Mudit 2016

  1. 1. All of the following structures pass through the inguinal canal in females, except:
    • a. Ilioinguinal nerve
    • b. Round ligament of uterus
    • c. Lymphatics from the uterus
    • d. Inferior Epigastric artery
  2. 2. Which of the following statements about valves of Houston’s is true:
    • a. The middle valve corresponds to the middle convex fold to the right
    • b. The upper valve corresponds to peritoneal reflections
    • c. The valves contain all three layers of muscle wall
    • d. Valves disappear after mobilization of Rectum
  3. 3. Predominant blood supply to the supraduodenal bile duct is derived from:
    • a. Vessels that run upward along the bile duct from the duodenal end of the duct such as the retroduodenal and the gastroduodenal arteries
    • b. Vessels that run downward along the bile duct from the hepatic end of the duct such as the right hepatic artery
    • c. Vessels that arise from the hepatic artery proper as it runs up along the common bile duct and supplies it with twigs in a non- axial distribution
    • d. Vessels that arise from the cystic artery
  4. 4. All of the following structures cross the Right Ureter Anteriorly , except:
    • a. Terminal ileum
    • b. Vas deferens
    • c. Genitofemoral nerve
    • d. Right colic and ileo vessels
  5. 5. Little finger of hand corresponds to which of the following dermatomes:
    • a. C6
    • b. C7
    • c. C8
    • d. T1
  6. 6. All of the following statements regarding the spinal cord are true, except:
    • a. Central canal lies in the white matter
    • b. Efferents leave from the anterior horn
    • c. Spinal cord ends at the lower border of L1 in adults
    • d. Denticulate ligaments suspend spinal medulla in the subarachnoid space
  7. 7. Which of the following does not give sensory supply to the point :
    • a. Auricotemporal nerve
    • b. Great auricular nerve
    • c. Lesser occipital nerve
    • d. Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve
  8. 8. Dilator papillae iridis supplied by:
    • a. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers from Edinger Westphal nucleus
    • b. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers from ciliary ganglion
    • c. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers from superior cervical ganglion
    • d. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers in the frontotemporal branch of CN V
  9. 9. Whitnall’s ligament refers to:
    • a. Superior oblique tendon
    • b. Superior transverse ligament of the eye
    • c. Suspensory ligament of lens
    • d. None of the above
  10. 10. All of the following muscles are derived from pharyngeal Arches except:
    • a. Tensor Tympani
    • b. Levator palpebrae superioris
    • c. Palatine tensor
    • d. Orbicularis oculi
  11. 11. All of the following are derived from pharyngeal arches except:
    • a. Tensor tympani
    • b. Palatine tonsils
    • c. Mylohyoid
    • d. Tensor veli palatine
  12. 12. Muscle which contributes to two triangles in the back is:
    • a. Trapezius
    • b. Latissimus Dorsi
    • c. Splenius capitis
    • d. Serratus anterior
  13. 13. Which of the following is the remnant of mesonephric tubules in males:
    • a. Appendix o Epidydmis
    • b. Paradydimis
    • c. Ductus deferens
    • d. Seminal vesicle
  14. 14. Liagamentum teres is a remnant of :
    • a. Umbilical vein
    • b. Umbilical artery
    • c. Ductus venosus
    • d. Ductus arteriosus
  15. 15. All of the following are derivative from embryonic cartilage of the first pharyngeal arch, except:
    • a. Malleus
    • b. Incus
    • c. Mandible
    • d. Sphenomandibular ligament
  16. 16. Which of the following statements about sarcomere arrangements a true;
    • a. Z line is present in the middle of the I band
    • b. I band represents the full length of the Thin filament
    • c. A band represents the full length of the Thin filament
    • d. M line is resent in the middle of the I band
  17. 17. Which of the following statements about nerve fibers is true :
    • a. A fibers are more susceptible to hypoxia than B fibers
    • b. A fibers are more sensitive to pressure then C fibers
    • c. C fibers are more sensitive to pressure than A
    • d. C fibers are more sensitive to hypoxia than B
  18. 18. Repolarization of nerve action potential is due to :
    • a. Inward sodium current
    • b. Inward potassium current
    • c. Inward potassium current and outward sodium current
    • d. Outward potassium current and inward sodium current
  19. 19. Rapidly adapting capsulated receptors for low frequency vibration in non- hairy skin are :
    • a. Meissner’s corpuscles
    • b. Pacinian corpuscles
    • c. Merkel’s disks
    • d. Ruffini’s endings
  20. 20. Most blood enters the ventricle during which of the following phases of the cardiac cycle:
    • a. Atrial systole
    • b. Atrial diastole
    • c. Ventricular systole
    • d. Isovolumic contraction
  21. 21. Elasticity of the heart is due to:
    • a. Actin
    • b. Myosin
    • c. Titin
    • d. Dystrophin
  22. 22. All of the following statements about Glomerular filtration are TRUE, except:
    • a. Low molecular weight molecules filter easily
    • b. Negatively charged molecules are filtered readily
    • c. Basement membrane carries a net negative charge
    • d. Myoglobin in filtered more readily than albumin
  23. 23. Which part of the renal tubule in a normal functioning kidney will reabsorb most water in a dehydrated patient with very high levels of ADH :
    • a. proximal tubule
    • b. distal tubule
    • c. cortical collecting tubule
    • d. medullary collecting duct
  24. 24. the most important stimulus for central chemoreceptors is:
    • a. H+ ions in blood
    • b. Increased PCO2 in blood
    • c. Decreased PO2 in blood
    • d. Decreased PO2 CSF
  25. 25. Which of the following best describes incretin ;
    • a. VIP
    • b. CCX
    • c. Gastrin
    • d. GIP
  26. 26. Primary function of Auerbach’s plexuses is ;
    • a. Control of intestinal secretion
    • b. Regulation of epithelial cell function
    • c. Control of motility of digestive tract
    • d. Regulation of gastrointestinal blood flow
  27. 27. All of the following statements about Hunger pangs are true, except:
    • a. Represent intense hunger contractions
    • b. Typically begin 6 to 8 hours after last meal
    • c. May cause pain in the pit of stomach
    • d. Reach greatest intensity in 3-4 day in starvation
  28. 28. Destruction of which of the following centers of the hypothalamus leads to anorexia and starvation ;
    • a. Anterior nuclei
    • b. Ventromedial nuclei
    • c. Supraoptic nuclei
    • d. Lateral nuclei
  29. 29. Which among the following causes an increase in serum Hepcidin :
    • a. Decreased iron stores
    • b. Increased erythropoietic activity
    • c. Inflammation
    • d. Hypoxia
  30. 30. Difficulty when attempting to see near objects may result from inability of contrast which of the following :
    • a. Ciliary body
    • b. Lens zonules
    • c. Iris
    • d. Pupils
  31. 31. An immunoglobulin molecule represents the following level of organized protein structure:
    • a. Primary structure
    • b. Secondary structure
    • c. Tertiary structure
    • d. Quartenary structure
  32. 32. All of the following metabolic functions occur in the mitochondria, except:
    • a. Beta-oxidation of fatty acids
    • b. Biosynthesis of fatty acids
    • c. Protein synthesis
    • d. Citric acid cycle
  33. 33. Which of the following events does not occur when concentration of glucose in the river decreases:
    • a. Inactivation of phosphosphofruckinase -2 (PFK-2)
    • b. Activation of fructose Bisphosphatase -2 (fructose 2, 6 Bisphosphatase)
    • c. Increased levels of fructose 2, 6 –Bisphosphate
    • d. Increased levels of Glucagon
  34. 34. All of the following metabolic changes occur during prolonged fasting when compared with fasting for 12-24 hours, except:
    • a. Brain use of ketone bodies increases
    • b. Liver gluconeogenesis increases
    • c. Muscle protein degradation decreases
    • d. Brain use of glucose decreases
  35. 34b. which of the following metabolic events will not occur following 12-24 hour of fasting:
    • a. Increase in Free Fatty Acids
    • b. Increase in Ketone bodies
    • c. Decrease in Glycogen
    • d. Decrease in Serum proteins
  36. 35. Which of the following enzymes is common to the synthesis of cholesterol and ketone bodies;
    • a. HMG-C0-A reductase
    • b. HMG-Co-A Lyase
    • c. HMG-Co –A synthase
    • d. Thiokinase
  37. 36. Which of the following does not undergo phosphorylation by protein kinases in Eukaryotes:
    • a. Threonine
    • b. Tyrosine
    • c. Serine
    • d. Asparagine
  38. 37. Which of the following aminoacids in a protein commonly acts as a potential O- Glycosylation site for attachment of an liogosacharide unit:
    • a. Glutamine
    • b. Cysteine
    • c. Serine
    • d. Asparginine
  39. 38. Which of the following statements regarding mature cytoplasmic messenger RNA is true:
    • a. Tanscribed from nuclear DNA
    • b. Has thiamine in place of Uracil
    • c. Sugar is DeoxyRibose
    • d. Its molecular weight is more than hn- RNA
  40. 39. Which of the following represents the most charachteristic function of Type II Restriction Enzymes:
    • a. Prevent folding of proteins
    • b. Remove formed DNA
    • c. Prevent supercoiling
    • d. Cut DNA at palindromic sites
  41. 40. Which of the following methods is most suited to assess function of a gene:
    • a. Southern blot
    • b. Northern blot
    • c. Gene knockout animals
    • d. Transgenic animals
  42. 41. All of the following assays are used for estimation of total serum protein except:
    • a. Biuret
    • b. Bradford
    • c. Lowry’s
    • d. Bromcresol green
  43. 42. A protein solution on heating forms a precipitate at about 40 c which redissolves at higher temperature .this solution is likely to contain :
    • a. Bence jones protein
    • b. Cryoglonulins
    • c. Complement
    • d. Alpha-2-macroglobulin
  44. 43. Keratin in skin is softer than keratin in nail because keratin in skin has:
    • a. Less number of disulphate bonds
    • b. Less number of salt bridges
    • c. High sodium content
    • d. Different affinity for water
  45. 44. Which of the following is not a phase I reaction :
    • a. Oxidation
    • b. Reduction
    • c. Hydrolysis
    • d. Conjugation
  46. 45. A 12 year old child presents with mental retardation and history of self multilation. Which of the following tests will help in determing the diagnosis:
    • A. Serum lead levels
    • B. Serum alkaline phosphate levels
    • C. Serum lactate Dehydrogenase levels
    • D. Serum Uric Acid Levels
  47. 46. All of the following Leukotriencs are vasoconstrictors except:
    • A. Leukotriene B4
    • B. Leukotriene C4
    • C. Leukotriene D4
    • D. Leukotriene E4
  48. 47. Cytokine responsible for activating macrophage and converting to gaint cell is:
    • A. IL2
    • B. IL17
    • C. TNF alpha
    • D. IFN gamma
  49. 48. Inclusion bodies seen in Alzheimer’s Disease:
    • A. Buschino bodies
    • B. Lewy bodies
    • C. Hirano bodies
    • D. Lafora bodies
  50. 49. Deletion of one alpha globin gene on one chromosome is best defined as:
    • A. Hb Barts
    • B. Alpha thalassemia major
    • C. Alpha thalassemia trait
    • D. Alpha thalassemia silent carrier
  51. 50. Heavy chain disease with kappa light chins in urine :
    • A. Mu chain disease
    • B. Seligman disease
    • C. Franklin disease
    • D. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
  52. 51. Alder-reilley bodies are seen in :
    • A. Mucopolysacharidosis
    • B. Langerhans histiocytosis
    • C. Alport’s syndrome
    • D. Chediak- higashi syndrome
  53. 52. Dominantly inherited condition with large platelets and Dohle bodies in Neutrophils:
    • A. Alder reiley anomaly
    • B. Pelger huet anomaly
    • C. May hegglin anomaly
    • D. Chediak higashi syndrome
  54. 53. Transformation of CLL/SLL into DLBCL is called:
    • A. Richter syndrome
    • B. Evans syndrome
    • C. Li fraumeni syndrome
    • D. Kostmann syndrome
  55. 54. Needle shaped empty space on the histopathological slide of an atheromatous plaque represents ;
    • A. Cholesterol cleft
    • B. Foam cells
    • C. Smooth muscle cells
    • D. Glycogen
  56. 55. All of the following statements about anitschkow cells are true, except:
    • A. Modified cardiac histiocytes
    • B. Catterpiller appearances on longitudinal section
    • C. Owl’s eye appearance on transverse section
    • D. Pathognomonic of RHeumatic heart disease
  57. 56. Which of the following regions of the liver is most sensitive to ischemic injury?
    • A. Periportal
    • B. Midzonal
    • C. Centrilobular
    • D. Perihepatic
  58. 57. Snover’s triad in acute cellular rejection of Liver transplantation includes all of the following except:
    • A. Portal inflammation
    • B. Endothelialitis
    • C. Cholangitis
    • D. Periportal fibrosis
  59. 58. Alzheimer type II astrocyte are not seen in:
    • A. Hepatic encephalopathy
    • B. Alzheimer’s disease
    • C. Wilson’s disease
    • D. Urea cycle disorders
  60. 59. Zellbalen pattern is seen in all of the following except:
    • A. Pheochromocytoma
    • B. Carotid body tumor
    • C. glomusJugulare
    • D. accoustic neuroma
  61. 60. which of the following is the preferred site of initial biopsy to confirm systemic amyloidosis?
    • A. Gingiva
    • B. Kidney
    • C. Rectal mucosa
    • D. Abdominal fat
  62. 61. Shock lung is characterized by which of the following ?
    • A. Alveolar proteinosis
    • B. Bronchiolitis obliterans
    • C. Diffuse alveolar damage
    • D. Diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage
  63. 62. What is the characteristic histological finding of chronic radiation pneumonitis:
    • A. Foam cells in vessel wall
    • B. Fibroblasts in lumen
    • C. Epithelial cell hyperplasia
    • D. Presence of giant cell in vessel wall
  64. 63. Michaellis gutmann bodies are seen in:
    • A. Malakoplakia
    • B. Zantohgranulomatous cystitis
    • C. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
    • D. Tuberculosis
  65. 64. The term ragged red fibers is applied to describe the skeletal muscle fibers in:
    • A. Myotonic dystrophy
    • B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
    • C. Amyotrophic latral sclerosis
    • D. Mitochondrial myopathy
  66. 65. Langerhans cell histiocytosis is characterized by presence of:
    • A. S-100 negativity
    • B. CD-21 positivity
    • C. Basophilic cytoplasm
    • D. Linear grooves in the nuclei
  67. 66. Rokitansky protuberance is associated with which of the following condition?
    • A. Teratoma
    • B. Sex cord stromal tumors
    • C. Dysgerminoma
    • D. Yolk sac tumor
  68. 67. Which of the following is diagnostic of mixed connective tissue disease?
    • A. Anti-nuclear antibody
    • B. SCL-70 antibody
    • C. UI –RNP antibody
    • D. Anti- CCP antibody
  69. 68. Keartoderma Blennorrhagica is typically seen in:
    • A. Rheumatoid arthritis
    • B. Psoriatic arthritis
    • C. Reactive arthritis
    • D. Ankylosing spondylitis
  70. 69. Lupus pernio is seen in:
    • A. Tuberculosis
    • B. SLE
    • C. PAN
    • D. Sarcoidosis
  71. 70. The highest level of acid phosphatase in serum in found in carcinoma of which organ?
    • A. Liver
    • B. Bone
    • C. Prostate
    • D. Thyroid gland
  72. 71. Which of the following is most resistant to antiseptics;
    • A. Spore
    • B. Prion
    • C. Cyst
    • D. Fungus
  73. 72. A five year old child presents with pustular lesions on the lower legs. The culture from the lesion showed hemolytic gram positive coccii. Provisional diagnosis of Group A streptococcal pyoderma can be done by:
    • A. Catalase positivity
    • B. Optochicin sensitivity
    • C. Bile solubility
    • D. Bacitracin sensitivity
  74. 73. Endotoxin of which gram negative bacteria have no part in pathogenesis of disease:
    • A. E. coli
    • B. Klebsiella
    • C. Vibrio cholera
    • D. Pseudomonas Aerogenosa
  75. 74. Cholera toxin effects are mediated by stimulation of which of the following second messengers?
    • A. CAMP
    • B. CGMP
    • C. Ca++ - calmodulin
    • D. IP3/DAG
  76. 75. Which of following Vibrios is most commonly associated with ear infections :
    • A. V. Alginolyticus
    • B. V. parahemolyticus
    • C. V. vulnifcus
    • D. Vibrio fluvialis
  77. 76. Infective dose of salmonella typhi is:
    • A. One bacillus
    • B. 1 to 10 bacilli
    • C. 102 to 105 bacilli
    • D. 108 to 1010 bacilli
  78. 77. A characteristic a characteristic infection of Nocardia Asteroides is:
    • A. Diarrhea
    • B. Secondary dissemination to liver
    • C. Brain abscess
    • D. Colonic diverticulosis
  79. 78. Gram stained periorbital exudates in severe panophthalmitis with cellulitis in an elderly diabetic shows irregular branching aseptate and broad hyphae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
    • A. Candida
    • B. Aspergillus
    • C. Pencillium
    • D. D. Apophysomyces sp
  80. 79. A former from the sub- Himalayan region presents with multiple leg ulcers. The most likely causative agent is:
    • A. Trichophyton rubrum
    • B. Cladosporium species
    • C. Sporothrix schenkii
    • D. Aspergillus
  81. 80. Which of the following feature is not shared between T cells and B cells
    • A. Positive selection during development
    • B. Class I MHC expression
    • C. Antigen specific receptors
    • D. All of the above
  82. 81. Epstein Barr virus causes autoimmunity by :
    • A. Molecular mimicry
    • B. Release of sequestrated antigen
    • C. Imappripriate expression of MHC class II molecules
    • D. Polyclonal B cell activation
  83. 82. A child presents with recurrent episodes of sinopulmonary infection by bacteria with polysaccharide rich capsules. Dificiency Which of the following immunoglobulin subclasses should be specifically investigated;
    • A. IgA
    • B. IgG1
    • C. IgG2
    • D. IgA+ IgG2
  84. 83. With reference to antibiotic resistance all of the following statements are true, except:
    • A. Most common mechanism is production of neutralizing enzymes by bacteria
    • B. Plasmid mediated resistance is exclusively transmitted vertically
    • C. Complete elimination of target binding site may be the mechanism of resistance in some enterococci against vancomycin
    • D. Alteration of target binding site leads to development of resistance to antibiotics in streptococcus pneumonia
  85. 84. Vaccination is based on the principle of:
    • A. Agglutination
    • B. Phagocytosis
    • C. Immunologic memory
    • D. Clonal detection
  86. 85. Which of the following statements regarding gamma-release assays for diagnosis of tuberculosis is true:
    • A. First generation quantiFERON -TB assay used ESAT -6
    • B. Second generation quantiFERON –TB (GOLD) assay used ESAT -6 and CPF-10
    • C. These tests can distinguish between M. tuberculosis and M. bovis
    • D. None of the non-tuberculosis mycobacteria give a positive reaction with the test
  87. 86. All of the following are Heterophile Agglutination tests, except:
    • A. Paul- Bunnel test
    • B. Weil-Felix
    • C. Rose-Waller test
    • D. Cold agglutination test
  88. 87. Standard agar recommended for susceptibility tests using antibiotic sensitivity disks:
    • A. Mueller Hinton Agar
    • B. PLET agar
    • C. Castenada Agar
    • D. Cetrimide Agar
  89. 88. Bile esculine Agar is used for identification of:
    • A. Streptococci pyogenes
    • B. Enterococcus faecalis
    • C. Staphylcossus pyogenes
    • D. Pneumococcus
  90. 89. Which of the following statements about Orphan Drugs is true:
    • A. Includes drugs for Rare diseases only
    • B. Includes drugs for some common diseases in developing countries
    • C. Includes profitable drugs only
    • D. Includes drugs with no adverse effects
  91. 89b. which of the following is true about orphan receptors:
    • A. Receptors for orphan drugs
    • B. Receptors for which there is no endogenous mediator or ligand
    • C. Receptors which cause adverse effects only
    • D. Receptors which bind specific drugs but no pharacological response is elicited
  92. 90. Bioavailability of an orally administered drug is best defined as;
    • A. AUC intravenous *100 /AUC oral
    • B. AUC oral*100/AUC intravenous
    • C. AUC oral *100/Time
    • D. AUC intravenous *100/Time
  93. 91. Logarithmic graded dose Response Curve is :
    • A. Hyperbola
    • B. Parabola
    • C. Sigmoid
    • D. Gaussian
  94. 92. chose the correct Agonist-Antagonist match amongst the following adrenergic drugs:
    • a. phenylephrine –yohimbine
    • b. dobutamine –butoxamaine
    • c. clonidine –yohimbine
    • d. salbutamol-atenolol
  95. 93. following is the effect of adrenaline when administered after alpha-receptors blockade:
    • a. rise in blood pressure
    • b. fall in blood pressure
    • c. rise followed by fall in blood pressure
    • d. fall followed by rise in blood pressure
  96. 94. all of the following are side effects of nitrates except:
    • a. orthostatic hypotension
    • b. tachycardia
    • c. GI disturbance
    • d. Tachyphylaxis
  97. 95. Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism of action of Levosimenden :
    • a. Potassium channel opener
    • b. Calcium sensitizer
    • c. Selective myosin activator
    • d. Na+ /K+- ATPase inhibitor
  98. 96. Cholesteryl ester transfer protein (CETP) inhibitor for treatment of Dyslipidemia:
    • a. Lomitapide
    • b. Torcetrapib
    • c. Mipomersen
    • d. Evolocumab
  99. 97. First line drugs for the management of hypertension in patients with no other comorbidities include all of the following except:
    • a. ACE inhibitor
    • b. Beta blocker
    • c. Calcium channel blocker
    • d. Diuretics
  100. 98. Which of the following drugs when combined with thiazide diuretics is least effective in further reducing blood pressure:
    • a. Ace inhibitor
    • b. ARB
    • c. Beta blocker
    • d. Calcium channel clockers
  101. 99. Peakless insulin is;
    • a. Insulin Glargine
    • b. Regular insulin
    • c. NPH insulin
    • d. Insulin Glusiline
  102. 100. All of the following statements about pethidine/meperidine are true except:
    • a. Has significant Antimuscaranic effects
    • b. Has pronounced antitussive action
    • c. Seizures are not reversed by Nalaxone
  103. 101. Pill induced Esophagitis is most commonly associated with:
    • a. Doxycycline
    • b. Ciprofloxacin
    • c. Azithromycin
    • d. Sulphonamides
  104. 102. Which of the following carbapenems is not recommended for treatment for nosocomial infections:
    • a. Ertapenem
    • b. Imipenem
    • c. Meropenem
    • d. Doripenem
  105. 102b. ertapenem is not effective against:
    • a. Kleibsella
    • b. Pseudomonas
    • c. E. coli
    • d. Proteus
  106. 103. Aminoglycoside with more cochlear toxicity than vestibular toxicity is:
    • a. Streptomycin
    • b. Tobramycin
    • c. Kanamycin
    • d. Sisomicin
  107. 104. Gramicidin S is a :
    • a. Tropeptide
    • b. Dipeptide
    • c. Cyclic pentapeptide
    • d. Cyclic decapeptide
  108. 105. Which of the following anti-tubercular drugs has the highest sterilizing action:
    • a. Isoniazid
    • b. Rifampicin
    • c. Ethampicin
    • d. Cycloserine
  109. 105b. which of the following antitubercular drugs has highest ability to prevent emergence of Resistance to isoniazid :
    • a. Rifampicin
    • b. Ethambutol
    • c. Streptomycin
    • d. Pyrizinamide
  110. 106. Treatment of choice of Tuberculosis in pregnancy:
    • a. HRE 2 months and HR 7 months
    • b. HRZE 2 months and HR 4 months
    • c. HRZES 3 months and HRE 5 months
    • d. RZE for 9 months
  111. 107. A patient is on the treatment with rifampicin . which of the following agents is not preferred agent in first line HAART regimen for rifampicin based tuberculosis treatment :
    • a. Zidovudine
    • b. Nevirapine
    • c. Lamivudine
    • d. Efavirenz
  112. 108. All of the following statements about oseltamivir are true, except;
    • a. Neuramidinase
    • b. Treatment should be initiated within 48 hours of symptom onset
    • c. Should not be co-administered with the vaccine
    • d. Orally active with a bioavailability of >60 percent
  113. 109. Anteroposterior diameter of skull is minimum in:
    • a. Dolicocephaly
    • b. Mesaticephaly
    • c. Brachycephaly
    • d. Trigonocephaly
  114. 110. Which of the following methods is used for demonstrating old washed up blood –stains .
    • a. Infrared photography
    • b. Luminal stray
    • c. Ultraviolet light
    • d. Magnify lens
  115. 111. A person X hits another person Y with a wooden stick on provocation. This leads to formation of a bruise 3 cm * 3 cm on the forearm. No other injuries are noted. Which of the following is true, regarding his punishment.
    • a. Imprisonment for one year and /or fine of rs. 1000
    • b. Imprisonment for two years and /or fine of rs. 5000
    • c. Imprisonment for 1 month and /or fine of rs.500
    • d. Rigrous imprisonment for six months
  116. 112. Disclosure of identity of Rape Victim is protected under which of the following sections of IPC:
    • a. Section 298A
    • b. Section 228A
    • c. Section 226A
    • d. Section 225A
  117. 113. Which of the following is used in rape victim to determine of rupture of hymen and whether rupture is recent or old:
    • a. Glaister keene rods
    • b. Gaba Rod
    • c. Gram Rod
    • d. Cylinder Rod
  118. 114. An accused in a case of sodomy Is brought for medical examination . on detailed questioning he reveals that he is an active agent and is a regular participant. Which of the following will not be seen during examination of the accused:
    • a. Presence of smegma
    • b. Foecal smell
    • c. Tear of frenulum
    • d. Relative constriction of shaft of penis
  119. 115. For medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) consent is required from:
    • a. Wife
    • b. Husband
    • c. Both wife and husband
    • d. Either wife or husband
  120. 116. The Japanese detergent suicide technique involves mixing of common household chemical to produce:
    • a. H2 S and other poisonous gases
    • b. Deadly foam
    • c. Deadly acidic compound
    • d. Deadly fluid cyanide compound
  121. 117. Which of the following statements about the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances ACT is true:
    • a. Provides different punishment for drug users and drug peddlers
    • b. Recommends treatment/rehabilitation of drug users and punishment for drug peddlers
    • c. Consumption of excessive alcohol is punishable under the act
    • d. Farmers growing opium are permitted to grow and consume unlimited amounts of opium
  122. 118. Forced diuretics with acidification or alkalinization of urine is a common method for elimination of certain poisons/drugs from the body. The elimination of which of the following drugs is commonly enhanced by alkaline dieresis
    • a. Amphetamines
    • b. Phenobarbitone
    • c. Phencyclidine
    • d. Theophylline
  123. 119. Educating children for promoting healthy lifestyle is:
    • a. Primary prevention
    • b. Secondary prevention
    • c. Tertiary prevention
    • d. Primordial prevention
  124. 120. All of the following statements about case control study are true except:
    • a. It is a prospective study
    • b. It proceeds from effect to cause
    • c. Recall bias is a major problem
    • d. Cost effect
  125. 121. All of the following are selection bias in case control studies except:
    • a. Hawthorne bias
    • b. Berkesonian bias
    • c. Volunteer bias
    • d. Neyman’s bias
  126. 122. All of the following are true about propagated epidemics except:
    • a. Shows successive peaks
    • b. No secondary waves occur
    • c. Person to person transmission occurs
    • d. Spread depends on Herd immunity
  127. 123. A boarding house is inhabited by 100 children out of which 15 are immunized against measles. During an outbreak of measles 10 cases occurred on the first of the month while 35 cases occurred on the eleventh of the month. What is the secondary attack rate of measles
    • a. 35/85*100
    • b. 35/75*100
    • c. 35/100*100
    • d. 45/85*100
  128. 124. Association of two variables explained by a common third factor is known as:
    • a. Spurious association
    • b. Indirect association
    • c. Direct association
    • d. Causal association
  129. 125. Sampling of two variables explained by a common third factor is known as:
    • a. Systemic sampling
    • b. Stratified sampling
    • c. Random sampling
    • d. Cluster sampling
  130. 126. RNTCP defines a pulmonary TB suspect as all of the following except:
    • a. An individual having cough of 2 weeks or more
    • b. Contacts of smear positive TB patients having cough of 2 weeks or more
    • c. Suspected /confirmed extra-pulmonary TB having cough of any duration
    • d. HIV positive patient having cough of any duration
  131. 127. Under the national AIDS control programme all of the following pre-packed kits are available for the management of Genital Ulcer disease, except :
    • a. White
    • b. Blue
    • c. Red
    • d. Green
  132. 128. In National water supply and sanitation programme a problem village Is defined as all except:
    • a. distance of safe water is greater than 1.6 km
    • b. Water is exposed to the risk of cholera
    • c. Water source has excess iron & heavy metals
    • d. Water unfested with Guinea worm
  133. 129. National family Health survey (NFHS) 2015 -2016 represents which of the following National surveys:
    • a. 2nd
    • b. 3rd
    • c. 4th
    • d. 5th
  134. 130. All of the following are dimension for gender Empowerment measures, except:
    • a. Political participation And Decision- making power
    • b. Economic participation and decision making power
    • c. Power over economic resources
    • d. Descent standard of living
  135. 131. UJJAWALA scheme is an initiative to deal with :
    • a. Child marriage
    • b. Child labour
    • c. Child trafficking
    • d. Child abuse
  136. 132. Recommended BMI cut –off for ‘normal’ amongst Indian population is:
    • a. 35
    • b. 30
    • c. 25
    • d. 23
  137. 133. Classification which does not consider height as a parameter:
    • a. Quetelet’s index
    • b. Brocca’s index
    • c. Ponderal index
    • d. Corpulence index
  138. 134. What is definition of blindness as per WHO:
    • a. 6/18
    • b. 6/60
    • c. 3/60
    • d. 1/60
  139. 135. How would you classify the water if the level of Hardness has a value between 5-150 mg/L
    • a. Soft water
    • b. Moderately hard water
    • c. Hard water
    • d. Very hard water
  140. 136. All of the following are true abut anopheles mosquito except?
    • a. Eggs have no floats
    • b. Larvae rest parallel to water surface
    • c. Rudimentary siphon tube
    • d. Spotted wings
  141. 136b. which of the following is known as the tiger mosquito?
    • a. Aedes
    • b. Anopheles
    • c. Culex
    • d. Mansonia
  142. 137. Incineration is a method of sterilization used for :
    • a. Sharp waste
    • b. Human anatomical waste
    • c. Liquid waste
    • d. Chemical waste
  143. 138. Which of the following Is LIVE vaccine:
    • a. Hepatitis B
    • b. Oral cholera
    • c. Nasal HINI
    • d. POLIO (salk)
  144. 139. According to the vaccine Vial Monitor, a Vaccine is usable if:
    • a. Outer circle Dark, inner square Light
    • b. Outer square Dark, inner circle light
    • c. Outer circle light, inner square Dark
    • d. Outer square Dark inner circle light
  145. 140. Quadrivalent vaccine for HPV contains which of the following strains:
    • a. 6, 11, 16, 18
    • b. 6, 11, 28, 31
    • c. 6, 12, 18, 31
    • d. 6, 11, 16, 17
  146. 141. Asymptomatic contacts of cholera patient should be quarantined for a period of:
    • a. 1 days
    • b. 2 days
    • c. 3 days
    • d. 5 days
  147. 142. Which of the following is not related to Durkheim :
    • a. Division of labor in society
    • b. Rules of sociological methods
    • c. Suicide
    • d. Wage Labour and capital
  148. 143. World health day is celebrated on :
    • a. 24th march
    • b. 7th april
    • c. 27th june
    • d. 9th October
  149. 144. Which of the following types of anemia is associated with a Raised MCV and Normal MCHC:
    • a. Sideroblastic anemia
    • b. Vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency
    • c. Beta thalassemia
    • d. Iron deficiency anemia
  150. 145. Which of the following causes of anemia is associated with a Hypoplastic marrow:
    • a. Fanconi’s anemia
    • b. Paroxysmal nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
    • c. Hypersplenism
    • d. Myelofibrosis
  151. 146. Massive splenomegaly is least likely to be associated with which of the following mycloproliferative disorders:
    • a. Chronic myeloid leukemia
    • b. Polycythemia vera
    • c. Essential thrombocytosis
    • d. Primary myeloproliferative
  152. 147. All of the following are associated with secondary Hemochromatosis except:
    • a. Thalassemia major
    • b. Sideroblastic anemia
    • c. Hereditary spherocytosis
    • d. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria
  153. 148. Which of the following is the least common feature of Multiple myeloma:
    • a. Bone pain
    • b. Normocytic normochromic anemia
    • c. Susceptibility to bacterial infection
    • d. Hyperviscosity syndrome
  154. 149. The following is the finding seen in DIVC:
    • a. Increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombin III, increased thrombin –antithrombin III complexes
    • b. Increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III
    • c. Increased FDP prolonged PT decreased thrombin antithrombin complexes
    • d. Increased FDP prolonged PT reduced platerlets
  155. 150. A 25 year old pregnant lady presents with thrombocytopenia (platelet count<50,000) and fragmented RBC’s in peripheral smear, which of the following is the least likely differential diagnosis?
    • a. Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic purpura
    • b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
    • c. HELLP syndrome
    • d. EVAN’s syndrome
  156. 151. Which of the following is the preferred marker for detecting acute STEMI in Atheletes:
    • a. CK- MB
    • b. Troponin T/I
    • c. C-reactive protein
    • d. LDH
  157. 152. All of the following are used in the initial management of acute life threatening cardiogenic pulmonary edema, except:
    • a. Digoxin
    • b. Morphine
    • c. Furosemide
    • d. Positive pressure ventilation
  158. 153. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with infective endocarditis?
    • a. Small ASD
    • b. Small VSD
    • c. Mild MR
    • d. Mild MS
  159. 154. Which of the following drugs has been linked with increased cardiac mortality:
    • a. Rofecoxib
    • b. Metoprolol
    • c. Losartan
    • d. Nicorrandil
  160. 155. A patient presents with sudden onset of breathlessness after a subclavin vein cannulation . on examination breath sounds are absent while the chest is hyper-resonant on percussion on one side. Most likely cause is:
    • a. Latrogenic pneumothorax
    • b. Subclavian vein air embolus
    • c. Malposition of cannula
    • d. Cardiac arrhythmia
  161. 156. All of the following statements about Non small cell carcinoma of Lung (NSCCL) are true, except:
    • a. Contralateral mediastinal nodes are a contraindication to surgical resection
    • b. Single Agent chemotherapy is preferred for patient >70 years with advanced disease
    • c. Squammous cell carcinoma is the most common NSCCL amongst Asian population
    • d. Gefitinib is most effective for female smokers with adenocarcinoma on histology
  162. 157. A 30 year old man presents with generalized edema and hypertension. Urine examination shows subnephrotic proteinuria (>2gm) and microscopic hematuria . serum complement levels are decreased and he is positive for anti- hepatitis C antibodies. The most likely diagnosis is:
    • a. Post streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
    • b. Cryoglobulinemia
    • c. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis
    • d. Focal segmental Glomerular Sclerosis
  163. 157b. a 60 year old woman presents with generalized edema, skin ulceration and hypertension. Urine examination shows subnephrotic proteinuria (<2gm) and microscopic haematuria. Serum complement levels are decreased and she is positive for anti- hepatitis C antibodies. The likely diagnose is:
    • a. Post- streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
    • b. Essential Mixed cryoglobulinemia
    • c. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis
    • d. Focal segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
  164. 158. Which of the statements about Renal Tubular Acidosis type I (type I RTA) is not true:
    • a. Failure to acidify urine to a pH <5
    • b. Associated with increased risk of urinary stones
    • c. Associated with Hyperkalemia
    • d. Treatment involves alkali replacement as bicarbonate
  165. 159. A patient who has been diagnosed with bronchiectasis 5 years ago presents with edema on legs and proteinuria. The most likely findings in his kidney will be:
    • a. Minimal change disease
    • b. Amyloid nephropathy
    • c. Rapidly progressive Glomerulonephritis
    • d. Crescenteric Glomerulonephritis
Card Set
Mudit 2016
mudit 2016