • b. Standard plate count
    • c. Coliform count
    • d. Methylene blue test
  135. 134. All of the following are used as proxy measures for incubation period except
    • a. Latent period
    • b. Period of communicability
    • c. Serial interval
    • d. Generation time
  136. 135. All of the following are official global public health days according to WHO except:
    • a. World TB day
    • b. World blood donor day
    • c. World Rabies day
    • d. World hepatitis day
  137. 136. After applying a statistical test and investigator gets the p value 0.4 means:
    • a. The probability of finding a significant difference is 0.4
    • b. The difference is not significant 60 times and significant 40 times
    • c. The probability of declaring a significant difference, when there Is truly no difference, is 0.4
    • d. The power of the test used is 60%
  138. 137. Flipped LDH indicating myocardial infarction is represented by:
    • a. LDH-1>LDH-2
    • b. LDH-2>LDH-1
    • c. LDH-4>LDH-5
    • d. LDH-5>LDH-4
  139. 138. Pseudo-P-pulmonale is typically seen in:
    • a. Hypokalemia
    • b. Hyponatremia
    • c. Hypocalcemia
    • d. Hypercalcemia
  140. 138b. which of the following represents the earliest ECG change in a patient with Hypokalemia:
    • a. Pseudo –p-pulmonale
    • b. Flattening of T wave
    • c. Development of U wave
    • d. Fusion of TU waves
  141. 139. All of the following are associated with Atrioventricular block, except:
    • a. Hyperkalemia
    • b. Hypermagnesemia
    • c. Hypothyroidism
    • d. Cushing’s syndrome
  142. 140. Alternative drug for cardiac arrest in place of epinephrine that has been removed from the AHA/ ACLS Cardiac Arrest Algorithm :
    • a. Amiodarone
    • b. Atropine
    • c. Vasopressin
    • d. Adenosine
  143. 141. Which of the following arrhythmias is most frequent in Holiday heart syndrome :
    • a. Atrial flutter
    • b. Atrial fibrillation
    • c. Ventricular premature Depolarization
    • d. Ventricular tachycardia
  144. 142. All of the following are true about right ventricular infarcts except:
    • a. Nocturia
    • b. Hepatomegaly
    • c. Ascites
    • d. Orthopnea
  145. 143. ‘C’ waves in Jugular venous pulse (JVP) waveform is due to:
    • a. Atrial contraction
    • b. Tricuspid bulging
    • c. Systolic filing of atrium
    • d. Atrial Relaxation
  146. 144. Reversible Myocardial stunning with ECG changes of Acute myocardial infarction is seen in:
    • a. Tako-tsubo cardiomyopathy
    • b. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
    • c. Bridge’s cardiomyopathy
    • d. Pericardial tamponade
  147. 145. All of the following are selective indications for the use of Hypotonic solutions except:
    • a. Dehydration secondary to diuretic therapy
    • b. Diabetic ketoacidosis
    • c. Hyperosmolar, hyperglycaemic non-ketotic syndrome
    • d. Burns
  148. 146. All of the following are Light’s criteria for exudative pleural effusion:
    • a. Pleural fluid protein to serum protein>0.5
    • b. Pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH>0.6
    • c. Pleural fluid LDH is >2/3 times the normal upper limit for serum
    • d. Pleural fluid ADA to serum ADA<16
  149. 147. All of the following are true about Factor V leiden mutation except:
    • a. Lifelong increased Risk of DVT
    • b. Arginine to Glutamine substitution at position 506
    • c. Results in Activation of protein C
    • d. Most common inherited cause of thrombophilia
  150. 148. Which of the following is the gold standard test to identity PNH:
    • a. Flow cytometry
    • b. Acidified Ham test
    • c. Sucrose Lysis test
    • d. Bone marrow biopsy
  151. 149. All of the following statements about bernardvsoulier syndrome are true, except:
    • a. Inherited defect in platelet Adhesion
    • b. Ristocetin induced platelet aggregation is normal
    • c. Large platelets
    • d. Deficiency /dysfunction of GIb/Ix receptor
  152. 150. All of the following statements about hemophilia are true, except:
    • a. X-linked Recessive inheritance
    • b. Recurrent Hamarthrosis is the most common manifestation of Hemophilia A
    • c. Present with isolated prolongation of the a-PTT assay
    • d. Desmopressin (DDAVP) may be used in mild hemophilia B
Author
adarsha
ID
356238
Card Set
Mudit 2018
Description
mudit 2018
Updated